Q.

1 Tick the main approach of peptic ulcer treatment: (a) Neutralization of gastric acid (b) Eradication of Helicobacter pylori (c) Inhibition of gastric acid secretion (d) All the above Q.2 Gastric acid secretion is under the control of the following agents EXCEPT: (a) Histamine (b) Acetylcholine (c) Serotonin (d) Gastrin Q.3 Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors: (a) Pirenzepine (b) Ranitidine (c) Omeprazole (d) Trimethaphan Q.4 All of the following agents intensify the secretion of gastric glands EXCEPT: (a) Pepsin (b) Gastrin (c) Histamine (d) Carbonate mineral waters Q.5 Which of the following drugs is an agent of substitution therapy? (a) Gastrin (b) Hydrochloric acid (c) Hystamine (d) Carbonate mineral waters Q.6 Choose the drug which is a H2-receptor antagonist: (a) Omeprazole (b) Pirenzepine (c) Carbenoxolone (d) Ranitidine Q.7 Indicate the drug belonging to M1-cholinoblockers: (a) Cimetidine (b) Ranitidine (c) Pirenzepin (d) Omeprazole Q.8 Which of the following drugs may cause reversible gynecomastia? (a) Omeprazole (b) Pirenzepine (c) Cimetidine (d) Sucralfate Q.9 Cimetidine has no effect on hepatic drug metabolism. Its (a) True (b) False (c)both (d) none Q.10 Tick the drug forming a physical barrier to HCL and Pepsin: (a) Ranitidine (b) Sucralfate (c) Omeprazole (d) Pirenzepine Q.11 Which drug is an analog of prostaglandin E1? (a) Misoprostole (b) De-nol (c) Sucralfate (d) Omeprazole Q.12 Select the drug stimulating the protective function of the mucous barrier and the stability of the mucous membrane against damaging factors: (a) De-nol (b) Sucralfate (c) Misoprostol (d) Omeprazole Q.13 Antacids are weak bases that react with gastric hydrochloric acid to form salt and water. Its (a) True (b) False (c)both (d)none Q.14 Most of drugs are antacids EXCEPT: (a) Misoprostol (b) Maalox (c) Mylanta (d) Almagel Q.15 Indicate the drug that cause metabolic alkalosis: (a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Cimetidine (c) Pepto-Bismol (d) Carbenoxolone Q.16 All of the following drugs stimulate appetite EXCEPT: (a) Vitamins (b) Bitters (c) Fepranone (d) Insulin Q.17 Ethyl alcohol is an agent decreasing appetite. Its: (a) True (b) False (c) both SS (d) none Q.18 Select an anorexigenic agent affecting serotoninergic system: (a) Fenfluramine (b) Fepranone (c) Desopimone (d) Masindole Q.19 All of the following drugs intensify gastrointestinal motility EXCEPT: (a) Papaverine (b) Metoclopramide (c) Domperidone (d) Cisapride Q.20 Choose an emetic drug of central action: (a) Ipecacuanha derivatives (b) Promethazine (c) Tropisetron (d) Apomorphine hydrochloride

Q.21 Tick the mechanism of Metoclopramide antiemetic action: (a) H1 and H2-receptor blocking effect (b) M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect (c) D2-dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect (d) M-cholinoblocking effect Q.22 Select the emetic agent having a reflex action: (a) Ipecacuanha derivatives (b) Apomorphine hydroclorid (c) Chlorpromazine (d) Metoclopramide Q.23 All of the following drugs a re antiemetics EXCEPT: (a) Metoclopramide (b) Ondansetron (c) Chlorpromazine (d) Apomorphine hydrochloride Q.23 Indicate an antiemetic agent which is related to neuroleptics: (a) Metoclopramide (b) Nabilone (c) Tropisetron (d) Prochlorperazine Q.24 Indicate the laxative drug belonging to osmotic laxatives: (a) Docusate sodium (b) Bisacodyl (c) Phenolphthalein (d) Sodium phosphate Q.25 Which isomer of ibuprofen is more active ? (a) (S) (-) isomer (b) (S) (+) isomer (c) (R) (+) isomer (d) (R) (-) isomer Q.26 In the undermentioned list of prostaglandin synthetase inhibotors, which require least dose/day? (a) Indomethacin (b) Naproxen (c) Piroxicam (d) Fenoprofen Q.27 Phenylbutazone is acidic drut. It is due to presence of (a) easily replacable hydrogen (b) CO CH2 CO moiety (c) two keto group (d) two nitrogen atoms Q.28 Benorylate is a prodrug. Chemiclly, it is polymeric condensation product of (a) Aluminium oxide and aspirin (b) An acetyl salicylic ester of phenol (c) An acetyl salicylic ester of paracetamol (d) An acetyl salicylic ester of F -naphthol Q.29 The IUPAC name for Naproxen is (a) (S) 2 ( 6- ethoxy 2 naphthyl) acetic acid (b) (S) 2 ( 6 methoxy 2- naphthyl ) acetic acid (c) (S) 2 ( 6- ethoxy 2 naphthyl) propionic acid (d) (S) 2 (6- methoxy - 2 naphthyl) propionic acid Q.30 Probenecid is a (a)4 (dipropyl sulphamoyl) benzoic acid (b) 4 (di isopropyl sulphamoyl) benzoic aicd (c) 4 (dipropyl sulphamoyl) cinnanic acid (d) 4 ( dipropyl sulpphamoyl) benzylic acid Q.31 Starting material for Ibuprofen is (a) Isopropoyl benzene (b) Isobutyl benezene (c) Isobutyl acetophenone (d) Isopropyl acetophenone Q.32 Which of the following acids have heighest degree of Ionisation in an aqueons solution? (a)Aspirin p Ka = 3.5 (b) Indomethacin Ka = 4.5(c) Ibuprofen pKa = 5.2 (d) Warfarin Ka = 5.1 Q.33 Which is the toxic metabolite of Acetaminophen ? (a) N acetylimidoquinone (b) p aminophenol (c) p nitrophenol (d) aniline Q.34 Which of the following is N Arylanthranilic acid derivative

(a) Mefenamic Acid (b) Tolmetin (c) Indomethacin (d) None of the above Q.35 Which of the following ring is present in Sulindac. (a) Indole (b) indene (c) Isoxazole (d) None Q.36 Ibuprofen is a : (a) 2 (4-Propylphenyl) propionic acid (b) (2 (4-Isobutylphenyl) propionic acid (c) 2 (4-Ethyl phenyl) propionic acid (d) 2 (4-Hexylphenyl) propionic acid Q.37 Paracetamol is a 4 acetamidophenol. It is an intermediate in the preparation of : (a) Chlorophenesin (b) Phenacetin (c) Hexachlorohane (d) Hexylresorcinol Q.38 Terfenadine causes less sedation in comparison to other antihistamines because (a) its duration of action is less (b) it does not penetrate the blood brain barrier (c) it is readily metabolised (d) None of the above Q.39 Pheniramine maleate is an antihista-minic agaent belonging to the class (a) Ethylenediamine (b) Cyclic basic class analogs (c) Amino alkyl ehter analogs (d) None of the above Q.40 Diphenhydramine, is a antihistaminic drug. It belongs to the category of (a) Ethylenediamine (b) Amioalkyl ether (c) Propylamine derivatives (d) Piperazine derivative Q.40 Regarding promethazine hydro-chloride, one of the statement is not true. Identify it . (a)It contain phenothiazine, substituted at position 10 (b) It is main ingredient of phenergan syrup (c) Dextro is isomer is more active than levo isomer (d) It contain side chain of CH2 - CH N (CH3)2 Q.41 2, 3, 4, 9 Tetrahydro 2 methyl 9 phenyl 1 H indeno [ 2, 1 c] pyridine is name for . (a) Azatadine (b)Terfenadine (c) Phenindamine (d) Antazoline Q.42 In the general formula R X- C C- N, X is either nitrogen or carbon, R = different groups. This formula represent. (a) Antitussive (b) Antipyretics (c) analgerics (d) Antihistamines Q.43 Which one of the following antihistaminiic is a basic ether? (a) Pheniramine (b) Triprolidine hydrochloride (c) Diphenhydramine HCl(d) Promethazine Q.44 The most appropriate starting material for the synthesis of diphenydramine is (a) Benzophenone and N, N Dimethyl aminoethanol (b) Benzhydrol and N, N Dimethyl aminoethanol (c) Dipheny ether and N, N- Dimethyl aminoethanol (d) Diphenyl amine and 2 chloro ethanol Q.45 The 2 benzyl pyridiine and dimethyl amino ethyl chloride are starting material for (a) Pheniramine (b) Mypramine (c) Novacaine (d) Tripelanamine Q.46 The appropriate starting material for the synthesis of mepyramine is (a) 4 Aminopyridine (b) 2 aminopiperidine (c) 2 Aminopyridine (d) 2Aminopiperazine Q.47 Demenhydrinate is a combination of (a) 8 - chlorotheophylline and 2 (diphenyl methoxy) N, N dimethylamine (b) 8- chlorophylline and 2 (diphenyl methoxy) N, N diethylamine (c) 8 chlorotheobromine and 2 (diphenyl methoxy) N, N diethylamine (d) 8 chlorocaffcine and 2 (diphenyl methoxy) N, N diethylamine

Q.48 Branching, shortening or lengthing of propylene bridge in phenothiazines causes (a) Increased activity (b) Decreased activity (c) loss I the activity (d) None Q.49 In anthhistaminic drugs by branching or extention of 2 aminoehyl side chain causes : (a) Decreased activity (b) Increased activity (c) loos in activity (d) None Q.50 Which of the following ring is present in Doxylamine (a) Piperdine (b) Pyrimidine (c) Pyridine (d) Pyrazine Q.51 Which of the following ringis present in clemastine (a) pyrole (b) Furon (c) Indole (d) None Q.52Which of the following ringis present in mepyramine (a) piperidine (b) pyridine (c) pyrimidine (d) Pyradazine Q.53 In the general formula R X C C N : X = Nitrogen, or Carbon, R = Different groups. This formula represents : (a) Antitussive (b) Antipyretics (c) Analegesics (d) Antihistamines Q.54 Histidine is a heterocyclic amino acid which on heating alone is decomposedproduce (a) Imidazole (b) Histamine (c) Propoinic acid (d) Ammonia Q.55Which of the following organs is a target for prolactin? (a) Liver (b) Adrenal cortex (c) Thyroid (d) Mammary gland Q.56 Indications of bromocriptine are following, EXCEPT: (a) Prolactin-secreting adenomas (b) Amenorrhea-Galactorrhea (c) Prolactin deficiency (d) Acromegaly Q.57 Indications of thyroid hormones are following, EXCEPT: (a) Cretinism (b) Myxoedema (c) Hashimoto's disease (d) For treatment of simple obesity Q.58 Thyroid hormones produce various pharmacological effects. Indicate the wrong statement(s). (a) Decline of the basal metabolic rate in the body (b) Increase in the rate and force of contraction of the heart (c) Increase in the blood cholestrol level (d) Increase in the heat production Q.59 Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones (and their synthetic analogs) have pharmacologic applications in three areas, EXCEPT the following: (a) As replacement therapy for hormone deficiency states (b) As drug therapy for a variety of disorders using pharmacologic doses to elicit a hormonal effect that is not present at physiologic a blood levels (c) As a diagnostic tool for performing stimulation tests to diagnose hypo- or hyperfunctional endocrine states (d) As food supplements Q.60 The following statements concerning aspirin are true, EXCEPT: (a) In contrast to most other NSAIDs, aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX (b) Aspirin interferes with the chemical mediators of the kallikrein system (c) Aspirin inhibits phospholipase A2 (d) Aspirin inhibits tromboxane A2 formation
Q.61 These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects, EXCEPT: (a) Piperidines (b) Ethanolamines (c) Ethylenediamines (d) Phenothiazine

Q.62 Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the best antiemetic action? (a) Alkylamines (propylamines) (b) Ethanolamines (c) Piperazines (d) Ethylenediamines Q.63 . These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for the anticholinergic effect, EXCEPT: (a) Alkylamines (propylamines) (b) Piperazines (c) Ethylenediamines (d) Phenothiazines; Q.64 Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the alpha-adrenoreceptorblocking effect? (a) Alkylamines (propylamines) (b) Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); (c) Ethylenediamines (d) Phenothiazines Q.65 Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the highest local anesthetic effect? (a) Alkylamines (propylamines) (b) Piperidines (c) Ethylenediamines (d) Phenothiazines Q.66 Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is recognized for as second-generation antihistamines? (a) Alkylamines (propylamines) (b) Piperidines (c) Ethylenediamines (d) Phenothiazines;

Q.67 The key substance in the synthesis of purine, phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate is formed by (A) -D-ribose 5-phosphate (B) 5-phospho -D-ribosylamine (C) D-ribose (D) Deoxyribose Q.68 In purine biosynthesis ring closure in the molecule formyl glycinamide ribosyl-5phosphate requires the cofactors: (A) ADP (B) NAD (C) FAD (D) ATP and Mg++ Q.69 Purine biosynthesis is inhibited by (A) Aminopterin (B) Tetracyclin (C) Methotrexate (D) Chloramphenicol Q.69 Pyrimidine and purine nucleoside biosynthesis share a common precursor: (A) PRPP (B) Glycine (C) Fumarate (D) Alanine Q.70 Pyrimidine biosynthesis begins with the formation from glutamine, ATP and CO2, of (A) Carbamoyl aspartate (B) Orotate (C) Carbamoyl phosphate (D) Dihydroorotate Q.71 The two nitrogen of the pyrimidine ring are contributed by (A) Ammonia and glycine (B) Asparate and carbamoyl phosphate (C) Glutamine and ammonia (D) Aspartate and ammonia Q.72 Genetic code is (A) Collection of codon (B) Collection of amino acids (C) Collection of purine nucleotide (D) Collection of pyrimidine nucleotide Q.73 Degeneracy of genetic code implies that (A) Codons do not code for specific amino acid (B) Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids (C) No anticodon on tRNA molecule (D) Specific codon decodes many amino acids Q.74 Genetic code is (A) Overlapping (B) Non-overlapping (C) Not universal (D) Ambiguous Q.75 Termination of the synthesis of the RNA molecule is signaled by a sequence in the template strand of the DNA molecule, a signal that is recognized by a termination protein, the (A) Rho ( ) factor (B) factor (C) factor (D) factor

Q.77 AUG, the only identified codon for methionine is important as (A) A releasing factor for peptide chains (B) A chain terminating codon (C) Recognition site on Trna (D) A chain initiating codon Q.78 In biosynthesis of proteins the chain terminating codons are (A) UAA, UAG and UGA (B) UGG, UGU and AGU (C) AAU, AAG and GAU (D) GCG, GCA and GCU Q.79 Initiation of protein synthesis begins with binding of (A) 40S ribosomal unit on mRNA (B) 60S ribosomal unit (C) Charging of tRNA with specific amino acid (D) Attachment of aminoacyl tRNA on Mrna Q.80 The function of a repressor protein in an operon system is to prevent synthesis by binding to (A) The ribosome (B) A specific region of the operon preventing transcription of structural genes (C) The RNA polymerase (D) A specific region of the mRNA preventing translation to protein Q.81 Tetracylin prevents synthesis of polypeptide by (A) Blocking mRNA formation from DNA (B) Releasing peptides from mRNA-tRNA complex (C) Competing with mRNA for ribosomal binding sites (D) Preventing binding of aminoacyl tRNA