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Electron Theory
1. Pressure is used to produce voltage, this is
1. piezo electric effect 2. thermal electric effect
3. static electric 4. all
4. If we increase the dis of two charged bodies from 2 millimeters to 5 meters force between them
1. 6.25 x 106 times less
2. 6.25 x 106 times more
3. coulomb law will not act
4. same
13. The force between two stationary charged particles is ____ force (BLT)
1
1. electromotive 2. electrostatic 3. magneto motive 4. centripetal
14. If three coulombs of electricity flow through a conductor in three seconds the current is (Grob/31)
1. one ampere 2. one half ampere 3. six ampere 4. one third ampere
16. Field of force existing around a charged body is: (9A, P-269)
1. electrostatic field 2. electro magnetic field
3. atomic field 4. none of the above
DC Sources of Electricity-
19. Red lead paste is done in (Eismin, Pg – 36)
1. anode 2. cathode 3. both 4. only on anode
21. 4 cells of 2.0,15 amp – hr, 2 are in series and 2 are in parallel, Now this arrangement is connected in series,
output battery would be of
1. 6 v 30 A A-H 2. 4 v 15 A-H 3. 6 v 15 A-H 4. no battery can be
formed
26. During removal of battery from the a/c ____ terminal is disconnected at last in order to avoid ______ short
Eismin/53.
1. negative, accidental 2. positive, accidental
3. either negative or positive, accidental 4. none of the above is done
2
27. When cell is loaded, the terminal voltage (Grob/347)
1. is less then emf of cell by ‘I r’ drop 2. is equal to cell’s emf
3. is greater than emf by ‘I r’ drop 4. all of the above are correct
30. Ni / Cad cell is advantageous over Pb-acid cell from _____ point of view (9A/313.
1. low maintenance cost and long service life 2. short recharge time and good reliability
3. excellent reliability and good starting ability 4. all of the above
32. The negative terminal of a battery means it has ---- (Grob, 3A6)
1. excess of electrons. 2. excess of protons 3. deficiency of electrons 4. all of the above
33. ____ is one of the factor of thermal run away of Nickel/Cadmium cell(Eismin/47)
1. damaged layer of cellophane material 2. exothermic reactions at electrodes plates
3. 30% of dilute KOH by volume 4. both 1 & 2
35. Which of the following is a dry but rechargeable cell: Electronics, P-84.
1. nickel-cadmium cell 2. mercury cell
3. lead-acid cell 4. solar cell
44. In case Ni-cad electrolyte spills on body parts, should be rinsed with: (9A,P-314.
1. vinegar 2. lemon juice 3. boric acid solution 4. all the above
45. Ni-Cd is preferred to lead acid battery as it has: (Ref. FAA 9A, Pg. 313.
1. Short recharge time 2. Excellent reliability
3. Good starting capability 4. All
46. In lead acid battery (discharged state) negative plate used is: (Ref. FAA 9A, Pg. 313.
1. Pb02 2. Pb SO4 3. Ni (OH) 2 4. Cd (OH) 2
47. In case of Ni/Cd battery, during discharge _____ remains unchanged (Eismin/47)
1. voltage of cell 2. specific gravity
3. amount of active material at cathodes 4. amount of active material at positive plate
48. During the installation of battery in a/c, ___ terminal is connected first and in order to ___ (Eismin, 53.
1. positive, complete the circuit 2. negative, complete the circuit
3. positive, avoid the accidental short 4. negative, avoid the accidental short
50 Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low liquid level because
(9A/314, Eismin -50)
1. Electrolyte evaporates through the vents
2. of current package form individual cells
3. Electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates
4. None of these
51. What may result if water is added to nickel cadmium battery when it is not fully charged ?
(9A/314, Eismin – 40)
1. Excessive electrolyte deletion
2. Excessive spillage is likely to occur during the charging cycle
3. No adverse effects since water may be added any time
4. None of these
52. In a constant current charging system, a battery requires attention at the end of charge to avoid
(9A/312, Eismin – 42.
1. Sulphation of battery 2. Spilling of electrolyte
3. Evaporation of electrolyte 4. Danger of overheating
4
53. Active elements in a lead acid battery - (Eismin /35)
1. nickel hydrate and iron oxide 2. lead peroxide and spongy lead
3. manganese dioxide and carbon 4. spongy lead
55. When the temperature is increased, specific gravity of electrolyte (Eismin /41.
1. increases 2. decreases 3. remains same 4. none
57. While testing the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a nickel cadmium battery, it shows a reading of 1.300,
that means (9A /31A)
1. the battery is fully charged 2. the battery is moderately charged
3. the battery has lesser charge 4. the charging state can't be predicted
58. Hydrogen will be released at __ plates and oxygen will be released at ____ plates of a Ni-Cd battery
(Eismin/49)
1. negative, positive
2. negative at charging & positive at discharging
3. positive, negative
4. positive at discharging) & negative at charging)
59. When a battery is connected to a charger, which way should the connection be made: (Dale Crane, P-23.
1. positive of the charger to the positive of the battery
2. positive of the charger to the negative of the battery
3. it really does not make any difference
4. none of the above
60. What characteristics of a lead acid battery determines its ampere hour capacity: (Dale Crane, P-23.
1. the numbers of cells in the battery 2. the area of the plates
3. the density of electrolyte 4. the internal resistance of the battery
61. How can you tell when a battery on constant current charge is fully charged: (Dale Crane, P-23.
1. the specific gravity doesn’t show any increase in three consecutive readings taken one hour apart
2. all of the cell are gassing freely
3. both of the above conditions
4. the battery voltage stops rising
62. The state of charge of Ni-Cd battery can be found out by :- (CAIP-2- P-11.7)
1. Open circuit voltage 2. Amount of gassing
3. Measured discharge test 4. Specific gravity
63. Ni-cd battery when connected for charging the gassing indicates: (Pallet-P-23.
1. Battery is receiving proper charge and should continue charging
2. End of charge and beginning of overcharging
3. Beginning of charge and should be charged at the rate prescribed
4. None of the these
65. In ni-cd battery electrolyte is spilled in eyes what should be used: (changing precautions)
5
1. Baking soda 2. Water dilute Solution of boric acid
3. Plenty of water 4. Soda bi carbonate
67. MTCS regarding mixing of the electrolyte for lead acid battery: (Dale Crane, P-51.
1. the electrolyte that is furnished with a dry charged battery must be mixed with enough distilled water to adjust its
specific gravity to 1.835
2. be sure to pour the acid into water never vice versa
3. be sure to pour the water into acid never vice versa
4. pure concentrated sulphuric acid is used as an electrolyte it does not need to be mixed
68. What is the specific gravity of fully charged lead acid battery (Dale Crane, P-23.
1. 1.260 to 1.285 at 800F 2. 1.260 to 1.28 at 1000F
0
3. 1.835 at 80 F 4. 1.150 at 800F
69. In a nickel cadmium battery when is the electrolyte level is highest: (Dale Crane, P-8)
1. immediately after the battery has completed its charge
2. after the battery has been fully charged and allowed to rest for an hour or two
3. the electrolyte level does not change in a ni-cad battery
70. What is the function of the electrolyte in a nickel cadmium battery (Dale Crane, P-23.
1. serves as an active element in the chemical action generating the current
2. serves as a conductor only, and does not take part in the chemical action
3. serves only to keep the cell cool
4. serves as an indicator of the charge of the cell
71. How can you tell when a constant voltage charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is complete: (Dale Crane, P-23.
1. the voltage stop rising
2. the current decreases and stabilized
3. the specific gravity of electrolyte rise to 1.300
4. the cell voltage rises to 1.82 volts per cell
72. What type of battery charger is recommended for the final charge of nickel cadmium battery: (Dale Crane, P-24.
1. constant current charger
2. constant voltage charger
3. a/c gen. charging system in the airplane
4. charger which puts a low voltage alternating current across the battery
73. What may be used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from a nickel cadmium battery: (Dale Crane, P-24.
1. baking soda 2. ammonia 3. triehlorothene 4. vinegar
75. One more negative plate in Pb-acid cell than positive plates is used in order to: (BLT Vol , P-353.
1. prevent positive plate from warping or buckling
2. increase the cell potential
3. increase the cell capacity
4. decreases the cells internal resistance
76. In case of ni-cad battery, during discharge …… remains uncharged: (Eismin, P-47)
6
1. voltage of cell 2. specific gravity
3. amount of active material at cathodes 4. amount of active material at positive plate
78. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by hydrometer. The correction of specific gravity is required at:
(Eismin, P-41.
1. every time
2. when temperature is above or below 800F
3. when the temperature is above or below 600F
4. when the temperature exceeds 1400F
80. In different countries, the same rate of battery was charged, which gets more charge: (Eismin, P-41.
1. 00F, 1hr 2. 800F, 1hr 3. 600F, 1hr 4. 700F, 1 hr
81. A fully charged lead acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because: (Eismin,
P-39)
1. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution
2. most of the acid is in the solution
3. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing
4. none of the above
82. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery will be able to charged by a constant
voltage source: (Eismin, P-62.
1. the total plate area of the battery
2. the state of charge of the battery
3. the ampere hour capacity of the battery
4. any of the above
84. In a constant current charging system a battery requires attention at the end of charge to avoid:(Eismin, P-47)
1. sulphation of battery
2. spilling of electrolyte
3. evaporation of electrolyte
4. danger of over charging
86. The separators used for ni-cad battery is: (Eismin, P-47)
1. cedar wool
7
2. woven nylon fabric with a cellophone layer
3. micro porous plastic with cellophone layer
4. glass wool mixed with cellophone
88. What is the neutralizing agent to be applied on skin when acid falls on it? (9A)
1. Potassium Hydroxide 2. Sodium Bicarbonate 3. Boric powder
89. Which of the following is correct for the Ni/ Cd battery (Eismin/46)
1. current delivering capacity less
2. it can not be discharged to zero voltage level
3. for same capacity of pb acid, its weight is high
4. its initial cost is relatively high
92. What may result if water is added to nickel cadmium battery when it is not fully charged ? 9A/314, Eismin-40)
1. S.G of electrolyte decreases
2. Excessive spillage is likely to occur during the charging cycle
3. No adverse effects since water may be added any time
4. None of these
96. While testing the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a nickel cadmium battery, it shows a reading of 1.300,
that means (9A /31A)
1. the battery is fully charged
2. the charging state can't be predicted
3. the battery is moderately charged
4. the battery has lesser charge
8
97. The purpose of providing bottom grooves underneath the plates in a lead acid cell container is to (Eismin/37)
1. allow for convection of the electrolyte for cooling of the plates
2. ensure that the electrolyte's quantity and plate area is adequate
3. prevent sediment build up from contacting the plates and causing a short circuit
4. prevent escape of electrolyte but allow
98. The separators used in lead acid battery have vertical ribs on the side (Eismin/37)
1. facing the positive plate
2. facing both the positive & negative plate
3. facing the negative plate
4. half part facing positive plate & half part facing negative plate
DC Circuits
99. Ohm’s law is applicable to (Eismin/13-14.
1. ac circuits only 2. dc circuits only 3. both, ac & dc circuits 4. none of these
102. In a Wheatstone bridge, the current through the galvanometer at balanced condition is _______.
(Grob/177)
1. 1.08 A 2. 0.0A 3. 1.414 A 4. 1.732 A
103. For a fixed supply voltage, the current flowing through a conductor will increase when its:
(Ref. FAA 9A, Pg. 283.
1. Area of cross-section is reduced 2. Length is reduced
3. Length is increased 4. Length is increased & cross sectional area is reduced
105. Which of the following materials possesses the least specific resistance (Ref. FAA 9A, Pg. 273.
1. Aluminum 2. Copper 3. Silver 4. Iron
110. For doubling the current in a circuit of a constant resistance, the applied voltage must be: (BLT , P-9)
1. kept squared 2. doubled 3. halved 4. quadrupled
112. In a circuit the voltage is doubled and the resistance is cut in half at the same time the current will be
(9A/273 & Ohms laws)
1. doubled 2. a quarter 3. a half 4. four times as high
114. Four 1.5V cells are connected in parallel. The output voltage is (9A, 276)
1. 1.0V 2. 1.5V 3. 6.0V 4. None
115. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel dc circuit? (Grob /164.
1. powers are additive 2. voltages are additive
3. currents are additive 4. elements have individual currents
Resistance / Resistor-
116. A good electric conductor is one that (BLT)
1. has low conductance 2. is always made of copper wire
3. produces a minimum voltage drop 4. has few free electrons
117. cylindrical wire, 1 m in length, has a resistance of 100 ohm. What would be the resistance of a wire made from
the same material if both the length & cross-sectional area are doubled? (9A/273.
1. 200 ohms 2. 400 ohms 3. 100 ohms 4. 50 ohms
119. Ideal Constant voltage source has ____ internal resistance while practical constant current
source has ___ internal resistance. (Grob, 375)
1. zero, very high 2. very low, very high 3. very low, infinity 4. zero, infinity
121. If current through a resistor is halved, wattage developed by it would be: (BLT Electronics, P-74.
1. halved 2. quadrupled 3. cut to one-fourth 4. doubled
122. The colour of the fourth band of the carbon resistor indicates its (Grob/53.
10
1. current rating 2. Ohmic value 3. voltage rating 4. tolerance
123. In a resistance, coded as per end-to-centre system of marking, if the third band is silver in colour, the first two
digits must be - (9A/280)
1. multiplied by 10% 2. multiplied by 1% 3. divided by 10% 4. divided by 1 %
124. Which of the following will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease ? (9A/273.
1. increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area
2. decrease the length or increase the cross sectional area
3. decrease the length or the cross sectional area
4. increase the length or the cross sectional area
125. Resistance of a wire is 4 ohms and is stretched to twice its length. The resistance now is – (Grob/50,51,52.
1. 4 ohms 2. 8 ohms 3. 12 ohms 4. 16 ohms
126. Carbon composition resistors are most popular because they (9A/352.
1. cost the least 2. are smaller in size
3. can withstand over loads 4. do not produce electric noise
129. In end-to- centre colour coding of resistance, if the colours are brown, black, red the value of resistance is
(9A/352.
1. 100Ω 2. 1000 kΩ 3. 10Ω 4. 1 kΩ
132. If a 12 volt circuit furnishes 3 amperes to a parallel circuit consisting of three equal resistors, what is the value
of each individual resistor ? (Self made questions, Ohm laws)
1. 12 ohms 2. 4 ohms 3. 1.33 ohms 4. cannot be determined
134. Carbon composition resisters are most popular because they …: (BLT Vol-I, P-49)
1. cost least
2. are smaller in size
3. can withstand over loads
4. both (a) and (b)
135. if there is no forth color band on the resistor, the tolerance is to be understood as: (9A, P-280)
1. 10% 2. 20% 3. 5 % 4. no tolerance
R2 E2
Power
139. The ratio of resistances of a 100 Watt, 220 V lamp to that of a 100 Watt, 110 V lamp will be, at the
respective voltages (Ohm’s law)
1. 4:1 2. 2:1 3. 1:2 4. 1:4
140. A voltage drop is 100 volt across a 100 ohms resistance delivers (9A/284.
1.10,000 watts 2.1000 watts 3.100 watts 4.10 ampere
141. A 200 W, 230 V lamp is connected across 115 V supply. The lamp will draw power (Ohm’s law)
1. slightly more than 50 watts 2. slightly less than 50 watts
3. exactly 100 watts 4. exactly 50 watts
142. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected (9A/296)
1. in parallel with the light 2. across the source of energy
3. in series with the light 4. in series-parallel with the light switch
Capacitance / Capacitor
143. The equivalent capacitance value, when three capacitor having same value, are connected in series, is
(Eismin/10A)
1. 75 micro farad 2. 25 micro farad
3. one third of each value 4. three times the value of the capacitor
144. The charge of electricity that can be placed on capacitor is proportional to - (9A/350)
1. applied voltage and frequency 2. capacitance and frequency
3. applied voltage and capacitance 4. capacitive reactance
12
3. current 4. watt
148. In one time constant, capacitor takes the charge up to ___ % of its full charge (Eismin/105)
1. 63.2 2. 36.7 3. 20.6 4. 80.2
152. Which of these items does not enter into determination of the capacity of a capacitor: (BLT , P-5.
1. thickness of the dielectric
2. material of which the plates are made
3. material of which the dielectric is made
4. area of the plates
153. The capacitive reactance decreases as the value of the capacitance increases because a large capacity capacitor
will (9A/352.
1. take less charge than low capacity capacitor
2. take greater charge than low capacity capacitor
3. require lower voltage than low capacity capacitor
4. require higher voltage than low capacity capacitor
154. When relatively high capacitance is required in a small capacitor we use (GROB-P- 503.
1. Ceramic capacitor 2. Paper capacitor
3. Electrolytic capacitor 4. Mica capacitor
155. When the capacitor is charged fully the value of the current in the circuit is: (Grob-P-338)
1. Zero 2. Maximum 3. Minimum 4. Moderate
159. There is a greater possibility of voltage breakdown and leakage current in an electrolytic capacitor
because – (9A/349)
1. the electrolyte used is in a liquid or a paste form
2. the electrolyte is having a low dielectric strength
3. dielectric is a thin film of oxide
4. undesirable low frequency
161. How many time constant needed by a capacitor to be charged upto 99.8%: (Eismin, P-105)
1. 06 2. 04 3. 07 4. 05
Magnetism-
162. Whenever a magnet is quickly brought towards an open circuited stationary coil (Grob/425)
1. a current is induced in it 2. work has to be done
3. e.m.f. is induced in it 4. power is spent
165. In a magnetic material, hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to – (Grob/406)
1. flux density lagging behind magnetizing force
2. molecular friction
3. its high retentivity
4. rapid reversals of its magnetization
167. The property of a material which opposes the production of magnetic flux in it is known as (Grob/409)
1. mmf 2. reluctance 3. permeance 4. permittivity
169. The soft iron piece is used as electromagnet because it has __ retentivity and ____ permeability
(Jeppesen)
1. low, high 2. low, low 3. high, low 4. high, high
Inductance / Inductor
170. Inductance of a coil is determined by the (Jeppesen 3-51.
1. type of core 2. number of turns
3. shape and size of the coil 4. all of the above
173. Direction of the induced emf in a generator is determined by generator (Jeppesen 4-2.
1. left hand rule 2. right hand rule
14
3. both hand rule 4. none of these
174. A coil has an inductance of 1H if current is changing at the rate of 2 Ampere/sec induces:
(BLT Electronics, P-74.
1. one volt in it 2. two volts in another coil 3. two volts in it 4. half a volt in it
175. According to lenz’s law, the emf induced in a coil always ……. the cause: (9A-344.
1. assist
2. opposes
3. equate
4. none
176. When a coil carrying current produces magnetic field the field is(Eismin-P-9 & Grob-P-422.
1. Concentrated at the centre of coil 2. Spreads equally in the coil
3. Concentrated at the surface of length 4. None of the above
178. The field at any point on the axis of a current carrying coil will be (BLT/264.
1. perpendicular to the axis 2. parallel to the axis
3. at an angle of 45 degree with the axis 4. zero
179. The force required to wipe out the residual magnetism is called (Grob/408)
1. retentivity 2. magnetizing force 3. coerceive force 4. permeability
180. For a given shape of a coil, the amount of inductance depends on – (BLT)
1. no. of turns 2. core
3. separation between the turns 4. all of these
181. If a magnetic material is used as the core of inductor, the property of material – (Grob/579)
1. decreases the inductive reactance 2. increases the permeability of coil
3. increases the inductance of the coil 4. decreases the inductance of the coil
182. Four inductor of 2µH is connected in series is the equivalent inductance (Grob/603.
1. 2µ h 2. 1/2 µH 3. 8µH 4. None
183. A coil with a certain number of turns has a specified time constant. If the number of turns is doubled,
its time constant would (Eismin/107)
1. remain unaffected 2. becomes doubled 3. becomes one fourth 4. get halved
185. The induced emf when a conductor moves along the magnetic axis with very high speed is
(Grob/425/488/489)
1. maximum depending on different factors
2. zero because cutting flux is maximum
3. zero because rate of cutting of flux is negligible
4. some value
188. Which of the following facts related to elementary d.c. generator is incorrect? (9A/297)
1. during the rotation, for instant, when coil's plane remains along MNA induced emf is minimum
2. in above case, when coil's plane is along magnetic neutral axis (MNA), induced emf is maximum
3. direction of current flow in coil direction of polarity of induced emf is given by Fleming left hand rule
189. In a self excited dc-generator, electromagnet instead of permanent magnet is used for necessary field
(BLT)
1. to change the field strength as per requirement
2. because with time strength of a magnet decreases
3. because its size is less
4. all of the above
193. If the terminal voltage is equal to no load voltage, generator is called 9A/396)
1.flat compound 2. cumulatively compound
3. differentially compound 4. either 2 or 3
194. In compound wound generators _____ field coil is of ____ conductor with ____ turns. (9A/396)
1. series, thick, a few 2. series, thin, many
3. series, thin, a few 4. series, thick, many
196. The ____ motor is not started without mechanical load (9A/445/446)
1. d.c. series 2. shaded pole
3. induction 4. capacitor start
197. The part of a d.c. motor which changes the current flow from one wire to another is (9A/392.
1. yoke 2. brushes 3. armature 4. commutator
198. The field poles and armature in a d.c. generator are laminated in order to reduce its –(9A/391.
1. weight 2. speed 3. eddy current loss 4. hystresis loss
16
199. In d.c. generators, armature reaction is produced actually by – (9A/397)
1. its field current 2. armature conductors
3. field pole winding 4. load current in armature
200. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by connecting its shunt
field – (9A/39A)
1. to earth 2. to an a.c. source 3. to a d.c. source 4. either 2 or 3
201. A large series motor is never started without some mechanical load on it because (BLT)
1. draw too much current 2. develop excessive speed and damage itself
3. produce vicious sparking at brushes 4. open fuse or circuit breaker
203. If a short circuit occurs between the positive armature lead and the field lead of a shunt generator which has the
voltage regulator located in the positive side of the field circuit the -
1. generator voltage will drop to zero
2. generator will only produce residual voltage
3. reverse current cut out relay will open and remain open until the fault is corrected
4. generator voltage will increase
207. Which of the following motors gives a high starting torque. (BLT)
1. series motor 2. shunt motor 3. compound motor 4. none
208. Why is the air gap between the yoke and armature of an electric motor kept smaller – (BLT)
1. to achieve a stronger magnetic field 2. to avoid overheating of machine
3. both 1. & 2. 4. none
210. Which one of the following generator is not used in a/c power generation system? (BLT)
1. shunt wound generator 2. series wound generator
3. compound wound generator
211. ‘When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it tends to rotate’ this principle is used in
(BLT)
1. generator 2. motor 3. hotwire instrument 4. rectifier
218. When a series motor is run without load, the speed may increase for above the normal speed, causing armature
to fly apart because (9A/394.
1. at starting there is no counter emf
2. counter emf is higher than the applied emf
3. counter emf remain sufficiently below the applied emf
4. applied emf remains sufficiently below the counter emf
219. Under varying conditions of speed and load the only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output
from an aircraft generator is to vary (9A/398)
1. the strength of the magnetic field
2. the number of conductors in the armature
3. the speed at which the armature rotates
4. the brush pressure on the commutator segments
220. In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement of the
brushes within the holder – (FAA-9A)
1. brush spring tension
2. the brush pigtail
3. undercutting the mica on the commutator
4. lubricating the brush sides
221. To what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a d.c. generator, undercut is (BLT)
1. equal to the width of the mica
2. one half the width of the mica
3. equal to twice the width of the mica
4. none
18
224. Commutator is made of (Jeppesen 4-6)
1. hard drawn copper segments 2. soft drawn copper segment
3. hard drawn anilco steel 4. all of the above
225. The raised portion of each commutator segment is called (Jeppesen 4-7)
1. lowerer 2. riser 3. cut portion 4. only 1 & 3
227. The effect of magnetic filed produced by current carrying armature conductors: (Eismin, P-194.
1. reduction of effective filed strength
2. distortion of field flux
3. sparking on the commentator and brushes
4. all are correct
231. The main function of inter poles is to minimize______________ between the brushes and the commutator
when the 4.c machine is loaded: . (BLT-Vol-II-P-962.
1. Friction 2. Current 3. Sparking 4. Wear and tear
234. How can the direction of rotation of a d.c. motor be changed ? (9A/448)
1. interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source
2. reverse the electrical connection to either the field or armature winding
3. rotate the brush assembly by 90 degree
4. remove the starting winding
19
236. Which one is not related for determining the amount of voltage produced in generator (BLT)
1. the number of magnetic lines of flux
2. the number of conductors cutting the flux
3. the size of the conductor cutting the flux
4. the speed at which the conductor cuts the flux
238. If load on a DC shunt motor is increased, its speed is decreased primarily due to : (Jeppssen P-131.
1. increase in its flux 2. decrease in back emf
3. increase in armature current 4. increase in brush drop
240. In motor right hand rule the direction of the torque is denoted by (FAA 9A)
1. index finger 2. middle finger
3. thumb 4. none of these
241. In Generator left hand rule the direction of lines of magnetic flux is denoted by (Jeppesen)
1. fore finger 2. first finger
3. index finger 4. all of the above
242. When the flow of electrons in two wires is opposite, the resulting magnetic fields forces the wires
(Jeppesen 4-29)
1. closer 2. apart 3. both 1 & 2 4. none of these
244. To vary the speed of a shunt motor, a device used is (Jeppesen 4-31.
1. transistor 2. diode 3. rheostat 4. capacitor
245. When field current of a motor is increased the motor speed will (Jeppesen 4-31.
1. increase 2. decrease 3. remain same 4. none of these
246. The motor in which two field windings wound in opposite directions on the same pole to reverse the direction
of rotation is known as (Jeppesen 4-32.
1. shunt motor 2. series motor
3. same field motor 4. split field motor
247. When the current in field winding of series motor is increased then the current in armature winding will
(Jeppesen 4-33.
1. decrease 2. increase
3. remain same 4. none of these
248.. What is the relationship between the desired voltage regulator setting and the ambient temperature in which
the airplane is operated: (Dale Crane, P-23.
1. the colder the ambient temp, the lower the voltage should be set
2. the colder the ambient temp, the higher the voltage regulator should be set
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3. ambient temp. has no bearing in the desired voltage of the charging system
4. the regulated voltage should be same regardless of the temperature
252. Which one of the following parts is not essential for d.c. generator (9A/390/391.
1. armature 2. slip ring 3. split ring 4. commutator
253. In a type of DC generator, when load is increased, voltage increases and when the load is decreased, voltage
also decreases, the generator can be (9A/394.
1. Shunt generator 2. Differential compound generator
3. Compound generator 4. Series generator
254. In a long shunt compound wound generator, the shunt field is connected in parallel with (9A/395)
1. Armature
2. Series field
3. Parallel combination of armature and series field
4. Series combination of armature and series field
255. The __________ dc generator has the poorest voltage regulation (BLT)
1. Over-compound 2. compound 3. Shunt 4. Series
256. Which of the following generator provides approximately constant voltage from no-load to full load (9A/396)
1. Series 2. Shunt 3. flat compound 4. Over compound
259. The level of compounding in a cumulatively-compound d.c. Generator is usually adjusted by (BLT)
1. alternating series field current 2. changing shunt field current
3. connecting it long-shunt 4. connecting it short - shunt
261. The commutator segments are insulated from one other by (9A/397)
1. thin sheet of mica 2. using riser
3. hard drawn copper 4. pig tail
265. The induced emf is max. if the conductor cuts the magnetic field at (9A/342.
1. 00 2. 450 3. 900 4. none
267. If a magnet is dropped through a current carrying coil it falls with: (Grob-P-581.
1. Uniform acceleration equal to g
2. Non uniform acceleration less than g
3. Uniform acceleration less than g
4. Uniform acceleration more than g
268. The basic requirement of d.c generator armature winding is that it must be: (BLT-VOL-II-P935)
1. A lap winding 2. A closed one
3. A wave winding 4. Either 2 and 3
269. The series field of a short shunt d.c generator is excited by _________current: (BLT-VOL-II-P936)
1. Shunt 2. Load 3. Armature 4. External
270. The …….. reverses the direction of current in generator or motor. [ISMIN, P-191]
1. Commutator 2. Bursh 3. Slip ring 4. commutator segment
273. Starting torque in case of the shaded –pole motor is: (Ref. FAA 9A, Pg.455)
1. Very Weak 2. Power factor is low 3. Both 4. None
AC Theory
278. The effective voltage of a a.c. sine wave 200 peak-to-peak, is approximately (9A/343.
1. 70.7 volt 2. 141.4 volt 3. 63.7 volt 4. 127.4 volt
280. When current passes through a conductor, the resultant effect is (BLT)
1. a magnetic field is produced 2. magnetic as well as heating effect
3. only heating effect 4. only chemical effect
282. The time period of a sine wave of frequency 50 Hz. is ______ seconds. (Grob/452.
1. 0.02 2. 0.03 3. 0.04 4. 0.05
283. A sinusoidal ac voltage which undergoes 100 reversals of polarity per second has a frequency of ___ Hz.
(Grob/455)
1. 50 2. 100 3. 150 4. 25
284. The rms value of a sinusoidal current is _____ times its maximum value. (Grob/452.
1. √3 2. √2 3. 1/√2 4. 1/√3
285. The average value of a symmetrical sinusoidal alternating current over whole cycle is (Grob/452.
1. Always positive 2. Zero 3. +5A 4. +2A
287. The greatest value attended during one half of the cycle is called the: (9A,P-343.
1. peak value 2. average value 3. RMS value 4. effect value
291. Relation of actual power, reactive power and apparent power should be (Eismin/90)
1. App. Power2 = real power2 + reactive power2
2. App. Power = real power + reactive power
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3. App. Power = real power – reactive power
4. App. Power = real power X reactive power
297. Many of the larger transport a/c have been equipped with AC electrical system. The reason is (Eismin/210)
1. Easier to install 2. Less maintenance required
3. More efficient 4. All of the above
299. The r.m.s value of sinusoidal a.c current is equal to its value at an angle of (Pallette/35)
1. 90 degree 2. 45 degree 3. 30 degree 4. 90 degree
300. The input to an a.c circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 20 kV1. The power drawn by the circuit is
(BLT)
1. 12 kW 2. 20 kW 3. 16 Kw 4. 8 kW
301. If a capacitor is connected to an a.c. source the current _____ the source voltage by ____ (FAA 9A)
1. lags 900 2. lags 450 3. leads 900 4. none
303. In AC circuit the product of voltage and current is known as: (BLT)
1. apparent power 2. real power 3. resistance power 4. power
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304. It is the symbol of (Eismin-211.
306. Calculate capacitive reactance of 400hz circuit having a capacitance of 50 microfarads: (Dale Crane, P-52.
1. 8 ohms 2. 0.008 ohms c 125 ohms 4. 12.5 ohms
308. For R-L-C series resonant circuit, the circuit current is (Grob/761/762/763.
1. maximum 2. equal to V/R 3. in phase with V 4. all of the above
310. In series R-L-C circuit, voltage drop across capacitor and inductor have a phase difference of _____ degree
(9A/761.
1. 1800 2. 900 3. 1200 4. 600
311. In series resonant circuit (9A/357)
1. XL = XC 2. XL > XC 3. XL < XC 4. XL x XC =1
313. At resonance, for the series tank circuit, ___ is maximum (9A/357)
1. impedance 2. current 3. both 1 & 2 4. neither 1 nor 2
315. At lower frequency than its resonance, in a series RLC circuit - (Grob/761-62-63.
1. power factor is leading 2. power factor is lagging
3. power factor is unity 4. power factor is negative
Transformers-
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316. what remains constant in transformers:
1. current 2. voltage 3. frequency 4. power 5. both 3 and 4
320. Primary is subjected to 220 V & secondary is stepped down supposed to give an output of 11 V & primary
current is 5 A & secondary current is 90 A, the stepped down transformer is –
1. 30 % 2. 40 % 3. 70 % 4. 90 % efficiency
322. The no load current of a transformer in terms of full load current is usually – (BLT/1129/1130)
1. 1 to 3 % 2. 3 to 15 % 3. 9 to 12 % 4. 12 to 20 %
327. When load on secondary of the transformer is increased, the current in primary side will – (BLT/1129)
1. not be effected
2. increase
3. decrease
4. be the sum of no load current and excessive current drawn due to secondary winding
328. Electric power is transferred from one coil to the other coil in a transformer – (BLT/1116)
1. electrically 2. electro-magnetically 3. magnetically 4. physically
330. Which of the following is a correct statement about eddy current (BLT)
1. Eddy current improves the efficiency of a motor
2. eddy current heat up the metal part
3. eddy current used for arc welding
4. none
331. Which transformer must be constructed to measure the current of the circuit : (BLT/444.
1. power transformer 2. auto transformer
3. current transformer 4. air core transformer
333. If in a transformer the secondary turns are doubled and at the same time the primary voltage is reduced by
half, then the secondary voltage will - (BLT/1123.
1. be halved 2. be four times as high
3. not change 4. be reduced to a quarter
334. Which of the statement given below is correct for the auto transformer (BLT/1187)
1. it has to separate windings connected in series externally
2. it has only one winding
3. it can only step down the voltage
4. it is most suitable for power transformation
336. In a step up transformer, the power output is same as primary input power neglecting the losses, but
(Grob/587)
1. current is increased in secondary
2. current increases & voltage decreases in secondary
3. current decreases & voltage increases in secondary
4. current & voltage both increase in secondary
337. The measure of how well the flux of the primary is coupled into the secondary is called- (Grob/583.
1. mutual inductance 2. self-inductance
3. coefficient of coupling 4. coefficient of excitation
341. Reluctance is the opposition in the circuit to the flow of (Jeppesen 3-12.
1. lines of magnetic flux 2. lines of electric flux
3. air 4. all of the above
342. A transformer transfers electric power from one circuit to another without changing its (BLT/117)
1. voltage 2. current 3. frequency 4. all of the above
343. A transformer in which the core surrounds a considerable portion of the winding is known as (BLT/1117)
1. core type transformer 2. shell type transformer
3. both 1 & 2 4. none of these
344. In a transformer the core is laminated and insulated to reduce the (BLT/1117)
1. eddy current loss 2. hysteresis loss
3. copper loss 4. all of the above
345. In a transformer if N2 > N1 i.e. K> 1 then the transformer is called (BLT/1123.
1. step down 2. step in 3. step up 4. none of these
347. Ferrite cores commonly used at high frequencies to: (BLT Electronics, P-74.
1. increase core losses 2. decrease core losses
3. decrease inductance 4. increase resistance
348. The maximum efficiency of transformer occurs when: (BLT Vol-II, P-1082.
1. iron loss is zero 2. iron loss is less than copper loss
3. iron loss = copper loss 4. iron loss > copper loss
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353. A transformer transforms (BLT-VOL-II P-1208)
1. Frequency 2. Voltage 3. Current 4. Voltage and current
354. Which of the following is not a basic element of a transformer (BLT-VOL-II P-1208)
1. Core 2. Primary winding 3. Secondary winding 4. Mutual flux
356. In relation to a transformer, the ratio 20:1 indicates that (BLT-VOL-II P-1208)
1. There are 20 turns on primary one turn on secondary
2. Secondary voltage is 1/20th of primary voltage
3. Primary current is 20 times greater than the secondary current
4. For every 20 turns on primary there is one turn on secondary
357. The primary and secondary windings of an ordinary 2-winding transformer always have (BLT-VOL-II P-1208)
1. Different number of turns 2. A common magnetic circuit
3. Same size of copper wire 4. Separate magnetic circuit
AC Motors
359. If after starting, one connection to 3-phase induction motor is accidentally broken: (FAA 9A)
1. motor will always continue to rotate
2. motor will continue to rotate if load on motor is less than 1/3rd of full load
3. motor will continue to rotate in case of full load only
4. motor will never rotate
364. The starting winding of single phase induction motor is placed in (BLT)
1. rotor 2. stator 3. armature 4. field
366. In a synchronous motor rotor squirrel cage winding is provided for making the motor: (BLT-1991-P-651.
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1. Noise free 2. Self starting 3. Cheap 4. Quick start
368. In which motor there is no electrical connection between stator and rotor ? [EISMIN, P-185]
1. induction 2. synchronous 3 DC 4. both (a) & (b)
369. Percentage of difference in speeds of stator and rotor field is called [EISMIN, P-185]
1. Slip 2. ripple 3. degree 4. none
370 An electric motor in which stator and rotor poles run with same speed is known as: (Ele3. Notes-P-172.
1. Induction motor 2. Universal motors
3. Synchronous motors 4. Differential motor
371. If an alternator has 4 poles and 1800 r.p.m frequency is: (Eismin-P-219)
1. 60 cps 2. 120 cps 3. 100 cps 4. none of the above
372. The magnitude of the e.m.f generated by an alternator depends on:- (Electrical Notes-Page-171.
1. Number of its poles 2. Rotor speed 3. Flux per pole 4. All the above
373. The alternator is connected to the external circuit by: FAA-9A, P-411
1. slip rings & brushes 2. commutator 3. armature 4. field
AC Generators
376. The advantage of revolving field type alternator is that: (FAA 9A)
1. armature output connected directly to the load without sliding or brush contact in the load circuit
2. armature output connected through slip ring
3. armature output connected through brush and commutator
4. none of the above is correct
377. a.c. has largely replace d.C because: (Ref. FAA 9A, Pg. 338)
1. If can be transmitted over long distance 2. Economical than d.C
3. a.c. voltages can be increased or decreased 4. All
378. Two types of alternator are: (Ref. FAA 9A, Pg. 412.
i). Revolving armature alternator ii). Revolving field type alternator
iii). Revolving phases type alternator iv). Based on brush position
1. i) & iv) 2.iii) & iv) 3. ii) & iii) 4. i) & ii)
383. The starting winding of single phase induction motor is placed in (BLT)
1. rotor 2. stator 3. armature 4. field
385. In a synchronous motor rotor squirrel cage winding is provided for making the motor: (BLT-1991-P-651.
1. Noise free 2. Self starting 3. Cheap 4. Quick start
386 An electric motor in which stator and rotor poles run with same speed is known as: (Ele3. Notes-P-172.
1. Induction motor 2. Universal motor
3. Synchronous motors 4. Differential motor
387. If an alternator has 4 poles and 1800 r.p.m frequency is: (Eismin-P-219)
1. 60 cps 2. 120 cps 3. 100 cps 4. none of the above
388. The magnitude of the e.m.f generated by an alternator depends on:- (Electrical Notes-Page-171.
1. Number of its poles 2. Rotor speed 3. Flux per pole 4. All the above
389. The alternator is connected to the external circuit by: FAA-9A, P-411
1. slip rings & brushes 2. commutator 3. armature 4. field
FILTERS
390. A low pass filter circuit contains: (Handbook-P-135)
1) A capacitor 2) A resistor 3) An inductor 4) A transistor
394. Band pass filter contains “L-C circuit” in _____ with output load: (Handbook-P-138)
1) series 2) parallel
395. Band reject filter is formed by connecting one series “L-C” circuit and one parallel “L-C” circuit
___________ to each other. (Handbook-P-140)
1) Parallel 2) Series
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397. The cut of frequency for a high pass filter is that frequency at which the output voltage equals _________of the
input voltage (Handbook-P-138)
1. 100% 2. 50% 3. 70.7% 4. 65.3%
398. High pass filters are used in passing high frequency to? (Handbook-P-137)
1. Tweeter 2. Speaker 3. Woofer 4. None
Electrical Terminology-
400. An electric current is (9A/350)
1. random movement of electrons in a conductor.
2. movement of free electrons predominately in one direction.
3. pressure difference between two poles.
4. the power that causes drift of electrons.
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