NUTRITION Name________________________________________ Score/Grade ________

Test I-Identification. Write the correct answer on the space provided before the number. __________________1. sugar in the urine __________________2. inflammation of the liver __________________3. vomiting of blood __________________4. loss of appetite __________________5. frequent urination __________________6. increased hunger __________________7. loss of taste __________________8. breakdown of glycogen to glucose __________________9. fat formation __________________10. fat breakdown __________________11. passage of dark tarry stools __________________12. storage of glycogen in the liver __________________13. formation of new glucose in the liver __________________14. passage of blood in the stool __________________15. increased thirst __________________16. increased blood sugar __________________17. inflammation of the bile duct __________________18. difficulty in swallowing __________________19. blood in the urine __________________20. malignant tumor that develops in muscles, bones, cartilages and tissues. Test II. Multiple Choice. Encircle the best answer . No erasures. 1. A method of introducing food through a tube to a client with functional gastrointestinal tract as a supplemental nourishment is, a. peripheral parenteral nutrition c. enteral nutrition b. central parenteral nutrition d. none of these 2. Which of the following refers to the amount of urea, sodium, potassium and chloride in the urine? a. osmolality b. renal solute load c. viscosity d. residue 3. It refers to the measure of the ability of a solution to lose or draw water through a semi-permeable membrane, a. osmolality b. renal solute load c. viscosity d. residue 4. To prevent bacterial contamination during preparation of formulas for tube feeding, the following will be most useful except, a. use feeding container that are closed b. add new formulas to old ones c. prepared formula should be refrigerated d. refrigerated formula should be consumed after 8-10 hours 5. Parenteral nutrition is indicated to the following conditions except, a. severe diarrhea c. intractable vomiting b. massive small intestine resection d. severe constipation 6. A tube feeding administered wherein the flow of the formula should be slow at first, then increased gradually but kept in constant, steady rate not exceeding 100 ml/hr.

a. intermittent infusion

b. bolus feeding

c. continuous drip method d. none of these

7. Kyle was diagnosed with a gastric ulcer. He is asking you the specific site of the ulcer. What would you tell him? a. at the greater curvature of the stomach c. near the ileum b. at the lesser curvature of the stomach d. none of these 8. Which of the following is not a predisposing factor of peptic ulcer? a. smoking b. poor nutrition c. heredity d. moderate intake of alcohol 9. The dietary management for a bleeding ulcer is, a. nothing per orem with intravenous fluid c. give high fiber with intravenous fluid b. offer soft diet with intravenous fluid d. give fatty foods with IVF 10. The nurse recognizes that a client with duodenal ulcer will likely experience a. vomiting b. hemorrhage c. weight loss d. pain 1-2 hours after eating 11. It results from inflammation of small pouches in the colon wall and lining due to chronic constipation. a. ulcerative colitis b. diverticulitis c. diverticulosis d. regional enteritis 12. Which part of the intestine receives pancreatic enzymes and bile necessary for food digestion and absorption? a. duodenum b. jejunum c. ileum d. all of these 13. This condition occurs when there is defect in the muscle layers of the sigmoid colon causing the lumen to narrow and the intraluminal pressure to increase leading to development of pouches. a. hemorrhoid b. diverticulitis c. diverticulosis d. regional enteritis 14. Which of the following is inappropriate to include in a teaching session for a client with diverticulitis? a. practice stress management c. drink enough water b. eat high fiber diet d. eat foods that are highly refined 15. The process when the liver stores glucose as glycogen and returns it to the blood when glucose level becomes low, a. gluconeogenesis b. glycogenolysis c. glycogenesis d. none of these 16. The following are functions of the liver in carbohydrate metabolism except , a. conversion of monosaccharides to glucose c. production of glycogen b. degradation of glycogen upon demand d. all of these 17. An increase level of AST and ALT may indicate, a. bowel disorder b. gastric disorder c. liver damage d. pancreatitis

18. The mode of transmission of this viral hepatitis is through blood or serum transfusion, a. Hepa A & C b. Hepa A & B c. Hepa B & C d. Hepa A & D 19. Which of the following is not a goal in the dietary management of hepatitis? a. liver degeneration c. prevention of further injury b. promoting organ rest d. attractive food services 20. The type of liver cirrhosis that is associated with excessive copper storage in the liver, kidney and spleen, impaired bile excretion and progressive destruction of small bile ducts, a. billiary b. postnecrotic c.Laennecs d. none of these 21. In planning care for Resty with liver failure, which of the following best describes the dietary alteration, a. high CHO,CHON and fats c.. low CHON and fat b. low CHON and fat d. high fat and CHO 22. During an interview Jay asked the nurse the reason underlying his ascites. This is most likely due to, a. increased progesterone in the blood secondary to liver damage b. hypoproteinemia with retention of ammonia c. under excretion of estrogen arising from disease liver

d. portal hypertension 23. Why would a client with cirrhosis be weighed daily? a. to allow correction of a nutritional deficiency b. to monitor accumulation of edema and ascites c. to assess breakdown of tissue protein d. to monitor enlargement of the liver and spleen 24. Which of the following is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a. alcoholic cirrhosis b. biliary cirrhosis c. postnecrotic cirrhosis d. none of these 25. Mr. Craig is experiencing lethargy, disorientation, inappropriate behctor avior and drowsiness. What stage of hepatic encelopahthy is ,this? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 26. These are restricted when abdominal retention is evident, a. fluid and vitamins c. sodium and carbohydrates b. fluid and sodium d. sodium and protein 27. Dr. Cue ordered determination of fasting blood sugar of Aling Tina. The normal FBS is a. 40-65 mg/dl b. 70-110 mg/dl c. 110-145 mg/dl d. 150-175 mg/dl 28. Aling Tina was diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus. This classification involves the destruction of, a. alpha cells b. beta cells c. T-cells d. none of these 29. The nurse encouraged Mrs. Santos to exercise on regular basis primarily to, a. stimulate glucagon production c. improve cellular uptake of glucose b. decrease insulin sensitivity d. reduce metabolic need of glucose 30. Which of the following is not a high risk factor for diabetes? a. BMI of 20 kg/m2 b. parents or sibling with diabetes c. women with a history of having infants weighing more than 4.1 kg d. have increase blood pressure 31. The beta cells in the islands of Langerhans of the pancreas secrete hormone that lowers blood glucose, a. insulin b. glucagon c. secretin d. cholecystokine 32. Which of the following is not a role of the diet in diabetes? a. to provide insufficient calories to maintain ideal body weight b. to adjust food ingestion to the available insulin allowing only small amount c. to prevent acidosis or shock d. to furnish an adequate diet for good health and normal activity 33. If the patient is obese in diabetes, calories should be restricted to lower the weight of what percent below the desired body weight? a. 5 % b.10% c. 15% d. 20% 34. Which of the following manifestation is least likely to be experienced by a client with hypoglycemia? a. weakness, tremors c. headache, dizziness b. warm, flushed dry skin d. nervousness, shakiness 35. Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type II or non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus a. usually thin at diagnosis c. can control blood glucoce through diet & exercise b. prone to ketosis d. demonstrate islet cell antibodies 36. Characteristic findings of diabetes do not include a. polyuria caused by excessive amounts of glucose in the urine b. polyphagia caused by starvation at the cellular level c. polydipsia caused by polyuria d. weight gain caused by excessive appetite 37. A soft diet is prescribed to patient who can not tolerate solid foods. It is a transition diet between, a. liquid & cold diet b. liquid & bland diet c. liquid & regular diet d. none of these

38. Which of these is not a function of liver in fat metabolism? a. it converts ammonia to urea which is excreted in the urine b. it synthesizes ketone bodies c. it oxidizes fatty acid d. it synthesizes fat from fatty acids, carbohydrates and deaminized amino acid 39. A disorder of purine metabolism, in which excess of uric acid appears in the blood and the sodium urates are deposited as tophi in the small joints and the surrounding tissues, a. osteoarthritis b. gout c. rheumatoid arthritis d. none of these 40. Mr. Clark has been prescribed a diet that limits purine rich foods. Which of the following foods would you teach him to avoid eating? a. bananas and dried fruits c. milk, ice cream, & yogurt b. anchovies, sardines, kidney d. fish, vegetable oil & eggs 41. A diet prescribed for the prevention, control and elimination of edema in many pathologic conditions and occasionally for the alleviation of hypertension, a. sodium restricted diet b. low fat diet c. soft diet d. full diet 42. The postoperative dietary management guide suggest that a postoperative patient on the first day will be on what kind of diet? a. NPO with intravenous feeding c. intravenous fluid/ice chips/sips of water b. intravenous fluid/liquid diet d. intravenous fluid/soft diet 43. A complex physiological response to the rapid emptying of food and water in the proximal small intestine, a. gastroesophageal reflux b.dumping syndrome c. peptic ulcer d. celiac disease 44. The following are characteristic of osteoarthritis except, a. hypertrophy of bone at the margins c. regeneration of the joint cartilage b.changes in the synovial membrane d. all of these 45. The diet prescribed for rheumatoid arthrititis is, a. purine controlled diet c. vegetarian diet b. high energy protein supplements d. high energy/moderate carbohydrates 46. Which of the following refers to black, tarry stools, a. hematemesis b. melena c. hemarthrosis d. pyrosis

47. What part of the gastrointestinal tract is affected in gluten-sensitive enteropathy? a. gastric mucosa b. intestinal mucosa c. bowel mucosa d. esophageal mucosa 48. Which of the following foods should be avoided in celiac disease? a. corn b. potatoes c. oats d. rice 49. This is due to obstruction of the bile ducts caused by gallstones resulting to the inflammation of the gallbladder is, a. cholecystitis b. cholelithiasis c. choledolithiasis d. cholangitis 50. The diet prescribed for cholelithiasis is , a. high protein b. high fiber c. low fat d. low protein

Bonus Question: (5 pts) As a student nurse, what will you teach the community to prevent the spread of H1N1 virus?

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