Aptitude

Note: The full calculations, concepts will be explained in separate youtube videos later. 1. If 20% of P = 30% of Q = 1/6 of R., then P: Q : R is : (a) 2 : 3 : 16 (b) 3 : 2 : 16 (c) 10 : 15 : 18 (d) 15 : 10 18 PQR=1/5:3/10:1/6=>15:10:18 Answer=(D) 2. A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its height. What will be its height after 2 years, if it stands today 64 cm high ? (a) 72 cm (b) 74 cm (c) 81 cm (d) 85 cm Compound Interest Rate problem. Applying the formula, (9/8)^2 x 64=81 cm. Answer is C Also refer the concept on http://mrunal.org/2012/04/aptitude-compound-interest-rate.html 3. The sides of a triangle GHL are GH= 65 m, HL = 75 m and LG=80 m. What is the area of this triangle (square meters)? (a) 2100 (b) 2160 (c) 2200 (d) 2280 Apply Heros formula. Answer is D 4. Three sets of data on comparable situations are available as under :

Observation No of data

Mean value

Std Deviation

1.6

12

12

15

1.4

Considering all the data sets together, the overall mean value would be .. (a) 7.24 (b) 7.66 (c) 8.08 (d) 8.50 This is the concept of Weighted Average. Answer is C 5. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km. Thereafter it travels a distance of 72 km with an average speed of 6 km/hour more than the original speed. Total time taken to complete the journey is 3 hours. What is the original average speed of the train ? (a) 36 kmph (b) 42 kmph (c) 48 kmph (d) 54 kmph Our STD table approach. Answer is (B) 6. An iron rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length, is drawn into a wire of 18m in length with uniform thickness. The thickness of the wire would be : 1/21 1/18 1/15 1/12 Volume of cylinder will remain same in both cases. Apply formula and find diameter. Answer is (C) 7. A 60 m long train travels at a uniform speed of 72 kmph. It passes non-stop along the 600m platform of a wayside station. What is the elapsed time for the train to entirely clear the platform ?

(a) 30 seconds (b) 31 seconds (c) 32 seconds (d) 33 seconds Answer (D) 33 seconds. Convert speed in meter per second then apply STD formula. Length is 600+60 Also refer http://mrunal.org/2012/03/aptitude-trains-platforms-tsd.html to understand the concept. 8. Train A is 75 m long and travels at a uniform speed of 54 km/hour. Train S is 125 m long and travels at a uniform speed of 36 km/hour in the direction opposite to that of Train A. If these trains are crossing at a double-track stretch, what is the time taken for the two trains to fully clear each other ? (a) 10 seconds (b) 8 seconds (c) 7.2 seconds (d) 6.6 seconds Answer (B) 8 seconds. Also refer http://mrunal.org/2012/03/aptitude-trains-platforms-tsd.html to understand the Train concept.

Environment and Biodiversity (EnB)

1. Biome, largest recognizable assemblage of animals and plants on the Earth. is controlled mainly by : (a) Biological activity (b) Landforms (c) Climate (d) Soil A biome is a plant and animal community that covers a large geographical area. The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climate. So answer is c Refer NCERT Class 11 Physical Geography, Chapter15.

2. Kyoto Protocol, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with (a) International trade (b) Deep sea oil and mineral exploration (c) Clean environment and climate change (d) Building common food stock to save Lolz Answer is (C). For more on Kyoto protocol and Carbon trading, refer to this article www.mrunal.org/2012/09/enb-kyoto.html 3. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area ? 1. Global warming 2. Fragmentation of habitats 3. Invasion of alien species 4. Promotion of vegetarianism (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 See the Index of Biodiversity Action Draft Plan (PDF Uploaded here http://www.indiaenvironmentportal.org.in/files/National_Biodiversity_Action_Plan.pdf) As you can see in its index, first three terms are threats to Biodiversity. And 4th statement either too stupid or too controversial. So my take is Option (A) 4. Vultures, which were very common in our countryside a few years ago, are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to one of the Following : (a) Destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species (b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle (c) Scarcity of food available to them (d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease amongst them Lolz Answer (B) This is becoming very clichd question. We discussed this already http://mrunal.org/2012/03/enb-biodiversity-meaning-and-types-of.html#diclo Diclofenac is a painkiller medicine used mostly for arthritis in humans Veternary Diclofenac is used on cattle, as painkiller, stopping inflammation and fever.

When Animals are treated with Diclofenac, this drug keeps accumulating in their body. When these animals die, Vultures eat them = kidney failure =death of vulture. Hence Government of India banned Veternary Diclofenac. Now farmers have to use other expensive drugs instead of Diclofenac. 5. Match List 1. Buxa Tiger Reserve 2. Periyar Tiger Reserve 3. Sariska National Park 4. Wild Ass Sanctuary 1. Rajasthan 2. Gujarat 3. West Bengal 4. Kerala

Codes: ABCD (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter II. Page 17: The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is seriously threatened by the ongoing dolomite mining. Page 19: Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some of the tiger reserves of India. Therefore, Sariska is Rajsthan (c1) and Periyar is Kerala (b4) And Wild Asses are only found in Gujarat. (Common GK, found in various GS Manuals as well as GK 2013 by Manohar Pandey.) Accordingly, Answer is (B)

Current Affairs

1. The regional project by name CASA-1000 (Central Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by World Bank, pertains to the field of : (a) Eradication of HIV AIDS (b) Roads and Buildings (c) Electricity (d) Eradication of illiteracy Answer C Under the Central Asia-South Asian-1000 (CASA-1000) plan sponsored by the World Bank, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan will supply surplus electricity to Afghanistan and Pakistan. The Hindu http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/article576847.ece 2. Who won the Golden Boot Award in the recently concluded UEFA Euro 2012 (a) Fernando Torres (Spain) (b) Mario Balotelli (Italy) (c) Cristiano Ronaldo (Portugal) (d) Mario Gonna (Germany) Answer (A). Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sport/football/article3592256.ece 3. Match List-1 with List-11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : 1. Steve Jobs 2. Sheryl Sandberg 3. Larry Page 4. Ross Levinsolhn 1. Google 2. Apple 3. Yahoo 4. Facebook

Codes: A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2

Steve Jobs = Apple. So (B) and (D) eliminated. We are left with (A) and (C) Larry Page = Google So we are left with (C) Besides, Sheryl Sandberg= Facebook. Option (C) is correct. 4. Match book with Author a. Rahul Dravid: Timeless Steel b. An Ashes Summer c. Sachin : A Hundred Hundreds Now d. Opening Up :My autography

1. Steve Waugh and Nasser Hussain 2. Greg Chappell 3. Mike Atherton 4. V. Krishroswamy

Codes: A B C D 3412 2413 3142 2143 Greg Chappell wrote Rahul Dravid: Timeless Steel. It was in controversy because he claimed that other team members did not like Dravids success. So we eliminate (A) and (C). Steve Waugh and Nasser Hussain were captains of Australia and England respective, so most likely to be attached with Ashes tournament. so Book (B) matches with (1). Hence Option (D) is correct. Source: Flipkart search hahaha 5. Why was Justice Dalveer Bhandari in the_ news recently ? (a) He became member of UN Human Rights Council, (b) He was elected to the International Court of Justice. (c) He became Director General of World Trade Organization. (d) He became Secretary-General of SAARC Answer (B) This was given in Competitionmaster website, that I had suggested.

www.competitionmaster.com/ArticleDetail.aspx?ID=4cdccb61-dc64-4393-9a4442b00393ca2a 6. Match Head with Institution 1. President, World Bank 2. Secretary-General, Commonwealth 3. Managing Director, IMF 4. Secretary-General of the European Commission

1. Jim Yong Kim 2. Kamlesh Sharma 3. Christine Lagarde 4. Catherine Day

Codes: A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3 Now comes the controversial question. Jim Yong Kim = President of the World Bank. He is the first physician and AsianAmerican to head World Bank. Given in same Competitionmaster article link above. So Eliminate (A) and (C) We are left with (B) and (D) Christine Lagarde is the MD of IMF. So (C) should match with (3) Catherine Day is current Secretary-General of the European Commission so (D) should match with (4) But there is no such option. May be the examiner setup this question while watching Tarak Mehta kaa Ooltaa Chashma. Ill have to ask UPSC in RTI what theyre going to do about this.

Economy
1. Despite having huge coal reserve in OUT country, why do we import millions of tons of coal?

1. It is policy of Govt. of India to save its own coal reserve for future use and import now from other countries for present use. 2. Most of the thermal plants in our country are coal based and they are unable to gel sufficient coal supply from our coal mines. 3. Steel plants require large quantities of coking coal which we do not have, coking coal is to be imported from other countries. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Answer (b) Statement (1) doesnt make sense. Statement (2) is correct, because otherwise there was no need to create Fuel Supply Agreement (FSA) (i.e. Government asked Coal India to sign Fuel Sharing agreements with various clients to provide sufficient coal at required time) Statement (3) is correct because The HinduIn a move to reduce dependence on highly priced Australian coking coal, India will acquire a mine in Mongolia and also set up the first steel plant in the quality coal rich country. Chairman of Steel Authority of India (SAIL) told media that Mongolia has very good quality of coking coal mines. We do not have such quality coal mines ourselves http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/article3404225.ece 2. Which of the following statements is true about Industrial Policy since 1991? (a) Only 5 industrial related to security, strategic and environmental concerns require Industrial License. (b) An investor need not file an industrial entrepreneur Memorendum. (c) There is no reservation of products for production in small scale sectors. (d) The number of industries reserved for public sector has been enhanced. Statement A is true- now only 5 industries require Industrial license, viz Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks Cigars and cigarettes made from tobacco and manufactured tobacco substitutes Electronic aerospace and defense equipment: all types

Industrial explosives including detonating fuses, safety fuses, gun powder, nitrocellulose and matches Hazardous chemicals such as hydrocyanic acid and its derivatives, phosgene and its derivatives, and isocyanates and diisocyanates of hydrocarbon, not specified elsewhere (example Methyl isocyanate) http://www.india-briefing.com/news/amendments-indias-industrial-policy-5101.html/ 3. The newly introduced rupee symbol is based on (a) Roman and Greek script (b) Persian and Dravidian script (c) Roam and Devanagari script (d) Greek and Devanagari script The new Indian Rupee symbol is an amalgam of the Devnagiri Ra and the Roman capital R http://www.competitionmaster.com/ArticleDetail.aspx?ID=bfc7ad4d-6e6a-43b1-b770fa3c8abb002c 4. Which one of the following expresses the relation between normal price and market price? (a) Market price is greater than normal price (b) Market price is equal to normal price (c) Market price tends to be equal to normal price (d) Market price is lesser than normal price Answer (C) Market Price = current price at which an asset or service can be bought or sold. Economic theory contends that the market price converges at a point where the forces of supply and demand meet. normal price =represents stable equilibrium between long-run demand and supply established after the supply has fully adjusted itself to the changed demand. Market price can be higher or lower than the normal price. In fact, it tends to oscillate around the normal price and tends to be equal to it.

Market price is a reality as the day-to-day transactions do take place at this price, whereas the normal price is a Utopian concept. http://mywhatis.com/distinctions-between-market-price-and-normal-price/ Although NCERT Class 12 Microeconomics Chapter 4, too talks about Market Price but it goes in to too much technical details. 5. Bancassurance is (a) An insurance scheme to insure bank deposits (b) An insurance scheme exclusively for bank employees (c) A composite financial service offering both bank and insurance products (d) A bank deposit scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies Investopedia: A French term referring to the selling of insurance through a banks established distribution channels, known as a Bancassurer. The result is a bank that can offer banking, insurance, lending, and investment products to a customer. Option (C) comes close to this meaning. 6. Inflation can be controlled by (a) Increase in wages (b) Decrease in taxation (c) Reduction in public expenditure (d) Making the rupee dearer They should have said what type of inflation it is (Cost push or Demand pull). Otherwise answer will be debatable. Anyways my take: given the options, RBI can make rupee dearer (i.e. hard to get loans) by increasing Repo Rate and thus reduce liquidity (money available for loan) in the market. So Option (D) Increase in wages = first it is hard to achieve, Government can increase the wages of its employees by increase the Dearness Allowence (DA), but what about the private sector employees and the unorganized sector workers. Decrease In taxation= again hard to do because Government would need to get it approved in parliament. Reduction in public expenditure = debatable.

Marking Rupee Dearer = RBI can do this quick and easy under its monetary policy powers. This is the first line of defence, and RBI has been doing it last year. 7. Which of the following can be termed an infrastructural bottleneck in the development of Indias economy ? (a) The federal nature of Indian Polity. (b) Existence of a large variety of financial institutions (c) Delay in the administration of justice relating to land acquisition and displacement (d) The volatility of the Indian rupee Indian Economys biggest bottleneck is UPA Government, but since this question is asking about Infrastructural Bottleneck. So first what is infrastructure? Roads, highways, seaports, airports, railways, telephone connectivity, powerplants. Each has its own peculiar bottlenecks for example: telephone=2G scam and licence removal. Powerplants= coal supply and so on. But Out of the given options: According to this IGNOU pdf http://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/34932/1/Unit3.pdf Some other factors pose challenges for the sector (Highways). These involve lan d acquisition, encroachment on highways, environmental and forest clearances, shifting of utilities, railway approvals for rail over bridges, local law and order problems, poor performance by some contractors, etc. I pick up (C) 8. It is said that. in order to control inflation, foreign inflow needs to be sterilized. Sterilization here refers to (a) Ensuring that counterfeit currency does not enter circulation, (b) Ensuring that black money is accounted for, (c) Withdrawing equivalent local currency to maintain a desirable rate of exchange, (d) Compliance with import-export regulations, Sterilization is most often used in the context of a central bank that takes actions to negate potentially harmful impacts of capital inflows such as currency appreciation and inflation both of which can reduce export competitiveness.

To prevent this, the countrys central bank may decide to intervene in the foreign exchange market. To prop up the value of the nations currency, the central bank may resort to creating artificial demand for its currency. It can do this by using some of its foreign exchange reserves to buy local currency. So, Answer is (C) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sterilization_%28economics%29 9. NABARD means (a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (b) National Agricultural Bank and Rural Development (c) National Agricultural Board and Rural Development (d) National Board for Agricultural and Rural Area Development NABARD = National Bank for Agri and Rural Development. For more details http://mrunal.org/2012/04/economy-regional-rural-banks-vs.html 10. Which of the following are the main causes of the slow rate of growth of per capita income in India? 1. High rate of capital formation 2. High level of fiscal deficits 3. High rate of growth of population (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only The answer is only one: UPA Government, but it is not given in the options. Generally, the higher the capital formation of an economy, the faster an economy can grow its aggregate income. Increasing an economys capital stock also increases its capacity for production, which means an economy can produce more. Producing more goods and services can lead to an increase in national income levels. http://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/capital-formation.asp

So High Rate of Capital formation is not cause of poor per capita income. Hence remove options containing statement (1). A,B,C are eliminated. we are left with answer (D) 11. If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market operations policy, this means it will (a) Sell securities in the open market. (b) Buy securities from non-government holders. (c) Openly announce to the market that it intends to expand credit. (d) Offer commercial banks more credit in the open marker Expansionary monetary policy is monetary policy that seeks to increase the size of the money supply. Open Market operation = The buying and selling of government securities in the open market in order to expand or contract the amount of money in the banking system. Purchases inject money into the banking system and stimulate growth while sales of securities do the opposite. http://www.investopedia.com/terms/o/openmarketoperations.asp So, if RBI wants to increase money supply, it should buy (purchase) bonds from nonGovernment holders (that way RBI will give them money for purchase, hence money supply is increased). Answer (B) 12. Structural Planning refers to . (a) Centralized planning, (b) Laying down broad goals and strategics. (c) Changing existing institutions or creating new ones. (d) Fixing flexible targets. The planning which is aimed at bringing changes in socioeconomic set-up of a country is termed as structural planning. This type of planning is attributed to the planning which was made in USSR in 1929 when the existing land-lord-system was abolished, collective farming was introduced, trade, industries and transport system was nationalized. Answer (C) According to www.scribd.com/doc/9893431/Types-of-Economic-Planning

13. Which of the following is NOT one of the features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) being set up for promoting exports ? (a) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry without Visa restrictions. (b) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign territory for trade operations, duties and tariff. (c) Them will be no routine examination by customs authorities of import-export cargo. (d) No license is required for import into the zone. The salient features of SEZ acts are given in the India Yearbook, Commerce Chapter. So, Accordingly, Statement B,C and D are correct. So A has to be the false statement. Answer (A) 14. Match the Following 1. D.M Dharmadhikari 2. Anil Kakodkar 3. B.N. Srikrishna 4. Adi Godrej 1. National Corporate Governance 2. Air IndiaIndian Airlines merger 3. Indian Railways High Level Safety Review 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

Codes: A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 4 3 1 Dharmadhikari is Air India. (A2) [Been on Aaj-Tak, Indianexpress all the time during Pilot Hartaal] Anil Kakodkar is Railway safety (B3)- we had seen his recommendations in earlier article http://mrunal.org/2012/02/yearbook-kakodkar-panel-on-railway.html Eliminate the options without the A2-B3 combo and we are left with answer (B)

English: Reading Comprehension

Passage: old vs young (Mrunal: Ive given line numbers for easy reference in answers)

Sentence 1. It has been rightly said that we spend the first half of our lives trying to understand the older generation, and the second half trying to understand the younger generation. 2. Youth has always felt somewhat exasperated (Greatly annoyed) with age, and age has always been suspicious of youth. 3. With their natural ebullience (enthusiasm) and impatience, a majority of you (young) people are keen to act and learn on their own rather than be guided by the experience of their elders 4. The older people, being more at home with words rather than with action, often make noises about the problems of youth. 5. In every generation, old men are found shaking their hoary heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old days when young people knew better and showed due reverence to age and tradition.. 6. in all ages, whenever they have pondered over the ways of youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruination (downfall) staring the world in its face

Comment

Young dont like old and old suspect young.

Young dont like to listen to old.

Old cant do action so they talk.

Old says hamaare zamane mein things were better and now theyre going downfall.

But in every generation old men repeat the same tape.

7. And yet the world goes on. 8. Every generation passes from the spontaneity and exuberance of youth to the caution and prudence of old age, and then yields place to the next.

1. What, according to you, is the theme and the idea of the passage ? (a) Generation gap (b) Problems of the youth (c) Optimism of the older generation (d) None of the above Sentence 4 mentions the phrase Problems of Youth. But the whole passage is not revoling on that idea. consider Sentence 1= we spend the first half of our lives trying to understand the older generation, and the second half trying to understand the younger Sentence 3+4= majority of you (young) people are keen to act.older people, being more at home with words rather than with action Sentence 8= Every generation passes from ..youth to old age, and then yields place to the next. So majority of Sentences are revolving around the idea of Generation Gap. Correct Option (A) 2. The older generation is suspicious about the younger generation as the youngsters lack (a) knowledge (b) experience (c) patience (d) time Look @Sentence #3 With their natural ebullience (enthusiasm) and impatience, a majority of you (you) people are keen to act and learn on their own rather So young people have impatience= they lack patience. Answer (C)

3. The author seems to be supportive of the idea that (a) the people of the older generation are men of words rather than action. (b) the younger generation is impatient (c) the younger generation today is much misunderstood and more maligned than it deserves (d) none of the above Debatable between (B) and (C). I leave Opt A because The phrase Men of words rather than action has an insulting tone, while the Author is merely saying that ..older people, being more at home with words rather than with action (say certain things about youth. (Sentence 4). His aim is not to insult the old. So Author woudnt agree to the idea of statement A. I leave Opt B because Younger generation is impatient (Sentence 3). But Theyre asking author seems to be supportive of the idea so that is not an idea, merely a restatement of what author said in sentence 3. I pick Opt C because Look at Sentence 4+6: (Old men) often make noises about the problems of youth.(but)in all ages, whenever they have pondered over the ways of youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruination (downfall) staring the world in its face. Following the hidden message in those lines, Author would support the idea that the younger generation today is much misunderstood and more maligned than it deserves. 4. And yet the world goes onwhat is the tone of the author in this statement? (a) Optimistic (b) Pessimistic (c) Cynical (d) Critical Debatable. I leave D because

Critical means finding only errors and flaws- Saala Buddha log bahut lecture detaa hai, they should change their habit. Thats not the tone of Author. He has tried to be balanced : look @ Sentence 1,2 and 3.

I leave C because

Cynical is when we believe things wont change and we make mockery/fun of it (like I do with Mohan whaat an idea sir-ji). But Thats not the tone of Author. He is not making fun of anyone or ridiculing anyone, in any of the sentences.

I leave A because

Optimistic means Expecting or presenting the best possible outcome- it Buddha

log bahut lecture detaa hai, but I hope in future the Buddha log will work with youth and or Youth will stop wasting time on facebook and or Buddha log will stop whining about youth. But Thats not what author says, implies or seeks anywhere
in the passage.

Besides Yet world goes on (fir bhi dunia chalti hai) itself is a non-optimistic phrase.

I pick B because

Pessimistic is close to cynical but there is difference. Cynic feels that things wont change and makes fun of it. Pessimist feels that things wont change, but thats all- he doesnt make fun of it.

Look @sentence 6 .. in all ages, whenever they (old men) have pondered over the ways of youth, they have foreseen ruination (downfall).

Look @Sentence 8= Every generation passes from the youth to old age, and then yields place to the next (generation)

So this is pessimistic. In every generation there will be Buddha log bashing the young, but then young people grow old, they also bash the new young people from next generation, and thus the world goes on. Passage: Bribery.

I think Kapil Zero Sum Sibbal asked UPSC to include this passage.

Sentence 1. Who deserves more severe punishment? 1. One who gives bribes or the one who takes them? 2. The common practice of bribery is possible because there is someone who is ready to pay money for illegal action or decision in his favour, Otherwise, how can one demand a bribe ? 3. The bribe-giver tempts others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our national character 4. Even Jesus Christ, fearing the power of temptation, had said, Lead me not into temptation. Yeah that is right, when coaching factories of Kota and Delhi, and MedicalMBA colleges allover India demand exorbitant fees then what can a poor bureaucrat father do? 6. Hence, one who gives bribe should be awarded more severe punishment because he exploits the weakness of poor. Bribe giver =bad guy. Look at the tone Otherwise, how can one demand a bribe ?

UPSC and mohan.

5. A bribe-giver is generally moneyed and influential, while, on the other hand, one who demands bribe does so because of his poor circumstances arid compulsions.

7. Giving and taking bribe happens in a more vicious circle which can continue only because of money, Naturally. 8. therefore, it is the affluent that grease this wheel of corruption and should accordingly he dealt with firmly and suitably punished to put a stop to this nefarious practice. Re-read the statement 5 ..bribe-giver is generally moneyed and influential so he is the affluent guy = he is the bad guy.

Questions 5. The author feels that the practice of bribery is there because there are willing bribegivers, (a) True (b) False (c) Partially true (d) None of the above Please note- in reading passage, youre not supposed to answer what you feel about bribery but what author has written in the passage. So, This is not Partially True, because author is totally convinced the bribe-givers are the culprit and he repeats it multiple times during the passage. Hence it is TRUE. Answer (A) 6. Who, according to the author, is more responsible among the following ? (a) The bribe-taker (b) The bribe-giver (c) The witness (d) The general public Obviously Answer (B) (according to the Author). Look at sentence 3 and 6.

7. Who, according to the author should be punished more severely ? (a) The Police who allow this practice (b) The bribe-giver (c) The person who demands bribe (d) None of the above In both Sentence 5 and 8, author has demanded that bribe-giver must be punished severely. Answer (B) 8. Who, according to the author is more corrupted? (a) Our system (b) The person who demands bribe (c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the poor. (d) The supporter of bribe who is left with little choice Statement 5,6 and 8= Answer (C)

English: Vocabulary
9. A judgment made before all the facts are known must be called : (a) Deliberate (b) Sensible , (c) Premature (d) Harsh Notice before all the facts That is Premature. Answer (C) 10. Which of the following pairs of words expresses the same relationship as in ELUSIVE : CAPTURE ? (a) Sensible : decide (b) Headstrong: controlled (c) Elastic : stretch (d) Persuasive : convince An Elusive person is hard to capture. Similarly, a headstrong person (Habitually disposed to disobedience and opposition) is

hard to be controlled. Answer (B) 11. Choose the word which is the nearest opposite to the meaning of the underlined word : I wish I could pursue my studies. (a) Discontinue (b) Abandon (c) Restrain (d) Deter Answer (A) / (B) (debatable until I find reliable source.) 12. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS ? (a) Indirect (b) Confusing (c) Crooked (d) Cyclic Wordweb says Roundabout, Marked by obliqueness or indirection in speech or conduct. So closed meaning is (A)

Geography
1. A cultivator has about two hectares of rain fed land without irrigation facilities. Which type of crops would he like to grow? 1. Jowar 2. Cotton 3. Arhar 4. Potatoes Answer (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only

NCERT Class 12 Geography (Land and People) Chapter 5, Page 51: Cotton: . Per hectare output of cotton is high under irrigated conditions in north-western region of the country. Its yield is very low in Maharashtra where it is grown under rainfed conditions. Thus, it is not a good idea to cultivate Cotton without irrigation. Remove all options containing #2 and we are left with final answer (D): Only Jowar and Arhar. 2. Which one of the following statements is true about red soil ? (a) It is rich in humus. (b) It is rich in potash. (c) It is rich in iron compounds. (d) It is derived from volcanic origin. NCERT Class 11 Geography (India Physical Environment): Chapter 6, Page 71 Red Soil: They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus. (statement A is false) The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. So Statement (C) is correct. Some aspirants had misconception that since APFC syllabus did not specifically mention geography so there was no need to prepare Geography. Well let this be a lesson whenever you prepare for General studies or General Awareness or General Knowledge, Geography is must.

History
1. Which one of the following sets of industries were among first modern industries in India ?

(a) Tea, Cotton and Sugar (b) Jute, Silk and Cotton (c) Cotton, Jute and Coal-Mines (d) Sugar, Silk and Steel

So option (C) is correct because the first modern industries in India were cotton, jute, coal mines and railways. According to NCERT Social Change and Development in India: (Class 12 textbook) Chapter 5, Page 77 2. Archaeological studies suggest the theory that

(a) All the continents were settled with human societies at about the same time (b) Farming societies developed before hunting and gathering (c) The earliest human evolved in the Rift valley in East Africa (d) The wheel was in use in all ancient societies

Correct statement is (C) NCERT Class 11, World History Chapter 1 3. Which term is used to describe the spread of Buddhism from India through Southeast Asia? (a) Social mobility (b) Cultural diffusion (c) Ethnocentrism (d) interdependence Answer is (B) Buddhism probably survived only because the Mauryan emperor Ashoka converted to it and promoted its practice. However, in the long run, Buddhism did much better in areas where it spread through cultural diffusion, such as Southeast Asia, China, and Japan. Ref: http://www.historyhaven.com/BELIEF%20SYSTEMS.htm 4. Consider the following statements about heritage : 1. Heritage is that which has been or may be inherited. 2. Heritage is anything given or received to be a proper possession. Which of these statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 This UNSECO PDF http://whc.unesco.org/uploads/activities/documents/activity-54-19.pdf On Page 16, It says that Oxford Shorter Dictionary gives following defiinations of Heritage Heritage=

That which has been or may be inherited. . . . The fact of inheriting; hereditary succession. . . . Anything given or received to be a proper possession. . . . An inherited lot or portion. . . .

So both the given meaning are correct. Answer (C) (hahaha must be some uncle-ji professor obsessed with Oxford dictionary, set this question.) 5. Consider the following statements : 1. By the early nineteenth century British carried out detailed surveys. 2. The effort was to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the logical histories and the cropping pattern. Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Refer to NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 1 The practice of surveying also became common under the colonial administration. The British believed that a country had to be properly known before it could be effectively administered. By the early nineteenth century detailed surveys were being carried out to map the entire country.

In the villages, revenue surveys were conducted. The effort was to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the local histories, and the cropping pattern all the facts seen as necessary to know about to administer the region. So both statements are correct Answer (C) 6. Which of the following is a correct statement about both the Mughal and Ottoman empires in the sixteenth century? (a) Both of these empires had powerful navies that engaged European navies. (b) Both of these empires expanded through the use of gunpowder weapons and extensive bureaucracies. (c) Both of these empires gave little monetary support to artistic and cultural endeavors. (d) In both of these empires the majority of the people were Muslims.

Mughals did not have powerful navies to engage with European navies Mughals did give monetary support to artistic and cultural endeavors. In Mughal empire, majority were Hindus.

So A,C and D are false. We are left with Answer Option (B) Further wiki-ing confirms that The Mughals introduced in India the system of gunfire shot from cannons and Ottomans were some of the first to embrace gunpowder artillery. The Mughal administrative system had at its apex a military-cum-bureaucratic apparatus (mansabdari) which was responsible for looking after the civil and military affairs of the state. (NCERT Class 12 History Chapter 8) 7. Which is the correct meaning of the term `rule of primogeniture ? (a) Favourite son inheriting his fathers estate (b) Eldest son inheriting his fathers estate (c) Division of the inheritance amongst all the SODS (d) Division of the inheritance amongst all the sons and daughters Wordweb Software Dictionary (Free) says primogeniture = Right of inheritance belongs exclusively to the eldest son.

Ive classified this question under History portion because it is said that Mughal empire declined because of this Primogeniture rule (because it results in fighting between brothers to claim the throne.) Answer (B) 8. Which of the following would be the most useful source of evidence for research about the agrarian history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries ? (a) Accounts of contemporary travellers (b) Individual revenue records (c) Chronicles and documents from the Mughal court (d) Records of the East India company NCERT Class 12 History Chapter 8, Page 197 . Our understanding of the workings of rural society does not come from those who worked the land, as peasants did not write about themselves. Our major source for the agrarian history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries are chronicles and documents from the Mughal court. So Answer is (C) 9. Consider the following 1. Rowlett Act movement (1919) 2. Khera movement 3. Champaran (1917) 4. Ahmedabad mill strike What is the correct chronological order of the above mentioned Gandhian movements ?

(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (b) 2, 3, 1 and 4 (c) 3, 2, 4 and 1 (d) 2,1, 3 and 4

NCERT Class 10 History, Chapter 3, Page 56

1. In 1916 he (Gandhi) travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system. 2. Then in 1917, he organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat. 3. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to organise a satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers 4. Emboldened with this success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919) So Sequence is Champa>Kheda>Abad>Rowlatt 3,2,4,1 = Answer (C). Some friends are saying Champa>Abad>Kheda >Rowlett, citing other reliable sources. But Ive picked up C, because it is given in the NCERT Class 10 Textbook.

Labour
1. Statement (I) : Industrial relation is currently more influenced by the external market forces than the power play between employers and employees. Statement (II) : The forces of globalization have made competition so imperative that unions and their tactics like stopping productivity no more hold good. Ansewer (A). Both correct and II explains I. (or can be debatable) 2. Match following 1. Industrial Welfare 2. Human Relations thought 3. Concept of Third Force 4. Ahmedabad Experiment 1. Charles A Mayers 2. A.K. Rice 3. Robert Owen 4. Elton Mayo

Codes: ABCD (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 Abad experiment by AK rice So D2 Mayo is known as the founder of the Human Relations Movement (Public Administration people alert!) So B4 Eliminate the options that donot have D2,B4 combo and we are left with answer option is (D) 3. Match Following 1. First National Comission on Labour,1969 2. Wage Board for Working Journalists, 2009 3. Second National Commission on Labour. 2002 4. Index Review Committee, 2009 1. GK Chanda 2. Ravindra Verma 3. P.B. Gajendragadkar. 4. R. Mejithia

Code : ABCD (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3 First labour Commission =Gajendra gadkar. Wage Board is Majithia (been in The Hindu news+ same India Yearbook Labour chapter) Index Review is GK Chanda (India Yearbook Chapter on Labour) So accordingly, Answer Choice (A) 4. Which of the following is NOT covered by the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 ?

(a) Pension (b) Provident Fund (c) Deposit Linked insurance (d) Injury Compensation Page 713 of India Yearbook 2011 .Act seeks to provide the financial social security to the employees in the form of provident fund, pension and deposit-linked insurance. So fourth Option (D) is incorrect. 5. Which of the following statements about Workmens Compensation Act, 1923 is true ? (a) It is not social security legislation. (b) Its name has been changed to the Employees Compensation Act in 2009. (c) It provides maximum Compensation in the event of death. (d) It does not provide compensation for occupational diseases. India Yearbook 2011, Page 711 This Act is given under the heading of Social Security. Hence St atement 1 is false. It also says The Act has now become The Employees Compensation Act, 1923 by the Workmens Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009 dated the 23 December, 2009 Therefore Statement B is True. 6. Which of the following legislations is comprehensive social security legislation? (a) The Maternity Benefit Act (b) The Employees State Insurance Act (c) The Employees Compensation Act (d) The Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act Answer

Comprehensive means it should cover many things. Maternity covers only Maternity. So A is false Employers State Insurance= only helps in sickness, maternity and employment injury and pension for dependents IF the case is dealing with employment related injury. So B is false.

Employees Compensation Act= this is the new name of minimum wages act, hence its only minimum wages, not really comprehensive social security. (Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Labour.)

Employees Provident Funds and Misc. Provisions Act=provident funds, family pension funds and deposit linkedinsurance. These schemes taken together provide to the employees an old age and survivorship benefits, a long term protection and security to the employee and after his death to his family members, advances during sickness and for the purchase/ construction of a house during the period of membership. (reference http://business.gov.in/legal_aspects/provident_fund.php )

Thus Employee Provident Fund and Misc. Provision, is more comprehensive than other three. So, Answer (D) 7. What is the maximum limit of gratuity payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 ? (a) 3 Lakhs rupees (b) 7.5 Lakhs rupees (c) 10 Lakhs rupees (d) 10.5 Lakhs rupees Answer (C) The Act provides for payment of gratuity at the rate of 15 days wages for each completed year of service or part thereof in excess of six months subject to the maximum of 10 lakh. Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Labour. 8. The main objective of the Minimum Wages Acts 1948 is to safeguard the interests of the workers engaged in ; (a) Unorganized sector (b) Organized sector (c) Industrial sector (d) Agricultural sector Answer (A)

.. In fact the sole purpose of this act is to prevent exploitation of sweeted and unorganised labour, working in compititive market. Refer http://nadfm.nic.in/learning/SAS%20PAPER%20VII/SAS%20PAPER%20VII%20(NS)%2 0FILES/C-%20Section%20III-Elements%20of%20Law/D-Industrial%20Law/DMinimum%20Wages%20Act.doc Also India Yearbook. 9. In which of the following Acts, housing facility is a statutory provision (a) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951 (b) The Factories Act, 1948 (c) The Mines Act, 1952 (d) None of the above It is Planation Labour Act.- It shall be the duty of every employer to provide and maintain necessary housing accommodation (a) for every worker (including his family) residing in the plantation http://indiacode.nic.in/fullact1.asp?tfnm=195169 Answer is (A) 10. Consider the following statements regarding human development : 1. Skills may be harnessed in the society through participations of NGOs. 2. To fill the internal gaps in the system, reviews and international experiences can prove to be helpful. Which of these statements is are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Neither I nor 2 (d) Both 1 and 2 Many of (Bogus) Government scheme run with the 1st statement NGO assembles a few poor women in to Self-help group (SHG), takes money from Government and gives them skill upgradation training.

So 1st statement is true. Statement 2. Im unable to locate the source/ reference. But sounds plausible. Either (A) or (D) [Debatable]

Polity
1. Statement (I) Every State in India has a High Court in its (States) territory. Statement (II) = As per constitution of India, each State is provided to have a High Court. 1st Statement is wrong because Not all North Eastern States have their separate high courts. Besides Punjab + Haryana have common high court. (refer to table given @the end of Laxmikanths chapter on High courts) Art. 214 of Constitution =There shall be a high court in Each State =2nd statement is correct. So 1 is false and 2 is true = Option (D)

2. Statement (I) The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the constitution, aim at providing the social and economic base of a genuine democracy. Statement (II) : The Directive Principles are merely directives which the government has to keep in mind while framing policy and is not enforceable through courts. This question is directly lifted from Tata Macgrawhill General Studies Manual 2012 (Polity section Mock Question #138) The answer is (b). Both are individualally correct but 2 is not explaining 1.

3. Which of the following sets of countries has only federations ? a. New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argentina b. Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil c. India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa d. France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland Theyre asking ONLY Federations. India has Federations (States) but also Union Territories. And Sri Lanka is Unitary So I

eliminate opt (C) and (A) Besides, New Zealand is also unitary= A again eliminated. France is a unitary country. So (D) is eliminated. We are left with (B) However, Wiki says Malaysia has three 3 federal territories So either (B) or Doubtful. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federated_state 4. In which part of the Indian Constitution, Workers participation in Management has been incorporated ? (a) The Preamble (b) The Fundamental Rights (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy (d) None of the above Answer (c) Article 43-A, Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP). Source: Refer Laxmikanth chapter on DPSP 5. The following provision, Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance is a

(a) Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Constitution of India (b) Directive Principle of State Policy of the Constitution of India (c) Fundamental Duty laid down by the Constitution of India. (d) Presidential order in accordance with the Constitution of India

It is given in Article 49= Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) So Answer is (B) (please dont confuse this monument protection as fundamental duty) Refer the DPSP chapter in Laxmikanth 6. The Seventh schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding

(a) Scheduled Languages

(b) Oaths and affirmations (c) Administration of Tribal area (d) Union, State, Concurrent Lists

Answer is (D) Refer the appendix of Lakshmikanth. 7. The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of 1. Both Houses of Parliament 2. The Legislative Assemblies of the States 3. Union Council of Ministers (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Actually the options are incomplete because President is elected by (1) elected members of parliament, (2) State assemblies AND (3) elected members of Delhi and Pondicherry. But in the given situation, Answer is (C) Refer Laxmikanth Chapter on President.

8. The responsibility of preparation of electoral rolls in India rests with (a) The Parliament (b) The Local Administration (c) The Election Commission (d) The Returning Officer It is the responsibility of Election Commission, to prepare and periodically revise all electoral rolls. Refer Laxmikanth Chapter on EC

9. At the time of becoming the Prime Minister of our country one (a) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament. If not, must become a

member of one of the Houses within Six months. (b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament but must get elected as a member of Lok Sabha within Six months. (c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament prior to appointment. (d) Must be a member of Rajya Sabha. In 1997, SC held that person who is not a member of either house, can be appointed as PM for 6 months within which he should become member of either house. So (A) is correct. Refer Laxmikanth chapter on Prime Minister 10. Match following 1. Second Administrative Reforms Commission 2. Second Commission on Centre State Relations 1. Vijay Kelkar

2. Justice M.N.Venkatchaliah

3. Thirteenth Finance Commission

3. Justice Madan Mohan Punchi

4. National Commission for the Review of the working of the Constitution.

4. M.Veerpappamoily

Codes ABCD (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 3 l 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 Moily is ARC. (Polity chapter of India Yearbook) Venkatcheliya is to review Constitution. (Given in appendix of Laxmikanth) Kelkar is in finance Commission. (Finance chapter of India Yearbook) Punchi is doing center state (Polity chapter of India Yearbook) So match options accordingly.

11. What is common to Sardar Hukum Singh, Jagiivan Ram. Inderjit Gupta, Somnath Chatterjee and Seth Govind Das ? (a) They were Speakers of the Lok Sabha (b) They were Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha (c) They were Pro-tern Speakers of the Lok Sabha (d) None of the Above Jagjiwan Ram was definitely not a speaker of Lok Sabha. So Option A is false. On this link: http://speakerloksabha.nic.in/protemspeaker.asp it is given that all of them were pro-tem speakers. So Answer is (C) (Lekin yaar itnaa detail mein kon prepare karta hai- and that too for a pro-tem speaker!) 12. The purpose of Adjournment motion in our Parliament is (a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance. (b) To let opposition members collect information from concerned Ministers. (c) To allow a reduction of specific amount in the demand of grant. (d) To postpone the proceedings to cheek the inappropriate or the violent behavior on the part of some members, Answer (A) Refer Laxmikanth chapter on Parliament. 13. Consider the following statements regarding limitations on the authority of the Indian Parliament 1. Most of the important laws can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President. 2. Parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution, Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Statement 1 is kinda debatable whether it is true or false because While Presidential approval is necessary before putting Money bill, alternating state boundaries, creating new states etc., but his prior permission is not required incase of Constitutional

amendment bill. Statement 2 is true, because 7th schedule gives union, state and concurrent list. So Parliament cannot legislate on State matters, so in this way parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by Constitution. Answer Either (D) or (A) 14. Consider the following statements in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) : 1. Reports on the accounts of the States are submitted to the President who shall cause these to be placed before the Parliament. 2. CAG is appointed by the President of India and can be removed only on grounds and procedure similar to those of a Supreme Court Judge. 3. The form in which accounts of the Centre and States are to be kept is prescribed by CAG Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only CAG is responsible for doing audits of both state and union Government. He gives the union audit report to President and state audit report to the respective governors. Refer Article 151, Part 5, Constitution of India. http://www.constitution.org/cons/india/p05151.html or Laxmikanth Chapter on CAG -> Duties and Powers. Hence, Statement 1 is false because it says CAG gives State reports to President. So, eliminate all options containing statement 1. = A,B and D are eliminated. And we are left with answer (C)

Science

1. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the (a) Square of the weight (in kg) (b) Square of the height (in meters) (c) Square root of the height (in meters) (d) Vitamins intake Answer: (b) .One way to find out if adults are undernourished is to calculate what nutrition scientists call Body Mass Index (BMI). This is easy to calculate. Take the weight of the person in kg. Then take the height in metres. Divide the weight by the square of the height. Source: NCERT Class 10 Economy Chapter 1. 2. Gun metal is an alloy of (a) Copper, Tin and Zinc (b) Aluminium. Tin and Steel (c) Copper, Steel and Zinc, (d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc Answer (A) Gun Metal is Copper, Zinc and Tin. (googled) 3. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is called (a) Semiconductor (b) Conductor (c) Superconductor (d) Super semiconductor It is super-conductor. Question repeated from NDA exam taken in 2011. Wordweb Software Dictionary: Superconductor= A material that has no electric resistance (at a certain temperature) Also explained somewhere in NCERT science but cant locate it right now. Answer (C)

4. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin and lead. This alloy should have: a. High specific resistance and low melting point b. Low specific resistance and high melting point. c. Low specific resistance and low melting point, d. High specific resistance and high melting point A fuse wire should have low melting point, otherwise itll never melt even if there is overload! [For making bulb, itd be reverse- need high melting point] So eliminate (B) and (D) The main object of using fuse wire in electric circuit is to provide protection against short circuit or overload current. This means it protects the circuit from huge amount of current flow as it cause the damage to the circuit. The fuse wire select such a way that it burns and break the circuit when large current passes. For this purpose the material used as fuse wire should have high resistance and low melting point.Due to high resistance the wire heats up quickly, when huge current flows. The temperature around the fuse wire rapidly rises, when it reaches the melting point of the material it burns and protects the circuits. High resistance and low melting point are responsible to the quick response of the fuse wire towards the current. The common material used as fuse wire is an alloy of tin and lead. http://www.indiabix.com/general-knowledge/basic-general-knowledge/discussion-363 Answer (A) (Wikipedia talks about low resistance, but Ive picked up high resistance, because of above explanation.) Besides, here is another source that pretty much sums up the whole thing: fuse wire is made from an alloy which as a low melting point but high specific resistance. e.g usually a tin-lead alloy is used. -Page 210 of Numerical Physics Volume II, By Dr. P. K. Agrawal (Krishna Prakashan)

http://books.google.co.in/books?id=H9NcfkN1YaUC&pg=SA2-PA10&lpg=SA2PA10&dq=tin+lead+fuse+high+specific+resistance&source=bl&ots=Ify4DBcW1z&sig=q Wz-JKFzVYEOIdQpc-RaDbMKIL0&hl=en

5. Statement (I) In order to produce electric power from a geothermal reservoir, temperature above 180 is required. Statement (II) : To drive steam turbines, high temperature steam is used. Option (a). (OR debatable, because hard to locate a reliable source) Both correct, and 2 explains 1- based on interpretation of: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geothermal_electricity#Flash_steam_power_plants But this wiki article segment talks about merely one type of flash steam power plant. 6. The word FTP stands for

(a) File Transit Provision (b) File Translate Protocol (c) File Transfer Provision (d) File Transfer Protocol

FTP = File Transfer Protocol. GK 2013 Manohar Pandey (Page 100) So, Answer(D)

7. RAM stands for: (a) Random Access Memory (b) Read Access Memory (c) Random Attribute Memory

(d) Random Applicable Memory Random Access Memory Answer (A) Again GK 2013 Manohar Pandey (Page 98) or TMH Manual (Science > Computer portion). 8. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer ? (a) Monitor (b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) (c) Control Unit (d) Central Processing Unit (CPU) Lolz (D) 9. A technique in which data is written to two duplicate disks simultaneously, is called : (a) Mirroring (b) Multiplexing (c) Duplicating (d) Copying It is called Disc Mirroring. Answer (A) 10. term e-Waste refers to : a. The files that are deleted and enter the Waste-bin folder in a computer b. The temporary files, folders, links etc, that are rarely used in a computer c. The electronic products such as mobiles, PCs etc. that are disposed off after their useful life d. A portal that offers services for collecting household waste This term describes the describes discarded electrical or electronic devices. Answer (C) 11. CAD stands for : (a) Computer Aided Design (b) Computer Application in Design

(c) Coded Algorithm in Design (d) Coded Addressable Design CAD = Computer Aided Design. It is a type of software used mostly by engineers. Answer (A)

Yearbook
1. The Endeavour of Janani Suraksha Yojana Programme is to 1. Promote institutional deliveries 2. Provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery 3. Provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 For Wage loss during Pregnancy there is separate scheme called Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana(IGMSY) (Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Welfare.) So statement 3 is false. Eliminate the options containing Statement (3), and we are left with final answer (A) 2. Which of the following is the earliest in be constituted ? (a) Press Council of India (1966) (b) United News of India (1961) (c) NAM News Network (2005) (d) Press Trust of India (1947) Ive googled and given their formation years in bracket. You can now solve it on your own. 3. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at enhancing livelihood security in rural areas or India by providing at least one hundred : (a) Days of guaranteed employment in a financial year to able adults in the Information Technology sector. (b) Days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to adult members of a rural household

(c) Meals to children of Pura/ households in one financial year. (d) Employees for rural developmental schemes in a financial year Answer (B) Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Communications and Information Technology (Page 189, in the 2011 edition) 4. One of the following Government of India Programmes aims to help, build or upgrade dwelling units of below the poverty line rural families (a) National Social-Assistance Programme (b) Jawahat Rojgar Yojana (c) Indira Awas Yojana (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban . Renewal Mission Obviously Indira Awas Yojana. 5. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was launched in 1995 with the aim to: 1. Enhance enrolment, retention and attention of primary school children 2. Improve the nutritional status of primary school children 3. Improve the habit of reading reading rural households 4. Encourage the use of Tiffin boxes among primary School children (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 The Mid-day Meal Scheme was launched and implemented by the Ministry of Human Resource Development with a view to enhancing enrolment, retention and attendance and simultaneously improving nutritional levels among children with effect from 15 August 1995 So only 1 and 2 statement correct. Answer (A) Refer India Yearbook Chapter on Food and Civil Supplies. 6. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation of the National Cooperative Farming Advisory Board for putting cooperative farming on a sounder footing ?

(a) Every Society should have a definite programme for total pooling of lands. (b) Financial assistance should be given only for purchase of new land. (c) Stale Governments should give priority to revitalization of the existing societies. (d) Joint fanning must be practiced with respect to all lands of the society. Directly lifted from Pearson CSAT Manual 2012, Page E254 Question number 179 Answer is B (or Doubtful, because Im unable to find its recommendations on internet despite repeated google search using various keywords!) 7. Three States which have Human Development Index (HDI) higher than China are : (a) Kerala. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh (b) Kerala. Punjab and Maharashtra (c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Punjab (d) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat If we apply the common-sense that Chinas HDI is higher than India and Madhya Pradesh is the baddest state of India, in terms of HDI then every option containing Madhya Pradess HDI is usually very low. So A,C and D are gone and we are left with only Answer (B) But here is the twist in this storyEconomic Survey 2012, Chapter 13- Human Development, Page 303 the HDI of China for 2011 = 0.687 And HDI for various states of India for 2011, are given on http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Indian_states_and_territories_by_Human_Developmen t_Index So accordingly, Maharashtra and Gujarat have HDI are in the range of 0.5 something. So eliminate all options having Maharashtra OR Gujarat. And were left with no option! (If we go by that wikipage, then It is Kerala, Himachal Pradesh and Goa= have higher than China HDI but no such option is given.) 8. How does National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor ? 1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centers in rural areas. 2. By strengthening Self Help Groups (SHG) and providing skill development.

3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers. (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 only Refer to Economic Survey 2012, Chapter 13: Human Development.