Section 1

Direction for questions 1 to 3: Answer the questions based on the following information. You have a normal chessboard with 64 squares. 16 pearls are put around each of the squares symmetrically, i.e. 4 pearls on four corners of a square and then 3 pearls between any two of those corner pearls on each side of the square. 1. How many pearls will you need for the entire operation? a. 720 b. 656 c. 513

d. None of these

2.

How many distinct (not congruent) rectangles (not squares) with distinct dimensions are there on the chessboard? a. 28 b. 56 c. 112 d. 1296 If side of a square is considered to be 1 unit, then how many squares of 16 sq. unit area are there on the board? a. 16 b. 25 c. 204 d. None of these

3.

Direction for questions 4 to 6: Answer the questions based on the following information. n is a natural number and n! means product of first n natural numbers. 4. n! ends with 31 zeros. How many values can n have? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5

d. 7

5.

If n is odd and n! ends with 32 zeros, then how many values of n are possible? a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. None of these If n! ends with 29 zeros and n is even, then how many values of n are possible? a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. None of these

6.

Direction for questions 7 to 9: Answer the questions based on the following information. We have 2197 identical small cubes. We assemble them and form a bigger cube (13 13 13). Three different surfaces of this bigger cube is painted with three different colours (blue, orange and green). No pair of opposite surfaces is painted. Now the bigger cube is broken into the original smaller cubes. 7. How many cubes will have their three surfaces painted with three different colours? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 How many cubes will have exactly two different colours on it? a. 36 b. 33 c. 60

8.

d. 66

9.

How many cubes will have none of their surfaces painted with any colour? a. 1728 b. 2197 c. 1000 d. None of these

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Direction for questions 10 to 12: Answer the questions based on the following information. An astronomical clock is divided into 24 parts. Minute hand completes one rotation in one hour but hour hand completes one rotation in 24 hr. 10. How many times in 24 hr do the minute hand and hour hand coincide? a. 22 b. 21 c. 23

d. None of these

11.

How many times in 24 hr the minute hand and hour hand are perpendicular to each other? a. 44 b. 48 c. 45 d. None of these How many times in 24 hr the minute hand and hour hand are exactly opposite to each other? a. 22 b. 21 c. 23 d. Data insufficient

12.

Direction for questions 13 to 15: Answer the questions based on the following information. We have 98 coupons inside a box. These coupons are marked with first 98 natural numbers. No coupon has two numbers on it and no two coupons have the same number. 13. If we select 5 coupons randomly, then in how many ways can we get an even number as sum of the numbers that appear on the coupons? a. 49C5 b. 49C48 49 C4 c. 49C48 49C45 + 49C3 49C2 + 49C44 d. None of these If we select 7 coupons randomly, then in how many ways can we get an even number as product of the seven natural numbers that appear on the coupons? a. 49C1 49C6 + 49C2 49C5 + 49C3 49C4 + 49C4 49C3 + 49C5 49C2 + 49C6 49C1 + 49C7 49C0 b. 98C7 49C7 c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these If we select 2 coupons randomly, then in how many ways can we get a two-digit number as product of the numbers that appear on these coupons? a. 235 b. 221 c. 226 d. 215

14.

15.

Direction for questions 16 and 17: Answer the questions based on the following information. Kamal and Vimal start running simultaneously from cities P and Q towards cities Q and P respectively on a straight road joining these cities . On reaching Q, Kamal immediately turns back and starts running towards P, and keeps doing so. Vimal also turns toward city Q on reaching P. Their speeds remain constant throughout the entire operation. 16. In going to Q from P for the first time, how many times does Kamal meet Vimal? a. Once b. Twice c. Thrice d. Data insufficient When Kamal and Vimal meet for the third time, how many times Kamal has touched city Q? a. Once b. Twice c. Thrice d. Data insufficient

17.

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Mock CAT Test 5

Direction for questions 18 to 20: Answer the questions based on the following information. The following graphs involve a random variable x which has two functions f(x) and g(x) defined for all natural numbers x. Choose the answer as a. if f(x) = g(x). b. if f(x) = g(x). c. if f(x) = g(x). d. if none of the above is true. 18.

f(x) 1 1
19.

g(x) 1 1 x x

f(x) x 1

g(x) 1 x

20.

f(x) 1 1 x 1

g(x)

Direction for questions 21 and 22: Answer the questions based on the following information.

R T P S U Q

Sudhir and Sudip go for morning walk everyday to the nearby triangular park PQR. The walking track in the park is as shown in the figure (PQR and SUT). PQR is an equilateral triangle with each side as 4 km and S, U and T are the mid-points of the respective sides. They both walk at a speed of 4 km/hr. The walking path of Sudhir is Q-S-U-T-S-P-S-Q and that of Sudip is R-U-S-T-P-T-R. 21. If they start walking at the same time, where do they meet for the first time? a. U b. S c. P d. None of these

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22.

If they start walking at the same time, when do they meet for the first time? a. After 20 min b. After 40 min c. After 45 min d. None of these

Direction for question 23: Answer the question independently. 23. Two squares are chosen at random from the small squares drawn on a chessboard. What is the chance that the two squares chosen have exactly one corner in common? a. 0.052 b. 0.042 c. 0.048 d. 0.075

Direction for questions 24 and 25: Answer the questions based on the following information. f(x) = Nearest prime number to x on the number line and f(x) x. g(x) = Nearest even number to x on the number line and g(x) x. h(x) = Nearest odd number to x on the number line and h(x) x. x is a non-negative number. You do not have to consider zero as an even number. 24. If x 25, then for how many xs f(x) = h(x)? a. 9 b. 8 If f(x) = g(x), then a. x must be zero. c. 0 x < 2.

c. 10

d. Data insufficient

25.

b. x must be either 1 or 0. d. None of these

Direction for question 26: Answer the question independently. 26. Sameer will be passing out of IIM next month. He has three foreign job offers on hand. The first job offers of 10,000 Euros per month and a fixed raise of 500 Euros per month after completing one year of service. The second job offers starting salary of 10,000 Euros per month and a fixed raise of 700 per month after completing one year of service. The third job offers starting salary of 5,000 Euros and a fixed raise of Rs. 1,000 Euros per month after completing one year of service. Sameer plans to work abroad for five years only and maximize his income in this period. Which job should he take up? a. Job 1 b. Job 2 c. Job 3 d. None of these

Direction for questions 27 to 29: Answer the questions based on the following information. There are 300 students in a hostel. 35 of them play cricket, 85 play carrom and 59 play basketball. 35 of them play cricket and carrom both, 40 of them play carrom and basketball both and 29 of them play basketball and cricket both. 27. How many of them play all three games? a. 20 b. 10 How many of them play only basketball? a. 40 b. 11

c. Data insufficient

d. None of these

28.

c. Data insufficient

d. None of these

29.

How many of them play exactly two of these three games? a. 46 b. 49 c. Data insufficient

d. None of these

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Mock CAT Test 5

Direction for questions 30 and 31: Answer the questions based on the following information. We have 1000 identical cubes marked with numbers from 1 to 1000. All the cubes are marked with distinct numbers. 30. In how many ways can we make a bigger cube with 64 of these cubes so that sum of the numbers on these 64 cubes is a. 1 b. 1000C64 c. 30 1000C64 d. None of these In how many ways can we pick up 10 cubes out of 1000 cubes so that product of the numbers on surfaces of 9 of the cubes is equal to product of the numbers on surfaces of all 10? a. 0 b. 1 c. 999C63 d. None of these

31.

Direction for questions 32 and 33: Answer the questions based on the following information. f(x) is a quadratic expression. f(0) = 12, f(1) = 6 and f (2) = 2. 32. If and are the roots of f(x) = 0, then a. 91 b. 152 f(x) will be minimum for x = ? a.
1 4

3 + 3 is
c. 341 d. 1728

33.

b.

2 4

c.

49 4

d.

7 2

Direction for questions 34 and 35: Answer the questions based on the following information. In an island Pedhauli, people use only three symbols to write any number. Symbols are A, V and P. They write 10 as PAP. They write 15 as PVA. They write 27 as PAAA. 34. How do Pedhauli people write 20? a. VAV b. VVV What is the decimal equivalent to VPAV? a. 65 b. 66

c. AVA

d. None of these

35.

c. 67

d. 68

Direction for questions 36 to 38: Answer the questions based on the following information. f(x) =

xx

xx

x.......

, g(x) = x x x x ... and

h(x) = x + x + x + x + x ... x is a whole number. 36. What is the remainder, when f(x) is divided by 5 (x = 2)? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 What is the remainder, when g(x) is divided by 5 (x = 2)? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4

d. None of these

37.

d. Cannot be determined
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Mock CAT Test 5

38.

If f(x) = g(x) and ax2 + bx + c = 0 is a quadratic equation (a 0) , then which of the following is always true? a. a2 = (b + c)2 b. b2 = 2ac c. b =

a+c 2

d. None of these

Direction for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions based on the following information. a0, a1, a2, a3 ... an are (n + 1) vertices of a regular polygon. Functions f(x) and g(x) are defined as follows. f(n) = Total number of diagonals in a regular polygon of (n + 1) sides. g(n) = Total number of triangles that can be made using the vertices of the (n + 1) sided regular polygon, as its vertices. None of the sides of the triangle should be common with that of polygon. 39. If f(n) = 5, then what is the value of g(n)? a. 4 b. 5 If g(n) = 50, then what is the value of n? a. 9 b. 10 If f(n) = g(n), then the maximum value of n is a. 2 b. 3

c. 3

d. None of these

40.

c. 11

d. 12

41.

c. 4

d. 5

42.

If f(n) = 9, then what is the sum of all internal angles of n sided regular polygon? a. 540 b. 720 c. 360 d. None of these

Direction for questions 43 and 44: Answer the questions based on the following information. |x| + |y| = 7, |x|2 + |y|2 = 25 (x, y R) 43. How many values of x3 + y3 are possible? a. 1 b. 2 What is the value of |x y|2? a. 1 b. 49

c. 3

d. 4

44.

c. 4

d. Cannot be determined

Direction for questions 45 to 47: Answer the questions based on the following information. Vijay and Vivek are crazy. Once they ordered for three special dice. Each of the dice had 8 surfaces marked with natural numbers from 1 to 8. Each of the dice was unbiased, i.e. probability of getting any number (1 through 8) on the upper surface of dice after rolling it was Malhotra. Nikhil rolled the dice. 45. What is the probability of Nikhil getting 10 as sum of the numbers on upper surfaces of the dice? a.
1 8 1 . Vijay and Vivek gave these dice to Nikhil 8

b.

27 512

c.

31 256

d.

9 128

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Mock CAT Test 5

46.

What are the most probable numbers that Nikhil can get as sum of the numbers that appear on the upper surfaces of the dice? a. 11 and 12 b. 12 and 13 c. 13 and 14 d. None of these What is the probability of Nikhil getting 17 as sum of the numbers on upper surfaces of the dice? a.
9 128

47.

b.

1 9

c.

19 64

d.

37 256

Direction for questions 48 and 49: Answer the questions based on the following information. f (x) = Product of first x prime numbers. g(x) = Product of (x + 1)th to (x + 10)th prime numbers. h (x) = Product of (x + 11)th to (x + 90)th prime numbers. x is a natural number. 48. Which of the following is/are always a prime number(s)? I. f (x) + 1 II. g(x) h(x) + 1 III. f(x) g(x) h(x) + 1 a. I only b. I and II c. I and III If x 5, then f(x) is always divisible by I. 10 II. 77 III. 2310 IV. 105 a. I only b. I and II

d. I, II and III

49.

c. I, II and IV

d. I, II, III and IV

Direction for question 50: Answer the question independently. 50. If f(a, b, c) = a b c and g (a, b, c) = a + b + c, then for how many triples (set of three numbers), f(a, b, c) = g(a, b, c)? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3

d. None of these

Direction for questions 51 to 61: Each question is followed by two statements I and II. Answer questions using the following instructions. Choose the answer as a. if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone. b. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone. c. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone. d. if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together. 51. What is the ratio in which a line divides the circle x2 + y2 + 4x 12 = 0? I. The line is X-axis. II. The radius of the circle is 4 units.

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52.

What is the probability that a person from a group of 25 people drinks only tea if only two types of drinks (tea and coffee) are available and every person has atleast one drink? I. 12 people drink tea and 15 people drink only coffee. II. 13 people drink coffee. What is number of votes polled in the election? (No vote is invalid.) I. Of the total of three candidates, Anshuman won with a margin of 100 votes. II. There was a tie between the two (other then Anshuman), but together they got 50% more than Anshuman. x and y are integers such that their LCM is 765 and their GCF is 17. What are the values of x and y? I. x + y = 238 II. x y = 68 Two buses x and y travel the same distance in same time. Of the two which one is faster (assume any speed)? I. x rests for
2 times y rides. 3 1 times x rides. 3

53.

54.

55.

II. y rests for

56.

What is the average of x, y and z? I. The average of x and y is 5. II. The average of y and z is 6. What is the total cost of putting a paper on the four walls of a room? I. The room is 18 m long, 12 m broad and 7 m high. II. There is only one door measuring 3 m 2 m in the room and there are no windows. What is the value of a? I. When a is divided by 4, the remainder is 1. II. When a is divided by 5, the remainder is 1. Is the price of eight apples greater than the price of eight oranges? I. The price of 12 apples is greater than the price of eight oranges. II. The price of 12 oranges is greater than the price of eight appples. How many votes did A get? I. D outranked E by 40 votes. II. A won the election by a 42% majority. d, e, f and g are in GP. Is g positive? I. d is positive. II. The common ratio is positive.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

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Mock CAT Test 5

Section I1
Direction for questions 62 to 65: Answer the questions based on the following graph. The diagram gives the class composition of a business school for 2000-2002 batch.

35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0

30 25 18 7 2 Information Technology Marketing International Business 17 10 2 7 1 1 Manufacturing and Operations Finance 15 5 18

Engineers

Non-Engineers

Females

62.

What is the percentage of females in the total batch? a. 17.6% b. 18.8% c. 20%

d. 25%

63.

1 If 83 % of the non-engineers in the finance specialization are males, then what is the ratio of male 3

engineers to female non-engineers in this specialization? a. 1 : 3 b. 6 : 5 c. 2 : 3 64.

d. None of these

If the average salary package for the information technology, marketing and finance specialization was 4.8 lakh per annum and for the other specialisations was 4.0 lakh per annum then what is the overall average salary package per annum for the students of 2000-2002 batch of the business school? a. 4.25 lakh b. 4.55 lakh c. 4.65 lakh d. 4.7 lakh If the number of engineers enrolling for the course increased successively by 8% in 2001 and 2002 whereas the number of seats increased by successively 5% only during these 2 years, what is the percentage decrease in number of non-engineers from 2000-2002 ? a. 0 b. Between 0 and 2 c. Between 2 and 3 d. Above 3

65.

Direction for questions 66 to 69: Answer the questions based on the following graph. The following line charts gives the conclusions of the Business Expectation Survey, Business Confidence Index (BCI) gives the expectation measure for the industry and is calculated as half the sum of its four components Overall Economic Condition (OEC), Firms Financial Position (FFP), Investment Climate (IC) and Capacity Utilisation (CU).

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Business Confidence Index 125 113.4 100 75 50 May 1998

101.7

121

92.9

May 1999

May 2000

May 2001

Investment Climate

60 40 20

43.5

32.3

26.6 24.5

0 May 1998

May 1999

May 2000

May 2001

Capacity Utilization

90 70 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 May 1998

76.9 85.1 68.2

May 1999

May 2000

May 2001

66.

In May 2001 OEC is down to 30.2 from 38.0 in May 2000, what is FFPs percentage change in May 2001? a. 27% b. 36.37% c. 41.27% d. 43.67% From the data of the above question which component of BCI suffered the greatest decrease between May 2000 and May 2001? a. IC b. CU c. OEC d. FFP The percentage decrease of IC from May 1998 to May 2000 and May 1999 to May 2001 are in the ratio a. 7 : 6 b. 7 : 5 c. 8 : 7 d. 8 : 5 If in September 2001 there was a terrorist attack in a country which lowered the BCI to 82.5 in October 2001 and lowering IC, CU and OEC by 6.25,10 and 21% of their May 2001 values respectively, then what is the percentage change in FFP from May 2001 (assume data of question 66)? a. 9.67% b. 10.02% c. 10.56% d. 11.09%

67.

68.

69.

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Mock CAT Test 5

Direction for questions 70 to 75: Answer the questions based on the following information. Dhrub, the great gambler, goes to a race field with certain amount of money in his pocket. He puts his money in five consecutive races numbered 1 to 5, unfortunately he wins only the odd numbered races. In the odd numbered races he had put all the money he had and won twice that amount . For the even-numbered races he 1 of what the amount he had and lost whole of it. At the end of the day to his great delight he had put only 4 found that he had Rs. 1,152 with him and so he went to watch movie with his three girl-friends. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. How much money did Dhrub win in all? a. Rs. 536 b. Rs. 626 c. Rs. 896 d. None of these d. Rs. 96 d. Rs. 412

What is the lowest amount put by Dhrub in any race? a. Rs. 128 b. Rs. 256 c. Rs. 384 What is the amount put by Dhrub in the third race? a. Rs. 276 b. Rs. 384 c. Rs. 396

If Dhrub stopped betting after race fourth, what would have been the amount that he would have won. a. Rs. 576 b. Rs. 412 c. Rs. 372 d. Rs. 320 If the trends for winning and losing were reversed, what money would have been left in Dhrubs pocket at the end of the races, if he started with the same amount and all other conditions remained same as well? a. Rs. 112 b. Rs. 200 c. Rs. 216 d. None of these He spent all the money he had and at the end he had four rupees left. With that he wanted to buy icecream for his three girl-friends and himself, each ice-cream costing one rupee. In how may ways can he buy four ice-creams so that he always gets only one while his girlfriends share the rest, not necessarily equally? a. 5 b. 6 c. 9 d. 10

75.

Direction for questions 76 to 80: Answer the questions based on the following table. In a country, full of intellectual people, a survey was conducted to study their reading habits. The following is the outcome of the survey which reveal their frequencies of reading a new book.
Age group (years) 15-30 More than one i n a week One i n a week One i n a fortni ght One i n a month 3-4 i n a year less often Never 4,300 8,335 10,250 16,100 13,800 9,900 27,440 2,200 5,200 6,225 8,050 6,600 5,050 3,050 30-45 1,200 1,500 2,525 4,025 3,350 1,275 3,725 Above 45 900 1,635 1,500 4,025 3,850 3,575 20665
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B ook reading frequency Total

Mock CAT Test 5

76.

What is the total number of people surveyed? a. 88,600 b. 90,125

c. 91,215

d. 92,470

77.

What is the percentage of people between age group 30-45 who read one book in a week with respect to the whole group? a. 15% b. 18% c. 20% d. 21% What is the ratio of the number of people surveyed who read more than one book in a week to that reading less than 3-4 books in a year? a. 1 : 7 b. 2 : 7 c. 1 : 9 d. 3 : 23 What is the total percentage of people below 45 years, among those surveyed, who never read a book? a. 7% b. 7.5% c. 8% d. 9% If the survey gives a true potrait of the reading habits of the population of that city, then what is the percentage of the people below 45 who read book? a. 70% b. 62% c. 55% d. Data insufficient

78.

79.

80.

Direction for questions 81 to 85: Answer the questions based on the following table. The following table gives the conclusions of a survey conducted in a town regarding their preferences for watching two games soccer and cricket on television.

Age group (in years)

Cricket Male Female 30 120 40

S o ccer Male Female Male 30 180 40 20 100 50 10 80 30

Both Female 15 65 20

Total sample surveyed Male 100 260 200 Female 120 160 430

10-15 16-35 36-40

81.

40 160 50

How many of the people surveyed preferred only one of the sports? a. 410 b. 430 c. 450

d. 420

82.

What percentage of people over 35 years do not prefer any of the sports? a. 21% b. 79% c. 55% d. 61% What is the highest percentage of people of any age group preferring both the games? a. 13.5% b. 34.5% c. 56.5% d. None of these Which of the following are true? I . In all age groups men like cricket more than soccer. II. There are 20 more cricket-lovers than soccer-lovers. III. Totally, 1,270 people were surveyed. a. I and II b. II and III c. I, II and III d. None of these

83.

84.

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Mock CAT Test 5

85.

What is the ratio of people in the age groups 16-35, 10-15, 36-40 that prefer at least one sport? a. 19 : 83 : 26 b. 83 : 19 : 26 c. 26 : 83 : 19 d. None of these

Direction for questions 86 to 95: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that follow. 86. The propensity to exaggerate doom and gloom can be damaging when we delight in playing down successes or actually turning them into failures. The classic example has been the Millennium Dome. The exhibitions there were far better than most of the media gave them credit for and were enjoyed by most people who saw them. Unremitting criticism and mockery by people, many of whom did not actually visit the Dome, turned it into a rather embarrassing failure. The assumption on which the author has based his conviction is a. many people did not visit the Millennium Dome influenced by the criticism of many who had not seen the Dome. b. many events can turn into successes if the media presents a favourable picture of them. c. it is the duty of the media to prevent a much watched event from becoming a failure. d. the media was unable to appreciate the exhibition at the Millennium Dome. A Christmas fairy tale has come true for Heinz variety mongrel stray. The bright-eyed dog has been rescued from an animal shelter death row and transferred to a Hollywood movie star with no less an actor than Jim Carey. And the three-year old dog with the unhappy past even gets to be a festive reindeer in the movie. The authors feeling for the dog is based on what assumption? a. Dogs in animal shelters Death Row are treated with utmost atrocity. b. Jim Carey will take a liking for the dog and adopt it. c. To feature in the movie will be a pleasant experience for the dog. d. But for this opportunity, the stray dog would have remained unhappy. For them as for their customers, the days of an artiste as a loner are clearly over. Todays best industrial designs are not one-off works of individual geniuses but the fruits of successful resource and data sharing across the web. The old Olympia ideals used to be higher, swifter, farther. Those of todays digital da Vincis are better, smarter, faster. Which assumption below, if taken, would justify the argument above? a. The artists of today no longer seek isolation for producing works of art and creativity. b. In the first sentence, the phrase artiste as loner is a reference to Leonardo da Vinci. c. Todays artists want to produce many replicas of a masterpiece they have created. d. It takes many people to put resources and data on the web. The field of human resource development (HRD) training is undergoing a sea change. There is an increasing shift in emphasis from training to learning. As a result, training professionals are now moving from the role of trainers to that of facilitators of the learning process. Those who are practicing the modified HRD training practice have assumed which of the following? a. If they do not switch to the new practice, they will soon be thrown out of business. b. The concept of training people is very different from that of helping them learn. c. Human resources is a dynamic concept and it is very important to update oneself on that front. d. Helping people learn themselves rather than coaching them will facilitate a more productive environment in an organization.

87.

88.

89.

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90.

The Central Government has decided to ban candles made with wicks that have either lead or lead cores. Studies have shown that the central nervous system of children is particularly sensitive to lead. The argument above is based on which of the following assumptions? a. Candle manufacturers often violate laws. b. Children often like to play with or around candles. c. Lead is not harmful to adults. d. Candle is potentially dangerous to the human nervous system. Ninety per cent of those travelling daily from Manhattan to Flushing Meadows read Manhattan News on their way back home. Observers hold that on their way to office from Flushing Meadows to Manhattan, only fifty per cent passengers read Flushing Meadows News. It is, therefore, believed that Manhattan News has more sale than Flushing Meadows News. Which of the following, if true would weaken the belief of the observers? a. The price of each copy of Manhattan News is less than that of Flushing Meadows News. b. People do not like to read the newspapers published in their locality. c. Copies of Manhattan News that do not sell by 4:00 p.m. are distributed free at the Manhattan station in the evening. d. Newspapers are to be read in the morning and not evening. In a study conducted amongst different professionals, it was found that lawyers are more argumentative and aggressive in temperament than are non-lawyers. Researchers concluded that the legal profession makes people argumentative and aggressive. Which of the following statements, if true, would make the researchers conclusion invalid? a. Very impatient people often make very successful teachers. b. Those who are aggressive by temperament choose to enter law schools. c. Lawyers spend a lot of time arguing in courts of law. d. Lawyers and non-lawyers have the same temperamental disposition as school students. McDonalds, the worlds largest fast food chain sees its projects for 2000 growing at the low end of forecasts as the beef crises in Europe scares customers away from hamburgers. The November sales turned out to be surprisingly strong in USA and Asia-Pacific but weaker in Europe, where one-quarter of its food is sold. Which of the given statements, if true, would cast most doubt on McDonalds anticipated projects? a. The countries worst hit by the beef crisis are USA and those along the Pacific-Asian rim. b. Europe has witnessed the least reported cases of mad cow disease. c. McElle, another food chain has registered its highest sale in Europe. d. Europeans are more vulnerable to beef related diseases than are Americans. Pummelled by higher taxes and diesel prices, and the slowdown in economy, commercial vehicle sales are down by 20 per cent with overcapacity still haunting the industry. Manufacturers fear that next year may not be any better. Which of the given statements will least weaken the fear of the automobile industry? a. The government has announced a 40 per cent cut in taxes for the coming year. b. The international petrol price is expected to drastically come down next year. c. Survey results suggest that most people will change their car in the next season. d. The World Bank has forecast a boom in the world economy for the coming year and the finance secretary has reiterated it.

91.

92.

93.

94.

Page

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Mock CAT Test 5

95.

There is nothing fundamentally wrong about sharing a pizza three-ways. Apart from being cost-effective and probably reducing the individuals intake of a calorie and cholesterol-heavy Italian import, sharing is intrinsically a fine thing to do. Which statement below, if true, would most weaken the authors view that sharing a pizza is not wrong? a. An Italian pizza has three times more cholesterol than normal pizza does. b. Most groups that consume pizza the authors way at one time consume at least three pizzas. c. Even though three people share a pizza, the burden of cost is shouldered by just one. d. Italian pizzas are available everywhere and need not be imported for consumption.

Direction for questions 96 to 105: In each of the following sentences, a part or the whole of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined parts are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four. 96. Undergoing an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europes fine horses are much sought after by collectors and breeders all over the world. a. Undergoing an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europes fine horses are much sought after by b. Undergoing an extraordinary rebirth over the past two decades, today Eastern Europes fine horses are much sought after by c. Having undergone an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europes fine horses are much sought after for d. Having undergone an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europes fine horses are much sought after by Show business, as anybody will tell you is all about relationships, but when relationships and business are intertwined, the relationships become subservient for the business. a. but when relationships and business are intertwined, the relationships become subservient for b. but when relationships and business is intertwined, the relationships become subservient to c. but when relationships and business are intertwined, the relationships become subservient to d. but when relationships and businesses are intertwined, the relationships become subservient for Most philosophers believe that each one of us is responsible to choose one course of action over another, and the choice we make will always have a great effect on our life. a. each one of us is responsible to choose one course of action over another b. each one of us is responsible for choosing one course of action over another c. each one of us is responsible for choosing one course of action over the other one d. each one of us responsibly chooses one course of action over another The result of these delays, even though it was due to factors beyond our control, were several people calling up to complain and asking for a refund of their money. a. it was due to factors beyond our control, were several people calling up to complain and asking for a refund of b. it was due to factors beyond control, were several people calling up to complain and asking for a refund of c. they were due to factors beyond our control, was several people calling up to complain and asking for refunding

97.

98.

99.

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d. they were due to factors beyond our control, was several people calling up to complain and to ask for a refund of 100. After the heavy downpour, it was obvious that there would be markedly less people and vehicles on the roads than usual. a. there would be markedly less people and vehicles on the roads than b. there would be markedly less people on vehicles on the roads than c. there would be markedly few people and vehicles on the roads than d. there would be markedly fewer people and vehicles on the roads than The best part of the programme is the dances. a. The best part of the programme is the dances. b. The best part of the programme are the dances. c. The best part of the programme are the dance. d. The best parts of the programme is the dances. The professor, as well as the students, was pleased with their results. a. The professor, as well as the students, was pleased with their results. b. The professor, as well as the students, were pleased with their results. c. The professor as well as the students were pleased with their results. d. The professor as well as the student were pleased with their results. He was unwilling to testify, he was afraid of the defendant. a. He was unwilling to testify, he was afraid of the defendant. b. Because he was afraid of the defendant, he was unwilling to testify. c. He was unwilling to testify: he was afraid of the defendant. d. Because he was afraid of the defendant he was unwilling to testify. When you have good health, one should feel fortunate. a. When you have good health, one should feel fortunate. b. When you have good health, you should feel fortunate. c. When one have good health, you should feel fortunate. d. When one has good health, he should feel fortunate. Either you or he have to be here. a. Either you or he have to be here. b. Either you or he has to be here. c. Neither you nor he have to be here. d. Neither you nor they has to be here.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

Direction for questions 106 to 110: Fill in the blanks in the following passage with the appropriate choice from among the given alternatives. The ... 106 ... of education has also been a potent instrument in emphasizing and shaping the underlying unity of mankind. The best manner, perhaps, in which we can describe the present .... 107 ... is to call it a decade of promise. The marvels of science, the immense ... 108 ... of harnessing nuclear energy for peaceful purposes,

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and urge to ... 109 ... resources to their optimum level have all of them significantly contributed in tackling problems on a ... 110 ... scale rather than attempting to solve these baffling issues of ignorance, poverty and disease separately by individuals and nations. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. a. need a. period a. effects a. materialize a. global b. mode b. decay b. labour b. utilize b. globe c. spread c. decade c. possibilities c. synthesize c. world d. development d. age d. capability d. pressurize d. universal

Direction for questions 111 to 115: The following questions contain six statements followed by four choices. Choose the choice that lists the order of the sentences such that they are in a logical sequence. 111. A. All refrigerated containers are cold B. All storage spaces need durable boxes C. All refrigerated containers are storage spaces D. All refrigerated containers need durable boxes E. All refrigerated containers are smelly F. All storage spaces need sealed spaces a. CDF b. CBE c. CAD

d. CBD

112.

A. Some modems are not error-correcting B. All three-way handshaking devices are modems C. Some error-correcting devices are not three-way handshaking D. Some three-way handshaking devices are not modems E. Some error-correcting devices are not modems F. Some modems are error-correcting devices that are not three-way handshaking a. FAD b. CBE c. DBA d. None of these A. All A are B B. All D are A C. All C are B D. Only C are A E. All C are A F. All D are C a. FEB A. B. C. D.

113.

b. DFA

c. BAE

d. ABC

114.

All Italians are good All Italians are credible All Italians are Americans All Italians need honesty

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E. All Americans need honesty F. All Americans need mayonnaise a. FDE b. BAF 115. A. No m are e B. Some s are e C. Some s are not e D. All s are m E. All m are e F. Some m may be e a. DFA

c. CEB

d. CED

b. ACE

c. BDF

d. BEC

Direction for questions 116 to 120: Choose the most logical order of the sentences A, B, C and D that makes it a coherent paragraph. 116. A. These can be downloaded on to a palm computer or transferred to another through infra-red signals. B. Here, users can e-mail dollars to each other, after opening an account on the firms website. C. One technology is Pay Pal, developed by Confinity. D. This technology is soon to be available for cellphones too. a. CABD b. CBAD c. BADC d. DCBA A. The sour note is that recruitments for the web project have resulted in disruption in its working. B. However, the FT has its own imponderables to grapple with. C. The FT, in an effort to avoid direct competition with the Wall Street Journal, has moved on to web publishing. D. The primary challenge is to integrate its print journalists with its web-based, or as they are called, cyber journalists. a. CBDA b. CABD c. ABCD d. DACB A. It is simple to use and is derived from a protein that is present in cows milk, which is hygienic and effective. B. Packaged in a easy-to-use spray pack, the bacteria killer of E. Coli and Salmonella, is being seen as a solution by large fresh-meat packing companies as well. C. Coming up is a new spray that promises to wipe out the bacteria in the food. D. The solution of the problems that one faces with ill-health after consuming bacteria-tainted food seems to be at hand. a. DACB b. DCBA c. BCDA d. ABCD A. Only the customers can. B. You cannot anticipate the persistent problems the user of your product or service can face in the future. C. Consequences are perceived risks in your customers mind. D. But being perceived doesnt make them any less real. a. CDBA b. DCBA c. BDAC d. ABCD

117.

118.

119.

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120.

A. State up-front that based on the smaller project, youll be willing to scale-up. B. This gives the customer an enormous sense of security, as she need not commit all her resources at one go. C. A very large proposal requiring substantial investment of time and money is likely to appear threatening to the customer. D. Split your proposal and offer a smaller project or a pilot. a. CBDA b. CDAB c. CABD d. DCAB

Direction for questions 121 to 125: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentence 1 and 6. 121. 1. Chief Minister, Sheila Dikshit wants her government to get cyber savvy, and fast. A. Her target: total computerization by 2003. B. Also, key secretaries, ministers and the various civic bodies and departments will be able to keep her abreast about on-going projects and public feedback. C. The new secretariat building being readied will be hooked up with a home-office to the nine district commissioners and the 27 sub-divisional magistrates. D. Already, a special secretary (Infotech) is in place. 6. Besides, over 100 cyber kiosks are also in the pipeline. a. DACB b. DBAC c. DCBA d. ADCB 1. After a deputy, West Bengal Chief Minister, Jyoti Basu, is set to get a new chopper. A. The wrecked machine was 17-years-old and didn't conform to VVIP security requirements : it had a single engine, whereas the guidelines stipulate a twin-engine. B. The chief minister, of course, wasn't on board. C. The delay in acquiring a new chopper centred on the debate over the choice of the flying machine. D. Tenders had already been invited for a Rs. 25 crore flying machine, but the process was expedited after the chopper that usually flew Basu crashed recently. 6. The file on the new chopper purchase had been lying with the chief minister's office, with the crash, it is finally moving. a. CADB b. DBAC c. BCDA d. ADCB 1. The consequences of the sudden shrinkage in forest cover could be even more disastrous. A. There are a host of other attendant dangers: flash floods would lead to increased top soil erosion and bring about a proportionate dip in land fertility. B. More worrisome will be the sharp fluctuations in day and night temperatures that shrinking forest cover could trigger. C. For one, flash floods are expected as there aren't adequate number of trees to hold water. D. Increased erosion would also mean greater siltation at river mouths and a sharp decline of fresh water inflow. 6. In the absence of a proper forest cover, the heat during the day will be absorbed more easily by the earth. a. CADB b. ACDB c. BDAC d. ABCD

122.

123.

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124.

1. OTIS Elevator Co (India) calls it the intelligent designer elevator. A. One can select the interiors of the elevator from among a range of colours to blend with the building dcor, pick the choicest finishes for ceilings, doors, panels and flooring. B. But isn't an elevator something one uses only to avoid the stairs. C. There is, however, a USP in the new ones. D. One hardly notices what's in the inside. 6. In short, one can customize the interior dcor. a. BDCA b. DBAC c. ABCD d. CBAD 1. Formed by Harland Sanders, the Company, KFC Corp., was taken over by PepsiCo. A. At that time, the brand had as many as 9,000 outlets around the world. B. Combined with Pizza Hut and Taco Bell, this made the world's largest branded food retail system. C. Among the reasons was the growing notion that fried chicken was unhealthy. D. PepsiCo pumped huge effort into making KFC the largest franchise, but despite all efforts, the brand saw slow growth. 6. To counter that, KFC launched a roasted chicken variant, which it claimed was a huge success. a. ABCD b. BADC c. BACD d. ABDC

125.

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Section III
Direction for questions 126 to 160: Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions that follow each passage based on what is stated or implied in the passage.

Passage 1
Scattered around the globe are more than 100 small regions of isolated volcanic activity known to geologists as hot spots. Unlike most of the world's volcanoes, they are not always found at the boundaries of the great drifting plates that make up the earth's surface; on the contrary, many of them lie deep in the interior of a plate. Most of the hot spots move only slowly, and in some cases the movement of the plates past them has left trails of extinct volcanoes. The hot spots and their volcanic trails are milestones that mark the passage of the plates. That the plates are moving is now beyond dispute. Africa and South America, for example, are receding from each other as new material is injected into the sea floor between them. The complementary coastlines and certain geological features that seem to span the ocean are reminders of where the two continents were once joined. The relative motion of the plates carrying these continents has been constructed in detail, but the motion of one plate with respect to another cannot readily be translated into motion with respect to the earth's interior. It is not possible to determine whether both continents are moving (in opposite directions) or whether one continent is stationary and the other is drifting away from it. Hot spots, anchored in the deeper layers of the earth, provide the measuring instruments needed to resolve the question. From an analysis of the hot-spot population, it appears that the African plate is stationary and that it has not moved during the past 30 million years. The significance of hot spots is not confined to their role as a frame of reference. It now appears that they also have an important influence on the geophysical processes that propel the plates across the globe. When a continental plate comes to rest over a hot spot, the material welling up from deeper layers create a broad dome. As the dome grows, it develops deep fissures; in at least a few cases, the continent may rupture entirely along some of these fissures, so that the hot spot initiates the formation of a new ocean. Thus just as earlier theories have explained the mobility of the continents, so hot spots may explain their mutability. 126. According to the passage, which of the following statements indicate that Africa and South America once adjoined one another ? I. They share certain common topographic traits. II. Their shorelines are physical counterparts. III. The African plate has been stable for 30 million years. a. I b. II c. I and II d. II and III According to the passage, the hot spot theory eventually may prove useful in interpreting a. major changes in continental shape. b. the boundaries of the plates. c. the depth of the ocean floor. d. the relative motion of the plates.

127.

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128.

The author regards the theory of plate movement as a. controversial. b. irrefutable. c. tangential.

d. dubious.

Passage 2
Olle Sahigren, senior vice-president, international sales for AMF Bowling products, left India last fortnight a very satisfied man. All it took was one visit to the recently opened 20-lane bowling centre Bowling Co in Mumbai, to which AMF Bowling is supplying the equipment, for Sahigren to figure out that the $1.3 billion company was on the right track in India. Says he: Bowling Co is doing three times the business that any same sized but established bowling alley is doing in America. Though we knew that it would do well, even we are surprised at the response. The success of Bowling Co is going to be the turning point in the Indian market. And it was such a success that AMF Bowling, which set up shop in India in 1995, was waiting for. So far bowling in India has only been another game in an entertainment centre which also has, say, a pool table. We have been trying to convince investors that for bowling to be successful it has to be set up in a large centre, says he. Sahigren is hoping that things will change with the success of Bowling Co. Spread over 30,000 sq. ft., Bowling Co also has a restaurant, a sports bar, a video arcade and a pool room. The complex gets 2,000 people everyday with the figure going up to 6,000 over the weekends. It will be easier for us to convince more investors to set up large bowling centres because we can back what we are saying with the success of this bowling centre, says Sahigren. Convincing investors, however, is only one part of the strategy that the largest manufacturer and marketer of bowling equipment in the world has been following in India. The emphasis through its offices in Delhi, Mumbai and Bangalore has been equally on promoting bowling as a sport. AMF Bowling has set up local bowling associations and along with Coca-Cola has also sponsored the Asian Bowling Treatment. The company has trained coaches so that first timers can be taught the game at individual bowling lanes. These are long-term measures but they are essential for any long-term player, says Kapil Kaul, managing director, AMF Bowling India Pvt. Ltd. For the moment, AMF Bowling is also providing expert help on selecting locations and setting up bowling centres because as Sahigren says, right now we are going to rely more on setting up bowling centres than making money. The situation, of course, will change when there are more bowling centres. Then we will look at supplying equipment for our profits. Worldwide, AMF Bowling has 545 bowling centres in 12 countries (421 are in the US) making it the largest owner and operator of bowling centres. The company also has 25 direct sales offices in 19 countries through 24 international distributors. In India, with 90 bowling lanes to its credit, AMF Bowling already has a 65 per cent market share (the same as its international share) in its kitty. AMF Bowling is followed a close second by its international competitor Brunswick with 49 lanes and two smaller players Zhong Lou and Dacos. Sahigren is hoping that it will continue to maintain its lead with another three bowling centres becoming operational next year. To begin with, AMF Bowling is planning to concentrate on Mumbai. The company has recommended three sites another in Mumbai and one each in Pune and Chennai. According to population-based surveys, Mumbai alone has the potential for absorbing 600 lanes, says Kaul. Right now there are only 200 bowling

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lanes in the entire country and, according to Sahigren, if the current trends continue, then in another five years, there should be about 5,000 bowling lanes in India, making it one of the biggest markets for the company. Even 5,000 lanes in five years is nothing. Kuala Lumpur alone has 1,200 lanes and in China, which we consider very close to India demographically, 7,000 lanes came up in one year alone, says he. Sahigrens calculations are endorsed by Delhi-based consultancy firm Feedback Strategic which has done research and provided consultancy services on the leisure and entertainment industry. Though there are no specific figures about bowling available since it is a fairly new sport in India, according to O.P. Chaudhary, executive director of Feedback Strategic, there are all indications that bowling is going to be the sport of the next millennium. Says he, We are very bullish about bowling. We have seen sports like water games which have the active participation of people register a 100 per cent growth. Family entertainment centres, which too have a number of participatory games, have a 200 per cent rate of growth. Bowling too will go the same way. According to Chaudhary, the success of bowling is not going to be restricted to cities alone, but with time will also reach the smaller metros. And when that happens, companies like AMF Bowling will be there to cash in on the popularity of the sport. 129. AMF Bowling was set up in India in a. 1994 b. 1995

c. 1997

d. 1999

130.

What is the average number of customers that AMF gets everyday? a. 3,200 b. 3,600 c. 4,000 Who was the co-sponsor for ABT? a. Mr. Kapil Kaul b. Coca-Cola

d. 5,500

131.

c. Pepsi Cola

d. None of these

132.

Which of the following sports have 100 per cent growth rate? a. Polo b. Cricket c. Water games

d. a + c

133.

According to the passage, Mumbai has the potential for how many lanes? a. 500 b. 200 c. 600 d. None of these Which of the following is not true according to the passage? a. Bowling is projected to have a 200 per cent growth rate. b. AMF has its presence in 12 countries. c. Kapil Kaul is the chairman at AMF. d. Kuala Lumpur has 1,200 lanes.

134.

Passage 3
It is a scene straight out of Tom Clancy/Harrison Fords Clear and Present Danger. US intelligence agencies back a covert operation in Afghanistan. The operative is betrayed and is ambushed in Taliban territory. He radios for help. The CIA fails in a half-hearted attempt to rescue him. He is executed. Theres confusion and finger pointing in Washington over a botched mission. The death of Peshawar-based Afghan leader Abdul Haq at the hands of the Taliban had all the trappings of the pulp fiction-turned-film. A much-

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romanticised former mujaheedin fighter nicknamed Hollywood Haq for his adventurous past, the Pashtun leader went into Afghanistan last weekend in a bid to stir up an uprising against the Taliban. Haqs 19-member lightly armed expedition was reportedly financed by wealthy American brothers James and Joe Ritchie, both based in Pakistan and enjoying US intelligence connections. But the CIA and other western agencies apparently declined to provide Haq with the arms and air support he asked for his mission. They offered him satellite telephones, which he already had. He turned down the offer suspecting they wanted to tap into his conversations. So he set off on a horse or a mule he had lost a foot during the anti-Soviet war with a group of camp followers armed with only a few rifles, phones and lots of US dollars. Four days later, he found himself trapped on a steep mountain road, with the Taliban in front of him and the Taliban behind. He may have been betrayed. According to reports in the US media, including two separate accounts in the New York Times, he had to shake off Pakistani intelligence operatives before he left for Afghanistan. One version has it that the Taliban spy network knew his every movement from the time he left Peshawar. In any case, he desperately rang his nephew in Peshawar for help. The nephew called the Ritchies, who in turn, contacted their friend Robert McFarlane, a former National Security Advisor in the Reagan administration and a long-time Pakistan supporter. McFarlane tapped into his contacts at the CIA, which quickly alerted the US CentCom, which is conducting the operations in Afghanistan. Bombings were ordered using unmanned predator drones to secure a safe passage for Haq. But the Taliban militia was already on him. Some hours later, Haqs nephews phone rang again. Only this time it was the Taliban. They had cornered and executed Haq. The next morning, they announced they had executed five other men from Haqs group, including his nephew. In Washington, the abortive mission to subvert the Pashtun support for Taliban left officials and analysts crushed. In fact, the Bush administration almost completely disowned the operation, suggesting that it was a personal enterprise. Reports from Afghanistan say the Taliban celebrated Haqs execution by firing in the air. 135. What is an appropriate title for this passage? a. An Abject Betrayal c. A Hollywood Twist

b. Beyond the Gulag d. How Abdul Haq Met His Doom

136.

According to the passage, a. the CIA offered Haq arms and air support. b. Haqs lightly armed expedition was financed by the wealthy Warner brothers. c. the Mujaheedin fighter was nicknamed Hollywood Haq for his adventurous expedition. d. Haq had lost a foot during the anti-Soviet war. The Bush administration completely disowned the operation because a. they were crushed by the abortive mission. b. they confirmed that it was a personal enterprise. c. they were afraid of the Ritchie brothers. d. None of the above

137.

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138.

A pulp-fiction is a. made of paper-pulp. c. a sensational but cheap thriller book.

b. written for a Pullitzer. d. where the villain is bashed up to a pulp.

Passage 4
The distinction often made between learning and instinct is exemplified by two theoretical approaches to the study of behaviour: ethology and behaviourist psychology. Ethology is usually thought of as the study of instinct. In the ethological world view, most animal behaviour is governed by four basic factors: sign stimuli (instinctively recognized cues), motor programmes (innate responses to cues), drive (controlling motivational impulses) and imprinting (a restricted and seemingly aberrant form of learning). Three of these factors are found in the egg-rolling response of geese, a behaviour studied by Konrad Z. Lorenz and Nikolaas Tinbergen, who together with Karl Frisch were the founders of ethology. Geese incubate their eggs in mound-shaped nests build on the ground, and it sometimes happens that the incubating goose inadvertently knocks an egg out of the nest. Such an event leads to remarkable behaviour. After settling down again on its nest, the goose eventually notices the errant egg. The animal then extends its neck to fix its eyes on the egg, rises and rolls the egg back into the nest gently with its bill. At first glance, this might seem to be a thoughtful solution to a problem. As it happens, however, the behaviour is highly stereotyped and innate. Any convex object, regardless of colour and almost regardless of size, triggers the response; beer bottles are particularly effective. In this example, the convex features that trigger the behaviour are the ethologists' sign stimuli. The egg-rolling response itself is the motor programme. The entire behaviour is controlled by a drive that appears about two weeks before the geese lay eggs and persists until two weeks after the eggs hatch. Geese also exhibit imprinting: during a sensitive period soon after hatching, goslings will follow almost any receding object that emits an innately recognized kum-kum call and thereafter treat the object as a parent. Classical behaviourist psychologists see the world quite differently from ethologists. Behaviourists are primarily interested in the study of learning under strictly controlled conditions and have traditionally treated instinct as irrelevant to learning. Behaviourists believe nearly all the responses of higher animals can be divided into two kinds of learning called classical conditioning and operant conditioning. Classical conditioning was discovered in dogs by the Russian physiologist Ivan P. Pavlov. In his classic experiment, he showed that if a bell is rung consistently just before food is offered to a dog, eventually the dog will learn to salivate at the sound of the bell. The important factors in classical conditioning are the unconditioned stimulus (the innately recognized cue, equivalent to the ethological sign stimulus, which in this case is food), the unconditioned response (the innately triggered behavioural act, equivalent to the ethological motor programme, which in this case is salivation) and the conditioned stimulus (the stimulus the animal is conditioned to respond to, which in this case is the bell). Early behaviourists believed any stimulus an animal was capable of sensing could be linked, as a conditioned stimulus, to any unconditioned response. In operant conditioning, the major category of learning recognized by most behaviourists, animals learn a behaviour pattern as the result of trial-and-error experimentation they undertake in order to obtain a reward or avoid a punishment. In the classic example, a rat is trained to press a lever to obtain food. The experimenter shapes the behaviour by rewarding the rat at first for even partial performance of the desired response. For
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example, at the outset, the rat might be rewarded simply for facing the end of the cage in which the lever sits. Later, the experimenter requires increasingly precise behaviour, until the response is perfected. Early behaviourists thought any behaviour an animal was capable of performing could be taught, by means of operant conditioning, as a response to any cue or situation. 139. The author cites Lorenz, Tindergen, and Frisch for their a. pioneering work studying instinctual behaviour. b. studies of the egg-rolling response in geese. c. rejection of imprinting as a form of learning. d. use of stringently controlled laboratory settings. It can be inferred from that the goose's behaviour in replacing the egg is remarkable because it a. appears purposeful and intelligent. b. is triggered by the egg. c. is a response to sign stimuli. d. lasts for only four weeks. According to the passage, behaviourist learning theories take into account which of the following characteristic of animals? I. Their unconditioned response to certain fundamental stimuli, such as food. II. Their ability to learn through being imprinted at an early age. III. Their tendency to shun negative stimuli. a. I b. II c. III d. I and III In exploring these two approaches to the study of behaviour, the author does all of the following except a. define a term. b. point out functional parallels. c. refer to an experimental study. d. settle an argument.

140.

141.

142.

Passage 5
The main burden of assuring that the resources of the federal government are well-managed falls on relatively few of the five million men and women whom it employs. Under the department and agency heads, there are 8,600 political, career, military, and foreign service executives-the top managers and professionals who exert major influence on the manner in which the rest are directed and utilized. Below their level, there are other thousands with assignments of some managerial significance, but we believe that the line of demarcation selected is the best available for our purposes in this attainment. In addition to presidential appointees in responsible posts, the 8,600 executives includes the three highest grades under the Classification Act: the three highest grades in the postal fields service; comparable grades in the foreign service; general offers in the military service; and similar classes in another special services and in agencies or positions excepted from the Classification Act. There is no complete inventory of positions or people in federal service at this level. The lack may be explained by separate agency statutes and personnel systems, diffusion among so many special services, and absence of any central point (short of the President himself) with jurisdiction over all upper-level personnel of the government.

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This committee considers establishment and maintenance of a central inventory of these key people and positions to be an elementary necessity, a first step in improved management throughout the Executive Branch. Top presidential appointees, about 500 of them, bear the brunt of translating the philosophy and aims of the current administration into practical programmes. This group includes the secretaries and assistant secretaries of cabinet departments, agency heads and their deputies, heads and members of boards and commissions with fixed terms, and chiefs and directors of major bureaus, divisions, and services. Appointments to many of these politically sensitive positions are made on recommendation by department or agency heads, but all are presumably responsible to presidential leadership. One qualification for office at this level is that there be no basic disagreement with Presidential political philosophy, at least so far as administrative judgments and actions are concerned. Apart from the bi-partisan boards and commissions, these men are normally identified with the political party of the president, or are sympathetic to it, although there are exceptions. There are four distinguishable kinds of top Presidential appointees, including Those whom the president selects at the outset to establish immediate and effective control over the government (e.g. cabinet secretaries, agency heads, his own staff and executive office personnel). Those selected by department and agency heads in order to establish control within their respective organizations (e.g. assistant secretaries, deputies, assistants to, and major line posts in some bureaus and divisions.) High-level appointees who though often requiring clearance through political or interest group channels, or both must have known scientific or technical competence (e.g., the surgeon general, the commissioner of education). Those named to residual positions traditionally filled on partisan patronage basis. These appointees are primarily regarded as policy makers and overseers of policy execution. In practice, however, they usually have substantial responsibilities in line management, often requiring a thorough knowledge of substantive agency programmes. 143. According to the passage, about how many top managerial professionals work for the federal government? a. 5 million b. 2 million c. 20,000 d. 9,000 No complete inventory exists of positions in the three highest levels of government service because a. no one has bothered to count them. b. computers cannot handle all the data. c. separate agency personnel systems are used. d. the president has never requested such information. Top presidential appointees have as their central responsibility the a. prevention of politically motivated interference with the actions of their agencies. b. monitoring of government actions on behalf of the President's own political party. c. translation of the aims of the administration into practical programmes. d. investigation of charges of corruption within the government.

144.

145.

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146.

One exception of the general rule that top presidential appointees must be in agreement with the president's political philosophy may be found in a. most cabinet-level officers. b. members of his own staff. c. bi-partisan boards and commissions. d. those officers filled on a patronage basis. Appointees that are selected directly by the president include a. marshals and attorneys. b. agency officers. c. agency heads. d. assistant secretaries. Appointees usually have to possess expertise in a. line management. b. military affairs. c. foreign affairs. d. strategic planning. According to the passage, presidential appointees are regarded primarily as a. political spokesmen. b. policy makers. c. staff managers. d. scientific or technical experts. Appointees selected by department and agency heads include a. military men. b. cabinet secretaries. c. deputy secretaries. d. diplomats.

147.

148.

149.

150.

Passage 6
After the lions had returned to their cages, creeping angrily through the chutes, a little bunch of us drifted away and into an open doorway nearby, where we stood for a while in semi-darkness, watching a big brown circus horse go harumphing around the practice ring. His trainer was a woman of about forty, and the two of them, horse and woman, seemed caught up in one of those desultory treadmills of afternoon from which there is no apparent escape. The day was hot, and we kibitzers were grateful to be briefly out of the suns glare. The long rein, or tape, by which the woman guided her charge counterclockwise in his dull career formed the radius of their private circle, of which she was the revolving centre, and she, too, stepped a tiny circumference of her own, in order to accommodate the horse and allow him his maximum scope. She had on, a short-skirted costume and a conical straw hat. Her legs were bare and she wore high heels, which probed deep into the loose tanbark and kept her ankles in a state of constant turmoil. The great size and meekness of the horse, the repetitious exercise, the heat of the afternoon, all exerted a hypnotic charm that invited boredom; we spectators were experiencing a languor we neither expected relief nor felt entitled to any. We had paid a dollar to get into the grounds, to be sure, but we had got our dollars worth a few minutes before, when the lion trainers whiplash had got caught around a toe of one of the lions. What more did we want for a dollar ? Behind me, I heard someone say, Excuse me, please, in a low voice. She was halfway into the building when I turned and saw her a girl of sixteen or seventeen, politely treading her way through us onlookers who blocked the entrance. As she emerged in front of us, I saw that she was barefoot, her dirty little feet fighting the uneven ground. In most respects, she was like any of two or three dozen showgirls you encounter if you wander about the winter quarters of Mr. John Ringling Norths circus, in Sarasota cleverly proportioned, deeply browned by the sun, dusty, eager, and almost naked. But her grave face and the naturalness of her manner gave her a sort of quick distinction and brought a new note into the gloomy octagonal building where we had all

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cast our lot for a few moments. As soon as she had squeezed through the crowd, she spoke a word or two to the older woman, whom I took to be her mother, stepped to the ring, and waited while the horse coasted to a stop in front of her. She gave the animal a couple of affectionate swipes on his enormous neck and then swung herself aboard. The horse immediately resumed his rocking canter, the woman goading him on, chanting something that sounded like Hop! Hop! In attempting to recapture this mild spectacle, I am merely acting as recording secretary for one of the oldest of societies the society of those who, at one time or another, have surrendered, without even a show of resistance, to the bedazzlement of a circus rider. As a writing man, or secretary, I have always felt charged with the safekeeping of all unexpected items of worldly or unwordly enchantment, as though I might be held personally responsible if even a small one were to be lost. But it is not easy to communicate anything of this nature. The circus comes as close to being the world in microcosm as anything I know in a way, it puts all the rest of show business in the shade. Its magic is universal and complex. Out of its wild disorder comes order; from its rank smell rises the good aroma of courage and daring; out of its preliminary shabbiness comes the final splendour. And buried in the familiar boasts of its advance agents lies the modesty of most of its people. For me, the circus is at its best before it has been put together. It is at its best at certain moments when it comes to a point, as through a burning glass, in the activity and destiny of a single performer out of so many. One ring is always bigger than three. One rider, one aerialist, is always greater than six. In short, a man has to catch the circus unawares to experience its full impact and share its gaudy dream. The ten-minute ride the girl took achieved as far as I was concerned, who wasnt looking for it, and quite unknown to her, who wasnt even striving for it the thing that is sought by performers everywhere, on whatever stage, whether struggling in the tidal currents of Shakespeare or bucking the difficult motion of a horse. I somehow got the idea she was just cadging a ride, improving a shining ten minutes in the diligent way all serious artists seize free moments to hone the blade of their talent and keep themselves in trim. Her brief tour included only elementary postures and tricks, perhaps because they were all she was capable of, perhaps because her warmup at this hour was unscheduled and the ring was not rigged for a real practice session. She swung herself off and on the horse several times, gripping his mane. She did a few knee-stands or whatever they are called dropping to her knees and quickly bouncing back up on her feet again. Most of the time she simply rode in a standing position, well aft on the beast, her hands hanging easily at her sides, her head erect, her strawcoloured ponytail lightly brushing her shoulders, the blood of exertion showing faintly through the tan of her skin. Twice she managed a one-foot stance - a sort of ballet pose, with arms outstretched. At one point, the neck strap of her bathing suit broke and she went twice around the ring in the classic attitude of a woman making minor repairs to a garment. The fact that she was standing on the back of a moving horse while doing this, invested the matter with a clownish significance that perfectly fitted the spirit of the circus-jocund, yet charming. She just rolled the strap into a neat ball and stowed it inside her bodice while the horse rocked and rolled beneath her in dutiful innocence. The bathing suit proved as self-reliant as its owner and stood up well enough without benefit of strap. The richness of the scene was in its plainness, its natural condition of horse, of ring, of girl, even to the girls bare feet that gripped the bare back of her proud and ridiculous mount. The enchantment grew not out of anything that happened or was performed but out of something that seemed to go round and round and round with the girl, attending her, a steady gleam in the shape of a circle a ring of ambition, of happiness, of youth. (And the positive pleasures of equilibrium under difficulties.) In a week or two, all would be changed, all (or almost all) lost: the girl would wear make-up, the horse would wear gold, the ring would be painted, the bark
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would be clean for the feet of the horse, the girls feet would be clean for the slippers that shed wear. All would be lost. As I watched with the others, our jaws adroop, our eyes alight, I became painfully conscious of the element of time. Everything in the hideous old building seemed to take the shape of a circle. conforming to the course of the horse. The riders gaze, as she peered straight ahead, seemed to be circular, as though bent by force of circumstance; then time itself began running in circles, and so the beginning was where the end was, and the two were the same, and one thing ran into the next and time went round and round and got nowhere. The girl wasnt so young that she did not know the delicious satisfaction of having a perfectly behaved body and the fun of using it to do a trick most people cant do, but she was too young to know that time does not really move in a circle at all. I thought : She will never be as beautiful as this again a thought that made me acutely unhappy and in a flash my mind (which is too much of a busybody to suit me) had projected her twenty-five years ahead, and she was now in the centre of the ring, on foot, wearing a conical hat and high-heeled shoes, the image of the older woman, holding the long rein, caught in the treadmill of an afternoon long in the future. She is at that enviable moment in life [ I thought ] when she believes she can go once around the ring, make one complete circuit, and at the end be exactly the same age as at the start. Everything in her movements, her expression, told you that for her the ring of time was perfectly formed, changeless, predictable, without beginning or end, like the ring in which she was travelling at this moment with the horse that wallowed under her. And then I slipped back into my trance, and time was circular again time, pausing quietly with the rest of us, so as not to disturb the balance of a performer. Her ride ended as casually as it had begun. The older women stopped the horse, and the girl slid to the ground. As she walked towards us to leave, there was a quick, small burst of applause. She smiled broadly, in surprise and pleasure; then her face suddenly regained its gravity and she disappeared through the door. 151. The passage is most likely to be an extract from a/an a. editorial review. b. entertainment magazine. c. personal diary. d. policemans diary. The word canter in the passage refers to the a. galloping movement of the lions in the ring. b. slow but to-the-point directions being given by the woman in centre. c. movement of the horse. d. the exertion had by the young girl after the practice session. The author wants to say that a. the ride which the girl took, mesmerized him to the extent that he started envying her. b. as he goes on to captivate the spectacle of the girl mounting the horse, he feels a sense of submissiveness without any effort towards resistance. c. there is nothing in the world that is alluring as well as comical. d. bathing suits are self-reliant. The spirit of the circus has been defined by the author to be a. worthless yet worthwhile. b. cheerful yet merry. c. merry yet alluring. d. alluring but worthless.

152.

153.

154.

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155.

The painful consciousness that dawns upon the author near the end of the passage is that a. everything around him excluding time seemed to become circular. b. everything around him including time seemed to become circular. c. the richness of the scene being witnessed by him was due to its serendipity. d. None of the above

Passage 7
If you take your car into a Jiffy Lube station for an oil change and ask for 10W-40, a good oil for hot-weather driving, the service technician will first check his PC terminal before doing anything to your car, to make certain that the manufacturer recommends 10W-40 and not another grade of oil for that make and model. In fact, the technician can tell you all of the manufacturers recommendations for service intervals and for the vehicle parts that Jiffy Lube might service: oil, filters, head lights, windshield wipers, transmission fluid, grease even the number of grease fittings. All from a PC-based point of sale system in service bay. Cars get in and out fast. A typical Jiffy Lube outlet services forty-five cars a day and is able to do so more quickly and efficiently with the new system. Technicians dont have to look things up in print manuals anymore, the system helps managers calculate the number of employees needed to handle traffic patterns for the time of the day and the day of the week. It cuts back on overtime. Most importantly, it reduces lines. In this business, when customers see a line, they drive away. The old paper system was a productivity bottleneck. Three months after your visit, youll get a service reminder for your next oil change, one of the 3,00,000 reminders that Jiffy Lube sends out a week. Having a historical record of customer service to enable timely customer contact is a prerequisite for doing business in many service industries today. Jiffy Lubes system monitors the number of miles driven between visits and, after a couple of visits, learns about the customers driving habits. Knowing the timing and nature of each customer interaction means that a company can take advantage of cross-selling opportunities. Jiffy Lube was the worlds number one franchiser of fast-lube centres but unprofitable when the Pennzoil Company bought it in 1991. In 1997, Jiffy Lube earned $25 million, the highest earnings in its history and an increase of 14 per cent over 1996 earnings, on gross revenues of $765 million. Jiffy Lube serviced 21 million cars, an increase of 1.2 million over 1996. Driving this new success is a daily flow of information from each store to headquarters and back. Customer service information from each of the 600 company-owned and 1,000 franchisee-owned outlets is uploaded to Jiffy Lube headquarters in Houston each night. With the merger of Quaker States Q Lube store, the total number of outlets will increase to more than 2,100 locations. The data goes into multiple servers, including the companys 120-gigabyte customer database, which was recently cut over from a mainframe to a PC server. Headquarters does immediate analysis on a number of operational measures number of cars handled, costs, revenues, and actual vs. projected profits and on sales trends. Beginning as early as five A.M., upto-date performance data is available to all Jiffy Lube managers nationwide, who can log on to the database to get performance figures. Each manager uses the information on a daily basis to see current revenue status, average ticket price, the time required to do each job, and overall throughput for the day. Corporate management can see historic comparisons of figures for all Jiffy Lube centres. Franchisees with multiple stores can see consolidated activity in all of their holdings. Jiffy Lubes regional managers, who typically supervise ten outlets

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each, use the operational data to help their outlet managers build their businesses and be more profitable and efficient. The system is quite flexible. If a regional manager develops a special report say, to detect fraud or abnormalities it can be sent electronically to different outlets for local analysis. The Jiffy Lube manager usually isnt an expert in market research, so headquarters employees do marketing and trend analysis. The information they use includes statistics, maps, and profiles of Jiffy Lube customers. The data shows sales by different neighbourhoods, including neighbourhoods in which the Jiffy Lube outlet isnt as effective as it might be; or which neighbourhoods are statistically ripe for a promotion. If customers are bypassing a neighbourhood Jiffy Lube centre for another one farther away, the system gives Jiffy Lube an opportunity to investigate. The pattern might be a result of natural traffic flow, or it might signal specific problems at the closer store. Jiffy Lube is beginning to use its information system with promotions. A manager who looks at the weather forecast on a Tuesday afternoon and decides to run a wiper-blade special in a certain market can have the system updated with the promotional details and pricing for the local stores first thing Wednesday. In the future, follow-up information will help the manager determine whether the promotion was profitable enough to try some place else or whether a special on transmission services was more successful. Its extensive demographic data analysis and mapping software also helps Jiffy Lube scout and develop potential outlet locations. The software plots existing Jiffy Lube locations, competitor locations, and potential new sites according to the demographics of sites that have already been successful. The company can overlay a map with market data to see where sizeable numbers of prospective customers dont have a nearby Jiffy Lube service centre. That kind of analysis strengthens the companys relationship with its franchisees, since Jiffy Lube can provide the franchisee with data on land costs, proximity to other stations, and other variables that he would not ordinarily have. Today, information about the individual customer is stored in a database at each local Jiffy Lube store. Depending on size, each service centre has a database of 8,000 to 50,000 customers. Jiffy Lube has an initiative to consolidate its eighteen million vehicle records and eighty-five million service records into a national database that is connected to each store. A customer will soon be able to drive into any Jiffy Lube service centre in the United States and the outlet will know that vehicles service history. When any service is done, the data will be updated in a single place and available to outlets all over the country. The ability to perform this kind of customer service has changed the way Jiffy Lube does business. It doesnt sit back and wait for customers to come in. It learns as much as possible about its customers and markets and adapts accordingly. Jiffy Lube finds out the kinds of promotions that customers respond to and then ties promotions to customer demographics. The result is more targeted promotions. It might send a certain kind of promotion to customers with a certain income within two miles of a particular outlet, for example. The company also compiles data on the preferences of individual customers so that it can send service reminders and other promotions via e-mail to customers who prefer electronic rather than paper reminders. Handling the reminders via e-mail will make it possible for Jiffy Lube to personalize promotions and cut costs while improving convenience for customers.

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Jiffy Lube is also considering putting up a website where a customer, whether an individual or a fleet manager, will be able to get an online Jiffy Lube vehicle service history and manufacturers recommendations. The website would provide details about any current promotion and encourage a visit to the nearest Jiffy Lube store. Jiffy Lube has the infrastructure in place to do all of these things because it builds its flow of information around customer data. 156. What will a technician at Jiffy Lube use to service a customer? a. High speed telecommunications b. PC based system c. Satellite linked Gyros d. Both (a) and (b) The benefits of the Jiffy Lube customer servicing system provides the following, except a. cuts back on overtime. b. reduces lines. c. increases service efficiency. d. allows technicians more free-time. Jiffy Lube uses its computer systems to do the following, except a. keep a record of customer history. b. ensure smooth functioning of franchisees. c. target specific areas with marketing efforts d. None of the above This passage has been taken from a. review of technological applications and benefits. b. Jiffy Lubes annual report. c. NASSCOMs monthly update on pioneering companies. d. None of the above From the information in the passage, it can be concluded that, Jiffy Lubes philosophy is a. to use the best technological equipment at all times. b. to increase sales at any cost. c. to service customers through better technology. d. to create the largest customer database.

157.

158.

159.

160.

Direction for questions 161 to 165: Answer the questions based on the following information. A government is planing to assign six embassy office workers Farid, Gabbar, Himanshu, Ila, Jaggu and Kalia to the embassies. There are four embassies. Embassies L and M are located in countries with dry climates, whereas embassies P and T are located in countries with humid climates. The office workers must be assigned embassies according to the following rules. Each embassy must have at least one of the workers assigned to it. At least one embassy in humid climate must have at least two workers assigned to it. Gabbar cannot be assigned to the same embassy as Kalia. Jaggu must be assigned to an embassy in a humid climate. Ila cannot be assigned to an embassy in a humid climate.

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161.

Which of the following is an acceptable assignment of the workers to the embassies? L M P T a. Farid, Gabbar Ila, Kalia Himanshu Jaggu b. Jaggu Gabbar, Ila Himanshu Farid, Kalia c. Gabbar Farid, Ila Kalia Jaggu, Himanshu d. Kalia Farid, Himanshu Ila Gabbar, Jaggu Which of the following must be assigned either to embassy L or to embassy M? a. Farid b. Gabbar c. Himanshu d. Ila Which of the following cannot be true? a. One worker is assigned to L. c. Two workers are assigned to L.

162.

163.

b. Two workers are assigned to P. d. Three workers are assigned to M.

164.

If Gabbar and Kalia are assigned to L and M respectively, which of the following must be true? a. Farid is assigned to either P or T. b. Ila is assigned to either P or T. c. P and T each has two workers assigned to them. d. Himanshu is assigned to T. If Gabbar, Himanshu and Kalia are among the workers assigned to embassies in humid climates, which of the following must be true? a. Farid is assigned to an embassy to which none of the other five workers is assigned. b. Gabbar is assigned to an embassy to which none of the other five office workers is assigned. c. Jaggu is assigned to the same embassy as Kalia. d. Himanshu is assigned to the same embassy as Gabbar.

165.

Direction for questions 166 to 168: Answer the questions based on the following information. A developer is planning to build a housing complex on an empty tract of land. Exactly seven different styles of houses Q, R , S, T, W, X and Z will be built in the complex. The complex will contain several blocks, and the developer plans to put houses of at least three different styles on each block. The developer will build the complex according to the following rules. I. Any block that has style Z on it must also have style W on it. II. Any block adjacent to one that has both the styles S and X on it must have the styles T and Z on it. III. No block adjacent to one that has both the styles R and Z on it can have either the styles T or W on it. IV. No block can have both the styles S and Q on it. 166. Which of the following can be the complete selection of house styles on a block ? a. Q, R and S b. Q, S and X c. R, T and Z d. S, W and Z Which of the following house styles must be on a block that is adjacent to one that has only styles S, T, W, X and Z on it? a. Q b. R c. S d. W

167.

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168.

Which of the following can be the complete selection of house styles for a block that is adjacent to exactly one block , if that one block has styles S, T, W and X only on it? a. S, T and X b. T, X and Z c. T, W, X and Z d. S, T, W and X

Direction for questions 169 to 173: Answer the questions based on the following information. Each of six automated tasks, numbered 1 through 6, takes one full hour to complete. The time that elapses between the completion of any of the six tasks and the beginning of another task is directly proportional to the square/sum of squares of the number of the task(s) just completed. The group of six tasks must be completed in the shortest possible time period, subject to only the following restrictions. Tasks 1 and 2 both must be completed before any of the other tasks can be begun. Task 3 must be completed before task 4 can be begun. At any time, no more than one task can be performed, except that tasks 4 and 5 can be performed concurrently. 169. If task 6 is performed as early as in the order of tasks as permissible, then task 6 is performed after a. 8 hr b. 7 hr c. 2 hr d. 1 hr Which of the following cannot be true of any acceptable ordering of tasks ? (i) Task 1 is performed before task 2. (ii) Task 4 is performed before task 6. (iii) Task 5 is performed before task 3. a. (i) only b. (ii) only c. (iii) only d. (ii) and (iii) If I sequence the tasks in the order 1-2-6-3-4/5, then the total time required would be a. 55 hr b. 91 hr c. 5 hr d. 66 hr If I remove the condition that 4-5 can be done simultaneuosly, and add the additional constraint that the lag time between any two tasks in inversely proportional to the sum of all the number of the tasks completed, then the most optimum sequencing of tasks would be a. 7.81 hr b 7.07 hr c. 8.23 hr d. 9.37 hr Which of the following cannot be the third task performed? a. 3 b. 6 c. 4

170.

171.

172.

173.

d. None of these

Direction for questions 174 and 175: Answer the questions independently. 174. Ruchika and her sisters Shillu, Kavita and Anupama were tossing a basketball in the living room when the ball slipped from one of the sisters fingers and broke their Moms favourite vase. Uttam, their elder brother, saw what happened and knows which sister broke the vase. When she hears the crash, their Mom comes rushing into the room to see what happened. My favorite vase, she sobs as she begins to pick up the many shards. Who did this? she asks. Ruchika says, Shillu did it. Shillu says, Anupama did it. Kavita says, I did not do it. Anupama says, Shillu lied when she said that I did it.

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Their mom turns to Uttam for the truth. Uttam does not want to tattle, but tells his mom, Only one of the girls is telling the truth the other three are lying. a. Ruchika b. Kavita c. Anupama d. Shillu 175. There are three boxes each containing 12 balls. The balls are green or blue and are such that one box contains only green, the other contains only blue, and the third contains both green and blue balls (unequal number). The boxes are deliberately pasted with wrong labels out of the labels available (BLUE, GREEN, BLUE AND GREEN). How many minimum pickings are required to be able to know which box contains balls of which colour(s), definitely? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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