CPT December 2010

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No.1 for CA/ICWA & MEC
MASTER MINDS
Marks: 100 Marks Time: 2 hrs.
CPT December 2010 Question Paper (Based on Memory) 1st session
Part A Accountancy
1. Securities premium will be shown in Balance Sheet under the head of ____ a) Reserves & Surplus b) Miscellaneous exp. c) Loans & advances d) None 2. Which of the following provide frame work and accounting policies so that the financial statements of different enterprises become comparable. a) Business Standards b) Accounting Standards c) Market Standards d) None 3. Which of the following factor is not considered while selecting accounting policies? a) Prudence b) Substance over form c) Accountancy d) Materiality 4. Prorata basis allotted 5000 shares out of 7500 shares were applied, then 600 shares were applied by a person, how many shares allotted and how much amount adjusted to allotment account. If application money is Rs.2 per share ____, ______ a) 400 shares 600/b) 200 shares 300/c) 200 shares 600/d) 300 shares 500/5. Debit the receiver & credit the giver is _____ account a) Personal b) Real c) Nominal d) All the above 6. Cash a/c is a ______ a) Real a/c c) Personal 10. Sub-partner in the partnership is a) a partner & the known person b) a two partners in the same firm c) two partners in the different time d) none of these 11. Securities premium used for the purpose of a) Dividends b) fully paid bonus shares c) capital loss d) none of these 12. Cash Rs. 6750 paid to M but debited to N account. What would be the effect? a) Trial balance b) Balance sheet c) Individual ledgers d) total debtors 13. If there is no agreement in between the partners for sharing profits & losses then they share profits or losses in the ratio of ____ a) capital ratio at the beginning b) equally c) capital ratio at the ending d) none of the above 14. Balance in share forfeiture account is shown under the head of ____ a) share capital b) reserves & surplus c) secured loans d) current liabilities 15. Dissolution of partnership automatically takes place a) if the business becomes unlawful b) if any one at the partners became insolvent c) if all the partners became insolvent d) all of the above 16. Error relating to fundamental aspect of ____ a) error of principle b) error of commission c) error of compensating d) error of omission 17. Liability on bills discounted at the time of final accounts is treated as ____ a) not an liability b) current liability c) differed liability d) contingent liability 18. Profit or loss on revaluation is shared by old partners in _____ ratio a) old profit sharing ratio b) new profit sharing ratio c) sacrificing ratio d) gaining ratio 19. Goods given as charity credited to _ account a) charity b) purchases c) drawings d) sales
b) Nominal d) None
7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a partnership a) Artificial person b) Perpetual succession c) Limited liability of all partners d) None 8. X and Y are partners. Their profit sharing ratio is 5:3. They admitted a partner Z for
1 th share and contribute equally by the old 5
partners, then new profit sharing ratio is __ a) 21:11:8 b) 20:8:9 c) 22:5:6 d) 5:3:2 9. Working capital is ______ a) Current Assets Current liabilities b) Fixed Assets- Current liabilities c) Fixed Assets liabilities d) Fixed Assets Current Assets
CPT _December_2010_Session 1__________________________________ 2

20. In sale by description, subject matter can be in the form of a) sample words b) symbols c) numbers d) all of the above 21. Selection of accounting policies appropriation is not based on a) prudence b) amount involved c) substance over form d) materiality 22. As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true a) revenue expenditure = profit b) revenue profit = expenditure c) sales + gross profit = revenue d) revenue = profit + expenditure 23. A company forfeited As 1000 shares Rs. 10 each @ 10% discount. But A failed to pay first call of Rs. 2 and final call of Rs. 4 and all the shares were re issued for Rs.8 per share as fully paid up. The loss on re issue is ____ to forfeited account will be _____ a) debited Rs. 1,000 b) debited Rs. 2,000 c) credited Rs. 2,000 d) No affected will be made 24. Mr. X sold goods to Mr. Y ask Mr. X to keep the goods with him for some time a) symbolic delivery b) actual delivery c) constructive delivery d) none of these 25. The credit balance in the ledger account shows a) revenue or an asset b) expense or an asset c) expense or an liability d) revenue or an liability 26. Subsidiary and journal are called a) primary books b) secondary books c) principal books d) cash book 27. Hari, Roy and Prasad are sharing in 3:5:1. The Roy retired then his share was taken by Prasad fully, then Hari & Prasad profit sharing ratio is _____ a) 1 : 2 b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 2 d) equally 28. The liability of a partner in a firm to outside is _____ a) unlimited b) Unlimited up to their capital sharing ratio c) Unlimited up to their guaranteed amount d) Unlimited up to their profit sharing ratio
MASTER MINDS
29. Cost of goods sold Rs.80,700 ; Opening stock Rs.5,800, Closing stock Rs.6,000 then purchases is Rs. ____ a) 80,500 b) 74,900 c) 74,700 d) 80,900 30. If JLP is taken jointly, on death of a partner ______ is distributed to partners against JLP a) Policy amount b) Surrender value c) Surrender value for dead partner & policy value for other d) none of these 31. Closing stock increased by 5000, gross profit ratio 10% then what will be the profit a) Gross profit will be increased by 5000 b) Gross profit will be decreased by 5000 c) Increase by 500 d) decrease by 500 32. Provision for doubtful debts is Rs.1000 & debtors are Rs.90,000 at end of year, provision for doubtful debt 1% required, then the entry a) P & L A/c Dr 900 To provision for doubtful debts 900 b) Provision for doubtful debts 900 To P & C A/c 900 c) P & L A/c Dr 100 To RDD A/c 100 d) none of these 33. If nothing is written about the accounting assumption to be followed it is presumed that a) They have been followed b) They have not been followed c) They are followed to some extent d) none of these 34. By preparing trail balance the errors can be revealed the following a) Posting an entry twice in the ledger b) Debit of Rs. 1000 is credited twice c) Omission of complete entry d) none 35. The sale __ is completed with reserved price a) sale by sample b) sale by description c) sale by auction d) sale by staple 36. The buyer refused to take delivery and the seller refused to take return then the goods are a) Deemed to be in transit b) Not deemed to be in transit c) both d) none of these 37. Payment made to creditor is with cash discount is ____ a) reduce asset & reduce liability, add to expenses b) reduce asset & reduce liability, add to income c) reduce asset & increase liability, add to expenses d) increase asset & reduce liability, add to income

38. Purchased the asset for Rs. 2,00,000 with available discount 20% then what amount should be credited to debentures A/c, when the purchase consideration is discharged by the issue of debentures. a) Rs.2,00,000 b) Rs.1,80,000 c) Rs. 1,60,000 d) Rs.2,40,000 39. A sold goods to B on credit for Rs. 10,000 but debited to C instead of B. What will be effected a) trail balance b) individual account c) balance sheet d) total debtors 40. On 31-3-09 the balance of the cash book is Rs. 7074 (credit) and balance as per bank statement is Rs. 3159 (debit). On scrutiny it was found that the difference was due to cheque issued but not yet presented for payment. The bank balance as on 31-3-09 will be shown in bank statement as ____ a) as bank overdraft Rs. 3159 b) as cash at bank Rs. 7074 c) as bank overdraft Rs. 7074 d) as cash at bank Rs. 3159 41. A purchased a computer on 1-4-06 for Rs.60,000 and another on 1-10-07 for Rs. 40, 000. He charged depreciation @ 20% p.a under straight line method. What will be the balance as on 31-03-09 a) Rs.40,000 b) Rs.64,000 c) Rs.52,000 d) Rs.48,000 42. A company forfeited 2000 shares of Rs. 10 each held by Mr. John for non payment of allotment money of Rs. 4 per share. The called up value per share was Rs. 9 on forfeiture. The amount debited to share capital will be Rs._____ a) 10,000 b) 8,000 c) 2,000 d) 18,000 43. Cost of goods sold Rs.10,000, Opening stock Rs.2,000 and Closing stock Rs. 3,000. Find the amount of purchases _____ a) Rs.10,000 b) Rs.11,000 c) Rs.15,000 d) Rs.9,000 44. A draws a bill on B. B did not accept the same. Which of the following Journal entries in the books of A a) B/R A/c Dr b) B A/c Dr To B A/c To B/P A/c c) B A/c Dr d) No entry is passed To B/R A/c
MASTER MINDS
45. A owned Rs. 25,000 to B. A is insolvent. B got As computer valuing Rs. 11,500 in full settlement. Pass the Journal entry in the books of B. a) Purchases a/c Dr 11,500 To A a/c 11,500 b) Computer a/c Dr 11,500 Bad debts a/c Dr. 13,500 To A a/c 25,000 c) Computer a/c Dr 25,000 To A a/c 25,000 d) Computer A/c Dr 11,500 To A a/c 11,500 46. An amount of Rs. 8765 paid to M was debited to N a) increase in net profit b) Decrease in net profit c) increase in asset d) no effect on net profit 47. At the end of financial year, accounts receivable has a balance of Rs.1 lakh & provision for bad & doubtful debts provided amounting to Rs.7,000. The expected of net realisable value of A/c receivable is Rs.____ a) 7,000 b) 1,07,000 c) 93,000 d) 1,00,000 48. Rosa paid Rs.1,200 on 1-7-09 towards yearly subscription (July 1, 2009 to June 30, 2010) of a newspaper. It means she has to make adjustment of _____ expenses for finalisation of a/c for the year ended 31-3-10 a) Rs.300 as prepaid b) Rs.300 as outstanding c) Rs.200 as prepaid d) Rs.200 as outstanding
Part B - M.Law
49. Prima facie risk passes with _____ a) property of ownership b) computed agreement c) verification & delivery of goods d) payment of price 50. Reserve price is considered in ____ a) sale by sample b) sale by description c) sale by auction d) all of the above 51. An unpaid sellers right of storage of goods in transit can be excised only the buyer is insolvent a) true b) partly true c) false d) none 52. A agrees to sell B smuggled goods for Rs. 1000 per unit. The agreement is void due to a) uncertainty b) illegality c) impossibility d) immortality

53. Which of the following will be account in fiduciary position a) parent and son b) doctor and patient c) all of the above d) none 54. Partnership agreement between persons arise from a) the states of person b) operation of law c) the contract of those person d) none of these 55. The transactions collateral to illegal agreements is ____ a) valid b) voidable at the option of plaintiff c) also illegal & not enforceable by law d) none of these 56. A sleeping partner is ____ a) not take active part in the firm b) take only salary from the firm c) not contribute capital to the firm d) none of these 57. A sells to B 100 Kg. of wheat on the due date B says to A to keep the wheat for some time. This is a _____ a) symbolic delivery b) actual delivery c) constructive delivery d) none 58. Counter offer is a ____ a) change in the original offer b) rejection of original offer c) same as original offer d) not a offer at all 59. Offer can be withdrawn when a) before the acceptance of offers against the oferror b) after the acceptance of offers against the oferror c) at any time d) cannot be withdrawn 60. Future goods are the subject matter of a) sale b) agreement to sale c) neither sale or agreement to sale d) both sale & agreement to sale 61. ______ agreements are created by situation a) written b) oral c) void d) implied 62. Under the Indian contract act 1872, the age of the person to enter into the contract is a) 21 years b) 16 years c) less than one day of 18 years d) 1 day more than 18 years
MASTER MINDS
63. Partnership is dissolved automatically in cases of ____ a) All partners are insolvent b) All partners expect one are insolvent c) The subject matter becomes unlawful d) In any of the above statements 64. A invites B to attend to his sons Birthday party and arranged everything but B failed then a) Here there is no contract b) There is no intention to create relationship c) both of the above d) none of the above 65. In case of _____ sale, it is subjected to be complete at reserve price a) Sale of sample b) Sale of description c) Sale of auction d) Reissue of shares 66. Which of the following is under implied authority of a partner in a firm a) submit a dispute of firm to arbitration b) acquire a immovable property behalf of firm c) open a bank account on behalf of firm in his own name d) participate in the business, decisions 67. Sharing of profits in a partnership firm is a) Conclusive evidence b) Not a conclusive evidence c) must in firms d) not compulsory 68. A partner in an dangerous situation can act as a person who is in ____ a) ordinary situation b) as an agent of the firm c) as an major in the firm d) all of the above 69. The implied warranty of contract of sale a) The goods should satisfy buyer purpose b) The right of the seller to sell the goods c) Seller can get back his goods at any time d) none of these 70. If the goods are perishable goods then seller resales the goods then the buyer gets a) good title b) partied goods c) no title d) none
the end
MASTER MINDS
Key - Part A ACCOUNTS
2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27. 32. 37. 42. 47. B D C D C A A B D C 3. 8. 13. 18. 23. 28. 33. 38. 43. 48. C A B A A A B C B A 4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29. 34. 39. 44. A A A B A D B B D 5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. 35. 40. 45. A D D D D A B A B
1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26. 31. 36. 41. 46.
A A B A B A A A C D
Part B - M.LAW
49. 54. 59. 64. 69. A C A B A 50. 55. 60. 65. 70. C C B C A 51. 56. 61. 66. 71. A A D D 52. 57. 62. 67. 72. B A D C 53. 58. 63. 68. 73. B A D D
FOR IPCC ADMISSIONS CONTACT 9248733315 / 53 IPCC coaching is available at Guntur and Kurnool. Full day and half day batches are available. Classes commenced at Guntur.
MASTER MINDS
Marks: 100 Marks Time: 2 hrs.
CPT December 2010 Question Paper (Based on Memory) 2nd Session
Part A - Economics
1. Allocation of resources is the subject matter of _____ a) Micro economics b) Macro economics c) Development economics d) Welfare economics 2. Micro Economics is connected with ____ a) Consumers Behaviour b) Product pricing c) Factor pricing d) all of these 3. Fixed costs are also called ____ a) direct costs b) prime costs c) supplementary costs d) opportunity costs 4. Direct costs are also known as ____ a) traceable costs b) indirect costs c) opportunity costs d) none of these 5. OPEC is an example for a) monopoly b) monopolistic competition c) perfect competition d) oligopoly 6. The firms AFC is Rs.200 for 10 units. What will be the average fixed costs at 20 units? a) 500 b) 100 c) 150 d) 300 7. Long run price is also known as ____ a) administered price b) market price c) normal price d) none 8. Toothpaste industry is an example for ____ a) monopoly b) monopolistic competition c) oligopoly d) perfect competition 9. AR & MR are same in ____ market a) oligopoly b) monopoly c) perfect competition d) none 10. In monopoly when price elasticity is 1, then the MR is___ a) 1 b) 0 c) negative d) positive 11. Amount paid to the outside factors of production are known as ___ a) implicit costs b) explicit costs c) traceable costs d) opportunity costs 12. An increase in demand with unchanged supply leads to ____ a) rise in price b) fall in price c) no change in price d) an increase in supply 13. When supply curve takes a rightward shift, then supply ____ a) decreases b) contracts c) expands d) increases 14. When the income increases, then demand decreases for ____ a) veblen goods b) conspicuous goods c) normal goods d) inferior goods 15. Which of the following are not true? a) Wants are limited b) resources are scarce c) resources have alternative uses d) both (b) & (c) 16. Average revenue curve is also known as ___ a) profit curve b) demand curve c) supply curve d) none of these 17. Which of the following statements is in correct? a) Competitive firms are price takers and not price makers b) Price discrimination is possible in monopoly only c) Duopoly may lead to monopoly d) Competitive firms always try to discriminate prices 18. Find AFC of 2 units by using the table given below: Output 0 1 2 TC 580 690 850 a) 105 b) 135 c) 290 d) 161 19. If the total utility of a commodity is 5 and marginal utility is 1, a person consumes 3 units. What is consumers surplus? a) 6 b) 8 c) 2 d) 3 20. The first stage of law of variable proportions is known as _____ a) increasing returns b) diminishing returns c) constant returns d) none 21. Primary sector includes ____ a) Transport and shipping b) banking and financial institutions c) mining and quarrying d) insurance 22. The IRDP was started in ____ plan a) 5th b) 6th c) 7th d) 8th

23. Which is the regulatory authority of telecom in India a) BSNL b) MTNL c) SEBI d) TRAI 24. GNP = ____ + NFIA a) NNP FC c) GDP
MASTER MINDS
34. 1921 is termed as ____ in the history of Indian population a) beginning census b) big divide c) beginning registration system d) beginning of family planning 35. Trade disputes in international trade are settled by ____ a) WTO b) ILO c) IBRD d) UNO 36. The static function of money is____ a) store of value b) medium of exchange c) standard of differed payments d) all of these 37. The apex bank for industrial finance in India is ____ a) IDBI b) RBI c) SBI d) Ministry of Finance 38. The main cause for unemployment in India is ____ a) raising prices b) increase in public expenditure c) defective mandatory policy d) unproper utilization of resources 39. Devaluation of currency stands for _____ a) increase in the value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency b) decrease in the value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency c) keeping value of domestic currency as constant in terms of foreign currency d) none of these 40. Purchasing power of a consumer is low when rise in the general price level is a situation relates to ____ a) inflation b) deflation c) stagflation d) none 41. Measurement of value of goods and services is ____ function of money a) medium of exchange b) unit of account c) standard of differed payments d) store of value 42. Important problem in calculating GNI is ____ a) double counting b) smuggling c) black marketing d) unorganized market
b) NNP MP d) National Income
25. National Income is measured by _____ a) Ministry of finance b) CSO c) RBI d) SBI 26. The difference between narrow money and broad money is _____ a) Time deposits b) Saving deposits c) Post office saving deposits d) none of these 27. Which of the following related to financial reforms _____ a) Banking b) Insurance c) Capital d) All of these 28. The main reason behind the implementation of economic reforms in the year 1991 is ____ a) Indication from world bank b) Failure of economic policies of present government c) low foreign exchange reserves d) none of these 29. National Bank for agriculture and rural development (NABARD) is _____ a) a commercial bank b) a co-operative bank c) an apex bank set up for rural & agriculture credit d) a subsidiary of SBI 30. In India, most of the unemployment is _____ a) Disguised b) Open c) Cyclical d) Urban 31. Personal disposable income is _______ a) Personal Income net indirect taxes b) Personal Income Indirect taxes c) Personal Income personal taxes d) none of these 32. Fiscal policy refers to ____ a) Public debt b) public revenue c) public expenditure d) all of the above 33. The systematic record of all receipts and payments of international trade is known as _ a) Balance of Trade b) Balance of Payment c) Balance of current account d) Balance of capital account.
Part B - Quantitative Aptitude

43. If f (x) = x + 1, g(x)= x2 + 1, fog (-2) = a) 6 b) 5 c) -2 d) none 44. If f (x-1) = x2-4x+8 then f (x+1) = b) x2+7 c) x2+4 d) x2-4x+4 a) x2+8

45. If A B then which of the following is true a) A B = B b) A B = B c) A B = Ac d) A B = 46. For any 2 sets A & B, A (Ac B) = ______. (where Ac represents the complement of the set A) a) A B b) A B c) Ac B d) 47. The value of 2 logx + 2 logx2 + 2 logx3 2 log xn = a)
n (n + 1) log x 2
MASTER MINDS
56. The cost function for the production of a commodity is given by c(x) = 2x 3 - 15x 2 + 36x + 15 then the value of x at which the cost is minimum ____ a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4 57. If there are 6 trees in a row, then no. of ways 5 students can be arrange between 6 trees to take a photograph a) 120 b) 720 c) 1440 d) none 58. 15 c 3 + 15 c13 is equal to a) 16 c 3 b) 30 c16 c) 15 c16 d) 15c 15
b) n (n + 1) log x d) none
1 G2 a 2
c) n2 log x
48. G is G.M. between a and b then

1 G2 b 2
2
= b) 3G
2
59. The no. of ways that the team of 11 players to be selected from 15 players in which one particular player is excluded a) 364 b) 728 c) 1001 d) 1234 60. If A:B = 2:5 then (10A+3B) : (5A+2B) is equal to ____ a) 7:4 b) 7:3 c) 6:5 d) 7:9 61. A lady traveling with a speed of 20Kmph, and returns quickly with average speed 24Kmph. Find her return speed a) 30 kmph b) 25 kmph c) 38 kmph d) 22 kmph 62. The lines 3x+4y+10=0, 4x-3y+5=0 are a) parallel b) perpendicular c) bisect d) coincidence 63. Solve
log 10 x 3 11 log 10 x + =2 2 3
a) G
c)
1 G2
d)
2 G2
49. The recurring decimal 2.777 is expressed as a) 24/9 b) 22/9 c) 26/9 d) 25/9 50. One root of x2 3x+ k = 0 is 2 then k is a) -10 b) 0 c) 2 d) 10 51. The value of k for which the roots of the equation 12x2+kx+5 = 0 in ratio 3:2 a) 5/12 b) 12/5 c)
5 10 2
d) 5 10
52. Lt
4 + 3x 4 3x x
a) 10 1 c) 0 d) 3/2
b) 10 2
c) 10 3
d) 10
x0
a) 3/4 53. Lt
3y + y 7y 5 y 6 x 34
b) 5/2 =
64. Effective rate of 6% of compounded half yearly a) 6.06% b) 6.09% c) 6.08% d) 6.07% 65. The cost of machine 1,25,000/- useful life is estimated 20 years and the rate of Depreciation of its cost is 10% p.a. its scrap value is ____ a) 15102 b) 15400 c) 15300 d) 15200 66. If P invested 10% simple interest & Q invest 5% compounded annually after two years P & Q interests are sum then a) P =
41 41 41 Q b) Q c) Q 80 40 100
y 0
a) 2 54.
b) 1/6
c) 3/7
d) does not exist
( x 2) (x 3)dx =
a) 22 log (x-2) + 16 log (x-3) b) 22 log (x-2) - 16 log (x-3) c) 22 log (x-2) - 18 log (x-3) d) 18 log (x-3) - 22 log (x-2)
55.
x(1 + log x)
1 a) (1+ log x )
d) none
dx 1 b) (1+ log x )
c)
1
(1+ log x )2
d) none
67. The FV of annuity of 5000/- is made annually for 8 years at INT rate of 9% com. annually (1.09 )8 = 1.99256 a) 55142.22 b) 65142.22 c) 65532.22 d) 57425.22

68. The selection procedure of sample having no involvement of probability is known as a) Purpose sampling b) judgment sampling c) subjective sampling d) all of the above 69. Mode can be obtained from a) frequency polygon b) histogram c) ogive d) all of the above 70. If S.D = 2 in the poisson distribution then the __ a) mode = 2 b) mode = 4 c) mode = 3 & 4 d) mode = 5 & 4 71. If the sum of the product of the deviation of X and Y from their mean is 0, then correlation coefficient is _____ a) 1 b) -1 c) zero d) none 72. Regression coefficient is a) Independent of origin & scale b) dependent of origin & scale c) independent of origin but not scale d) Dependent on origin but not scale 73. Variance of (3,5,8,4) is ____ a) 4.5 b) 3.5 c) 5.5 d) 6
MASTER MINDS
82. If there are 3 white, 2 black balls in Urn I, & 4 white, 6 black balls in Urn II if one ball is taken from Urn I & transferred to Urn II & a ball is taken from Urn II then probability that the ball drawn from urn II is white is a)
23 55
b)
11 44
c)
88 144
d) none
83. Two regression lines are x+2y-5=0, 2x+3y8=0 find regression line of y on x a) x+2y-5=0 b) 2x+3y-8=0 c) any of these d) none of these 84. Let the mean of x = 50, then mean of u=10+5x is ____ a) 250 b) 260 c) 265 d) 273 85. The total area under normal curve is a) 1 b) 0 c) 0.5 d) -1 86. The most appropriate diagram to express monthly expenditure is a) histogram b) pie diagram c) frequency d) line graph 87. Mean of a binomial distribution is 6 and variance is 2. find P a) 2/3 b) 1/3 c) 1 d) none 88. In the normal distribution P ( -3 < x < + 3 ) is equal to a) 0.9973 b) 0.9546 c) 0.9899 d) 0.9788 89. The hypothesis which is tested for possible rejection under the assumption that it is true is known as ___ a) biased hypothesis b) alternative hypothesis c) null hypothesis d) none of these 90. If bxy & byx are zero then r = a) 1 b) 0 c) -1
74. Information from the internet is a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) none of these 75. Given observations 4,9,11,14,37 mean deviation about median is a) 11 b) 8.5 c) 7 d) 4.75 76. Laspayers = 90, Paasches = 160 then Fishers Index number is = a) 120 b) 340 c) 360 d) 400 77. If P (A/B) = P (A) then A & B are a) mutually exclusive b) dependent c) independent d) composite 78. The Rank correlation is ____ Judge-1 1 2 3 Judge-2 5 4 3 a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 4 3 5 1 d) 1/2
d) none
79. X =16 x = 4.8, Y = 0.2 y = 9.6 r = 0.6 then regression coefficient of x on y a) 0.03 b) 0.3 c) 0.2 d) 0.05 80. If one die is thrown, then mathematical expectation of the number on the die is a) 16/6 b) 3.5 c) 7.5 d) none 81. If odds in favor of A is 5:7 and odds against B is 9:6 of solving a problem then probability that a problem can be solved is ____ a)
147 180
91. The statistical measure computed from the sample observation alone have been termed as ____ a) estimate b) parameter c) both d) none 92. An urn contains 3white, 5 black and another urn contain 4 white, 2 black. One ball is drawn from each of the bag find the probability of getting both white balls. a)
1 4
b)
1 2
c)
213 420
d)
215 415
b)
122 180
c)
117 180
d) none
the end
MASTER MINDS
Key - Part A ECONOMICS
1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26. 31. 36. 41.
A B B B C A C D B
2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27. 32. 37. 42.
D C A D B D D A A
3. 8. 13. 18. 23. 28. 33. 38.
C B D C D C B D
4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29. 34. 39.
A C D C C C B B
5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. 35. 40.
D B A A B C A A
Part B - QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

43. 48. 53. 58. 63. 68. 73. 78. 83. 88. A C D A A D B C A A 44. 49. 54. 59. 64. 69. 74. 79. 84. 89. C D B A B B B B B C 45. 50. 55. 60. 65. 70. 75. 80. 85. 90. B C A A D C C B A B 46. 51. 56. 61. 66. 71. 76. 81. 86. 91. A D A A A C A C B A 47. 52. 57. 62. 67. 72. 77. 82. 87. 92. B D A B A C C A A A
FOR IPCC ADMISSIONS CONTACT 9248733315 / 53 IPCC coaching is available at Guntur and Kurnool. Full day and half day batches are available. Classes commenced at Guntur.

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File Provided from Master Minds Downloaded from : www.carocks.wordpress.com Website for CA Students......

No.1 for CA/ICWA & MEC