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Exam Review
Exam Name: 007 - 15 Feb 2011
1. The first event to occur in the micturition reflex is a) Relaxation of sphincter b) Detrusor contraction c) Relaxation of perineal muscles d) Activity of EMG stops at external sphincter Review:- 2. Hydatids of morgagni are a) Hydatid cysts in the brain b) Hydatid cysts in the thorax c) Subcutaneous hydatid cysts d) None of the above Review:- 3. Capacity of stomach of newborna) 20 ml b) 30 ml c) 50 ml d) 100 ml Review:- 4. Lymphatics of ovary drains into a) Paraaortic LN b) Internal iliac LN c) External iliac LN d) Obturator LN Review:- 5. The sensory nerves from the cervix pass through the a) Lumbar 4,5 b) Sacral 2,3,4 c) Pudendal nerve d) Ilio inguinal nerve Review:- 6. The branches of internal iliac artery include all of the following except

a) Uterine artery b) Middle rectal artery c) Obturator artery d) Inferior epigastric artery Review:- 7. All are true about selenocysteine except a) It is an L- alpha aminoacid b) Selenocysteine does not have a specific simple codon c) It is commonly referred to as the 21st aminoacid d) It is inserted into polypeptides during transcription process Review:Biochemistry - Proteins 8. Semi essential aminoacid is a) Methionine b) Glutathione c) Valine d) Histidine Review:Biochemistry - Proteins 9. Wrong statement is a) Aminoacids exhibit isomerism due to presence of asymmetric carbon atom b) Glycine is an optically active aminoacid c) Optical activity depends upon pH and side chain d) The aminogroup is oriented towards right hand in D aminoacids Review:Biochemistry - Proteins 10. True about aminoacids are a) They exists as zwritter ions at a specific pH in solutions b) The Net charge becomes 'zero' in a zwritter ion c) The pH at which zwitter ion exists is called P1 9(or) Isoelectric pH of the aminoacid d) All of the above are true Review:Biochemistry - Proteins 11. The aminoacid responsible for the absorption of light in proteins is a) Tyrosine b) Threonine c) Tryptophan d) Serine

Review:Biochemistry - Proteins 12. Vitamins that can prevent cancer are all except a) Vit A b) Vit E c) Vit C d) Vit D Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 13. The Enzyme which converts provitamin A to Vit A is a) Carotene Hydrolase b) Carotene dioxygenase c) Carotene reductase d) Carotene dehyrogenase Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 14. True about Vitamin A is a) Vitamin A is absorbed in small intestine b) Retinyl palminate is the storage form of Vitamin - A c) Liver is the only organ where carotene is converted to Vitamin A d) All of the above Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 15. True about beta carotenes is a) One molecule of Beta carotene yeilds one molecule of Vitamin A b) Beta carotene acts as an Antioxidant c) Has Anti cancer effect by itself d) All of the above Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 16. All are the features of Hypervitaminosis - A, except a) Headache b) Alopecia c) Anorexia d) Hypocalcaemia Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 17. Calcitriol Synthesis occurs in a) Liver b) Skin

c) Kidney d) GIT Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 18. Vitamins that can prevent cancer are a) Vit A b) Vit E c) Vit C d) Vit D Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 19. The Enzyme which converts provitamin A to Vit A is a) Carotene Hydrolase b) Carotene dioxygenase c) Carotene reductase d) Carotene dehyrogenase Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 20. True about Vitamin A is a) Vitamin A is absorbed in small intestine b) Retinyl palminate is the storage form of Vitamin - A c) Liver is the only organ where carotene is converted to Vitamin A d) All of the above Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 21. True about beta carotens is a) One molecule of Beta carotene yeilds one molecule of Vitamin A b) Beta carotene acts as an Antioxidant c) Has Anti cancer effect by itself d) All of the above Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 22. All are the features of Hypervitaminosis - A, except a) Headache b) Alopecia c) Anorexia d) Hypocalcaemia Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins -

23. Calcitriol Synthesis occurs in a) Liver b) Skin c) Kidney d) GIT Review:Biochemistry - Vitamins 24. Pulsatile tinnitus is feature of the following Except: a) Carotid artery- cavernous sinus fistula b) Eustachian tube dysfunction c) Meniere's disease d) Glomus tumor Review:ENT - Ear 25. Pulsatile otorrhea is feature of: a) Petrous apicitis b) Glomus tumor c) Serous otitis media d) Acute mastoiditis Review:ENT - Ear - Acute mastoiditis is one of the 10 basic complications of acute otitis media.. 26. Profound hearing loss is loss more than: a) 40 dB b) 55dB c) 70 dB d) 90 dB Review:ENT - Ear - -Normal hearling (0-25 dB) -Mild hearing loss (26-40 dB) -Moderate hearing loss (41-55 dB) -Moderate-severe hearing loss (56-70 dB) -Severe hearing loss (71-90 dB) -Profound hearing loss (>90 dB) 27. The empty delta sign is seen in: a) Sagittal sinus thrombosis b) Malignant otitis externa c) Acoustic neuroma d) Glomous tumor Review:ENT - Ear - The sign consists of a tringular area of enhancement or high attenuation with a relatively low-attenuating center in SSS thrombosis. A"pseudodelta" sign can be seen in patients with hyperattenuating acute subarachnoid hemorrhage around the si 28. A 50-year-old male presents with LMN VIIth nerve palsy. He has deafness in his ear,

which he says is long-standing and is diagnosed as sensorineural deafness. On examination he has incomplete abduction of the right eye on right gaze. The rest of his eye m a) Glomus jugulare b) Acoustic neuroma c) Cavernous sinus thrombosis d) Sphenoid ridge meningioma Review:ENT - Ear - This is a case of a cerrebellopontine angle lesion, which presents with sensorineural deafness ( therefore the underlying cause most likely to be an acoustic neuroma) -VIIIth, LMN VIIth, Vith nerve and Vth nerve palsies. The corneal reflex wil 29. Unsafe eardrum perforation is: a) Central b) Marginal c) Paracentral d) Multiple central Review:ENT - Ear - -While atticoantral type or marginal or unsafe otitis media involves posterosuperior part of middle ear cleft (attic, antrum, poster tympanum and mastoid) and is associated with Cholesteatoma, which due to its bone 30. A 45 yrs man presents with fever, night sweats, anorexia, weight loss & intermittent large-volume diarrhea. His CD4 cell count:15, CT scan shows periaortic lymphadenopathy what's the most likely diagnosis? a) Cryptosporidiosis b) MAC disease c) CMV d) Non-hodgkin's lymphoma Review:Surgery - GIT 31. Which of the following statements concerning Hirschsprung's disease is true? a) Characterized by the absence of gangilion cells in the transverse colon b) Is associated with a high incidence of genitourinary tract anomalies. c) Is initially treated by colostomy d) Best diagnosed in the newborn period by barium enema Review:Surgery - GIT 32. The operative treatment in Hirschsprung's disease is only undertaken when child a) Is 2 years of age b) It at least 8 kg in weight and thriving c) Has no distension of abdomen d) Has failed to respond to conservative treatment

Review:Surgery - GIT 33. Which is true-regarding hirschsprungs disease a) More in females b) Presentation within 3 days c) Regular dilatation is effective d) Rectal biopsy diagnostic Review:Surgery - GIT 34. Hirschprungs disease is treated by a) Colostomy b) Excision of aganalionic segment c) Colectomy d) Sodium chloride wash Review:Surgery - GIT 35. Following procedure are done for correction of Hischprungs disease EXCEPT: a) Duhamel's b) Soave's c) Swenson's d) Delorme's Review:Surgery - GIT 36. With regard to the Dandy-Walker syndrome, false is: a) The cerebellar vermis is hypoplastic b) Obstructive hydrocephalus is the commonest mode od presentation c) Posterior fossa is small. d) A cyst is always present in the posterior fossa Review:Medicine - Neurology 37. Which of the following Genetic conditions commonly becomes apparent in the fourth or fifth decade of life: a) Down's syndrome b) Cri-du-chat syndrome c) Klinfelter's syndrome d) Huntington's syndrome Review:Medicine - Neurology 38. Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of a) Tonic clonic seizuer

b) Absence seizure c) Myoclonic seizure d) Simple partial seizure Review:Medicine - Neurology 39. Drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures: a) Valproate b) Gabapentin c) Vigabatrin d) Lomotrigine Review:Medicine - Neurology 40. Thiamin is a co-enzyme for a) Transketolase b) Alanine transferase c) ALA synthase d) Cystathionine Review:Medicine - Neurology 41. Percentage change of cystic glandular hyperplasia turning to maligancy: a) 0.1% b) 2% c) 1% d) 10% Review:OBG - carcinoma - Cystic glandular hyperplasia refers to simple hyperplasia without atypia and as I have mentioned in previous question, its chances of progressin to carcinoma are 1%. 42. Long term tamoxifen therapy may cause: a) Endometrium Ca b) Ovary Ca c) Cervix Ca d) Vagina Ca Review:OBG - carcinoma - Long term Tamoxifen therapy is a predisposing factor for Endometrial hyperplasia and cancers. 43. The stage of Ca Endometrium with invasion of 10 mm of Myometrium is: a) Ia b) Ib c) Iib

d) Iia Review:OBG - carcinoma - FIGO staging of Endometrial cancer Stage I Cancer confined to the corpus uteri Ia Tumor limited to endometrium Ib Tumor involving half or less than half the myometrial thickness Ic Tumor involves more than half the myometrial thic 44. Stage IV endometrial carcinoma, treatment is: a) Surgery b) Radiotherapy c) Chemotherapy d) Radiotherapy. Chemotharapy and hormonal therapy Review:OBG - 45. Treatment of choice in a postmenopausal lady with atypical endometrial hyperplasia is: a) Estrogens b) Hysterectomy c) Progestogens d) Raidotherapy Review:OBG - 46. All are risk factors for carcinoma endometrium EXCEPT: a) Multiple sexual partners b) Diabetes c) Hypertension d) Infertility Review:OBG - 47. Follicles are not seen in which of the following a) Spring catarrh b) Trachoma c) Adeno virus conjunctivitis d) All of the above Review:Opthal - Cornea 48. Trachoma is said to be inactive in the presence a) Follicles b) Pannus c) Entropion d) Keratitis Review:Opthal - Conjunctiva -

49. Subconjunctival hemorrhage occurs in all conditions except a) Passive venous congestion b) Pertussis c) Trauma d) High intra ocular tension Review:Opthal - Conjunctiva - Sub conjunctival haemorrhage may vary from small petechiae to an extensive one covering from bulbar conjunctiva. Causes: -Conjunctivitis - Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis Pneumococcal conjunctivitis Koch-Weeks conjunctivitis -T 50. 'Sago grain' follicles are characteristic of a) Spring catarrh b) Inclusion conjunctivitis c) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d) Trachoma Review:Opthal - Conjunctiva - Sites of follicles: Upper tarsal conjunctiva Fornix Bulbar conjuctiva (Pathognomonic) Struture: Follcies formed due to scattered aggregation of lymphocytes and other cell 51. Adenovirus causes a) Kerato conjuctivitis b) Diarrhoea c) Parotoid enlargement d) All of the above Review:Opthal - Conjunctiva - Adenovirus causes: -Pharyngitis - Penumonia -Acute respiratory diseases -Pharyngo conjuctival fever -Epidemic kerato conjuctivitis (EKC) -Acute follicular conjuctivitis -Diarrhea. 52. The weakest wall of the human orbit is a) Roof b) Medial Wall c) Floor d) Lateral wall Review:Opthal - Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous - Orbit is made up of seven bones: a. Frontal b. Maxilla c. Zygomatic d. Sphenoid e. Palatine f. Ethmoid g. Lacrimal - Medial wall being thinnest is frequently fractured during injury 53. Cystoid macular edema can occur in a) Cataract b) Glaucoma c) Aphakia d) Papilloedema

Review:Opthal - Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous - CME os the collection of fluid in outer plexiform and inner nuclear layer of retina centred around foveola. Etiology a. Adrenaline eyedrops especially in aphakics b. Diabetic Retinopathy 54. In unilateral past pointing nystagmus the site of lesion of a) Cerebellar hemisphere b) Lateral semicircular canal c) Flocculo-nodular lobe d) Superior semi circular canal Review:Opthal - Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous - Nystagmus observed in hemispherical disorder of cerebellum Include: Gaze evoked Nystagmus Rebound Nystagmus Abnormal Optokinetic nystagmus Other Findings:55. Scan used to calculate power of intraocular lens to be implanted a) A b) B c) C d) D Review:Opthal - Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous - -A scan provides an indirect measurement of tissue such as eye ball length or anterior chamber depth and lens thickness. 56. Heteronymous hemianopia is due to lesion at a) Optic nerve b) Optic chiasma c) Lateral geniculate body d) Cerebral cortex Review:Opthal - Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous - Central lesions of the chiasma are characterised by bitemporal hemianopia and bitemproal hemianopic paralysis of pupillary reflexes. 57. A 4 year old child presents with white reflex, proptosis, fever and eye pain. The likely cause is a) Orbital cellulitis b) Acute frontal sinusitis c) Retinoblastoma d) Ethmoiditis Review:Opthal - Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous - Retinoblastoma is a common congenital malignant tumour arising from neruosensory retina -Sporadic cases by somatic mutation, familial cases by autosomal dominant inheritances. -Origin: Mal 58. Muscle mostly affected in thyroid ophthalmopathy is a) Lateral rectus

b) Inferior rectus c) Superior rectus d) Medial rectus Review:Opthal - Tumours, squint, Lacrimal apparatus and miscellaneous - -Ocular motility is frequently affected in Graves ophthalmopathy. These range from convergence weakness (Mobius sign) to partial or complete immobility of one or all the extrinisic muscles. 59. Which is not a principle of compound fracture treatment a) No tendon repair b) Aggressive Antibiotic cover c) Wound debridement d) Immediate wound closure Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations 60. Pulled elbow is due to a) Fracture of radius b) Fracture of ulna c) Supracondylar fracture humerus d) Subluxation of radial head Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations 61. Tardy ulnar palsy is due to a) Cubitus valgus b) Fixation of nerve in the groove by osteoarthiritis c) Excision of elbow joint d) Fracture of internal condyle Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations 62. The best radiological view for fracture scaphoid is a) AP b) PA c) Lateral d) Oblique Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations 63. Internal fixation is done in all fracture Except a) Compound b) Multiple c) Elderly person d) Joints to be mobilized early

Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations 64. Myositis ossificans is commonly seen at the .. a) Knee b) Elbow c) Shoulder d) Hip Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations 65. Medial meniscus is more vulnerable to injury because of a) Its fixty to tibial collateral ligament b) Its semicircular shape c) Action of adductor magnus d) Its attachment to fibrous capsule Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations - The medical meniscus is torn more frequently because it is less mobile being fixed to the medial collateral ligament 66. Injury to the popliteal artery in fracture lower and of femur is often due to a) Distal fragment pressing the artery b) Proximal fragment pressing the artery c) Tight plaster d) Hematoma Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations - In fracture involving lower end of femur, there is a classical deformity. The distal fragment rotates posteriorly and this leads to vascular compromise. The deformity is posterior angulation or Angular tilting. 67. In transverse fracture of the patella, the treatment is a) Excision of small fragment b) Wire fixation c) Plaster cylinder d) Patellectomy Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations - Reduction of the fracture and fixing them with tension band wiring and repair of the extensor retinacula is the treatment for transverse fracture 68. Commonest type of dislocation of the hip is a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Central d) Dislocation with fracture of the shaft

Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations - Dislocations of the hip: *Posterior dislocations commonest *Anterior dislocations *Central fracture dislocation 69. March fracture affects a) Neck of 2nd metatarsal b) Body of 2nd Metatarsal c) Neck of 1 st metatarsal d) Fracture of lower end of tibia Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations 70. Commonest complication of extracapsular fracture of neck of femur is a) Non Union b) Ischemic necrosis c) Malunion d) Pulmonary complications Review:Orthopaedics - Fractures and Dislocations - -intertrochanteric fractures or extra capular fracture neck of femur fractures always unite, but because of possible failure in keeping the fragments aligned, these fractures often mal-unite. -Malunion gives ri 71. Recurrent meningitis occurs following head injury at a) Cribriform plate b) Ethmoidal sinus c) Both d) None Review:Paediatric - Neurology 72. The characteristic features of the meningococcal sepsis, except a) Rash b) Bleeding c) Shock d) Hypotension Review:Paediatric - Neurology 73. The common site of obstruction in case of hydrocephalus in tuberculous meningitis a) Cerebral cortex b) Subarachnoid space c) Spinal cord d) Cerebellum Review:Paediatric - Neurology 74. MacEwan's signs is

a) Cracked pot note of the skull on percussion b) Is present in increased intracranial tension c) Both d) None Review:Paediatric - Neurology 75. The causes of the metabolic encephalopathy, except a) Hypoglycaemia b) Uremia c) Diabetes d) Hypobilirubinaemia Review:Paediatric - Neurology 76. True regarding JUVENILE MYOCLONIC EPILEPSY is all the following EXCEPT: a) Onset between 8-18 years of age b) About 90% are tonic-tonic seizures c) Response to valporate is excellent d) Treatment can be safely stopped after 25-30 years of age Review:Paediatrics - Neurology 77. IV Dose of pyridoxine in epileptiform convulsions due to pyridoxine deficiency in neonates is: a) 1 gm/day b) 2 gm/day c) 3 gm/day d) 4 gm/day Review:Paediatrics - Neurology 78. All the following can cause peripheral neuropathy EXCEPT: a) Chloramphenicol b) Isoniazid c) Zudovudine d) Metronidazole Review:Paediatrics - Neurology 79. Adolscent suicide, identify the incorrect statement: a) Thoughts of suicide occur during normal mood swings during which short periods of depression are common b) Females have higher rate than males c) Unsuccessful suicide attempts are three times higher in females than in males.

d) More common in younger adolescents than older Review:Paediatrics - Neurology 80. A 10 yrs old child with spastic bladder is treated with anitcholinergics. The child will complain of: a) Diplopia b) Decreased distance vision c) Decreased near vision d) Decreased in colour vison Review:Paediatrics - Neurology 81. Congenital bilateral facial paresis and abduction weakness are the distinctive features of? a) Mobius syndrome b) Brown syndrome c) Follive's syndrome d) All of the above Review:Paediatrics - Neurology 82. Following is true about Barret's esophagus a) Occurs in 3rd decade b) Lined by transitional epithelium c) Not reversible by medical therapy d) It is a physiological condition Review:Pathology - GIT 83. Carcinoma lower oesophagus is most likely a) Transitional type b) Anaplastic type c) Adenocarcinoma d) Columnar cells type Review:Pathology - GIT 84. False about the malignant ulcer of stomach is a) The mucosal folds do not reach the edge of the ulcer b) Mucosal folds are thickened and fused c) Ulcer crater is eccentric d) Margins of the ulcer are overhanging Review:Pathology - GIT 85. Greater risk of carcinoma of stomach is associated with

a) Old age b) Intestinal metaplasia c) Cardiac end ulcer d) Prepyloric ulcer Review:Pathology - GIT 86. All are benign mesenchymal tumours of stomach except a) Leiomyoma b) Adenoma c) Fibroma d) Lipoma Review:Pathology - GIT 87. Commonest variety of carcinoma stomach is a) Squamous carcinoma b) Adenocarcinoma c) Colloid carcinoma d) None Review:Pathology - GIT 88. Bridging necrosis in the liver is the characteristic feature in this liver disease a) Acute viral hepatitis b) Chronic persistent hepatitis c) Carrier state d) Chronic active hepatitis Review:Pathology - Liver 89. Periportal fatty infiltration of liver is seen with a) Alcoholism b) Viral hepatitis c) Malnutrition d) Tetracycline Review:Pathology - Liver 90. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in a) Alcoholic cirrhosis b) Wilsons disease c) Budd chiari syndrome d) Indian childhood cirrhosis

Review:Pathology - Liver 91. Macro nodular cirrhosis occurs in a) Post necrotic b) Wilson's disease c) Cryptogenic d) Biliary Review:Pathology - Liver 92. Fibrogenesis in cirrhosis is caused by a) Hepatocytic & kupffer cells b) Myofibroblasts & Hepatocytes c) Myofibroblasts & Kupffer cells d) Myofibroblasts & Ito cells Review:Pathology - Liver 93. True abour cirrhosis is a) Diffuse nodular and diffuse fibrosis seen b) Normal architecture c) Portal hypertension always there d) All of the above Review:Pathology - Liver 94. Sequestrated lobe of lung is commonly supplied by a) Pulmonary artery b) Intercostal artery c) Descending aorta d) Bronchial artery Review:Pathology - Lung 95. Most common lung malformation a) Hypoplasia of lung b) Congenital cyst c) Vascular anomalies d) Lobar sequestration Review:Pathology - Lung 96. Bronchogenic cysts occurs commonly in a) Post. Mediastinum b) Sup.mediastinum

c) Carina d) Periphery of lung Review:Pathology - Lung 97. The following is not characteristic of ARDS a) Dyspnoea b) Ability to maintain PaO2 on 100% oxygen c) Bilateral crepts d) Bilateral opacities on X-ray Review:Pathology - Lung 98. Hyaline in Hyaline membrane disease is mainly a) Albumim b) Fibrin c) Surfactant d) Epithelial cells Review:Pathology - Lung 99. Emphysema pathologically involves beyond the a) Bronchi b) Terminal Bronchiole c) Respiratory bronchiole d) Alveolar Sac Review:Pathology - Lung 100. Coronary blood flow to the chest is increased by the following except a) Increased metabolism of the myocardium b) During increased cardiac contraction c) Increased local concentration of CO2 H+ ions and K+ iona d) Decreased amount of oxygen Review:Physiology - CVS
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