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Due Fri 21 Jan 2011 1. Determine which of the following functions are uniformly continuous on the given set. Justify your answers using theorems. (a) f : (1, 3) R, dened by f (x) =
ex cos x+2 .
Soln. The function x R ex is continuous on all of R, as is cos +2. Since cos x + 2 is never 0, the function f dened on [1, 3] by f (x) = ex cos x + 2
is continuous. Since [1, 3] is compact, and every continuous function on a compact set is uniformly continuous, f is uniformly continuous. But, f extends f , so f is uniformly continuous on (1, 3). (b) f : (0, 2) R, dened by f (x) =
cos x x 1 x
= +,
lim f (x) = +
Thus, f does not have an extension to a function which is continuous on the closure of (0, 2). Hence, f is not uniformly continuous. (c) f : R \ {1}, dened by f (x) = x + 1, x > 1 x, x<1
Soln. If f had a continuous extension to cl(R \ {1}) = R, f would have to have a limit at 1, but limx1+ f (x) = 2 and limx1 f (x) = 1, so no such limit exists. Thus, f cannot be uniformly continuous. Note, by the way, that the restrictions of f to (1, +) and to (, 1) are both uniformly continuous, but f is not uniformly continuous on the whole domain.
2. Let f and g satisfy the hypotheses of Cauchys Mean Value Theorem on (a, +) and assume that limx+ f (x) = limx+ g(x) = 0. Prove that for each x (a, +), f (x 0 ) (x ) there exists x0 (a, +) such that f g (x ) = g (x 0 ) . Soln. Since + is not a real number, there is no such thing as f (+) or g(+), so we need to do something else. We used the following trick in the proof of one version of LH opitals rule. The function h : t a + 1/t maps (0, +) onto (a, ). For each x (a, ), h1 (x) = 1/(x a). Dene F and G on [0, +) by setting F (0) = G(0) = 0 and, for t > 0, F (t) = f (a + 1/t), and G(t) = g(a + 1/t). Then, F and G are continuous on [0, +): limt0 F (t) = 0 = F (0) and limt0 G(t) = 0 = G(0) and dierentiable on the interior with F (t) = f (a + 1/t)(1/t2 ) and G (t) = g (a + 1/t)(1/t2 ).
Thus, by Cauchys Mean Value Theorem, if x (a, +), we can put t = 1/(x a) and nd a point c between t and 0 with F (t)) F (t) F (0) F (c) f (a + 1/c)(1/c2 ) = = = G(t) G(t) G(0) G (c) g (a + 1/c)(1/c2 ) Then, choosing x0 = h(c) = a + 1/c yields a point of (a, +), actually x0 > x, with f (x) f (x0 ) = , g(x) g (x0 ) as desired. The reason we did not just use t 1/t in the proof was to avoid division by 0, in case a < 0.
has f (n) (0) = 0, for all n = 0, 1, 2, . . . , so that the remainder in Taylors theorem about 0 is the function f itself. Proof. First, for each x = 0, f (n) (x) is of the form Pn (1/x)f (x) = Pn (1/x) exp(1/x2 ), where Pn is a polynomial function. This is proved by induction: f (0) (x) = 1f (x), f (x) = exp(1/x2 )2/x3 = 2(1/x)3 f (x) and if f (n) (x) = Pn (1/x)f (x), then f (n+1) (x) = Pn (1/x)(1/x2 )f (x) + Pn (1/x)f (x) = Pn (1/x)(1/x2 )f (x) + Pn (1/x)2(1/x)3f (x) = (Pn (1/x)(1/x2 ) + Pn (1/x)2(1/x)3 )f (x) = Pn+1 (1/x)f (x), where Pn+1 is a polynomial, since both Pn and Pn are. Now, exponentials overpower polynomials, because, for any k , and positive a, ea ak /k !. Thus, |1/x| f (x) f (0 = x0 exp(1/x2 ) |1/x| 0, 1/x2 showing that f (0) = 0. Now, assume f (n) (0) = 0. If the degree of Pn is k , then f (n) (x) f n (0) (1/x)Pn(1/x) (1/x)Pn (1/x) = 0. 2 x0 exp(1/x ) (1/x2 )k /k ! Thus, f (n+1) (0) is also 0. This completes the inductive proof that all the derivatives of f are 0 at 0, as required. 4. Prove that, for a, b, x, y in metric space |d(x, y) d(a, b)| d(x, a) + d(y, b). Proof. Let a, b, x, y be in the metric space. Then, by the usual triangle inequality, d(x, y) d(x, a) + d(a, b) + d(b, y) = . so d(x, y) d(a, b) d(x, a) + d(b, y). Similarly, so d(a, b) d(x, y) d(a, x) + d(y, b). Combining these gives the result.
5. Prove that the sum of 2 real valued uniformly continuous functions is uniformly continuous, but the product need not be. Proof. Let f and g be uniformly continuous on X . Let > 0. Choose 1 > 0 so that for d(x, x ) < 1 , d(f (x), f (x )) < /2. Choose 2 > 0 so that for d(x, x ) < 2 , d(g(x), g(x )) < /2. Let = min{1 , 2 }, then for d(x, x ) < , we have d((f + g)(x), (f + g)(x )) = |f (x) + g(x) f (x ) g(x )| = |f (x) f (x ) + g(x) g(x )| |f (x) f (x )| + |g(x) g(x )| < /2 + /2 = . Thus, f + g is uniformly continuous on X . On the other hand, if f = g is dened on R by f (x) = g(x) = x, then f and g are both uniformly continuous, but (fg)(x) = x2 , so fg is not uniformly continuous.