Bio Sci M122, Spring 2010 Final Exam

Version A

Student Name: ______________________________

Student ID: ___________________

1. Which of the following is not true of viruses?

A. Viruses are acellular. B. Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes in other more complex layers. C. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. D. Viruses replicate by binary fission. 2. The function of the viral protein coat is to A. protect the viral genetic material. B. aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells. C. elicit the production of protective antibodies. D. protect the viral genetic material and aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells. 3. Which of the following is/are true about the word Virus? A. It is of Latin origin and means poison. B. It was used to describe disease-causing agents long before such agents were observed. C. It is currently used to describe a small class of acellular entities that cause disease. D. all of the choices 4. Viruses with single-stranded RNA as their genome for which the base sequence is the same as the viral mRNA are said to be __________ viruses. A. plus-stranded B. minus-stranded C. mRNA-like D. none of these 5. Which of the following is true of viruses in the extracellular phase? A. They possess many different enzymes. B. They can reproduce independently of living cells but only at a slow rate. C. They behave as a macromolecular complex and are no more alive than are ribosomes. D. They possess many different enzymes and they can reproduce independently of living cells but only at a slow rate 6. The simplest viruses consist of A. RNA only. B. Protein only. C. RNA or DNA in a protein coat. D. RNA or DNA in a protein coat covered with lipid envelope. E. RNA, DNA and enzymes in a protein coat with a lipid envelope. 7. The solubility of oxygen in water will change in which way when the water temperature is lowered? A. No change will occur. B. The solubility will increase. C. The solubility will decrease. D. The solubility will first decrease then increase.

8. In oligotrophic lakes, _______________ is often the limiting nutrient.

A. phosphorus B. manganese C. iron D. nitrogen 9. Estuaries feature a characteristic salinity profile called a(n) __________________ . A. Salt Wedge B. Hypolimnion C. epilimnion D. thermocline 10. Mycorrhizae are formed by the association of plants with A. algae. B. actinomycetes. C. cyanobacteria. D. fungi. 11. Rhizobium and Bradyrhizobium are significant contributors to which process when engaged in a symbiotic relationship with leguminous plants? A. nitrification B. nitrogen fixation C. denitrification D. sulfate reduction 12. In water-logged bog soil A. peat is accumulated. B. bacteria are more important than fungi in the decomposition processes. C. fungi are more important than bacteria in the decomposition processes. D. both peat is accumulated and bacteria are more important than fungi in the decomposition processes. E. both peat is accumulated and fungi are more important than bacteria in the decomposition processes. 13. Acquired immunity refers to the type of specific immunity that A. develops after exposure to a specific pathogen. B. involves the participation of lymphocytes. C. involves a memory aspect. D. all of the choices 14. Which of the following is (are) way(s) that the complement system aids in the defensive responses of an organism? A. lysis of antibody coated gram-negative bacteria B. attract phagocytic cells C. activation of phagocytic cells D. All of these are ways that the complement system aids in the defensive responses of an organism.

15. Dendritic cells

A. play an important role in the development of allergies and hypersensitivity. B. contain granules with histamine and other pharmacologically active substances that contribute to the inflammatory response. C. are capable of recognizing specific pathogen-associated molecular patterns and play an important role in non-specific resistance. D. are mainly important in the defense against protozoan and helminth parasites. 16. Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) include A. lipopolysaccharide. B. peptidoglycan. C. phospholipids of the cytoplasmic membrane. D. two of the choices E. all of the choices 17. A mature activated B cell is called a(n) A. plasma cell. B. dendritic cell. C. natural killer cell. D. spleen cell. 18. The variable domain of antibody molecules A. interacts with various cells of the immune system. B. binds target antigen. C. interacts with phagocytic cells. D. interacts with the first component of the complement system. 19. T cells produce and secrete factors which do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but which augment the body's defense mechanisms. These molecules are called A. antibodies. B. cytokines. C. immunogens. D. augmetins. 20. Class I major histocompatibilty complex molecules are found on ____________ cells. A. all nucleated B. antigen-presenting C. all anucleated D. none of the choices 21. The only immunoglobulin class with members able to cross the placental barrier is A. IgA. B. IgM. C. IgG. D. IgE. 22. In humans, the major antigen-presenting cells are A. eosinophils. B. T cells. C. macrophages. D. B cells.

23. When a presented antigen fragment interacts with the T cell receptor of a helper T cell, the coreceptor that must also participate to finalize recognition is A. CD4. B. CD8. C. MHC I. D. all of these. 24. Botulinum antitoxin produced in a horse and given to a human suffering from botulism food poisoning is an example of A. naturally acquired passive immunity. B. naturally acquired active immunity. C. artificially acquired active immunity. D. artificially acquired passive immunity 25. When an individual's immune system comes into contact with an appropriate antigenic stimulus during the course of daily activities, this is called A. naturally acquired passive immunity. B. naturally acquired active immunity. C. artificially acquired active immunity. D. artificially acquired passive immunity. 26. Listeria monocytogenes propels itself through mammalian host cells using: A. a modified form of gliding motility. B. host cell actin and other cytoskeletal proteins. C. periplasmic flagella. D. fimbriae based twitching motility. 27. Strategies that allow pathogens to survive inside of phagocytic cells include which of the following? A. escape from the phagosome before it merges with lysosomes B. resistance to toxic products released into the phagolysosome after fusion C. prevention of phagosome fusion with lysosomes D. all of the choices 28. Strategies used by bacteria to evade the complement system include which of the following? A. production of capsules that prevent complement activation B. production of surface structures that interfere with formation of the membrane attack complex C. production of excess peptidoglycan, which prevents cell lysis D. both production of capsules that prevent complement activation and production of surface structures that interfere with formation of the membrane attack complex E. both production of surface structures that interfere with formation of the membrane attack complex and production of excess peptidoglycan, which prevents cell lysis 29. The toxic component of lipopolysaccharride is called A. lipid A. B. exotoxin. C. hemolysin. D. O antigen polysaccharide. 30. In the case of the AB toxins, the function of the B subunit is to

A. act as a neurotoxin. B. have enzyme activity that causes toxicity. C. act as a superantigen that stimulates T cells to release cytokines. D. bind to host cell receptor. 31. The gene for diphtheria toxin is carried by A. a plasmid. B. a bacteriophage. C. the chromosome. D. a transposon. 32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an endotoxin? A. heat stable B. moderate toxicity C. weakly immunogenic D. neurotoxic 33. The type __________ secretion system enables gram negative bacteria to inject virulence proteins into the cytoplasm of eucaryotic host cells. A. I B. II C. III D. IV 34. The science of epidemiology A. evaluates the control of disease in a defined population. B. evolved in relation to the great epidemic diseases. C. embraces all diseases. D. all of these 35. An epidemic is A. a disease that maintains a steady low level frequency. B. when a disease occurs occasionally and at erratic intervals in the human population. C. a sudden increase in the occurrence of a disease above the expected level. D. a sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a limited segment of a population. 36. The first epidemiologist was A. Robert Koch. B. Louis Pasteur. C. John Snow. D. Edward Jenner. 37. A(n) __________ carrier is an individual who harbors the infectious organism but is not ill. A. active B. convalescent C. healthy D. incubatory

38. ___________ immunity is an epidemiological concept that explains the resistance of a

population to infection and the spread of an infectious organism due to the immunity of a high percentage of the population? A. Natural B. Experimental C. Herd D. Innate 39. A __________ rate measures the number of individuals who become ill as a result of a specific disease within a susceptible population during a specific time period. A. prevalence B. morbidity C. mortality D. index 40. Tinea pedis is A. a beard infection. B. an infection of scalp hair. C. known as "jock itch". D. known as "athlete's foot". 41. Which of the following fungi causes Valley fever in semi-arid regions of North American? A. Coccidioides immitis B. Blastomyces dermatitidis C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Histoplasma capsulatum 42. The major portal of entry for Aspergillus is the A. gastrointestinal tract. B. respiratory tract. C. urinary tract. D. skin. 43. Which of the following has emerged as one of the leading organisms responsible for death in AIDS patients? A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Pneumocystis carinii C. Aganthamoeba D. Naegleria 44. A major organism considered to cause food-borne infection is A. Salmonella. B. Staphylococcus. C. Pseudomonas. D. Bacillus. 45. Ergotism involves microorganism production of A. thermostable enzymes. B. hallucinogenic alkaloids. C. sweeteners. D. flavoring compounds. 46. Pasteurization of milk

A. is no longer used for food processing in the USA. B. usually eliminates all disease-causing organisms. C. is a method for sterilization of food items. D. reduces microbial growth by decreasing availability of water. 47. Cryptosporidium is an important waterborne disease. This organism is a A. virus. B. bacterium. C. fungus. D. protozoan 48. Fecal coliforms are useful indicator organisms for the contamination of water by A. agricultural fertilizer runoff. B. sewage. C. phosphates. D. all of the choices 49. Vancomycin A. inhibits the transglycosylase reaction in peptidoglycan biosynthesis. B. interferes with the action of the lipid carrier that transports peptidoglycan precursors across the plasma membrane. C. inhibits the transpeptidation reaction in peptidoglycan biosynthesis. D. blocks the addition of the pentapeptide chain during peptidoglycan biosynthesis. 50. The ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose is called the A. toxicity index. B. phenol coefficient. C. therapeutic index. D. susceptibility quotient. 51. The drug of last resort that is generally used in treating infections caused by methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus is A. trimethoprim. B. ciprofloxacin. C. chloramphenicol. D. vancomycin. 52. Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis? A. dapsone B. erythromycin C. penicillin D. isoniazid 53. In order to be effective, the concentration of a drug in the body must be A. higher than the pathogen's minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC). B. lower than the pathogen's MIC. C. higher than the pathogen's MLC. D. lower than the pathogen's MLC. 54. Which of the following is not an amoeba?

A. Entamoeba hystolytica B. Acanthamoeba species C. Cryptosporidium species D. Naegleria fowleri 55. Influenza virus type ________ was responsible for the 1918 Spanish Flu and the 2009 Swine Flu. A. H5/N1 B. H1/N5 C. H2/N3 D. H1/N3 E. H1/N1 56. Birds are susceptible to the influenza strains with Hemagglutinins that recognize the ________ sialic acid linkage while humans are susceptible to strains that bind the ________ linkage. A. alpha 2-3 and alpha 2-6 B. alpha 2-6 and alpha 2-3 C. alpha 2-3 and alpha 2-4 D. alpha 2-4 and alpha 2-6 57. Which is not true of viruses? A. They are obligate intracellular parasites B. They can be destroyed with antibiotics C. They can be observed with an electron microscope D. They are acellular E. They replicate only inside host cells 58. The reactivated form of chickenpox is called A. rubella B. adenovirus. C. herpes zoster. D. rubeola. 59. Which of the following drugs has been shown to reduce the duration and symptoms of influenza? A. penicillin B. AZT C. amantadine D. acyclovir

60. With respect to orthomyxoviruses, changes in antigenicity usually occur as a result of:

A. antigenic drift. B. antigenic shift. C. frameshift mutations. D. both antigenic drift and antigenic shift E. both antigenic drift and frameshift mutations F. both antigenic shift and frameshift mutations 61. BONUS QUESTIONI have entered my name and student ID number and Test version on my scantron card. A. True B. False C. Maybe D. Let me think about that E. Ill get back to you 62. BONUS QUESTION-

0.2 mls of a 10-4 dilution of a virus preparation yields 90 plaques. What is the number of PFU per ml in the undiluted virus preparation? A. 9.0 105 B. 4.5 106 C. 4.5 107 D. 9.0 108 63. Bonus QuestionIt is difficult to treat central nervous system infections because A. the organisms causing such infections are usually resistant to most drugs. B. it is difficult for many drugs to penetrate the blood-brain barrier. C. most infections of the central nervous system are caused by fungi. D. toxic side effects can result in severe neurological damage.