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Instruction : Answer all questions. 1. A B C D 2. A B C D

NAME: .

The following statements are correct regarding X-ray diffraction except It is a way to analyse the internal structure of macromolecules Electrons are diffracted by atoms Paper or gel is used Vacuum is requred Which of the examples below are isomers? Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone Surcrose and lactose Starch and glycogen tRNA and mRNA

3. The table below shows the differences between triglycerides, phospholipids and steroids. All of the combinations are correct except Triglycerides Phospholipids Steroids A Hydrophobic Amphiphatic Amphipathic B Insoluble in water Soluble in water Partially soluble in water C Hydrolysed by lipase + Hydrolysed by lipase + Not hydrolysed by lipase D alkali phosphatase Example: cholesterol Example: Lecithin Example: Tristearin 4. Match each of the following organelles with its function respectively. Organelle Function A Cytoplasm Fluid that lubricates the cell B Golgi apparatus Pack and transport the first protein C Lysosome Produce spindle fibre during cell division D Cytoskeleton Self-phagocytic organelle 5. A B C D Which of the following is correct about plant tissue? Parenchyma tissue can be divided into two types, angular and lamella Collenchyma tissue consists of fibre cells or stone cells Schlerenchyma tissue has thick cell walls that are lignified Meristematic tissue consists of actively dividing cells located at zone of differentiation

6. The differences between compact bone and cartilage are shown in the table below. Cell Type Example (a) Compact bone I Cells involved are chondrocytes (b) Hyaline cartilage II Cells involved are osteocytes III Matrix contains calcium carbonate IV Matrix contains no calcium carbonate but proteins Which of the following combinations is correct? I II III IV A (a) (b) (a) (b) B (b) (a) (a) (b) C (a) (b) (b) (a) D (b) (a) (b) (a) 7. What is the anticodon sequence if the codon sequence of an mRNA template is 5-UCA3? A 5-AGU-3 B 5-TGA-3 C 5-UGA-3 D 5-AGT-3

8. A B C D

The experiment conducted by Beadle and Tatum led to the conclusion that One gene makes one polypeptide Genetic information is contained within the DNA Transformation was caused by DNA DNA replication was semi-conservative

9. The enzyme responsible for the following reaction is

i) AH2 + O2 A + H2O ii) AH2 + B A + BH2

A B C D Oxidoreductase Lyase Ligase Transferase

10. A B C D

The experiment conducted by Beadle and Tatum was able to show that DNA is the genetic material One gene is responsible for one polypeptide DNA replication takes place in semi-conservative way The interaction of two strains of bacteria is responsible for the process of transformation

11. Which is the correct sequence of DNA replication? I A RNA primer strand is required, start the replication process II DNA polymerase adds the nucleotides in the 5 to 3; direction in the growing leading DNA strand III A helicase catalyses the uncoiling of small parts of DNA IV Parental DNA duplex A I, II, III, IV B III, IV, II, I C IV, III, I, II D II, IV, III, I

12. A B C D

The dark reaction of photosynthesis emits electrons by P680 and P700 from the reaction centre + requires the breakdown of water into H and OH + requires ATP and NADPH + H occurs in the in the thylakoids

13. A B C D

All of the following are accessory pigments for photosynthesis, except Xantophyll Chlorophyll a Chlorophyll b Carotene

14. A B C D

Which of the following statements is correct regarding glycolysis? Four ATP are formed by substrate level phosphorylation It is the breakdown of pyruvic acid to form carbon dioxide and water It requires a complex enzyme system, flavoprotein and coenzyme Q Two triose phosphates combine to form fructose biphosphate

15. A B C D

In the Krebs cycle, the following substances are isomers, except -Ketoglutarate Succinate Fumarate Oxaloacetate

16. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the role of electron transport chain? A To break down the substrate to be smaller acetyl group that is able to attach with coenzyme A B To produce carbon dioxide C To produce the carbon skeleton that is used to synthesise substances such as amino acids, glycerol and fatty acids D To reduce oxygen so that water is produced for metabolism of animals in dry places

17. I II III IV A B C D

Which of the following organisms sustain life from photoautotrophic nutrition? Nitrobacter Chlorobium Leptothrix Chromatium I, II and III I and III II, III and IV II and IV

18. A B C D

All of the following statements are true about parasites, except Facultative parasites can feed on living and dead bodies Obligate parasites must obtain their food from living hosts Some green plants are partial parasites and obtain water and mineral and ions from host plants Blood-sucking parasites have coagulant to prevent blood from clotting during feeding

19. I II III IV A B C D

In the blood, carbon dioxide is transported as Carbonic acid Carboxyhaemoglobin Carbaminohaemoglobin Hydrogencarbonate ions I and II I, II and III I, III and IV II, III and IV

20. What is the main difference between the transport system in plants and in animals? A Animals utilize fluids to store and transport nutrients while plants utilize pigments B Animal transport systems are essentially in two-direction whereby plant systems are in one-direction C Both animal and plant transport systems have double circulatory systems D Animal transport systems is much more complex than plant transport systems

21. The following are diseases of the heart and the circulatory system, except A Angina

B C D

Cystic fibrosis Hypertension Myocardial infarction

22. The following is a graph showing rates of glucagon and insulin production against concentration of blood glucose.

Choose the correct statements about the above graph. Glucagon secretion decreases with the concentration of blood glucose till it reaches 80mg/100ml II Insulin secretion decreases with the increase in blood glucose concentration from 80mg/100ml till 200mg/100ml III Glucagon stimulates the release of glucose into the blood while insulin stimulates the storage of excessive glucose in the blood. IV Glucagon secretion is not influenced by concentration of blood glucose A I and II B I and III C II and IV D I, II, III and IV I

23. What is the function of the sodium-potassium pump in the axon membrane? + + A Transports Na and K ions into the axon + + B Transports Na and K ions into the outside of the axon + C Influx of Na ions exceeds threshold potential causes depolarization + D Maintain membranes resting potential and permits facilitated diffusion of more K ions + out and less Na ions 24. Choose the correct role of plant hormone and its interaction with plants growth and development. A Auxin induces lateral bud growth of plants B Gibberellins induces flowering dormancy in seeds C Cytokinins induces the growth of stem through acid growth hypothesis D Abscisins inhibits both apical dominance and lateral bud growth

25. The following statements describe non-specific responses well, except A Non-specific responses is the second line of defence after pathogens have gained entry into the body B Neutrophiles and eosinophiles can produces digestive enzymes to kill pathogens C Basophiles and mast cells produce histamine that causes inflammation to control infection D Complement proteins aid in the cascade reaction to produce more of basophiles and mast cells to kill pathogens

26. The main difference between humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity is that A humoral immunity is non-specific whereas cell-mediated immunity is specific for particular antigens. B only lymphocytes are involved in humoral immunity. C humoral immunity cannot function independently. It must be activated by cell-mediated immunity. D humoral immunity acts against free-floating pathogens, whereas cell-mediated immunity acts against pathogens that have entered body cells.

27. The table below lists the types of blood cells involved in the immune response and explainations of their actions.

Which of the following is correct of the match between blood cell type and its

action?

28. The following is the result of a cross:

The presence of genotypes Ppqq and ppQq in the F1 offspring is due to A polygenes B crossing over C linked genes D codominance 29. A woman with normal colour vision, whose father was red green colour blind, married a red-green colour blind man. The probability that a girl born to this couple will be red-green colour blind is A 1.0 B 0.125 C 0.00625 D 0.25

30. The diagram below shows the inheritance of haemophilia in a family.

What is the genotype of P? H H A X X H B X Y H h C X X h D X Y

31. In the lactose operon, both genes, X and Y undergo the transcription process. Gene Y can only undergo transcription in the presence of lactose and at the same time, gene Z is released from the repressor. Which of the following is true about the genes X, Y and Z? X Y Z A Regulator gene Structural gene Operator gene B Structural gene Operator gene Regulator gene C Operator gene Structural gene Regulator gene D Structural gene Regulator gene Operator gene

32. The function of the promoter in the lac operon is to A code for a regulator gene B code for the repressor gene C bind to the repressor D bind with the RNA polymerase.

33. The table below shows the number of chromosomes in cabbage (Brassica oleracea), radish (Raphanus sativus) and their hybrids.

Chromosomal mutation occurred during the A fusion of the parent gametes B formation of F1 gamete C fusion of gamete F1 D formation of F2 gamete

34. A dominant allele Y for yellow coat in rats functions as a lethal gene in homozygous state. If 16% of 1000 foetuses are stillborn, what percentage is expected to be heterozygous in the population? A 14 B 26 C 24 D 28

35. 75% from a human population have the ability to roll their tongues. The alleles involved are T (dominant) and t (recessive). Individuals who cannot roll their tongues are homozygous recessive (tt). What is the frequency for the recessive allele t? A 0.05 B 0.25 C 0.50 D 0.70

36. Which of the following sequences in a double strand DNA is not likely to produce fragments with sticky ends when treated with restriction enzymes? A 5 GAATTC 3 3 CTTAAG 5 B 5 GGATTC 3 3 CTTAGG 5 C 5 GAAATC 3 3 CTTTAG 5 D 5 AAGGAA 3 3 TTGGTT 5

37. Which of the following is the role of the restriction enzymes in DNA recombinant technology? A to make a complementary copyof an RNA molecule B to join the sticky ends of the donor copy to the sticky ends of the plasmid DNA C to ensure that the cutting of DNA is random D to recognise certain sequences of DNA bases and digest the DNA at specific points along its length 38. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the cloning process? I Splice the DNA fragment into the vector II Cut DNA of the vector III Cut the source DNA IV Insert the vector into the host A I, II, IV, III B II, I, III, IV C II, III, I, IV D II, IV, I, III

39. Which of the following sets of characteristics can be used to build a dichotomous key to differentiate between and insect, a crustacean and a small mammalian? A Internal skeleton and external skeleton B Jointed appendages and external skeleton C Internal skeleton and antenna D Eyes and jointed appendages.

40. The diagram below shows the life cycle of a plant.

If sporophyte is the dominant generation then the life cycle shown is typical of A Bryophyte B Fungi C Filicinophytes D Spermatophytes

41. The retention of larval characteristics in sexually matured adults is an example of A parthenogenesis B paedogenesis C polyembryony D schizogamy

42. The graph below were plotted from the data obtained from an experiment using pea plants.

. What do the graphs X, Y and Z represent? X Y A Absolute growth rate Relative growth rate B Absolute growth rate Height C Height Absolute growth rate D Height Relative growth rate

Z Height Relative growth rate Relative growth rate Absolute growth rate

43. Which of the following classes of chordata has gills without operculum and shows internal fertilisation? A Osteichthyes B Chondrichthyes C Amphibia D Reptilia 44. This selection tends to favour individuals with phenotypes in the middle of the phenotypic distribution and removes those from both extremes. The statements refers to A directional selection B diverging selection C disruptive selection D stabilising selection

45. Reproductive isolation is a barrier that prevents individuals of two subpopulations of a species from breeding or producing fertile offspring. Which of the following is not a prezygotic isolation? A Behavioural isolation B Ecological isolation C Psychological isolation D Temporal isolation

46.

*Found in species that produce few offspring. *Offspring receive lots of maternal care, thus exhibit high survival rate among the young. *Survivorship gradually decreases through middle age and then decreases sharply in the later years of lifespan and death occurs at old age.

The above description best describes A type I survivorship curve B type II survivorhsip curve C type I and II survivorship curve D type I and III survivorship curve

47. Disease outbreaks, predations, competition for resources, famines and parasitism are A density-dependant factors B density-independent factors C sex-specific factors D age-specific factors

48. Carrying capacity is A the minimum population size that can be supported by its environment under certain conditions. B the maximum population size that can be supported by its environment under certain conditions. C the individual birth rate in a population D the individual death rate in a population

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49. A quadrat frame of 50 cm x 50 cm was used to determine the density of a species R in area X and Y. The results obtained are as follows.

What is the density, in units per square metre, of species R in the two areas? X Y A 560 240 B 56 24 C 28 12 D 14 6 50. Which of the following statements correctly descrined in-situ conservation? I. Seed storage of genetically diverse crops II. Breeding captive species in zoos III. Preserving biological diversity in the wild IV Conservation exclusively on large, charismatic animals. A III only B I and IV C II and IV D I, II and III

~~~End of Questions~~~

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