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COMPUTER BASED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR BANK PO

1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Answer: B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Answer: A
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales
computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Answer: B
4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s tag and pulls up the
current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Answer: A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law
enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Answer: C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the
animal’s movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Answer: B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This
technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Answer: A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Answer: A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that
humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Answer: D
12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Answer: D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Answer: B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
Answer: B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is
considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Answer: B
16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Answer: C
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Answer: D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique
combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Answer: D
19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Answer: C
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
Answer: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Answer: C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Answer: A

24. The components that process data are located in the:


A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Answer: C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Answer: D
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Answer: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Answer: B
28. The ____________, also called the “brains” of the computer, is responsible for processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Answer: D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Answer: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Answer: A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Answer: B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ____________
software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Answer: D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Answer: A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Answer: C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Answer: A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes
Answer: D
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Answer: D
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known
as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Answer: A
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small
scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process à Output à Input à Storage
B. Input à Outputà Process à Storage
C. Process à Storage à Input à Output
D. Input à Process à Output à Storage
Answer: D
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Answer: A
43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
Answer: B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.
A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
Answer: C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users
can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Answer: B
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Answer: C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your
electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Answer: A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Answer: D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Answer: A

Fill in the Blank:

51. Between PCs and Macs, the ____________ is the platform of choice for graphic design and animation.
Answer: Mac
52. The ____________ is the program that manages the hardware of the computer system, including the CPU,
memory, storage devices, and input/output devices.
Answer: operating system

53. The type of operating system software you use depends on your computer’s ____________.
Answer: platform
54. ____________software helps you carry out tasks, such as typing a document or creating a spreadsheet.
Answer: Application
55. ____________are the fastest and most expensive computers.
Answer: Supercomputers
56. A ____________ is approximately 1,000 bytes.
Answer: kilobyte
57. Input devices are used to provide the steps and tasks the computer needs to process data, and these steps and
tasks are called ____________.
Answer: instructions
58. A computer gathers data, processes it, outputs the data or information, and ____________ the data or
information.
Answer: stores
59. The binary language consists of two digits: ____________ and ____________.
Answer: 0 and 1
60. A string of ____________ 0s and 1s is called a byte.
Answer: eight (8)
61. The devices you use to enter data into a computer system are known as ____________ devices.
Answer: input
62. The devices on a computer system that let you see the processed information are known as ____________
devices.
Answer: output
63. ____________ is the set of computer instructions or programs that enables the hardware to perform different
tasks.
Answer: Software
64. When you connect to the ____________, your computer is communicating with a server at your Internet service
provider (ISP).
Answer: Internet
65. ____________ are computers that excel at executing many different computer programs at the same time.
Answer: Mainframes
66. ____________is the application of computer systems and techniques to gather legal evidence.
Answer: Computer forensics
67. ____________ is the science that attempts to create machines that will emulate the human thought process.
Answer: Artificial intelligence (AI)
68. Macintosh computers use the Macintosh operating system (Mac OS), whereas PCs generally run ____________
as an operating system.
Answer: Microsoft Windows
69. A process known as ____________ tracks trends and allows retailers to respond to consumer buying patterns.
Answer: data mining
70. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of ____________ devices.
Answer: storage
71. You would use ____________ software to create spreadsheets, type documents, and edit photos.
Answer: application
72. ____________ are computers that support hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously.
Answer: Mainframes
73. ____________ is the term given to the act of stealing someone’s identity and ruining their credit rating.
Answer: Identity theft
74. Surgeons are using ____________ to guide robots to perform delicate surgery.
Answer: computers
75. Patient ____________ are life-sized mannequins that have a pulse and a heartbeat and respond to procedures just
like humans.
Answer: simulators

True and False

76. Currently, the performance of tasks by robots is based on preprogrammed algorithms.


Answer: True
77. Data can be a number, a word, a picture, or a sound.
Answer: True
78. Strictly defined, a computer is a data processing device.
Answer: True
79. The discrepancy between the “haves” and “have-nots” with regard to computer technology is
commonly referred to as the digital society.
Answer: False (digital divide)
80. One of the benefits of becoming computer fluent is being a savvy computer user and consumer and knowing
how to avoid viruses, the programs that pose threats to computer security.
Answer: True
81. Trend-spotting programs, developed for business, have been used to predict criminal activity.
Answer: True
82. Employers do not have the right to monitor e-mail and network traffic on employee systems used at work.
Answer: False
83. Clicking on an icon with the mouse is a form of giving an instruction to the computer.
Answer: True
84. Output devices store instructions or data that the CPU processes.
Answer: False (memory)
85. The CPU and memory are located on a special circuit board in the system unit called the motherboard.
Answer: True
86. Nanostructures represent the smallest human-made structures that can be built.
Answer: True

87. The main difference between a supercomputer and a mainframe is that supercomputers are designed to execute a
few programs as quickly as possible, whereas mainframes are designed to handle many programs running at the
same time (but at a slower pace).
Answer: True
88. Being computer fluent means that you should be able to build a computer yourself.
Answer: False
89. Embedded computers are self-contained computer devices that have their own programming and do not receive
input.
Answer: True
90. A Web browser is a special device that is installed in your computer that allows it to communicate with other
devices on a network.
Answer: False (network adapter)
91. With a wireless network, it is easier to relocate devices.
Answer: True
92. The most common type of memory that the computer uses to process data is ROM.
Answer: False (RAM)

Matching:
93. Match the following terms with their approximate size:
I. kilobyte A. one million bytes
II. byte B. eight bits
III. gigabyte C. one thousand bytes
IV. megabyte D. one billion bytes
V. terabyte E. one trillion bytes
Answer: C, B, D, A, E
94. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. printer A. storage device
II. scanner B. output device
III. RAM C. input device
IV. CPU D. a type of memory
V. CD drive E. processor
Answer: B, C, D, E, A
95. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. mainframe A. the most expensive computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly
II. supercomputer B. a computer that provides resources to other computers connected to a network
III. embedded computer C. a large, expensive computer that supports hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously
IV. PDA D. a self-contained computer device that usually performs preprogrammed functions such as temperature
control
V. server E. a small mobile computing device
Answer: C, A, D, E, B
96. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. software A. transforming data into information
II. hardware B. data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion
III. operating system C. any part of the computer that you can physically touch
IV. processing D. a set of computer programs that enables hardware to perform different tasks
V. information E. the most common type of system software, it controls the way in which the computer system
functions
Answer: D, C, E, A, B
97. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. system software A. the set of programs that enables computer hardware devices and application software to work
together
II. application software B. the kind of operating system software you will use depends on this
III. platform C. operating system software generally used on PCs
IV. Microsoft Windows D. a set of programs used to accomplish a specific task
V. Mac OS E. operating system software used on the Apple Macintosh
Answer: A, D, B, C, E
98. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. data A. the main circuit board in the system unit
II. memory B. the representation of a fact or idea (unprocessed information)
III. output C. processed data or information
IV. storage D. holds instructions or data that the CPU processes
V. motherboard E. data or information that can be accessed again
Answer: B, D, C, E, A
99. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. bit A. the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale
II. binary language B. the case that contains the system components
III. instructions C. consists of 0s and 1s
IV. system unit D. short for binary digit
V. nanotechnology E. steps and tasks necessary to process data into usable information
Answer: D, C, E, B, A
100. Match the following fields to the related computer technology:
I. medicine A. Internet research and virtual tours
II. business B. data mining
III. law enforcement C. robotics and simulation
IV. education D. computer forensics
V. archeology E. digital recreations of ruins
Answer: C, B, D, A, E
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is
LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related
to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK

(E) None of these

6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED
written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in
that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9898798769876598765498765
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following
five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th
July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but
before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many
students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D
scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who
among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below—
B#AR58E%MF4J1U@H2©9TI6*W3P#K7$Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of
the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will
be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols
followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find
out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on
the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.
If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark
(E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4%39$18@©2#56*7d
Letter Code :
PMITRQJFHAEUNBGL
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to
be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
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(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are
used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out
which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give
answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given
below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the
left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the
right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are
given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the
following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The
operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even
number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be
divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted
from the first number.
50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read
both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased
over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the
previous year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the
annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual
examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food
habits.
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the five
answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the
sequence were continued ?
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B#ARE%MFJU@H©TI*WP#K$Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)

State Bank of India Clerk Exam., 2008 General English : Solved Paper
(Held on 6-7-2008)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold
ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had
been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.
The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands.
The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the
world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of
their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The
youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all
day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on
trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and
servants. The neighbours looked on.
The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.
The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a
present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”
His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for
you.” She kissed him on the forehead.
The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”
“You’ll get it when you go far away.”
“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”
His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own
hands. It is the most precious of all.”
41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these
42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these
43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad
46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the
servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her
Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as
the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot
49. Packed
(A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy
50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as
used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C)
/than we expected. (D) No error (E)
52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No
error (E)
53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the
banking sector. (D) No error (E)
54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares
to fall. (D) No error (E)
55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error
(E)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No
correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required
57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required
58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required
59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required
60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
P a g e | 19
given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby
!” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in
the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they
hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.
61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in
bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words
printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of
that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.
66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D)
their basic needs. All correct (E)
67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)
68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All
correct (E)
69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for
customers. All correct (E)
70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon.
All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/
phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house
where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in
return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I
spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines
that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new
…(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)…
books. This has benefited me greatly.
71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around
72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone
P a g e | 21
73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played
74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which
75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable
76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement
77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees
78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship
79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while
80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy
Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)
Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2008 English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-9-2008)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Over the past few decades, many Asian nations transformed from poverty into global
competitors. From 2003 to 2007, Asian economies expanded at an average annual rate of
8•1%, triple that of advanced economies. Over the same period, inflation in Asia
averaged only about 3•5%. But Asia could be facing turbulent economic times. In May,
the average inflation rate throughout the region reached nearly 7%, led by spikes in oil
and food prices. In India, inflation jumped to an 11•6% annual rate in June, according to
the latest government figures, the highest in 13 years.
Policymakers and central bankers are forced to raise interest rates and limit credit to get
inflation under control. But these same measures suppress the investment and
consumption that generates growth. The combination of slowing growth and soaring
inflation makes economic policy-making tricky. Inflation stirs up the middle classes
because it can quickly erase years of hardwon personal gains. Inflation is cruel to the
poor, because families have to spend a larger share of their meagre incomes on
necessities. In the Philippines, farmers, unable to afford fuel for tractors, use water
buffaloes to plough their fields.
But to avoid unrest, leaders cannot blindly adopt rigid anti-inflation measures. Voters
won’t hesitate to remove from office any politician who doesn’t deliver the goods. So
they cannot overreact to the inflation threat and scale down economic growth in the
process. Developing nations need to grow quickly to create jobs and increase incomes for
their large populations. With prices soaring, doing nothing is not an option. Most central
banks in Asia have started raising interest rates. The Reserve Bank of India increased its
benchmark rate twice last month to a six year high of 8•5%.
The challenge is especially difficult because currently, inflation is not of domestic origin.
Prices are being driven higher by a global surge in oil and food prices, which individual
governments can do little to control. Of course, inflation is not just a problem in Asia.
World Bank President Robert Zoellick called rising food and oil prices a man-made
‘catastrophe’ that could quickly reverse the gains made in overcoming poverty over the
past seven years. For now, though, there is more talk than action on the international
front, so Asian governments are on their own.
Even though inflation throughout the region is likely to continue to rise in coming
months, no one is expecting an economic calamity. According to the Asian Development
Bank Asian countries have large hard currency reserves and relatively healthy banks, and
so are far better prepared to absorb external shocks than they were during the region’s
last recession ten years ago. Asian policymakers have learned their lessons and are more
alert.
1. Which of the following can be said about Asian economies during the period from
2003- 2007 ?
1. Though inflation was rising at the time politicians did not pay much attention.
2. Many of the poor countries were able to compete internationally.
3. The growth rate of Asian countries was facilitated by growth in advanced countries.
(A) All 1, 2, and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
2. Which of the following is not an anti-inflation measure being used by Asian countries
?
1. Increase in benchmark interest rate by a central bank.
2. Checks on lending.
3. Subsidising fuel for farmers.
(A) Only 3
(B) Both 1 and 2
P a g e | 24
(C) Both 2 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
3. What makes it difficult for Asian countries to control inflation ?
(A) Restrictions by organizations like the Asian Development Bank
(B) Governments are indecisive and adopt counterproductive measures
(C) The problem is global in nature, not restricted to their individual countries
(D) Countries have never faced a financial crisis
(E) Economic growth rate cannot occur in the absence of inflation
4. Why are experts not very concerned about the impact of inflation on Asian economies
?
1. Asian countries have not maintained substantial hard currency reserves.
2. The condition of Asian banks is currently both stable and strong.
3. The Asian Development Bank will bail them out of any trouble.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
5. What is the author’s advice to politicians regarding the handling of inflation ?
(A) They should focus on preventing agitations among their citizens not implementing
antiinflation measures
(B) They ought to implement anti-inflation measures even at the cost of losing office
(C) They must focus on maintaining high economic growth rate as inflation will taper off
on its own
(D) Countries should handle the problem independently and not collectively
(E) None of these
6. What could the impact of stringent inflation measures be ?
(A) Increased consumption as families spend a larger part of their income on essential
goods
(B) Politicians may be voted out of power
(C) Economic growth rate remains constant
(D) Oil prices within the country remain stable despite high global prices
(E) None of these
7. Why is high economic growth necessary for developing countries ?
(A) To catch up with the growth rate of the advanced countries
(B) To sustain their economies despite the ill effects of inflation
(C) To provide better educational opportunities to their citizens
(D) To create employment opportunities for citizens
(E) None of these
P a g e | 25
8. Why has inflation been referred to as a ‘catastrophe’ ?
(A) Prices of essential commodities are unaffordable for all
(B) Our past efforts to reduce poverty will be nullified
(C) Governments are unstable and do not take stringent decisions
(D) It has divided countries rather than ensuring co-operation among them
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
1. Growth rate in advanced countries was low so the effects of inflation were not felt.
2. Closing the economy to global markets will reduce inflation.
3. India has been the most severely affected by inflation.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
10. Which of the following factors was responsible for inflation in India ?
(A) Reserve Bank India raising the interest rates very frequently
(B) High population growth
(C) Sudden rise in prices of oil worldwide
(D) Reckless competition with China
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. stirs
(A) trembles
(B) moves
(C) mixes
(D) inspires
(E) agitates
12. scale
(A) descent
(B) climb
(C) hindrance
(D) cut
(E) measure
13. origin
(A) ancestry
(B) source
(C) inauguration
(D) down
P a g e | 26
(E) heritage
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. turbulent
(A) quiet
(B) rest
(C) soothes
(D) stormy
(E) lawful
15. gains
(A) decreases
(B) fails
(C) deprives
(D) frauds
(E) losses
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No
correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. The main objective of the workshop has made children aware of Western classical
music.
(A) will make children aware
(B) is to make children aware
(C) is making aware children
(D) awareness of children
(E) No correction required
17. Afraid of missing her train and was late for the meeting, Sunita arrived an hour early
at the station.
(A) but later for
(B) and been late to
(C) after being late
(D) and being late for
(E) No correction required
18. As a famous historian he has travelled around the world giving lectures on rare
subjects.
(A) rarely to subjects
(B) of rare subject
(C) with rarest of subject
(D) in subjects rarely
P a g e | 27
(E) No correction required
19. The stadium wherever the opening ceremony will be held next month, is equipped
with the latest facilities.
(A) in the opening ceremony
(B) which the ceremony will open
(C) where the opening ceremony
(D) that the opening ceremony
(E) No correction required
20. There will be a trend of unseasonal rainfall in April, in recent years.
(A) There has been
(B) It has been
(C) There is being
(D) It may have been
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces.
Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).
Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same
sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
21. A committee has been…………..to…………..the transformation of the city into an
international finance centre.
(A) constituted, convert
(B) appointed, oversee
(C) converged, evaluate
(D) inducted, change
(E) inaugurated, determine
22. Keeping in mind the…………..to develop the sector the government has…………..
solicited foreign investment.
(A) importance, never
(B) proposal, forcibly
(C) objective, wanted
(D) view, discretely
(E) need, actively
23. In his speech he vowed to…………..the four billion unbanked individuals across the
world into the…………..of financial inclusion.
(A) represent, sphere
(B) target, area
(C) bring, realm
(D) engage, achievement
(E) convince, era
P a g e | 28
24. Although he puts in…………..of overtime and takes few holidays,
he…………..cannot support his family.
(A) sufficient, however
(B) lot, besides
(C) much, thus
(D) plenty, still
(E) frequency, yet
25. They have been…………..on incentives to…………..these practices are implemented
at grass root level.
(A) relying, ensure
(B) improving, secure
(C) advocating, confirm
(D) debating, necessitate
(E) focusing, display
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them—
1. It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri Desgrange, a magazine editor in
Paris.
2. The Tour de France is a test of human endurance.
3. His idea worked and the magazine boomed.
4. His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.
5. He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the three week long, 3,500
kilometre long cycling race.
6. Till today the race remains more popular than he could ever have dreamed.
26. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
27. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
28. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
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(D) 4
(E) 5
29. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
30. Which of the following should be the sixth (Last) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
letters of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.)
31. On account of the week (A) / long strike the factory (B) / was forced to close and (C)
/ next month’s shipment will delay. (D) No error. (E)
32. Since the US economy experiences (A) / a recession many Asian countries (B) / are
likely to have (C) / reduced growth rates this year. (D) No error. (E)
33. Oil is now so expensive that (A) / India will have to cut subsidies (B) / instead face
running out (C) / of funds to import oil. (D) No error. (E)
34. It is unlikely that you will (A) / find a more qualified and experience (B) / candidate
than Mr. Prasad (C) / for the post of President. (D) No error. (E)
35. On account of the rising (A) / costs many people are (B) / finding it difficult (C) / to
feed their families. (D) No error. (E)
36. By marketing agriculture (A) / products well, we (B) / can ensure that (C) / farmers
make a good profit. (D) No error. (E)
37. The promotion means (A) /that you may be (B) / post in Chennai (C) / from next
month. (D) No error. (E)
38. This project is (A) / too big to (B) / undertake successfully at (C) / such short of
notice. (D) No error. (E)
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39. When our company was (A) / faced financial difficulties (B) / the training budget was
(C) / the first to be cut. (D) No error. (E)
40. Conservationists believe that (A)/better management of national parks (B)/is the only
way to save (C)/India’s tiger population from extinction. (D) No error. (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
In July 2008, one of the most inspiring leaders of our times, will …(41)… his ninetieth
birthday. Nelson Mandela retired from politics in 1999, but he has remained …(42)…,
continuing his work through the Nelson Mandela Foundation. The foundation has
launched an Aids awareness campaign, 46664, named …(43)… Mandela’s prison
number. He has also set up a scholarship programme whose …(44)… was to promote
leadership among young Africans.
During the 1990s, …(45)… I worked with Mr. Mandela on his autobiography “Long
Walk to Freedom”, I …(46)… his leadership first hand. During his election campaign we
were on board a plane discussing his book. Twenty minutes …(47)… to landing the
engine failed. Many began to panic. The only thing that …(48)… them was looking at
Mandela, who was reading his paper as if he was a passenger on a morning train to work.
The plane landed safely and when we got into the car taking us to the hotel he …(49)…
to me, “I was terrified on the plane !” As a leader he realized he was a model for others
and this gave him the strength to …(50)… over his own fear.
41. (A) tribute
(B) remember
(C) honour
(D) celebrate
(E) rejoice
42. (A) resigned
(B) active
(C) influenced
(D) participant
(E) reserved
43. (A) by
(B) with
(C) after
(D) as
(E) thereafter
44. (A) wish
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(B) pursuit
(C) result
(D) plot
(E) aim
45. (A) when
(B) that
(C) period
(D) later
(E) alongside
46. (A) felt
(B) acquainted
(C) experienced
(D) underwent
(E) learned
47. (A) before
(B) sooner
(C) close
(D) prior
(E) advance
48. (A) calmed
(B) soothing
(C) composed
(D) restraint
(E) discipline
49. (A) speaks
(B) confided
(C) confidentially
(D) entrusted
(E) assured
50. (A) success
(B) overcame
(C) dominate
(D) victory
(E) triumph
Answers :
1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (E) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (E)
16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (E) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (E)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (E)
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (A)
46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (E)
State Bank of India Clerk Exam., 2008General English : Solved Paper(Held on 13-7-2008) (IInd Shift)
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while
answering some of the questions.
There was a girl who sang beautifully at the temple every morning. The music master
used to happily recall, “One day when I went into the woods to pluck flowers, I found
this baby under a pipal tree.” He picked her up carefully, raised her lovingly as if she
was his daughter and taught her to sing before she spoke her first word.
The music master grew old and didn't see too well. The girl tended to him caringly. Many
people including young men travelled from far and wide to hear her sing. This made the
music master's heart quake with fear. “You will choose one of them as your husband.
What is to become of me ?” The girl replied, “I shall not be apart from you.” But on a full
moon night during the harvest festival, the master's chief disciple touched his feet
reverently and said, “Master grant me your permission for your daughter has agreed to
marry me.” The master's tears flowed freely, “She has chosen well. Go and fetch her, let
me hear you sing the first of many melodies that you will sing together.” The two began
to sing in harmony. But the song was interrupted by the arrival of the royal messenger.
“Your daughter is very fortunate-the king has sent for her,” the messenger said. At the
palace the Queen summoned the girl to her and said, ”I place upon you the honour of
making sure my daughter is never unhappy at her husband's home.” There wasn't a single
tear in the girl's eyes but she thought of the master and her heart was heavy.
That very night the princess began her journey to Kambhoj. The princess's royal chariot
led the procession and the girl's palanquin followed close behind carrying trunks of silks,
jewellry and precious stones. It was covered with a velvet sheet and had soldiers on both
P a g e | 33
sides. As the procession passed, the master and his disciple Kumarsen stood still by the
wayside. A collective sigh escaped the crowd gathered there wishing that the princess
wouldn't feel homesick in her faraway home.
1. Which of the following can be said about the girl ?
(1) She was brought up by her father as her mother had died when she was a baby.
(2) She was a talented singer who had learnt to sing at an early age.
(3) She was only allowed to sing with the master's permission.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
2. What was the girl's reaction to leaving home ?
(A) She was honoured to be serving the princess
(B) Sadness at leaving the master.
(C) She entrusted the task of looking after the music master to Kumarasen
(D) She was thrilled to be living in luxury
(E) None of these
3. What task was entrusted to the girl by the Queen ?
(A) Seeing that her daughter reached Kambhoj safely
(B) Entertaining the princess on her journey to Kambhoj
(C) Protecting the princess and reporting to the queen if she was unhappy
(D) Ensuring the princess' happiness
(E) None of these
4. What was the master's reaction to the girl's decision to marry his disciple ?
(A) He was upset and cried
(B) He promised to give his permission if the couple sang well together
(C) He was sad because she would be going to Kambhoj which was far away
(D) He was pleased with her choice of husband
(E) None of these
5. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
(1) The girl was leaving the master and going to Kambhoj once she was married.
(2) The king sent for the girl because she was a good singer.
(3) The master did not let the girl study any other subject except music.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (2)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Both (1) and (3)
(E) None of these
6. Why was the princess going on a journey ?
P a g e | 34
(1) She was going to her prospective husband's home to get engaged.
(2) Her parents wanted her to visit the kingdom of which she would be the future queen.
(3) To take expensive gifts for the rulers of the Kambhoj who were well known to her
parents.
(A) None
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Both (1) and (2)
(E) Both (2) and (3)
7. Why was the master afraid ?
(A) He felt the princess would treat the young girl unkindly
(B) He would be all alone after the girl's marriage
(C) The girl may not be able to adapt to her new home
(D) He was slowly going blind.
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 8–9) Choose the word which is MOST NEARLY the SAME in
MEANING as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
68. fortunate
(A) rich
(B) liked
(C) happy
(D) successful
(E) lucky
9. raised
(A) nurtured
(B) lifted
(C) grew
(D) built
(E) high
10. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word Collective as
used in the passage—
(A) alone
(B) separately
(C) united
(D) partial
(E) single
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
P a g e | 35
11. In present the (A)/ prices of food grains (B)/ are high all (C)/ over the world. (D) No
error (E)
12. Majority of the banks (A)/ today uses technology (B)/ to reach out to those (C)/living
in rural areas. (D) No error (E)
13. I will give (A)/ you the advance (B)/ if you repay it as (C)/ soon as possibly. (D) No
error (E)
14. Though he is very (A)/ wealthy and powerful (B)/ he has any (C)/ concern for the
poor. (D) No error (E)
15. Mala has the (A)/ ability t o handle (B)/ many tasks at (C)/ the same time. (D) No
error (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrases given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction
is required, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Finding himself in financial difficulty, he came forward me for help and advice—
(A) came across
(B) is come upto
(C) came to
(D) comes with
(E) No correction required
17. Deepak having been over eighteen years of age, is entitled to vote—
(A) has been of
(B) being over
(C) who is having over
(D) who is been
(E) No correction required
18. The magazine that we subscribe to is published monthly—
(A) which is subscribed
(B) we are subscribed
(C) whom we subscribe
(D) whichever we subscribe
(E) No correction required
19. Among of his many good qualities, that I remember is his honesty—
(A) All of his
(B) Some of the
(C) Only of his
(D) One of his
P a g e | 36
(E) No correction required
20. Many of our clients have deposit of this foreign bank—
(A) have deposits in
(B) had deposited
(C) with deposits
(D) have deposited
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.
(1) The sailor was told it was placed there as warning signal to sailors to warn them of the
danger.
(2) He returned to the spot a few years later as captain of his own ship.
(3) The ship was at sea for many days and finally anchored near the coastline.
(4) The night was stormy and without a warning signal his ship was wrecked on that very
rock.
(5) One of the sailors on board saw a bell tied to a dangerous submerged rock.
(6) As a joke the sailor decided to steal the bell and hide it despite being informed of this.
21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
P a g e | 37
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
25. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in
bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words
printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of
that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
26. We have incurred (A) an expense (B) of over fifty thousands (C) this year alone.
(D) All correct (E)
27. World Earth Day is celeberated (A) as a means (B) to make people aware (C) about
the environment. (D) All correct (E)
28. The key issue (A) discused (B) at the meeting was how to resolve (C) the food crisis.
(D) All correct (E)
29. He deserves (A) some recognition (B) for working diligently (C) for the passed (D)
five years. All correct (E)
30. There are many employment (A) opportunities (B) for fresh graduates (C) in the
market (D) today. All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five
words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
I had …(31)… to become a multipurpose manager. I took three steps to accomplish this.
First, I took very …(32)… part in professional associations. I …(33)… the National
President of the Indian Society for Training and Development–one of the …(34)…
organizations for HR professionals. This helped me to grow professionally. My
communication skills …(35)…. It also taught me …(36)… to conduct meetings in an
effective manner. My job …(37)… me to different parts of the country and I …(38)…
believe that …(39)… provided me with an education. I also wrote a lot. Newspaper
editors often approached me with …(40)… to write articles for their publications.
P a g e | 38
31. (A) achieved
(B) aim
(C) try
(D) dreamed
(E) wanted
32. (A) selected
(B) active
(C) interesting
(D) often
(E) joint
33. (A) elected
(B) voted
(C) became
(D) applied
(E) decided
34. (A) respected
(B) status
(C) impressed
(D) aged
(E) common
35. (A) lacked
(B) grown
(C) learnt
(D) improved
(E) earned
36. (A) that
(B) why
(C) how
(D) never
(E) anyhow
37. (A) saw
(B) showed
(C) posted
(D) discovered
(E) took
38. (A) quiet
(B) firmly
(C) strong
(D) first
P a g e | 39
(E) not
39. (A) travelling
(B) journey
(C) visit
(D) migrating
(E) shift
40. (A) wish
(B) offer
(C) appointments
(D) requests
(E) commands
Answers with Explanations
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (A) Write ‘At’ in place of ‘In’.
12. (B) Write ‘use’.
13. (D) Write ‘possible’.
14. (C) Write ‘no’ in place of ‘any’.
15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (E) 19. (D)
20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (D)
25. (B)
26. (C) Write change ‘thousands’ to ‘thousand’.
27. (A) Write ‘celebrated’.
28. (B) Write ‘discussed’.
29. (D) Write ‘past’.
30. (E) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A)
35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (B) 39. (A)
40. (D)
Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008General Awareness :Solved Paper (Held on 14-09-2008)
1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally
referred as left front?
P a g e | 40
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A. B. Bardhan
(C) D. Raju
(D) T. J. Chandrachoodan
(E) M. Veerappa Moily
Ans (E)
Hint : M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.
2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal
made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian
Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on
Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans : (A)
5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission
and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incurred by poor
fisherman from banks and cooperatives?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
P a g e | 41
6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of—
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its
support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its
majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation, which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans : (C)
8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the
cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently.
This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the
flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation. Which of the following
rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans : (E)
10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help
both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and
friendship”?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
P a g e | 42
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime
Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the
World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of—
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana"
to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of
OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
P a g e | 43
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking
Solution is—
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit
branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08
has been at the level of approximately—
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans : (C)
18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India
by about 77 %?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. The National e-Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006
with which of the following intentions/objectives?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country
for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal
transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
P a g e | 44
20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in
the year 2007-08 in India? About—
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans : (D)
21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after
defeating—
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5th October
(B) 5th August
(C) 5th July
(D) 5th June
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans : (A)
24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for
Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008?
(A) Rs.10,000 Crore
(B) Rs.25,000 Crore
(C) Rs.45,000 Crore
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(D) Rs.72,000 Crore
(E) Rs.83,000 Crore
Ans : (D)
26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State
in 2007 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Goa
(E) Delhi
Ans : (E)
27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is
a firm based in—
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Japan
(E) USA
Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate
flight to China?
(A) Indian
(B) Air India
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Jet Airways
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ?
(A) Arab League Summit
(B) G-8 Summit
(C) G-15 Summit
(D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with
which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Myanmar
Ans : (E)
31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the
following in Banking terminology ?
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Institutional Banking
(D) Social Banking
(E) Corporate Banking
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector?
(A) SLR
(B) NPA
(C) Credit Rating
(D) Fixed
(E) PURA
Ans : (E)
33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Industrial Sector
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as—
(A) Demat Account
(B) NRI Account
(C) NRIO Account
(D) Current Account
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ?
(A) CRR
(B) RTGS
(C) SLR
(D) Deposit Insurance
(E) All are the measures of risk management
Ans : (B)
36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $
3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______
(A) 50 %
(B) 100%
(C) 125 %
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(D) 200 %
(E) 250 %
Ans : (C)
37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004–2009 ?
(A) Foreign Trade Policy
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) National Rural Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any
performance enhancing drugs ?
(A) EEG
(B) Narco Test
(C) ELISA Test
(D) Mind mapping
(E) DOPE tEST
Ans : (E)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress?
(A) Shamita Shetty
(B) Rani Mukherjee
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Konkana Sen
(E) Kareena Kapoor
Ans : (E)
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World"?
(A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Kalinga Award
(E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award
Ans : (E)
42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an
P a g e | 48
attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ?
(A) Chad
(B) Uganda
(C) Libya
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Jaya Bachchan
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Sridevi
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Hint : Nafisa Ali
44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under
Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) NIMI
(B) IGNOU
(C) CAPART
(D) NPCIL
(E) ICRP
Ans : (C)
45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in—
(A) Russia
(B) Middle East
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
(E) Canada
Ans : (B)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as
the Best Book of the Year?
(A) V.S.Naipaul
(B) Indra Sinha
(C) William Darlymple
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) John Banville
Ans : (B)
47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ?
(A) 55th
(B) 80th
(C) 100th
(D) 120th
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Hint : According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the
World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report"
prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position.
48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Grand Slam
(B) Half Nelson
(C) Ashes
(D) Screen
(E) Love
Ans : (C)
49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of
which of the following?
(A) Global Energy
(B) China Sea
(C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists
(D) Nuclear installation in China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly
related with agriculture activities ?
(A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP)
(B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP)
(D) ANNAPURNA
(E) Desert Development Programme (DDP)
Ans : (D)
Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2008 General Awareness : Solved Paper (Held on 15-6-
2008)

1. As we all know rise of the ‘BRICs’ has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the
global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s)
of ‘Rise of the BRICs’ on global/other powerful economy/economies ?
1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
2. It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are in ‘Swap
Agreement’ with various nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of
India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong
globally ?
About—
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) Rs. 30,000 crore
3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present
?
(A) 40%
(B) 49%
(C) 50%
(D) 64%
(E) 74%
4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
1. A target of Rs. 2•80 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector.
2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 1•5%.
3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also
acceptable.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
5. As per the news in major financial newspapers a ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ is
launched in Delhi and Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the
scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of Rs.………
(A) 15,000
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(B) 20,000
(C) 25,000
(D) 30,000
(E) 50,000
6. As proposed in the Union Budget 2008-09 a ‘Risk Capital Fund’ is set up by the Govt.
of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund ?
(A) NABARD
(B) SIDBI
(C) ECGC
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
7. As per the Economic Survey 2007-08 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008,
what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About—
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 21%
(E) 26%
8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 2008-09 the operating ratio of the
railways has—
(A) Improved only by 0•5%
(B) Decreased by 0•5%
(C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 2007-08
(D) Reached at the level of 81%
(E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 2000-01
9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for the ‘Girl Child’. What is the
name of the scheme ?
(A) Raj Lakshmi
(B) Rani Bitia
(C) Dhan Lakshmi
(D) Aanandita
(E) None of these
10. The President of India recently signed the much-awaited notification for the
implementation of the suggestions made by the ‘Delimitation Commission’.
What will be the effect of this notification ?
(A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined
(B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years’ time
(C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further
(D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of
their origin. They will also be like Public Sector Banks
(E) None of these
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11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now—
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 30
(E) 31
12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector
banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of
the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating
agencies in India ?
1. CARE
2. CRISIL
3. ULIP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce ‘Plastic Currency
Notes’. What is/are the benefits of ‘Plastic Notes’ ?
1. Their Shelf life will be longer.
2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many
fraudulent practices.
3. Printing will be cheaper.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
14. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to—
(A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
(B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets
(C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years
(D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank
(E) None of these
15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’
in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the
following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector ?
(A) Credit cards
(B) Loan against gold from financial institute
(C) Debit cards
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(D) Money lender
(E) None of these
16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee on financial
sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee ?
(A) Janki Raman
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) K. V. Kamath
(E) None of these
17. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking
industry ?
(A) Risk management
(B) Manpower planning
(C) Retirement benefits for the employees
(D) Corporate Governance
(E) None of these
18. What is meant by ‘Underwriting’ the term frequently used in financial sector ?
(A) Under valuation of the assets
(B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee
(C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan
(D) The act of permission to float an IPO
(E) None of these
19. The government of India recently constituted the New Finance Commission (13th).
What are its major functions ? To decide—
1. The salary structure of the employees of the Central Government.
2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between states and Central Govt.
3. Rate of Income Tax and other taxes collected by the Union Govt.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
20. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which
registered its victory in tri-series ODI matches against Australia played in March 2008 ?
(A) M.S. Dhoni
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) Sachin Tendulkar
21. Mr. Nicolas Sarkozy who was the chief guest during the Republic Day Function 2008
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is the—
(A) President of Brazil
(B) Prime Minister of Brazil
(C) President of France
(D) Prime Minister of France
(E) Foreign Secretary of USA
22. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia after the
General elections held there in February 2008 ?
(A) Boris Tadic
(B) Tomislav Nicolic
(C) Samak Sundaravej
(D) Novak Djokovic
(E) None of these
23. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the US-India Business Council
is the CEO of which of the following Companies ?
(A) Pepsi Co.
(B) Infosys
(C) Tata Consultancy Services
(D) NIIT
(E) None of these
24. Maria Sharapova won the Australian Open 2008 Women’s singles by defeating—
(A) Shahar Peer
(B) Kateryna Bondarenko
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) Ana Ivanovic
25. Saina Nehwal won the Seniors’ Championship match of which of the following
games held in Goa in January 2008 ?
(A) Golf
(B) Tennis
(C) Table tennis
(D) Archery
(E) Badminton
26. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National
Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture ‘SPV’.
What is the full form of ‘SPV’ ?
(A) Small Power Venture
(B) Special Purpose Vehicle
(C) Special Power Venture
(D) Small Purpose Vehicle
(E) None of these
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27. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recently agreed to allow foreign
direct investment in the field of mobile television services. Upto what extent FDI is
allowed in this field ?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 64%
(D) 70%
(E) 74%
28. As per the performance assessment data released by the Economic Advisory Council
(EAC) in January 2008. Which of the following sectors registered a growth of 3•6 per
cent ?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Banking Sector
(C) Tourism Sector
(D) Aviation Services Sector
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which
bring lot of disaster ?
(A) Trade winds
(B) Hurricane
(C) Cirrus
(D) Stratus
(E) None of these
30. The Global Employment Trends Report 2008 published by the International Labour
Organization has indicated that there may be increase in global unemployment. What
according to them is/are the major reasons of this possibility ?
1. Turmoil in Credit Markets all over the world.
2. Rise in oil prices in international market.
3. Civil unrest in some under and undeveloped nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
31. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in
foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace ?
1. These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are
not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation.
2. These banks wish to help Indian firms to acquire funds at internationally competitive
rates.
3. These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries.
P a g e | 56
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3
32. Many economists, bankers and researchers in India often advocate that banks should
equip themselves for new challenges. These challenges are in which of the following
shapes/forms ?
1. As Indian economy is getting increasingly integrated with the rest of the world the
demand of the Corporate banking is likely to change in terms of size, composition of
services and also the quality.
2. The growing foreign trade in India will have to be financed by the local banks.
3. Foreigners are habitual of the comforts provided by the technology. India has to do a
lot in this reference.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these
33. As per the reports published in the newspapers Indian Rupee is now fully accepted in
Asian countries like, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia etc. What does it really mean ?
1. Anybody from Asian country can purchase Indian Rupee and keep it in his/her bank
account in his/her country without any restrictions.
2. Now people in these nations are not required to go for a double conversion first in
dollar and then in rupee.
3. People travelling European/Asian countries can make their payments in rupee
anywhere without any problem.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) Credit wrap
(B) EMI
(C) Held to Maturity
(D) Exposure limit
(E) Diffusion
35. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO
negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions ?
1. Providing subsidy to agriculture.
2. Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations.
3. Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
36. The Technology Mission on Cotton was launched during Xth plan. The scheme was
designed to get increase in production of cotton by which of the following levels by the
end of the plan ?
(A) 100 lakh bales
(B) 150 lakh bales
(C) 175 lakh bales
(D) 200 lakh bales
(E) None of these
37. A National Development Fund was created by the Government of India a few years
ago. What was the purpose of the fund ?
1. Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and
employment.
2. Capital investments in selected profitable PSEs to yield adequate returns.
3. To fund revision in pay structure of Central Government employees.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
38. Olympic 2008 are scheduled to be held in—
(A) Paris
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) None of these
39. The general elections took place in which of the following countries in March 2008 ?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) Sri Lanka
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Economic Nightmare of India’?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) K. Rajeshwar Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Jyoti Basu
(E) None of these
41. As per the targets for 11th plan educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of
the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 9%
42. ‘Long Walk’ to Freedom’ is a book written by—
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) L. K. Advani
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Benazir Bhutto
(E) Nawaz Sheriff
43. India recently signed a pact with which of the following countries on solving the
problems of Indian labour in that country ?
(A) Iran
(B) UAE
(C) Malaysia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these
44. Which of the following countries is trying to launch a Satellite to study the sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) None of these
45. Jang Hyun Jong who was adjudged as the ‘Asian Hockey Player of the year’ is
from—
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these
46. Who amongst the following is the winner of Padma Vibhushan Awards given away
recently ?
(A) Rahul Gandhi
(B) Priya Dutt
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(C) Vinod Dua
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following films was adjudged ‘Best Film’ in 14th Star Screen Awards
given away in January 2008 ?
(A) Om Shanti Om
(B) Guru
(C) Taare Zameen Par
(D) Jab We Met
(E) Chak De India
48. A meeting of the European Leaders was held in January 2008 at which of the
following places to discuss ‘Global Economic Turmoil’ ?
(A) London
(B) New Delhi
(C) New York
(D) Tokyo
(E) Milan
49. Castro Sibling is the new President of—
(A) Romania
(B) Cuba
(C) Israel
(D) Venezuela
(E) None of these
50. Kosovo declared itself independent from which of the following countries ?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Croatia
(C) Serbia
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Answers with Hint
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (D) According to Economic Survey 2007-08, the percentage growth in bank credit is
21•5%.
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (E) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A)
18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 24. (E) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (E)
28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (E) 32. (A)
33. (D) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A)
38. (E) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C)
43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (E)
48. (A) 49. (E) 50. (E)
Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2008 Computer General Knowledge : Solved Paper (Held on 30-08-2008)
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline
appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent
commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of
data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
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(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected
cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of
the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
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(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)
12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of
multiple programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in
need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n)
____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications
interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:
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(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the
boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration
settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration
settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration
settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating
system
Ans : (B)
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29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be
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manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a
hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy
reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a
folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Exam, 2008 : General Awareness (Solved) General Awareness :Solved
Paper (Held on 25-5-2008)
1. The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open three more IITs during the year 2008-
09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States ?
(A) Bihar, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Karnataka
(C) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. Which of the following is/are not the highlights of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
1. A Risk Capital Fund is to be set up and maintained by one of the financial institutes.
2. Allocation for Defence is reduced by 10% to make it Rs. 10,000 crore.
3. Several new schemes to be introduced for providing social security to the people in
unorganized sectors.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
3. To help farming community the Govt. of India has decided to raise the Minimum
support price of paddy for current Kharif marketing season. What is that price ?
(A) Rs. 800 per quintal
(B) Rs. 900 per quintal
(C) Rs. 950 per quintal
(D) Rs. 1200 per quintal
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial papers ?
1. It is nothing but the popular name of the Judicial stamp papers used to register
financial transactions.
2. It is one of the instruments through which Corporates raise debt from the market.
3. It is the name of the ‘Certificate of Deposits’ provided by the Banks to its retail
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customers.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
5. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India two financial inclusion funds are set up
with an overall corpus of Rs. 500 crore each. These funds-Financial Inclusion Fund and
Financial Inclusion Technology Fund are to be set up by the initial contribution made by
the……
(A) SIDBI, NABARD and UTI
(B) NABARD, UTI and RBI
(C) Govt. of India, NABARD and RBI
(D) SIDBI, Govt. of India and IDBI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the Operating ratio of Railways is pitched at
which of the following levels ? Approximately……
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 98%
(D) 90%
(E) 81%
Ans : (E)
7. As per the Govt. policy the provision of the subsidy for interest subvention to cooperative
Sugar Mills is done by which of the following agencies / organizations ?
(A) Commission for Agricultural costs and prices
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) National Commission on Farmers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Banks these days have launched a new scheme product known as ‘Reverse Mortgage’.
The scheme is designed keeping which of the following groups of society in
consideration ?
(A) Youngsters who have just started earning
(B) Defence personnel whose life is always at high risk
(C) Senior Citizen
(D) Women who do not have independent source of income
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
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9. As per the new figures released in recent past what has been the ratio of taxes to Gross
Domestic Product (Tax-GDP) in 2007-08 ? Approximately……
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 11•5%
(E) 12•5%
Ans : (E)
10. Many a times we read in the newspapers a term ‘Hot Money’. Which of the
following is the correct definition of Hot Money ?
1. This is the fund which is dumped into a country to get the advantage of a favourable
interest rate and hence brings higher returns.
2. This is the fund which is provided by a bank in US $ at very short notice and at a very
high rate of interest and for a longer period of repayment.
3. This is the fund which is pushed into market through Hawala or some other such
illegal methods and sometimes referred also as Black Money.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) Both 1 and 3 are true
(E) Only 2 is correct
Ans : (A)
11. As per the report released in the press the Govt. of India has done a study on Special
Economic Zones. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the reports ?
1. Report says that SEZs should not be given much preference by the policy makers.
2. Study says that the end benefit in the next few years may be of the tune of Rs. 1,50,000
crores which will be much higher than the estimated revenue losses.
3. Since new SEZs are developed by the Private Sector the investment for infrastructural
development is like a net saving for the Govt.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. As per the new figures released by the Govt. agencies the Foreign Direct Investment
inflow to India is at higher level and has increased substantially in recent past. Which of
the following is/are the contributory factors which has/have helped in this record growth
?
1. Progressive delicensing of various sectors.
2. Simplification of business procedures in India.
3. Sub Prime crisis in USA.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
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(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)
13. Which of the following Companies has got “Navratna Status’ recently ?
(A) National Mineral Development
Corporation (NMDC)
(B) National Textile Corporation (NTC)
(C) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(D) IDBI Bank Ltd.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. The real return to the investor sometimes gets reduced due to sudden rise in the prices
of the commodities. This phenomenon in financial market is known as…
(A) Market risk
(B) Inflation risk
(C) Credit risk
(D) Diversification of funds
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
15. In the recent times the RBI and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) have
taken various steps to control the flow of capital in Indian economy. Which of the
following is/are not included in these step(s) ?
1. Guidelines are issued to restrict unregulated overseas investors through ‘p-notes’.
2. Rs. 60,000 crores out of this fund is being provided to waive the loans on farmers.
3. Borrowers raising external commercial borrowings of over $ 20 million would have to
park the proceeds overseas for use as foreign currency expenditure.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
16. Which of the following countries has recently made an agreement with the World
Trade Organization which will allow it to join the same as a permanent member ?
(A) Russia
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Zambia
(D) Uganda
(E) Ukraine
Ans : (E)
17. Prime Minister of India on his visit to China a few months back signed a detailed
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agreement with the same. What is/are the major highlights of the agreement ?
1. Both the countries agreed to continue high level exchange of views. Indian President is
invited to China.
2. India to host joint military exercise in 2008.
3. India has decided to raise the issue of Tibet in UNO. China has agreed for the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)
18. As per the reports in the leading newspapers Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI) has asked the Mutual Fund industry to stop ‘Misselling’ their schemes to
investors. What is ‘Misselling’ of products ?
1. Misselling takes place when mutual funds are sold without telling the likely returns.
2. When agents sell the products without telling investors what are the risks involved in
investing in mutual funds.
3. When agents invest somebody’s money in mutual funds without their knowledge, it is
called misselling.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. As per the news report SEBI has allowed short selling by FIs/MFs from February 1,
2008. What is ‘short selling’ ?
1. Selling of shares that the seller does not own at the time of trading.
2. Selling of shares on the same day or on the day they were allotted to the trader.
3. Selling of shares on a much lower price due to turbulent market situations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following countries is governed by the Norweigianmediated ceasefire
Agreement to end its dispute with a group of rebellions ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
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21. The USA, as reported in the leading newspapers is proceeding towards ‘recession’.
What happens when an economy goes in the grip of ‘recession’ ?
1. GDP growth slows down.
2. People lose their jobs.
3. Foreign exchange reserve goes up substantially as lot of loans/grants start pouring in.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
22. The Sensitive Index of the Bombay Stock Exchange keeps on changing positively and
negatively both. Which of the following is/are the main reasons which contribute for this
sudden change in the same ?
1. Higher GDP Growth.
2. Continuous Foreign Funds Flow.
3. High Volume of Forex Reserves.
4. Recession in USA.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 and 4
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)
23. The Jerusalem and Palestine made an agreement on their peace negotiations. Which
of the following is/are the points included in the agreement ?
1. There should be an end to the occupation that began in 1967.
2. The agreement must establish Palestine as a homeland for the Palestinian people just as
Israel is the homeland for Jewish people.
3. All the disputes should be solved with the mutual talks only and in presence of US
Observers.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Who amongst the following agreed to supply aircraft carrier ‘Gorshkov’ to India for
its defence services ?
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. The Govt. of India has decided to set up a Committee to redraft Right to Education
Bill 2005.
What was/were the objection(s) owing to which Govt. has to redraft the bill ?
1. State Governments are required to spend more money on education. Since education is
the responsibility of centre and state both, expenditure should be shared equally by both
of them.
2. States were advised to ensure that a school is available at the distance of one km for
each child.
3. Children in Central schools are not allowed to get free education whereas schools run
by States were asked to ensure that.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
26. As per newspaper reports outsourcing has become a profitable business in India and
countries like China are trying to learn about it from India. What are the main factors
which has/have helped India in attaining this position ?
1. Availability of skilled manpower in abundance.
2. Knowledge of English language.
3. A switch over from farming to other sectors which are creating more job opportunities.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)
27. Who amongst the following established the ‘Anandvan’ a rehabilitation centre for
Leprosy patients in Maharashtra ?
(A) Baba Amte
(B) Pandurang Shashtri Athawle
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Asaram Babu
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Thaksin Shinawatra’s name is associated with which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) North Korea
(D) South Korea
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(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. Bhupen Hazarika is the recipient of the Life Time Achievement Award and is
provided the status of a Cabinet Minister. Which of the following State Govt. has
honoured him in this manner ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Assam
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010. These games
will be organized in……
(A) Moscow
(B) New Delhi
(C) Beijing
(D) Kuala Lumpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
31. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia ?
(A) Raul Castro
(B) Steven Spielberg
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Joes Manuel Ramos Horta
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
32. International Desert Festival 2008 was organized in February 2008 in……
(A) Bhuj
(B) Ganganagar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaiselmer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
33. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Kishore Kumar Award’ given by
the Madhya Pradesh Govt. ?
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Manoj Kumar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. The Under 19 Cricket World Cup 2008 was won by which of the following teams ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Australia
(E) England
Ans : (B)
35. Why was the name of Anatolyevich Medvedev in news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the President of Russia
(B) He has taken over as the Prime Minister of Russia
(C) He is the new President of South Korea
(D) He is the new Prime Minister of South Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Who amongst the following was the Chief Guest in India’s Republic Day function ?
(A) Samak Sundaravej
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Nicolas Sarkozy
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
37. The General Elections in Iran are due in 2008. Iran elects its Parliament for a period
of……
(A) 2 years only
(B) 3 years only
(C) 4 years only
(D) 5 years only
(E) 6 years only
Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following states tops in primary, upper primary education in India ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of Padma Vibhushan given away recently
?
(A) Anu Malik
(B) Shan
(C) Asha Bhosle
(D) Sonu Nigam
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(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. Luciana Aymar who was adjudged the World Hockey Player 2007 is from which of
the following countries ?
(A) Germany
(B) Argentina
(C) Italy
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. Which of the following State Governments has decided to provide ownership Rights
to Tribals over forest land being cultivated by them since last 10 years.
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
42. Who amongst the following players has completed 16000 runs in One day
International Cricket matches recently ?
(A) Anil Kumble
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Sourav Ganguly
(D) Irfan Pathan
(E) Sachin Tendulkar
Ans : (E)
43. The 11th Five Year Plan wishes to raise the existing 2% growth in agriculture and
allied activities to which of the followings levels by the year 2012 ?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 5%
(D) 4%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. As a policy the Reserve Bank of India wishes to contain inflation at which of the
following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 4%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
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45. The current trend in Agricultural sector in India is a matter of concern for the policy
makers these days as it is not showing the expected results. What is/are the major areas of
problem(s) being faced by the farmers ?
1. Irrigation facilities are not enough.
2. Use of chemical fertilizers has badly affected the fertility of the land.
3. Govt. has reduced the subsidy in the farming sector. Hence it is no more a profitable
activity.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
46. Which of the following committees recommended the revival of Cooperative Credit
institutions in states ?
(A) Vaidyanathan Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Sachchar Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
47. ‘World Day for Water’ is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) March 22
(B) February 22
(C) January 22
(D) May 22
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. As we all know Chinese economy is a booming economy and its exports have played
a significant role in it. What was the share of China’s export as compared to its GDP in
2007 ?
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
49. Delhi won the Ranji Trophy for the seventh time in January 2008 by defeating…
(A) Railways
(B) Haryana
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat
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(E) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (E)
50. Gagan Narang, who got a silver medal in an international championship held in
Munich, is a/an……
(A) 100 metre runner
(B) Badminton player
(C) Chess player
(D) Swimmer
(E) Air Rifle shooter
Ans : (E)
SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam, 2008 : General Awareness (Solved) General Awareness :
Solved Paper (Held on 06-07-2008 Second Sitting)
1. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Shame’?
(A) Chandar S. Sundaram
(B) Namita Gokhale
(C) Jaswindar Sanghara
(D) Anita Desai
(E) None of these
2. As per the reports published by the ‘Organization for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD)’ has generated maximum new jobs in the past few years?
(A) China
(B) Russia
(C) India
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
3. Mr. Digambar V. Kamat took over as which of the following in 2007?
(A) Governor of Goa
(B) Chief Minister of Goa
(C) Governor of Meghalaya
(D) Governor of Rajasthan
(E) None of these
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4. Who amongst the following Indians was awarded King Charles II Medal by the UK in
2007?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Smt. Vasundhara Raje
(E) None of these
5. Miss Riyo Mori who was crowned as Miss Universe 2007 belongs to which of the
following countries?
(A) Japan
(B) U.S.A
(C) China
(D) Singapore
(E) South Korea
6. Which of the following countries has decided to build a road to the base camp of Mt.
Everest?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
7. ‘Bharti-Airtel’, the largest mobile company of India joined the elite club of companies
earning profits of more than US $1 billion. What was the net profit of the Company in the
year 2006-07?
About –
(A) Rs. 3500 crores
(B) Rs. 4000 crores
(C) Rs. 4250 cores
(D) Rs. 4450 crores
(E) Rs. 4500 crores
8. ‘SEBI’ bans some companies for their role in ‘F&O Scam’, was the news in some
major newspapers in 2007. What is the full form of ‘F&O’?
(A) Fair & Optimum
(B) Free & Operational
(C) Future & Operations
(D) Future & Options
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following African countries launched its communication satellite in 2007
for the first time?
(A) Nigeria
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(B) Kenya
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Mauritius
(E) None of these
10. The President of Brazil was on a visit to India in 2007 where he signed several trade
agreements. Which of the following has been the major area of trade relations between
the two countries?
(A) Oil exploration
(B) Supply of agro products
(C) Production of nuclear fuel
(D) Import of electronic goods
(E) None of these
11. The World Islamic Economic Forum was held in 2007 in
(A) Malaysia
(B) Kuwait
(C) Iran
(D) Brazil
(E) Indonesia
12. In an important meeting of the National Development Council held in New Delhi the
Prime Minister of India made a special mention of a particular sector of Indian economy
which in his opinion was suffering from a “Technological Fatigue for lack of break
through in production”. He was talking of which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Oil Sector
(C) Service Sector
(D) Defence Sector
(E) None of these
13. Which of the following was the major issue of discussion in the G-8 Summit held in
Germany in 2007?
(A) Subsidy to agro products
(B) Climate protection
(C) Financial aid to Iraq
(D) Nuclear Technology and possibility of space war
(E) None of these
14. As per the Economic Survey 2006-07 India’s share in World Export has been
(A) 0.5%
(B) 0.75%
(C) 1%
(D) 1.25%
(E) 1.5%
15. How much amount approximately the Govt. of India planned to provide for Mid Day
Meal Scheme? (As per Budget 2007-08)
(A) Rs. 5,000 crores
(B) Rs. 6,000 crores
(C) Rs. 7,300 crores
(D) Rs. 8,000 crores
(E) Rs. 8,300 crores
16. As per the figures given in the newspapers what is the approximate investment in
various ‘Special Economic Zones’ till date in India?
(A) Rs. 20,000 crores
(B) Rs. 25,000 crores
(C) Rs. 30,000 crores
(D) Rs. 35,000 crores
(E) Rs. 40,000 crores
17. Who amongst the following is the author of the famous classical book “A Passage to
India”?
(A) Mark Twain
(B) Nayantara Sehgal
(C) Nirad C. Choudhuri
(D) E. M. Foster
(E) None of these
18. The Government of India has bought RBI’s entire stake in the State Bank of India in
about Rs. 35, 531 crores. What is the share of the RBI in total snake of the State Bank?
About -
(A) 40%
(B) 48%
(C) 50%
(D) 52%
(E) 60%
19. Which of the following countries has offered knighthood to Salman Rushdie?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) Germany
(D) U.K.
(E) None of these
20. As per Union Budget 2007-08 how much amount the Government of India provided
for Women Specific Schemes/Programmes for 2007-08?
(A) Rs. 7,700 crores
(B) Rs. 8,700 crores
(C) Rs. 9,300 crores
(D) Rs. 10,000 crores
(E) Rs. 10,500 crores
Answers :
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (E) 19. (D) 20. (B)
SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam, 2008 : General Awareness (Solved) State Bank of India
Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam., 2008 General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. Which of the following Departments of the Govt. of India is helping banks in disbursement
of rural credit by the banks ?
(A) Railways
(B) State Road Transports
(C) Post and Telegraph
(D) Ministry of Health
(E) None of these
2. Which of the following organization/agencies has established a fund known as
‘Investor protection fund’ ?
(A) SEBI
(B) NABARD
(C) Bombay Stock Exchange
(D) AMFI
(E) None of these
3. Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present ?
(A) Mr. K.V. Kamath
(B) Dr. Y.V. Reddey
(C) Mr. N.R. Narayanamurthy
(D) Mr. O.P. Bhatt
(E) None of these
4. Majority of Rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit
needs ?
P a g e | 83
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Foreign Banks
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI
(E) All of these
5. India has different categories of Commercial Banks. Which of the following is NOT
one such category ?
(A) Private Banks
(B) Commodity Banks
(C) Nationalized Banks
(D) Co-operative Banks
(E) Foreign Banks
6. Which of the following types of Banks are allowed to operate foreign currency
accounts ?
(1) Foreign Banks
(2) Regional Rural Banks
(3) Nationalized Banks
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following countries does not play International cricket ?
(A) Russia
(B) England
(C) South Africa
(D) Pakistan
(E) India
8. The money which Govt. of India spends on the development of infrastructure in
country comes from which of the following sources ? [Pick up the correct statement (s)]
(1) Loan from World Bank/ADB etc.
(2 Taxes collected from the people.
(3) Loan from the RBI.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
9. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on
money flow in equity through ‘P-Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P-Notes’ ?
(A) Permanent Notes
P a g e | 84
(B) Purchase-Notes
(C) Participatory-Notes
(D) Private Notes
(E) None of these
10. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team who won the
Twenty-20 World Cup–2007 ?
(A) Yuvraj Singh
(B) M.S. Dhoni
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) None of these
11. Many times we read in financial newspapers about ‘FII’. What is the full form of FII
?
(A) Final Investment in India
(B) Foreign Investment in India
(C) Formal Investment in India
(D) Fair Institutional Investment
(E) Foreign Institutional Investment
12. Benazir Bhutto is associated with which of the following political parties ?
(A) Muslim League
(B) Pakistan Peoples Party
(C) Pakistan National Congress
(D) Islamic Movement of Pakistan
(E) None of these
13. One of the former Prime Ministers of which of the following countries was detained
in house arrest for a short period after his/her return from a long exile ?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Pakistan
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
14. Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Israel and Palestinian West
Bank so that a solution to the Israel and Palestinian problem can be worked out ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Al Gore
(C) Bill Clinton
(D) Condeleeza Rice
(E) None of these
15. Justine Henin won the Women's singles US Open Tennis championship-2007 after
defeat-ing—
P a g e | 85
(A) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Dinara Safina
(D) Mathalie Dechy
(E) None of these
16. As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stopped distributing food in
Mogadishu town after its local head was abducted by the government soldiers of the
country. Mogadishu is the capital town of—
(A) Tanzania
(B) Turkey
(C) Cuba
(D) Libya
(E) Somalia
17. The financial markets of which of the follow-ing countries were badly affected by
sub-prime crisis ?
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) UK
(D) USA
(E) None of these
18. Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold ?
(A) USA
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Russia
(D) India
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following countries is NOT happy with the USA's decision to award a
Congressional Medal to Dalai Lama of Tibet ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar
(E) China
20. Which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in
Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killing people
from that country ?
(A) India
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Turkey
21. Dr. Manmohan Singh called George Bush to explain the difficulties he is having in
imple-menting agreements related with which of the following with USA ?
(A) Supply of Sugar
(B) Civilian Nuclear Co-operation
(C) Purchase of Fighter Planes
(D) Purchase of Gas/petroleum
(E) None of these
22. Which of the following countries is facing a problem of strike by the workers of the
transport, electricity and gas companies as the present Govt. of the country has decided to
end the pension to these workers ?
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) China
(D) Nepal
(E) None of these
23. Who amongst the following is the Secretary general of UNO ?
(A) Al Gore
(B) Shashi Tharoor
(C) Gordon Brown
(D) Hugo Chavez
(E) None of these
24. The ‘Orange Coalition Govt.’ was formed once again in which of the following
countries ?
(A) Russia
(B) Ukraine
(C) France
(D) Germany
(E) None of these
25. Which of the following countries is NOT elected by the UN General assembly on the
non-permanent seats of the UN Security Council w.e.f. January 2008 ?
(A) Libya
(B) Vietnam
(C) Croatia
(D) Costa Rica
(E) Pakistan
26. The Govt. of India put a ban on export of which of the following commodities at the
price below the price of the same in domestic market ?
(A) Steel
(B) Chemical Fertilizer
(C) Pharma products
P a g e | 87
(D) Electronic Goods
(E) None of these
27. India launched which of the following Satellites in September 2007 ?
(A) EDUSAT
(B) MATSAT
(C) CROSAT-IIB
(D) INSAT-4CR
(E) None of these
28. As per the recent agreement between India and one other country the Indian Rupee
can be easily swapped with—
(A) Taka
(B) Riel
(C) Kyat
(D) Yen
(E) Rubbel
29. India won the ONGC Nehru Cup Football Tournament 2007 by beating—
(A) Syria
(B) Pakistan
(C) Britain
(D) France
(E) None of these
30. Abdullah Gul's name was in news recently as he has taken over as the President of—
(A) Turkey
(B) Sudan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these
31. Hem Dutta who was honoured by the presti-gious Rajiv Gandhi National
Sadbhawana Award 2007 is a famous—
(A) Author
(B) Social activist
(C) Player
(D) Film producer
(E) Scientist
32. Who amongst the following is selected for Basava Award (2006-07) by the Karnataka
Government ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Sonia Gandhi
(D) Pratibha Patil
P a g e | 88
(E) None of these
33. Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation Business Meet was organized in September
2007 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Beijing
(C) Tokyo
(D) London
(E) Sydney
34. The World Athletics Championship 2007 was organized in—
(A) Beijing
(B) New Delhi
(C) Osaka
(D) Dhaka
(E) London
35. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian Hockey team who won
Asia Cup 2007 held in Chennai ?
(A) Baichung Bhutia
(B) Dilip Tirkey
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Manavjit Singh Sandhu
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following is a public sector unit ?
(A) TCS
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) TESCO
(D) BHEL
(E) All of these
37. India's Foreign Exchange Reserve declined sharply in recent past. What was the main
reason for the same ?
(A) Heavy demand of the same by foreign tourists
(B) Import of wheat from Pakistan and S. Korea
(C) Appreciation of Rupee Value
(D) Instability in Coalition Govt. in Centre
(E) None of these
38. Shinzo Abe who was on a visit to India in recent past is the—
(A) Prime Minister of South Korea
(B) Prime Minister of North Korea
(C) Prime Minister of Japan
(D) President of South Korea
(E) None of these
P a g e | 89
39. Asafa Powell who created a new World Record in 100 metres race is a citizen of—
(A) Jamaica
(B) South Africa
(C) India
(D) USA
(E) South Korea
40. Who amongst the following got third position in long jump event of the Bayer
International Athletics meet held in Germany in 2007 ?
(A) Shiny Wilson
(B) Anju Bobby George
(C) Neha Sanwal
(D) Prajakta Sawant
(E) None of these
Answers with Hints :
1. (E) 2. (C)
3. (B) Yaga Venugopal Reddy is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI). Reddy is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the 1964 batch. Prior
to joining the IAS, he worked as a Lecturer from 1961. He holds a Ph.D from Osmania
University, Hyderabad and was a visiting faculty at the Osmania University and the
London School of Economics. He has held post of Banking Secretary. In 1996, he was
appointed Deputy Governor of RBI. He has also worked with the Inter National
Monetary Fund, the highest position being Executive Director in 2002.
4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C)
10. (B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni is a Kumaoni Rajput born in (Almora) Uttarakhand. M.S.
Dhoni is an Indian Cricketer and the Current Captain of Indian Twenty-20 and ODI team.
Under his captaincy, India won the 2007 ICC world Twenty-20.
11. (E) Foreign Institutional Investor–FII. An investor or investment fund that is from or
registered in a country outside of the one in which it is currently investing. Institutional
investors include hedge funds. Insurance companies, pension funds and mutual funds.
The term-FII is used most commonly in India to refer to outside companies investing in
the Financial Markets of India. Inter National institutional investors must register with
the securities and Exchange Board of India to participate in the market. One of the Major
Market regulations pertaining to FIIs involves placing limits on FII ownership in Indian
Companies.
12. (B) The Pakistan Peoples Party (PPP) is a centre-left Political Party in Pakistan
affiliated to the Socialist Inter National. The leader was, until her death by assassination.
Chairwoman Benazir Bhutto. The party was founded in 1967, on November 30 and
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto its first Chairman. The party creed is “Islam is our faith, democracy
is our Politics, Socialism is our economy, all power to the people”.
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (E) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (E) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (E) 24.
(B)
25. (E) The UN General Assembly elected Burkina Faso, Costa Rica, Croatia, Libya and
Vietnam to serve as Non-permanent Members of the security council for two-years, terms
starting 1 January, 2008.
26. (E)
27. (D) India launched its largest rocket Geosyn-chronous Satellite Launch Vehicle,
GSLV-F04, carrying communication satellite INSA T-4CR. 18th satellite in the INSAT
series, from the Satish Dahwan space centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh on
September 2, 2007. The INSAT-4CR, weighing 2,130 kg, is the heaviest satellite
launched by the ISRO. It has 12 high power ku-band Transponders, which would be used
for Direct-to-home (DTH) Telecast, Video-Picture Transmission, Telecasting News live
using a satellite and business communications. It has a mission life of 10 years.
28. (E) 29. (A)
30. (A) Abdulla Gul is the 11th President of Republic of Turkey, serving in that office
since 28 August, 2007. He previously served for five months as Prime Minister (2002-
03), and as Foreign Minister from 2003 to 2007.
31. (B) Hem Dutta, the 63–year old activist from Assam, was honoured with the
prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award–2006. Committed to the cause of
peace and Non-violence in Assam, Mr. Dutta has been involved with grassroots work in
building communal harmony among people living in Assam.
32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (C) 35. (E)
36. (D) BHEL or Bharat Heavy Electricals Limi-ted is a gas and steam turbine
manufacturer in India. It is one of India's largest Public Sector Undertaking or PSUs,
known as the Navratnas or ‘The nine Jewels’.
37. (C)
38. (C) Shinzo Abe was the 90th Prime Minister of Japan, elected by a special session of
the National Diet on 26 September, 2006. He was Japan's youngest Post-World War II
Prime Minister and the first born after the war. He resigned abruptly on 12 September,
2007 after months of Mounting political pressure. He was replaced by Yasuo Fukuda,
now the 91st Prime Minister of Japan.
39. (A) Asafa Powell is a Jumaican sprinter who currently holds the 100 M world record
with a time of 9•74 seconds.
40. (B) Anju Bobby George got third position in long jump event of the Bayer
International Athletics meet at Lever Kusen, Germany. Anju jumped 6•51 m on her third
attempt to take the third place behind Portuguese Naide Gomes (6•83 m) and German
Bianca Kapler (6•37 m). Anju also had two jumps of 6•48 and one of 6•39 apart from two
fouls.
SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam, 2008 : General Awareness (Solved) State Bank of India
Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam., 2008 General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. Which of the following Departments of the Govt. of India is helping banks in disbursement
of rural credit by the banks ?
(A) Railways
(B) State Road Transports
(C) Post and Telegraph
(D) Ministry of Health
(E) None of these
2. Which of the following organization/agencies has established a fund known as
‘Investor protection fund’ ?
(A) SEBI
(B) NABARD
(C) Bombay Stock Exchange
(D) AMFI
(E) None of these
3. Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present ?
(A) Mr. K.V. Kamath
(B) Dr. Y.V. Reddey
(C) Mr. N.R. Narayanamurthy
(D) Mr. O.P. Bhatt
(E) None of these
4. Majority of Rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit
needs ?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Foreign Banks
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI
(E) All of these
5. India has different categories of Commercial Banks. Which of the following is NOT
one such category ?
(A) Private Banks
(B) Commodity Banks
(C) Nationalized Banks
(D) Co-operative Banks
(E) Foreign Banks
6. Which of the following types of Banks are allowed to operate foreign currency
accounts ?
(1) Foreign Banks
(2) Regional Rural Banks
(3) Nationalized Banks
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following countries does not play International cricket ?
(A) Russia
(B) England
(C) South Africa
(D) Pakistan
(E) India
8. The money which Govt. of India spends on the development of infrastructure in
country comes from which of the following sources ? [Pick up the correct statement (s)]
(1) Loan from World Bank/ADB etc.
(2 Taxes collected from the people.
(3) Loan from the RBI.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
9. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on
money flow in equity through ‘P-Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P-Notes’ ?
(A) Permanent Notes
(B) Purchase-Notes
P a g e | 93
(C) Participatory-Notes
(D) Private Notes
(E) None of these
10. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team who won the
Twenty-20 World Cup–2007 ?
(A) Yuvraj Singh
(B) M.S. Dhoni
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) None of these
11. Many times we read in financial newspapers about ‘FII’. What is the full form of FII
?
(A) Final Investment in India
(B) Foreign Investment in India
(C) Formal Investment in India
(D) Fair Institutional Investment
(E) Foreign Institutional Investment
12. Benazir Bhutto is associated with which of the following political parties ?
(A) Muslim League
(B) Pakistan Peoples Party
(C) Pakistan National Congress
(D) Islamic Movement of Pakistan
(E) None of these
13. One of the former Prime Ministers of which of the following countries was detained
in house arrest for a short period after his/her return from a long exile ?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Pakistan
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
14. Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Israel and Palestinian West
Bank so that a solution to the Israel and Palestinian problem can be worked out ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Al Gore
(C) Bill Clinton
(D) Condeleeza Rice
(E) None of these
15. Justine Henin won the Women's singles US Open Tennis championship-2007 after
defeat-ing—
(A) Svetlana Kuznetsova
P a g e | 94
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Dinara Safina
(D) Mathalie Dechy
(E) None of these
16. As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stopped distributing food in
Mogadishu town after its local head was abducted by the government soldiers of the
country. Mogadishu is the capital town of—
(A) Tanzania
(B) Turkey
(C) Cuba
(D) Libya
(E) Somalia
17. The financial markets of which of the follow-ing countries were badly affected by
sub-prime crisis ?
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) UK
(D) USA
(E) None of these
18. Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold ?
(A) USA
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Russia
(D) India
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following countries is NOT happy with the USA's decision to award a
Congressional Medal to Dalai Lama of Tibet ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar
(E) China
20. Which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in
Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killing people
from that country ?
(A) India
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Turkey
P a g e | 95
21. Dr. Manmohan Singh called George Bush to explain the difficulties he is having in
imple-menting agreements related with which of the following with USA ?
(A) Supply of Sugar
(B) Civilian Nuclear Co-operation
(C) Purchase of Fighter Planes
(D) Purchase of Gas/petroleum
(E) None of these
22. Which of the following countries is facing a problem of strike by the workers of the
transport, electricity and gas companies as the present Govt. of the country has decided to
end the pension to these workers ?
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) China
(D) Nepal
(E) None of these
23. Who amongst the following is the Secretary general of UNO ?
(A) Al Gore
(B) Shashi Tharoor
(C) Gordon Brown
(D) Hugo Chavez
(E) None of these
24. The ‘Orange Coalition Govt.’ was formed once again in which of the following
countries ?
(A) Russia
(B) Ukraine
(C) France
(D) Germany
(E) None of these
25. Which of the following countries is NOT elected by the UN General assembly on the
non-permanent seats of the UN Security Council w.e.f. January 2008 ?
(A) Libya
(B) Vietnam
(C) Croatia
(D) Costa Rica
(E) Pakistan
26. The Govt. of India put a ban on export of which of the following commodities at the
price below the price of the same in domestic market ?
(A) Steel
(B) Chemical Fertilizer
(C) Pharma products
(D) Electronic Goods
(E) None of these
27. India launched which of the following Satellites in September 2007 ?
(A) EDUSAT
(B) MATSAT
(C) CROSAT-IIB
(D) INSAT-4CR
(E) None of these
28. As per the recent agreement between India and one other country the Indian Rupee
can be easily swapped with—
(A) Taka
(B) Riel
(C) Kyat
(D) Yen
(E) Rubbel
29. India won the ONGC Nehru Cup Football Tournament 2007 by beating—
(A) Syria
(B) Pakistan
(C) Britain
(D) France
(E) None of these
30. Abdullah Gul's name was in news recently as he has taken over as the President of—
(A) Turkey
(B) Sudan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these
31. Hem Dutta who was honoured by the presti-gious Rajiv Gandhi National
Sadbhawana Award 2007 is a famous—
(A) Author
(B) Social activist
(C) Player
(D) Film producer
(E) Scientist
32. Who amongst the following is selected for Basava Award (2006-07) by the Karnataka
Government ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Sonia Gandhi
(D) Pratibha Patil
(E) None of these
33. Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation Business Meet was organized in September
2007 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Beijing
(C) Tokyo
(D) London
(E) Sydney
34. The World Athletics Championship 2007 was organized in—
(A) Beijing
(B) New Delhi
(C) Osaka
(D) Dhaka
(E) London
35. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian Hockey team who won
Asia Cup 2007 held in Chennai ?
(A) Baichung Bhutia
(B) Dilip Tirkey
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Manavjit Singh Sandhu
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following is a public sector unit ?
(A) TCS
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) TESCO
(D) BHEL
(E) All of these
37. India's Foreign Exchange Reserve declined sharply in recent past. What was the main
reason for the same ?
(A) Heavy demand of the same by foreign tourists
(B) Import of wheat from Pakistan and S. Korea
(C) Appreciation of Rupee Value
(D) Instability in Coalition Govt. in Centre
(E) None of these
38. Shinzo Abe who was on a visit to India in recent past is the—
(A) Prime Minister of South Korea
(B) Prime Minister of North Korea
(C) Prime Minister of Japan
(D) President of South Korea
(E) None of these
39. Asafa Powell who created a new World Record in 100 metres race is a citizen of—
(A) Jamaica
(B) South Africa
(C) India
(D) USA
(E) South Korea
40. Who amongst the following got third position in long jump event of the Bayer
International Athletics meet held in Germany in 2007 ?
(A) Shiny Wilson
(B) Anju Bobby George
(C) Neha Sanwal
(D) Prajakta Sawant
(E) None of these
Answers with Hints :
1. (E) 2. (C)
3. (B) Yaga Venugopal Reddy is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI). Reddy is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the 1964 batch. Prior
to joining the IAS, he worked as a Lecturer from 1961. He holds a Ph.D from Osmania
University, Hyderabad and was a visiting faculty at the Osmania University and the
London School of Economics. He has held post of Banking Secretary. In 1996, he was
appointed Deputy Governor of RBI. He has also worked with the Inter National
Monetary Fund, the highest position being Executive Director in 2002.
4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C)
10. (B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni is a Kumaoni Rajput born in (Almora) Uttarakhand. M.S.
Dhoni is an Indian Cricketer and the Current Captain of Indian Twenty-20 and ODI team.
Under his captaincy, India won the 2007 ICC world Twenty-20.
11. (E) Foreign Institutional Investor–FII. An investor or investment fund that is from or
registered in a country outside of the one in which it is currently investing. Institutional
investors include hedge funds. Insurance companies, pension funds and mutual funds.
The term-FII is used most commonly in India to refer to outside companies investing in
the Financial Markets of India. Inter National institutional investors must register with
the securities and Exchange Board of India to participate in the market. One of the Major
Market regulations pertaining to FIIs involves placing limits on FII ownership in Indian
Companies.
12. (B) The Pakistan Peoples Party (PPP) is a centre-left Political Party in Pakistan
affiliated to the Socialist Inter National. The leader was, until her death by assassination.
Chairwoman Benazir Bhutto. The party was founded in 1967, on November 30 and
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto its first Chairman. The party creed is “Islam is our faith, democracy
is our Politics, Socialism is our economy, all power to the people”.
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (E) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (E) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (E) 24.
(B)
25. (E) The UN General Assembly elected Burkina Faso, Costa Rica, Croatia, Libya and
Vietnam to serve as Non-permanent Members of the security council for two-years, terms
starting 1 January, 2008.
26. (E)
27. (D) India launched its largest rocket Geosyn-chronous Satellite Launch Vehicle,
GSLV-F04, carrying communication satellite INSA T-4CR. 18th satellite in the INSAT
series, from the Satish Dahwan space centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh on
September 2, 2007. The INSAT-4CR, weighing 2,130 kg, is the heaviest satellite
launched by the ISRO. It has 12 high power ku-band Transponders, which would be used
for Direct-to-home (DTH) Telecast, Video-Picture Transmission, Telecasting News live
using a satellite and business communications. It has a mission life of 10 years.
28. (E) 29. (A)
30. (A) Abdulla Gul is the 11th President of Republic of Turkey, serving in that office
since 28 August, 2007. He previously served for five months as Prime Minister (2002-
03), and as Foreign Minister from 2003 to 2007.
31. (B) Hem Dutta, the 63–year old activist from Assam, was honoured with the
prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award–2006. Committed to the cause of
peace and Non-violence in Assam, Mr. Dutta has been involved with grassroots work in
building communal harmony among people living in Assam.
32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (C) 35. (E)
36. (D) BHEL or Bharat Heavy Electricals Limi-ted is a gas and steam turbine
manufacturer in India. It is one of India's largest Public Sector Undertaking or PSUs,
known as the Navratnas or ‘The nine Jewels’.
37. (C)
38. (C) Shinzo Abe was the 90th Prime Minister of Japan, elected by a special session of
the National Diet on 26 September, 2006. He was Japan's youngest Post-World War II
Prime Minister and the first born after the war. He resigned abruptly on 12 September,
2007 after months of Mounting political pressure. He was replaced by Yasuo Fukuda,
now the 91st Prime Minister of Japan.
39. (A) Asafa Powell is a Jumaican sprinter who currently holds the 100 M world record
with a time of 9•74 seconds.
40. (B) Anju Bobby George got third position in long jump event of the Bayer
International Athletics meet at Lever Kusen, Germany. Anju jumped 6•51 m on her third
attempt to take the third place behind Portuguese Naide Gomes (6•83 m) and German
Bianca Kapler (6•37 m). Anju also had two jumps of 6•48 and one of 6•39 apart from two
fouls.
Allahabank Bank P.O. Exam , 2008 : Computer General Awareness (Solved) Allahabank Bank Probationary
Officers Exam , 2008 Computer General Awareness : Solved Paper (Held on 17-08-2008)
1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better
integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as ....
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these
Ans : (A)
2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
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(D) identify theft
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to
complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices
and ______ software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as
your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. The following are all computing devices , except.........
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
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10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard,
screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
meAns : by which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a
___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
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(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. URL stands for ........
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a
database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a
database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?
(A) Capture , process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
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(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other
computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to
develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband
Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented
using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
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(D) hacker
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire
site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database
task is referred to as .....
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an
algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
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32. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched
from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and
length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send
commands to the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
P a g e | 107
(D) user
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is
known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. Making a field ______ meAns : that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None pf these
Ans : ()
42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain
date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
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(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system's information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to
largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
46. The internet is ......
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
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49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
(D) logging in
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam, 2008 : General Awareness (Solved) Professional Knowledge
Section of Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam, 2008 General Awareness : Solved Paper (Held on May 4-5-
2008)
1. Nav Krishi is a programme by—
(1) Door Darshan
(2) All India Radio
(3) NIC
(4) ICRISAT
(5) MANAGE
2. One Acre is equal to…………..hectare.
(1) 0.0541
(2) 0.8032
(3) 0.1082
(4) 0.2514
(5) 0.4047
3. SRI technology is practiced for the cultivation of—
P a g e | 110
(1) Fruits
(2) Vegetables
(3) Flowers
(4) Rice
(5) Wheat
4. If the soil pH 9.2, then the soil is—
(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Alkaline
(4) Saline
(5) Sodic
5. …………..is used for the reclamation of acidic soil—
(1) Lime
(2) Gypsum
(3) Sulphur
(4) Calcium Chloride
(5) Ferrous Sulphate
6. 2008 is declared as International Year of—
(1) Rice
(2) Wheat
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Potato
(5) Apple
7. Golden revolution refers to the development of—
(1) Oilseeds
(2) Pulses
(3) Horticulture
(4) Cereals
(5) Fodder
8. The most important rabi pulse crop in India is—
(1) Chickpea
(2) Soyabean
(3) Pigeon pea
(4) Green gram
(5) Black gram
9. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is—
(1) Growth promoter
(2) Molecular marker
(3) Growth retardent
(4) Herbicide
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(5) Germicide
10. National Commission on Farmers was chaired by—
(1) Sri Som Pal
(2) Sri Y.C. Nanda
(3) Dr C. Rangarajan
(4) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(5) Sri Sharad Pawar
11. Global Positioning Systems are useful for—
(1) Determining precise location (latitude and longitude) based on radio signal
(2) Determining precise distance based on radio signal
(3) Determining general pest system
(4) Determining disease forecast
(5) Determining area of farm
12. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends—
(1) Comfort Price
(2) State Advised Price
(3) Minimum Support Price
(4) Minimum Export Price
(5) Statutory Minimum Price
13. NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus) is—
(1) Pest
(2) Pathogen
(3) Bio pesticide
(4) Bio fungicide
(5) Bio control agent
14. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation is known as—
(1) NIAM
(2) NAFED
(3) MARKFED
(4) NACMF
(5) NACOM
15. Which insect is known as farmers' enemy No.1?
(1) Bollworm
(2) Desert locust
(3) Aphids
(4) Stem borer
(5) Fruit fly
16. Indian Institute of Forest management is located at—
(1) Chennai
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(2) Bhopal
(3) Hissar
(4) Dehradun
(5) Imphal
17. In India forests account for about …………..of land surface.
(1) 11%
(2) 22%
(3) 33%
(4) 14%
(5) 25%
18. VAM is an alternative to inorganic fertilizer. VAM is—
(1) Azospirillum
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Phosphate solubilising bacteria
(4) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(5) Azotobacter
19. An example of Single Cell Protein is—
(1) agar agar
(2) spirulina
(3) rhizobium
(4) acetobacter
(5) salmonella
20. Major producer of mulberry silk in India—
(1) Karnataka
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Assam
(5) Himachal Pradesh
21. Bird flu affects—
(1) Cattle
(2) Poultry
(3) Sheep
(4) Prawn
(5) Silkworm
22. Minor irrigation scheme comprises several types of works with capacities to irrigate
upto—
(1) 2000 acre
(2) 2000 ha
(3) 1000 ha
(4) 1000 acre
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(5) 2500 ha
23. Ideal NPK ratio for Indian soils is—
(1) 8 : 4 : 2
(2) 4 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 5 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 : 0.5
(5) 10 : 4 : 2
24. Which of the following is a bio diesel plant?
(1) Jatropha
(2) Rose
(3) Pepper
(4) Noni
(5) Teak
25. National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at—
(1) Nagpur
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Kolkata
(5) Chennai
26. Carbon credit is meant for—
(1) Deforestation
(2) Protection of environment
(3) Rural infrastructure
(4) Diamond trading
(5) Precision farming
27. Acetic acid is present in—
(1) Vinegar
(2) Curd
(3) Lime
(4) Fish
(5) Rancid butter
28. Deep litter and cage systems are associated with—
(1) Dairy development
(2) Pig farming
(3) Poultry growing
(4) Quali farming
(5) Sheep rearing
29. When milk is churned, the cream is separated due to—
(1) Gravitational force
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(2) Centrifugal force
(3) Frictional force
(4) Electro magnetic effect
(5) None of the above
30. Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peace—
(1) Dr Norman E. Borlaug
(2) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Dr Hargovind Khorana
(4) Dr Chandrasekhar
(5) Dr Watson
31. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged under—
(1) WTO
(2) Food Bill
(3) AEZ
(4) Essential commodities Act
(5) Warehouse Bill
32. Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd is—
(1) Oxidation
(2) Dehydration
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Fermentation
(5) Hydration
33. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations of—
(1) Committee on Financial Inclusion
(2) Vaidyanathan Committee
(3) Forward Market Commission
(4) Working Group on Agriculture
(5) National Commission on Farmers
34. The Head Quarters of CFTRI—the leading institute for research on various food
products is located at—
(1) Mysore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Gurgaon
(5) Jammu
35. Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storages—
(1) Neon
(2) Freon
(3) Crypton
(4) Argon
P a g e | 115
(5) Ice
ANSWERS :
1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (3)8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)
26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (1)
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (5) 34. (1) 35. (2)
Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam, 2008 : General Awareness (Solved) Indian Bank Computer Officers'
Exam, 2008 General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. A passive threat to computer security is—
(1) Malicious Intent
(2) Sabotage
(3) Accident Errors
(4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these
2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification—
(1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Web
site is legitimate
(2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server
(3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client
and a server
(4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
(5) None of these
3. ……………allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such
as the Web and e-mail—
(1) TCP/IP
(2) Ethernet
(3)WAP
(4) Token ring
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(5) None of these
4. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have—
(1) A Boot Record
(2) A File Allocation Table
(3) A Root Directory
(4) Virtual Memory
(5) BIOS
5. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to—
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of these
6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a—
(1) repository
(2) data warehouse
(3) RAD
(4) CASE
(5) None of these
7. The……………….component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that
access the database.
(1) data extraction
(2) end-user query tool
(3) end-user presentation tool
(4) data store
(5) None of these
8. A(n)…………….allows network users to share a single copy of software, which
resides on the network server.
(1) single-user license agreement
(2) network site license
(3) end-user license agreement
(4) business software license
(5) None of these
9. A polymorphic virus—
(1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive
until no memory or disk space remains
(3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
(4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original,
uninfected program
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(5) None of these
10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical
transmission media is—
(1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(5) None of these
11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?
(1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open
(2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files.
(3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data.
(4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters.
(5) None of these
12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is—
(1) Biometrics
(2) Compression
(3) Encryption
(4) Ergonomics
(5) None of these
13. The word FIP stands for—
(1) File Translate Protocol
(2) File Transit Protocol
(3) File Typing Protocol
(4) File Transfer Protocol
(5) None of these
14. Voice mail—
(1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications
network such as a local area network or the Internet
(2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while
connected to the Internet
(3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message
for the called party
(4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between
participants at geographically separate locations
(5) None of these
15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the
translation from one set of protocol to another is—
(1) Bridge
(2) Gateway
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(3) Router
(4) Modem
(5) All of these
16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun
Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web?
(1) VB Script
(2) Java Script
(3) CSS
(4) Java
(5) None of these
17. This.............tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and
provides access to data.
(1) Client
(2) Applications/Web server
(3) Enterprise server
(4) DBA
(5) None of these
18. RSA is—
(1) Symmetric Cryptosystem
(2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem
(3) Block Cypher
(4) Digital Signature
(5) None of these
19. A DVD-RAM is similar to a………………except it has storage capacities up to 5.2
GB.
(1) CD-R
(2) floppy disk
(3) CD-RW
(4) hard disk
(5) None of these
20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most
important consideration?
(1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse
(2) The length of the mouse cord
(3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
(4) The number of buttons the mouse has
(5) None of these
21. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
(1) Through a power cable
(2) From an external power supply
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(3) Directly from the computer's power supply
(4) Through the USB cable
(5) None of these
22. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except—
(1) each computer must have a network card
(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(3) there must be at least one connecting device
(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(5) None of these
23. The………….data mining technique derives rules from real-world case examples.
(1) Rule discover
(2) Signal processing
(3) Neural nets
(4) Case-based reasoning
(5) None of these
24. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(1) Cookies
(2) Plug-ins
(3) Scripts
(4) ASPs
(5) None of these
25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its properties
is set via a JSP action?
(1) Servlet Request
(2) Http Servlet Request
(3) Servlet Response
(4) Http Servlet Response
(5) None of these
26. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines
simultaneously are called—
(1) Metasearch engines
(2) Webcrawlers
(3) Spiders
(4) Hits
(5) None of these
27. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system
include—
(1) use-case, class, and state diagrams
(2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams
(3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams
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(4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams
(5) None of these
28. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the—
(1) database is structured
(2) database is well-designed
(3) database has no data
(4) database is relatively small
(5) database is relatively large
29. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hardware?
(1) Bootstrap memory
(2) Volatile memory
(3) Exteranl mass memory
(4) Static memory
(5) Random access memory
30. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would
you use?
(1) ARP
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP
(4) PING
(5) PONG
31. What is Internet 2?
(1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share
access
(3) A new standard for Internet browsers
(4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology
(5) None of these
32. The term, "hypertext", means—
(1) Non-sequential writing
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these
33. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the
site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
(1) Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy.
(2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information.
(3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there.
(4) Use the wayback machine.
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(5) None of these
34. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher
(2) Warded
(3) Device
(4) Tumbler
(5) Typelock
35. A……………..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots
up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a
hard disk.
(1) system virus
(2) trojan horse virus
(3) file virus
(4) macro virus
(5) None of these
ANSWERS:
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3)
26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (5) 30. (1)
31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1)
Nabard Bank Officers Exam. 2008 : General Awareness (Solved) Nabard Bank Officers Exam., 2008General
Awareness : Solved Paper (Held on 30-3-2008)
1. Which of the following was the reason owing to which public unrest broke out in
Pakistan and an Emergency was declared a few months back ?
1. Sudden death of former Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto.
2. Announcement of General Elections.
3. Appointment of a new Chief of Army in place of Gen. Pervez Musharraf who was
very popular leader there.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
2. India, Brazil and South Africa made a forum in 2003 which is playing a very
significant role in dealing with the issues of common interest of all the three in general
and their foreign policies in particular. What is the name of the forum ? (The Second
Summit of the forum was organized in October 2007 in Pretoria)
(A) SAGU
(B) BRIC
(C) G-20
(D) IBSA
(E) None of these
3. Read the following three statements carefully and answer the question asked
immediately after that—
1. Hu Jintao has been reelected the General Secretary of the ruling CPC for the
second term till 2012.
2. Vice President of the country Zeng Quinghing was removed from the powerful
Central Committee of the party.
3. Country is now likely to proceed on a new agenda of progress and development as
Jintao is a man of modern and scientific outlook.
All these three statements are about the political development in the country known as—
(A) South Korea
(B) North Korea
(C) Singapore
(D) China
(E) Thailand
4. The mid term review of the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI (for 2007-08) took
place in January 2008. Which of the following is true about the same ?
1. CRR hiked by 0.5 per cent to make it 7.5% w.e.f. 10th February, 2008.
2. GDP growth outlook at 8.5% for 2007-08.
3. Call and put options are now allowed in imports and exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
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(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
5. An International Organization with Robert B. Zoellick as its President sanctioned a
loan of US$ 944 million to India so that it can strengthen its rural finance system,
vocational training and improve its water management projects. Which of the following
is the name of that organization ?
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) UNESCO
(D) World Bank
(E) None of these
6. As per the news which appeared in some newspapers/magazines the police with the
help of some NGOs rescued some children who had been forced in child labour illegally.
Such children are protected under which of the following acts in India ?
1. Juvenile Justice Act.
2. Child Labour Act.
3. Immoral Trafficking Act.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
7. As per the news published in the media, India, China and some other countries are
trying to grapple with money flooding the economy from a record trade surplus, and
swelling of foreign exchange reserves of the country. Why do the Central Banks of such
countries have to make special efforts to check the flooding of money and foreign
exchange in economy whereas for an ordinary man more money means richness and
prosperity ?
1. It generates artificial inflation in economy.
2. It makes the Govt. of that country to revaluate its currency.
3. It creates a situation where rate of interest on loans and advances starts coming
down sharply.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
8. The Govt. of India recently established a fund known as National Investment Fund
(NIF). Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in this regard ?
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1. This fund is generated through the money received from the sale of equity in State
run companies.
2. The fund will help in revival of sick units of the public sector companies of the
Govt. of India.
3. The money deposited in the fund will be used for social welfare schemes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
9. The Govt. of India is making special efforts to help the farmer community in the
country as they are in distress and demand special attention from all of us.
Which of the following is correct in this regard ?
1. Govt. of India has announced a substantial hike in minimum support price of
wheat for Rabi season.
2. A relief package is announced for the Sugar Industry.
3. All farmers are being given a cash assistance of Rs. 5 lakhs to make them
comfortable financially.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following taxes is collected by the Govt. on sale of goods and services
in the country ?
(A) NAT
(B) GET
(C) SAT
(D) VAT
(E) None of these
11. The N. D. Kumaraswamy Govt. came into minority in Karnataka because one
segment of the coalition
government withdrew its support from it in October 2007.
Which of the following was that segment ?
(A) SP
(B) Congress
(C) BSP
(D) Telugu Desam
(E) None of these
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12. The newly elected President of which of the following countries took over the charge
from her husband who was the President of the country immediately prior to the general
presidential elections there ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Romania
(D) Peru
(E) Argentina
13. The latest European Union Summit took place in which of the following cities in
October 2007 ?
(A) Brussels
(B) Paris
(C) Luxembourg
(D) Lisbon
(E) None of these
14. The UN Climate change Conference 2007 was organized in which of the following
places ?
(A) Manila
(B) London
(C) Brussels
(D) Lisbon
(E) Bali
15. India ranks 128 in the recently published Human Development Index (HDI). The
index measures
which of the following to decide the rank of a country ?
1. Life expectancy
2. Literacy and Education
3. Forex reserves as a percentage of total GDP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
16. Kevin Rudd recently took over as the Prime Minister of Australia from John Howard.
Which of the following policies of John Howard went wrong and against him who
otherwise was holding the post since last four terms of four years each ?
1. Refusal to ratify Kyoto protocol
2. Policy of hiring and firing workers any time
3. Support to non-democratic govt. in some countries
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
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(D) Only 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
17. Many a time we read a term ‘PPP’ in financial newspapers. What is the full form of
the same as used in financial world ?
(A) Public Per Capita Power
(B) Per Capita Potential Purchases
(C) Purchasing Power Parity
(D) Present Purchasing Power
(E) None of these
18. ‘Cryogenic Engines’ are being developed indigenously by an Indian organization.
These engines are normally used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Used for space programme
(B) Used for generating nuclear power
(C) Used by Railways as they are very fast and fuel efficient
(D) Used in fighter planes
(E) None of these
19. The UN has revealed that the emergency phase is now over in Chernobyl where a
disastrous accident had taken place in 1986. The affected people there will now be treated
as normal and not as victims. What had happened in Chernobyl in 1986 ?
(A) A train accident in which about 1000 people had died
(B) A bomb blast in which around 500 people died and 5000 were injured
(C) A nuclear plant exploded and the entire city became a radioactive zone
(D) A powerful earthquake rocked the entire city leaving thousands dead and several
thousands injured
(E) None of these
20. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission
constituted recently ?
(A) Vijay Kelkar
(B) B. K. Chaturvedi
(C) K. V. Kamath
(D) A. K. Purwar
(E) None of these
21. Many a time we read in newspapers about the “Doha Round” of talks. It was related
with the talks of which of the following organizations ?
(A) European Union
(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(C) International Atomic Energy Agencies (IAEA)
(D) G-8 talks
(E) None of these
22. Dinar is the currency of which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these
23. The former President of Mozambique Joaquim Chissano was honoured by the first
ever international prize to an African leader, the prestigious “Mo Ibrahim Leadership
Prize”. The Prize was given to him in 2007 October. What was the contribution of
Chissano owing to which he was selected for the same ?
(Pick up the correct statement)
1. He was instrumental in bringing peace, reconciliation, stable democracy and
economic progress to Mozambique.
2. He played a crucial role in diffusing tension between Iran and IAEA over the
issue of Iran’s nuclear facilities.
3. He played a crucial role in diffusing conflict between India and some western
countries over the issue of subsidy to agriculture in WTO conference held in
2007.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
24. Who amongst the following Indian leaders became the second World Leader to
receive the British Royal Society’s prestigious King Charles II Medal ?
(Given in October 2007)
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(E) None of these
25. The “Outstanding Business Leader Award–2007” was given to whom amongst the
following in October 2007 ?
(A) Lakshmi Mittal
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Rahul Bajaj
(D) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(E) None of these
26. The Doing Business Report, an international publication, is published every year by
which of the following organization(s) ?
1. World Bank
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2. WTO
3. Reserve Bank of India
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
27. The fourth Military World Games–2007 were organized in which of the following
places in India ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bangalore
(E) Cochin
28. The 47th Open National Athletic Championship 2007 was organized in which of the
following places ?
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Bangalore
(E) None of these
29. Who amongst the following is not a famous Lawn tennis player ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Leander Paes
(C) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(D) Justin Henin
(E) Kimi Raikkonen
30. Lot of discussion is going on these days on the issue of ‘Participatory Note’ (P Notes)
used in financial sector/money market. What is Participatory Note ?
[Pick up the correct statement(s)]
1. It is nothing but another name of the banking operation by which banks exchange
Indian Rupees into US Dollars without depositing a single rupee in the account of
the party who are NRIs. The entire operation is carried out by the banks solely on
the basis of the credit and goodwill of the NRI party.
2. It is an offshore derivative instrument used by overseas buyers/investors who buy
shares of Indian companies listed in Indian Stock Exchange anonymously.
3. It is nothing but a type of undertaking given to the banks that they should
continue investing money in stock markets on behalf of the NRIs and in case the
market crashes NRI’s will make the losses good without delay.
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(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
31. As we all see every now and then many countries are in the race of launching space
shuttles or rockets or satellites. What exactly are the benefits of space programmes which
otherwise are very costly affairs for the countries ?
1. It is nothing but a fun to have a visit to space. It has no real benefit as such.
2. Humanity can be served/benefited by getting data on weather, disaster alerts
and/or resource centres connected through satellites.
3. Since earth is no longer a place to live we have to find out a place where in the
next few years we can shift and survive. Such programmes help us in all this.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
32. As we all see oil prices have a special place in economic folklore. Almost all
countries keep an eagle eye on the oil prices in the international market. Why is oil so
important for the countries and their economies to survive ?
[Pick up the correct statement(s)]
1. Two nastiest global recessions of the recent decades were preceded by huge and
sudden rises in prices of oil, first in 1973 and then in 1979. Leaders are scared of
their repetition.
2. What makes oil so special is that it is a uniquely dense and portable form of
energy. It is not easy to switch to alternatives very quickly, hence any disruptions
to supply are damaging for economies.
3. Oil exporting countries are most powerful and violent nations. Countries do not
want to invite trouble with them.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
33. Which of the following is the name of Tata’s small car launched recently ?
(A) Micro
(B) Sapna
(C) Nano
(D) Lakhtakia
(E) None of these
34. The House of Representatives of USA recently approved a US$ 50 billion War
Funding Bill. If passed it would require President Bush to start withdrawing troops
from—
(A) Iraq
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sudan
(D) China
(E) South Africa
35. The public protest on which of the following issues recently brought the whole of the
France to a near standstill for the second time in a month ?
1. Irregularities in Presidential elections held in 2007.
2. President Sarkozy’s plan to reform public sector pensions.
3. France’s support to USA on Iraq’s rebuilding
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
36. Who amongst the following was adjudged as Miss Earth-Air 2007 ?
(A) Pooja Chitgopekar
(B) Pooja Gupta
(C) Amruta Patki
(D) Sarah Jane Dias
(E) None of these
37. As per the news which appeared in newspapers/magazines thousands of civilians
have to flee the fighting in North Kivu province as there is a war going on between the
army of the country and rebels of General Laurent Nkunda. This is the story of which of
the following countries ?
(A) Congo
(B) Sudan
(C) Mozambique
(D) Argentina
(E) None of these
38. About 20,000 students demonstrated against plans to President Hugo Chavez to
change the constitution
of the country. Chavez is the President of—
(A) Sudan
(B) Congo
(C) Venezuela
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(D) Poland
(E) None of these
39. Govt. of India recently announced its action plan on Sachchar Committee Report.
What actions are being taken on the report ?
1. Govt. to bear all expenses of poor students who get into top institutions on merit
basis.
2. Revision of Madarsa Modernization programme.
3. Special Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme for minority population.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 3 is correct
(E) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
40. As we read in the newspapers the 123 Agreement with USA will have strategic
implications on India. Which of the following is/are these implications ?
1. India will get recognition as a state with advanced nuclear technology.
2. The deal will not be offered to Pakistan.
3. India will be free to develop nuclear weapon for its military purposes.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 3 is correct
(E) None is correct
41. The Govt. of India recently gave its clearance to the new Agriculture scheme which
will provide additional central assistance to the agri. sector. What is/are the main points
of this scheme ?
1. Public Investment in agriculture sector will be banned.
2. Govt. will help state govts. to achieve the targeted growth rates in agri. sector.
3. State Govt. will get Rs. 40,000 crores to provide subsidy to agri. sector.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(E) None is correct
42. Who amongst the following are the members of BRIC the summit of which was
organized recently ?
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1. India
2. Indonesia
3. Brazil
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) Both 1 and 3
43. Abuja Declaration was in news a few months back. This is the pact signed between
which of the following two nations ?
(A) India-Sudan
(B) Sudan-China
(C) India-China
(D) Nigeria-Nepal
(E) India-Nigeria
44. USA recently decided to slap few sanctions against Iran which include ouster of
Iranian military and banking institutions from US financial system. Why did US resort to
such harsh steps against Iran ?
1. Iran’s alleged support to Pakistan’s military rule.
2. Iran’s support to terrorism and nuclear programme.
3. Iran is against any financial help to Iraq as both are old enemies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
45. As reported in the newspapers Aung San Suu Kyi has agreed to cooperate with the
military ruler of her country. She is a citizen of—
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
(E) Hong Kong
46. India won Future Cup Twenty-20 cricket match held in October 2007 in Mumbai.
The match was played against—
(A) Pakistan
(B) England
(C) South Africa
(D) New Zealand
(E) Australia
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47. Who amongst the following is not one of the Nobel Prize Winners of 2007 ?
(A) Ms. Doris Lessing
(B) Albert Fert
(C) Roger B. Myerson
(D) Al Gore
(E) Yulia Sindzeyeva
48. Who amongst the following won the Man Booker Prize 2007 ?
(A) K. Narayana Kurup
(B) Eric S. Maskin
(C) Mario R. Capecchi
(D) Anne Enright
(E) None of these
49. Who amongst the following was made the Chairman/Chairperson of the National
Land Reforms Commission ?
(A) Somnath Chatterjee
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(D) Murli Deora
(E) None of these
50. The prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for
2006 was recently conferred upon—
(A) Prof. Wangari Maathai
(B) Mr. Kevin Rudd
(C) Mr. Ratan Tata
(D) Mr. Mahmoud Abbas
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (E) 12. (E) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15. (C)
16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (E) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)
36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (E) 44. (B) 45. (B)
46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (A)
NABARD Bank Officers Exam., 2008 : Reasoning (Solved)Reasoning(Held on 30–3–2008)
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Clove
(B) Cinnamon
(C) Pepper
(D) Cardamom
(E) Apricot
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPERIMENT each of which
have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EOPR, using each
letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. Pointing to a photograph Rasika said “He is the grandson of my grandmother’s only
son.” How is the boy in photograph related to Rasika ?
(A) Son
(B) Nephew
(C) Brother
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
5. In a certain code ‘open the door’ is written as ‘ka te jo’ ‘door is closed’ is written as ‘jo
pa ma’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘la ra pa’. What is the code for ‘closed’ ?
(A) ma
(B) pa
(C) jo
(D) ka
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) These questions are based on the following letter / number /
symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions :
7D5#AB1%K$4EJF3*2HI@L6QU©9MT8W
6. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in
the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group ?
(A) K41
(B) *HF
(C) #B5
(D) M8©
(E) LQI
8. Which of the following pairs of elements does not have the second element,
immediately followed by the first element ?
(A) 5#
(B) MT
(C) $4
(D) 3F
(E) @L
9. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
10. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement ?
A # D $K1 3FE ?
(A) @I2
(B) *HI
(C) H2@
(D) HIL
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements :
Some shoes are socks.
All socks are towels.
All towels are bedsheets.
No bedsheet is blanket.
Conclusions :
I. No towel is blanket.
II. Some shoes are towels.
III. Some shoes are bedsheets.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
12. Statements :
Some fruits are flowers.
Some flowers are buds.
No bud is leaf.
All leaves are plants.
Conclusions :
I. No plant is bud.
II. Some plants are flowers.
III. Some buds are fruits.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
13. Statements :
Some pearls are gems.
Some gems are diamonds.
All diamonds are rings.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
P a g e | 137
I. Some bangles are rings.
II. All rings are diamonds.
III. All diamonds are bangles.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
14. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are telephones.
All telephones are cell phones.
No cell phone is computer.
Conclusions :
I. All cell phones are tables.
II. Some chairs are computers.
III. No chair is computer.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either II or III follows
(E) None of these
15. Statements :
Some rocks are hills.
All hills are mountains.
All mountains are rivers.
No river is Canal.
Conclusions :
I. All rocks are rivers.
II. Some hills are canals.
III. Some rivers are canals.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II follows
(E) None follows
Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Study the following information carefully to answer these
questions.
Eight friends Savita, Radhika, Amita, Nisha, Rani, Jyoti, Meeta and Anjali are sitting
around a circle facing the centre. Savita is second to the right of Anjali, but is not a
neighbour of Amita. Nisha is third to the left of Amita but is not next to Savita. Jyoti is
second to the right of Rani and third to the left of Meeta.
16. Who is second to the left of Anjali ?
(A) Radhika
(B) Rani
(C) Amita
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these
17. Who is to the immediate right of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Radhika
(C) Meeta
(D) Jyoti or Radhika
(E) None of these
18. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani ?
(A) To the immediate right of Anjali
(B) To the immediate left of Anjali
(C) To the immediate right of Savita
(D) Next to Jyoti
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti and Meeta
(B) Radhika and Meeta
(C) Savita and Jyoti
(D) Radhika and Jyoti
(E) None of these
20. Who is to the immediate left of Savita ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Anjali
(C) Rani
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are
given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the
following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The
operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit even number is followed by another even number the first one is to be
divided by the second one.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number the two are be added.
(iv) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is the perfect square,
P a g e | 139
the second number is to be subtracted from the first number.
(v) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is not the perfect
square, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
21. 16 7 25
m 23 22
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 132
(B) 88
(C) 122
(D) 78
(E) None of these
22. 97 45 71
48 8 11
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(A) 68
(B) 19
(C) 147
(D) 64
(E) None of these
23. 125 64 33
282 x 39
If ‘x’ is resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 45
(B) 42
(C) 39
(D) 36
(E) None of these
24. 84 14 13
360 24 17
What the difference between the resultant of the first row and the second row ?
(A) 100
(B) 46
(C) 56 (D) 90
(E) None of these
25. 24 7 81
x 27 19
If ‘x’ is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 87
(B) 114
(C) 4
(D) 6
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(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the following information carefully to answer the
questions given below it—
Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different
cities Chennai, Banglore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar
not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer,
Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.
A is a Pharmacist and practises in Bhubaneshwar. D practises in Banglore but is not a
Doctor or an Artist. The one who practises in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a
Counsellor and does not practise in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practises in
Ahmedabad. F practises in Chennai but is not an artist. C practises in Mumbai.
26. What is D’s profession ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Professor
(C) Engineer
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
27. Who is the professor ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct ?
(A) Pharmacist—Jaipur
(B) Engineer—Chennai
(C) Doctor—Bangalore
(D) Artist—Mumbai
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) C
(D) B or G
(E) None of these
30. Who is the Doctor ?
(A) D
(B) B
(C) C
(D) B or C
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each question below is given a statement followed by two
courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative
decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the
problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to
assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses
of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer :
(A) If only I follows.
(B) If only II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(D) If neither I nor II follows.
(E) If both I and II follow.
31. Statement : Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the
urban areas. Courses of action :
I. Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent norms for maintenance of vehicles.
II. Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.
32. Statement : Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has
been observed in the rural parts of the country. Courses of action :
I. Government should increase Wealth Tax/Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
II. Govt. should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.
33. Statement : Launching of new brands of four wheelers is adding to the traffic congestion in the metro cities.
Courses of action :
I. Public should be encouraged to share their private vehicles while travelling to their work places.
II. Govt. should levy heavy taxes on motor cars in metro cities.
34. Statement : Increasing levels of air-pollution is creating healthhazards for people
living in the cities. Courses of action :
I. All industries should be shifted to the outskirts of the cities.
II. Transport Authorities should take steps for converting all public transport vehicles to
run on CNG.
35. Statement : Large number of college students are found to be focusing more on
fashion than on studies. Courses of action :
I. Colleges should impose restrictions on use of fashionable clothes and accessories.
II. Colleges should keep the students busy enough with studies, so that they don’t find
time for other things like fashion.
Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B).
These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent
Causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement.
Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship
between these two statements. Mark answer :
(A) If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(B) If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
(C) If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
36. (A) Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by privatevehicles.
(B) A major accident of a private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and
injuries for many children.
37. (A) The city observed lowest temperature of the last decade accompanied by heavy
fog during the week.
(B) Most of the flights from the city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the
passengers.
38. (A) In the past few years the job market has improved for the professionally qualified
youth.
(B) Many youth are not able to get jobs upto their expectations.
39. (A) During peak hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in
most parts of the city.
(B) Many companies are planning to launch low priced vehicles.
40. (A) During evening hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movement of vehicles.
(B) Pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past.
Answers
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C)
14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (E) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25.
(D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (E) 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (E) 35. (E) 36. (B)
37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D)
Bank of India Clerk Exam., 2008 : English Language (Solved)English Language :
Solved PaperBank of India Clerk Exam., 2008(Held on 22-6-2008)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questionsgiven below it.Certain
words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them whileanswering some of the questions.The King of
Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in batttle. The elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory,
gold and precious stones taken from the conquered kingdom of Karnat. They would be a part of the victory parade
for his subjects. On his way back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to the goddess and turned to
leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his forehead was anointed
with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester were his only companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by
the wayside, they spied some
children play. The King said, “Let me go and see what they are playing.” The children had lined up two rows of clay
dolls and were playing warriors and battles. The King asked, “Who is fighting whom ?” They said, “Karnat is at
battle with Kanchi.” The King asked, “Who is winning and who is the loser ?” The children puffed their chests up
and said, “Karnat will win and Kanchi will lose.” The Minister froze in disbelief, the King was furious and the jester
burst into laughter. The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still immersed in their game. The
King commanded, “Cane them hard.” The children’s parents came running from the nearby village and said, “They
are naive, it was just a game, please grant them pardon.” The King called his commander and ordered, “Teach these
children and the
village a lesson so that they never forget the King of Kanchi.” He went back to his camp. That evening the
Commander stood before the King. He bowed low in shame and said, “Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas
and vultures, all lie silent in the village.” The Minister said, “His Majesty’s honour has been saved.” The priest said,
“The goddess has blessed our King.” The jester said, “Your Highness, please grant me leave to go now.” The King
asked, “But why ?” The jester said, “I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God’s gift of life.” Trembling
in the face of the king’s anger he bravely continued, “If I stay in your Majesty’s court, I shall become like you and I
shall forget how to laugh.”
1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?
(A) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward
(B) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious
(C) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his
kingdom as a sign of victory
(D) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler
(E) None of these
2. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ?
(A) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious
(B) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple
(C) To show other devotees that he was king
(D) The priest requested him to do so
(E) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple
3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?
1. He was not a loyal subject of the king.
2. He was afraid of the king’s temper.
3. He did not support the king’s war against Karnat.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ?
(A) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes
(B) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle
(C) They were upset that their army had lost
(D) They were in the habit of lying
(E) None of these
5. Why did the jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ?
1. They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle.
2. Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king.
3. He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the
king.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
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6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
(B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for
the king
(C) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the
children
(D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat
(E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple
7. Why did the jester resign from his post ?
(A) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister
(B) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children
(C) He did not want to accompany the king on his war campaign
(D) He was no longer able to make the king laugh
(E) None of these
8. Which of the following describes the Minister ?
1. He was jealous of the jester.
2. He was the king’s most valuable advisor.
3. He did not have a good sense of humour.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following was/were the outcome(s) of the soldiers beating the children ?
1. The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers.
2. The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy.
3. The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple.
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
10. Why was the king angry with the children ?
(A) Because the game they were playing was dangerous
(B) They had lied to him
(C) They did not recognize him as king
(D) They had unknowingly insulted him
(E) They were rude to him
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as
the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
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11. froze
(A) cold
(B) numb
(C) shivered
(D) stood still
(E) chill
12. leave
(A) holiday
(B) transfer
(C) exit
(D) permission
(E) farewell
13. spied
(A) noticed
(B) keep watch
(C) followed
(D) spot
(E) caught
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. immersed in
(A) safe from
(B) distracted from
(C) boring
(D) drowning in
(E) entertained by
15. pardon
(A) punishment
(B) excuse
(C) convict
(D) intolerance
(E) imprison
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No
correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.
(A) is dependable
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(B) depends on
(C) being dependent
(D) going to depend
(E) No correction required
17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.
(A) was fearful of
(B) was feared to
(C) was afraid to
(D) had been afraid to
(E) No correction required
18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all
participants.
(A) any of the place convenient
(B) at places convenient
(C) from a place of convenience
(D) to a place convenient
(E) No correction required
19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.
(A) sharper rise of
(B) as sharp a rise
(C) sharp rises in
(D) sharply rising
(E) No correction required
20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.
(A) were required to submit
(B) required for submission
(C) are required to submit
(D) requirement of submitting
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them—
1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I
came to the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?
2. ‘Yes’, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are
significant even if all you do is greet them.”
3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?
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4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.
5. I have never forgotten this lesson.
6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would
count for assessment.
21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5
23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold
which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate
word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are
appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. ‘All correct’.
26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the
organization. All correct (E)
27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern
(D) . All correct (E)
28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents
(D) in the long run. All correct (E)
29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done
strictly (C) on merit (D). All correct (E)
30. There will be a decline (A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike
(C) in oil prices (D). All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.)
31. The revised government’s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers
(C) / taking place among banks. (D) No error (E)
32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No
error (E)
33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C)
/ many cultural programmes. (D) No error (E)
34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from
RBI. (D) No error (E)
35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products
and(C) /efficient managing staff. (D) No error (E)
36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily
(C) / than we expected. (D) No error (E)
37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease
his boss. (D) No error (E)
38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre
of petrol that they sell. (D) No error (E)
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39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary
true. (D) No error (E)
40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing
management. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled
into one. As a leader, he …(41)… the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and
he never …(42)… focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. …(43)… to
everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in …(44)… time. He was
…(45)… that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was
…(46)… the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich
…(47)… when the plant was commissioned.
Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(48)… all his senior people to be
‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of
Management, which allows its professors to …(49)… their own business. This made their
lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the …(50)… of the Institute’s success.
41. (A) achieved
(B) implemented
(C) visualised
(D) persevered
(E) aimed
42. (A) moved
(B) shifts
(C) missed
(D) changes
(E) lost
43. (A) Contrary
(B) Opposite
(C) Yet
(D) Obedient
(E) Different
44. (A) any
(B) mean
(C) short
(D) no
(E) less
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45. (A) known
(B) calculating
(C) certain
(D) dreamt
(E) surely
46. (A) operational
(B) install
(C) use
(D) produced
(E) new
47. (A) supply
(B) diversity
(C) rewards
(D) pay
(E) knowledge
48. (A) thought
(B) tried
(C) wished
(D) encourage
(E) wanted
49. (A) expand
(B) function
(C) chose
(D) run
(E) risk
50. (A) responsibility
(B) secret
(C) guarantee
(D) prize
(E) value
Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (E)
6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
26. (A) Correct spelling is ‘goal’.
27. (C) Correct spelling is ‘cause’.
P a g e | 152
28. (D) Correct spelling is ‘dividends’.
29. (E) 30. (B)
31. (A) Write ‘the government’s revised’.
32. (B) Write ‘which of the’.
33. (C) Write ‘the government is organizing’.
34. (C) Write ‘without obtaining’.
35. (D) Write ‘efficient managerial staff’.
36. (C) Change ‘very easily’ to ‘more easily’.
37. (C) Write ‘even though it would’.
38. (C) Write ‘each in place of ‘all’.
39. (D) Write ‘necessarily true’.
40. (B) Delete ‘my’.
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B)
46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B
(Questions 1-6 ): Pick out word with the Opposite
meaning.
1. Though his view is correct his behavior was impertinent
(a) healthy
(b) respectful
(c) inadequate
(d) smooth
(e) impressive Ans (b)
2. The commission took two years to sift through the
massive collection of documents.
(a) meager
(b) heavy
(c) light
(d) short
(e) ugly Ans (c)
3. The Minister”s speech precipitated the matter.
(a) aggravate
(b) create
(c) defer
(d) push
(e) pull Ans (c)
4. The chairman rebuked the accounts officer.
(a) received
(b) awarded
(c) invited
(d) strengthened
(e) praised Ans (b)
5. The manager is quite tactful and handles the workers
union very effectively.
(a) disciplined
(b) naive
(c) strict
(d) loose
(e) relaxed Ans (b)
Instructios (Questions 6-12 ): Pick out the word
synonymous with the one in the sentence given below.
6. After the dismal show the caption resigned his job.
(a) poor (b) sorrowful
(c) minimum
(d) short
(e) miser Ans (a)
7. The boy gave a graphic account of the theft.
(a) picture
(b) drawing
(c) vivid
(d) broad
(e) vague Ans (c)
8. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and saved the
members of his platoon.
(a) avoidable
(b) unusual
(c) strange
(d) abnormal
(e) new Ans (b)
9. The police officer found that the documents recovered
were fabricated.
(a) prepared
(b) forged
(c) genuine
(d) historical
(e) constricted Ans (b)
10. In spite of their efforts, they could not make much
headway.
(a) progress
(b) thinking
(c) efforts
(d) starts
(e) results Ans (a)

Question Bank
Haja Peer Mohamed H [hajapeermohamedh@msn.com] Page 5 ‐2
Instructios (Questions 11-18 ):Fill up to blanks in the
following Questions picking out from the choices.
11. Mahesh _____ me coming to his table, he smiled and
___ me a chair
(a) looked, gave
(b) welcomed, took
(c) saw, offered
(d) found, signaled
(e) met, sat Ans (c)
12. The counter Clerk was very busy and ____ not pay any
___ to Sohan”s request.
(a) did, attention
(b) had, cash
(c) could, respect
(d) can, help
(e) Certainly, acceptance Ans (a)
13. We are ___ to have him ____ here to make this
function a great success
(a) happy, arrive
(b) wonderful, again
(c) sure, come
(d) pleased, over
(e) proud, leave Ans (d)
14. Sachin ___ another feather ___ his cap by his
performance in one day match.
(a) created, by (b) took, in (c) captured, from
(d) kept, in (e) added, to Ans (e)
15. The state govt staff ___ threatened to launch an
indefinite strike from next month to ___ their demands.
(a) have, press (b) did, get
(c) were, meet
(d) nearly, fulfill
(e) has, press Ans (a)
16. The speech ___ with subtle threats has resulted in ___
tension.
(a) full, escalating
(b) started, reduced
(c) followed, continuous
(d) replete, increased
(e) forced, dissolving Ans (d)
17. By long queues and bad weather the voters__ their way
to the polling stations ___ a lot.
(a) undaunted, made
(b) making, suffered
(c) encouraged, prepared
(d) going, dropped
(e) satisfied, turned Ans (b)
18. The CM ____ the house that ____ action would be
taken against all those involved in corruption.
(a) instructed, preventive
(b) called, stick (c) assured, stringent
(d) reiterated, strictly
(e) informed, constructive Ans (c)
Instructios (Questions 18-24 ) : In each of the following
questions a part of sentence is given with underline. Below
each sentence, four choices numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) are
given which can substitute the part of the sentence printed
with underline. Find out the choice which can correctly
substitute that part of the sentence. The number of that
choice is the answer. If “No correction needed” is your
answer, the choice is (e).
18. He has received no other message than an urgent
telegram asking him to rush village soon.
(a) asked him to rush his village
(b) asking him to have to his village
(c) asking him to rush to his village
(d) asking him rushing at his village
(e) No correction required Ans (a)
19. We must take it granted that Madhu will not come for
today”s function.
(a) take it for granted
(b) taking it granted
(c) took it as granted
(d) have it granted
(e) Non correction required Ans (a)
20. I earnestly believes that you will visit our relatives
during your trip to Bombay.
(a) had hardly believe that
(b) sincerely believe
(c) certainly believing that
(d) could not believe
(e) No correction required Ans (b)
21. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by
7.30 pm so that we can reach the station in time
(a) were (b) must be
(c) are (d) should have
(e) No correction required Ans (b)
22. Maria unnecessarily picked up a quarrel with Ram and
left the party.
(a) has picked up
(b) picked on
(c) picked
(d) picking up
(e) No correction required Ans (e)
23. Anand has the guts to rise from the occasion and come
out successfully.
(a) in rising from
(b) to raise with
(c) to rise against
(d) to rise to
(e) No correction required Ans (d)
24. I need not offer any explanation, my behaviour is
speaking itself.
(a) will speak to itself
(b) speaks for itself
(c) has been speaking
(d) speaks about itself
(e) No correction required Ans (b)
25.Pick out the most effective words from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence complete.
Although I was doubtful, my mother was . that I would
pass.
(a) firm
(b) uncertain
(c) decided
(d) sure
(e) believed
Ans (d)
1. In which type of account, banks generally don”t pay
interest
(A) Saving Account
(B) Current Account
(C) Fixed Deposit Account
(D) Interest is always payable in all types of account
2. A bank standing order would be suitable for paying
(A) Telephone accounts
(B) Electricity accounts
(C) Grocery bills
(D) Mortgage repayments
3. Payment of a cheque cannot be made on a cash counter
of bank if the cheque is
(A) Bearer
(B) Cross
(C) Order
(D) All of these
4. Which of the following is not Commercial Bank ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India
(C) Canra Bank (D) Oriental Bank of Commerce
5. What is the Bank draft ?
(A) Letter from the Bank
(B) Cheque which a bank draws on itself
(C) Instraction to a banker to collect a customer”s debt
(D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment
6. The essential characteristic of whatever serves as money
is that it must
(A) Be issued by the State (B) Be generally acceptable
(C) Not be wholly fiduciary
(D) Have some instrinsic value
7. One of the following is not an example of Near-Money,
which ?
(A) Bill of Exchange (B) Bonds and Debentures
(C) Equity shares of Ranbaxy Company Ltd.
(D) Treasury bills of the Government of India
8. “Fiat Money” is that which is
(A) Accepted by overseas banks only
(B) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold
(C) Backed by gold or silver
(D) Decreed as money by the government
9. Money is
(A) Acceptable only when it has intrinsic value
(B) Constant in purchasing power
(C) The most liquid of all assets (D) All of the above
10. Greshan”s law states that
(A) Bad money promotes good money in the system
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(D) Good money promotes bad money in the system
11. Value of Money
(A) Is independent of the price level
(B) Is directly related to the price level
(C) Is inversely related to the price level
(D) None of the above
12. Demand pull inflation can be caused by money factors
including
(A) A fall in consumption expenditure
(B) A sharp increase in unemployment
(C) A steep reduction in direct taxation
(D) An increase in Income Tax
13. The process of deplation tends to favour
(A) Debtor and Creditiors a like
(B) Debtor at the expense of Creditors
(C) Creditors at the expense of Debtors
(D) Profit receivers at the expense of fixed income
receivers
14. Which of the following statement is not completely
true ?
(A) An increase in the supply of money will result in
inflation
(B) Cost inflation occurs when prices rise to cover
increased factor costs
(C) Inflation occurs when the value of money declines
(D) Inflation will have the effect of redistributing incomes
within a country
15. Which of the following people is most likely to benefit
from an inflationary situation ?
(A) A person who buys units from the Unit Trust
(B) A person who keeps his savings under the floor at
home
(C) A person makes a large private loan to a friend
(D) A person who takes out a mortgage with a building
society
16. The principal liability of a Joint Stock Bank relates to
(A) Its investment abroad
(B) Its investment at home
(C) Repayment of its customer”s deposits
(D) Its requirements to make special deposits when
requested
17. Which of the following is not a function of the
Commercial Banks ?
(A) Acting as a lender of last resort
(B) Lending to the private and public sectors
(C) The provision of a cheque system for setting debts
(D) The provision of safe deposit facilities
18. When the Commercial Bank create credit areas which
are in effect and increases
(A) The national debt (B) The supply of money
(C) The purchasing power of the rupee
(D) The real wealth of the country
19. A customer does not require a bank account to obtain
(A) A Loan (B) A Cheque Card
(C) A Banker”s Draft (D) An Overdraft
20. Which of the following is not a liability of Commercial
Banks
(A) Security Holdings (B) Treasury deposit at banks
(C) Demand deposits and time deposits
(D) Borrowing from Central Bank
21. “Not negotiable” written on a cheque crossing means
(A) The cheque cannot be paid to any one but the payee
(B) The cheque is valid only for payment of the transaction
for which it is made out
(C) An honest person receiving a stolen cheque is liable to
repay the rightful owner
(D) The cheque must be paid into a bank
22. The Central Bank is not expected to perform the
function of
(A) Acting as a clearing house
(B) The banker to the government
(C) Accepting deposit from Commercial Banks
(D) Accepting deposits from general public
23. Increase in bank rates generally is followed by
(A) An increase in market rate of interest
(B) A fall in market rates of interest
(C) A rise only in the deposits rates but not the lending
rates
(D) A rise only in the lending rates
24. The major quantitative monetary tool available with the
Central Bank is
(A) Retioning of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Margin requirements (D) Reserve ratio requirements
25. Bank must refuse payment of a cheque where
(A) Cheque is not dated
(B) Where cheque is stale, i.e. date has expired
(C) Payment has been stopped by customer
(D) The cheque is not presented during working hours of
Bank
26. A “Stale” cheque is one that is
(A) Over six months old
(B) Converning an overdue payment
(C) Cancelled by the drawer
(D) Written on an account which is overdrawn
27. When the Central Bank sells securities, as a result
(A) The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks
increase
(B) The cash resources of the commercial banks remain
unchanged
(C) The cash resources at the disposal of commercial banks get
diminished (D) None of the above
28. When a cheque is returned by the bank marked “Refer
to Drawer” this means the drawer
(A) Has instructed the bank not to pay the cheque
(B) Whishes to be contacted before the cheque is cashed
(C) Has improperly completed the cheque and must correct
it before payment
(D) Had insufficient funds in his account to pay the cheque
29. The current Bank Rate is
(A) 6% (B) 8% (C) 9% (D) 9.·5%
30. It has been made compulsory for Non-Banking
Financing Companies to get themselves registered with
before July 8, 1997.
(A) RBI (B) SEBI (C) Government of India
(D) None of the above
31. India ranks number among the countries with the
biggest growth potential in the world according to the
latest report of world Economic Forum.
(A) Six (B) Five (C) Four (D) Three
32. Which is the “most competitive country” of the world
according to the latest report of world Economic Forum ?
(A) Hong Kong (B) Singapore
(C) United State of America (D) Netherlands
33. The maximum permissible limit of interest on
postshipment rupee credit on demand bills for transit
period upto 90 days is
(A) 13% (B) 14% (C) 15% (D) 16%
34. Which of the following statement is correct about India
according to the World Bank”s latest calculations ?
(A) India”s per capita national wealth is $ 25000
(B) India”s per capita incomeis $ 360
(C) India”s per capita income (according to purchasing
power parity) is $ 2390 (D) All of the above
35. Scheduled commercial banks recorded nonperforming
assets (NPAs) of at the end of March 2006-07 against
1.·8% during 2005-06.
(A) 2.3% (B) 3.3% (C) 1.5% (D) 7.9%
36. Which of the following is not a tool in the hands of
RBI to control the inflationary pressure in the country ?
(A) Bank Rate (BR)
(B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(D) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
37. Which of the following is/are included in Legal Tender
Money in India ?
(A) Coins and currency notes
(B) Coins and bank drafts (C) Currency notes and SDRs
(D) Currency notes issued by RBI
38. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) CRR on FCNR (B) Scheme12%
(B) Bank Rate6%
(C) SLR on NRE deposits31.·5% (D) CRR on NRE13%
39. India”s First Financial Archive has been set up at
(A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi (C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kolkata
40. Which of the following Bank merged with Oriented
Bank of Commerce ?
(A) New Bank of India (B) Punjab Co-operative Bank
(C) Bari Doab Bank (D) (B) and (C) both
Answers
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19.
(A) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27.
(C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35.
(C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)
PAPER : ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Jayasuriya who decided to take retirement from Test
Cricket is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Pakistan (B) India (C) West Indies
(D) South Africa (E) Sri Lanka
2. In order to give impetus to agri-culture which of the
following states has launched Contract Farming
Scheme ?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir (B) Orissa
(C) West Bengal (D) Haryana
(E) None of these
3. Dola Banerjee who won a Gold Medal in an
international games event in November 2007 is associated
with :
(A) Archery
(B) Badminton
(C) Table tennis
(D) Swimming
(E) None of these
4. Who amongst the following is the highest wicket taker
in the history of Test cricket in the world ?
(A) R. Hadlee
(B) Kapil Dev
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Shane Warne (E) Mutthiah Muralidharan
5. Late Benzair Bhutto was associa-ted with which of the
following political parties ?
(A) Muslim League
(B) Pakistan National Congress
(C) Pakistan People”s Party
(D) National Forum of Pakistan
(E) None of these
6. Zhang Zilin who was adjudged as the Miss World 2007
is from which of the following coun- tries ?
(A) South Africa
(B) Russia
(C) South Korea
(D) Vietnam
(E) China
7. Which of the following is not considered as a green
House Gas ?
(A) Methane
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Oxygen
(E) All these are not green house gases
8. Which of the following terms is not a financial term ?
(A) Investment
(B) El Nino effect
(C) Core banking Solution
(D) RTGs
(E) All are financial terms
9. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the
13th Finance Commission ?
(A) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(C) Dr. Rakesh Mohan
(D) Dr. Vijay Kelkar
(E) None of these
10. The Green revolution in India was the outcome of the
efforts of who amongst the following ?
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Mr.K. V. Kamath
(D) Dr. Rakesh Mohan
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is a project to develop
watersheds in India ?
(A) DRDO
(B) CARE
(C) AVARD
(D) NWDPRA
(E) None of these
12. Who amongst the following is the author of the book
“The Namesake” ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Steve Waugh
(C) Monica Ali
(D) V. S. Naipaul
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
13. Which of the following countries launched its first
Lunar Orbiter “Change-I” ?
(A) India (B) South Korea (C) China
(D) France (E) None of these
14. Who amongst the following is ranked No. 1 Tennis
players amongst the women players ? (as per recent
ranking)
(A) Maria Sharapova (B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Sania Mirza (D) Justine Henin
(E) None of these
15. The Information and Broadcas-ting Ministry has
selected which of the following pairs for its
prestigious “Life Time Achieve-ment Award” given
away recen-tly ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan and Jaya Bachchan
(B) Rajesh Khanna and Dilip Kumar
(C) Asha Bhosle and Lata Man-geshkar
(D) Lata Mangeshkar and Dilip Kumar
(E) None of these
16. Many a times

Question Bank
Haja Peer Mohamed H [hajapeermohamedh@msn.com] Page 5 ‐8
11. Which of the following is a project to develop
watersheds in India ?
(A) DRDO
(B) CARE
(C) AVARD
(D) NWDPRA
(E) None of these
12. Who amongst the following is the author of the book
“The Namesake” ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Steve Waugh
(C) Monica Ali
(D) V. S. Naipaul
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
13. Which of the following countries launched its first
Lunar Orbiter “Change-I” ?
(A) India (B) South Korea (C) China
(D) France (E) None of these
14. Who amongst the following is ranked No. 1 Tennis
players amongst the women players ? (as per recent
ranking)
(A) Maria Sharapova (B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Sania Mirza (D) Justine Henin
(E) None of these
15. The Information and Broadcas-ting Ministry has
selected which of the following pairs for its
prestigious “Life Time Achieve-ment Award” given
away recen-tly ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan and Jaya Bachchan
(B) Rajesh Khanna and Dilip Kumar
(C) Asha Bhosle and Lata Man-geshkar
(D) Lata Mangeshkar and Dilip Kumar
(E) None of these
16. Many a times we read in news-paper about the benefits
of National Electronic, Funds Trans-fer (NEFT) a
delivery service launched by the bank. Why banks
advocate for such delivery channels ?
1. It is a system in which no physical transfer takes place
hence risk is very low.
2. In this system banks are not required to transfer any
money actually to the account of the customer.
Only book adjustment is done. Hence actual fund
is not needed.
3. This facility is available to anybody at any place. Even
having a bank account is not at all necessary.
(A) Only (1) is correct (B) Only (2) is correct
(C) Only (3) is correct
(D) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are correct
17. The prestigious Indira Gandhi National Award for
Peace Disar-mament and Development 2006 was
conferred upon whom amongst the following ?
(A) Prof. Wangari Maathai (B) Mr. Phillips Talbot
(C) Mr. Damilo Turk (D) Ms. Doris Lessing
(E) None of these
18. As reported in the newspapers China has asked its
banks to put 12.·5% money instead of earlier 12% as
CRR. This correction in CRR is made for the seventh
time in last one year. Why did China have to take this
step again and again and so frequently ?
1. It will put a curb on lending of the money by the banks.
2. It will help Govt. of China to tame the rate of inflation.
3. It will help poor to get easy loans at cheaper rates from
the banks as higher CRR brings more money for
acti-vities of the social sector.
(A) Only (1) is correct (B) Only (2) is correct
(C) All (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(D) Only (3) is correct
(E) Both (1) and (2) are correct
19. NRI Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 9th February
(B) 9th January
(C) 19th February
(D) 19th March
(E) 9th March
20. Which of the following isnot a mode of foreign capital
inflow to India ?
(A) FDI
(B) FII
(C) NRI Accounts
(D) No Frills Accounts
(E) All these are valid for foreign capital inflow
21. India-European Union Summit 2007 was organized in
November 2007 at New Delhi. Which of the following
is true about the same ?
1. A landmark MOU was signed by both the parties which
envisages that EU would help India to achieve
millennium Goals.
2. EU will plead India”s case of more subsidy to agro
sector in WTO meets.
3. Both the parties reaffirmed their commitment to the
rule based multilateral trading system.
(A) Only (1) is correct
(B) Only (2) is correct
(C) Only (3) is correct
(D) Both (1) and (3) are correct
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are correct
22. Mr. Kevin Rudd is the new :
(A) President of Australia
(B) Prime Minister of Australia
(C) President of Argentina
(D) Prime Minister of Argentina
(E) Secretary General of UNO
23. The 53rd Commonwealth Heads of Government
Meeting (CHO-GM) was organized at which of the
following places in Novem-ber 2007 ?
(A) Kampala
(B) London
(C) New Delhi
(D) Perth
(E) None of these
24. As per the reports published in the news
papers/magazines the overall credit (credit by banks)
grew by over Rs. 1,00,000 crores in 2005-06 and
2006-07. Which of the following sectors was one
single main contributor to this boom ?
(A) Housing and real estate sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Business loans to doctors and account professionals
(D) Manufacturing Sector
(E) None of these
25. Many times we see banks adver-tiseAnywhere Banking
: Any-time Banking. Which of the following
products/facilities launched by banks make it possible
for the customers to avail banking services 24 hours
all seven days ?
1. ATM
2. Internet Banking
3. Universal Cheque book facility
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
PAPER : ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE
PROBATIONARY OFFICERS SOLVED PAPER (Held
on 16-3-2008)
GENERAL AWARENESS
26. Which of the following organiza-tion/agencies has
asked all the banks in India to form customer service
panels at branch levels ?
(A) Indian Bank”s Association
(B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(E) None of these
27. As we all know Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) has taken some corrective steps to restrict
functioning of Partici-patory Notes (P-Notes) in Indian
Stock Markets. Why are P-Notes considered
dangerous for the financial markets of a country ?
1. This allows a foreign inves-tor to invest funds without
knowing the history/finan-cial health of a
company. If Company fails foreign investors lose
their money. Govt. of India does not want this as
this will bring a bad name to the country.
2. P-Notes allow foreign inves-tors to buy shares of blue
chip companies without following know Your
Custo-mer (KYC) norms. Hence money invested
here may not be from a valid and legal source.
3. P-Notes are launched to arrange funds only for social
schemes. Due to huge funds available with NRI
for investment they are sending it in bulk. Hence
cost of such investments is very high and it is not
commercially viable for banks to accept such
investments.
(A) Only (1) is correct (B) Only (2) is correct
(C) Only (3) is correct
(D) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(E) None of these
28. The Banking Industry a few years back was badly in
the grip of Non Performing Assets (Bad loans) for
which the RBI and banks took special measures. As
per the latest financial reports of the industry, what is
the status of NPAs at present ?
1. There are no NPAs now as not a single loan of Rs. 5
lakhs and above is given by the bank without
proper paperwork.
2. As reported of 2006-07 the NPAs have declined.
3. As the interest rates are very high banks are not
providing loans to middle class and poor general
borrows. Hence NPAs in private and personal
bank-ing area are “zero” where as in industrial
credit sector NPAs are still at the level of 22 per
cent.
(A) Only (1) is correct
(B) Only (2) is correct
(C) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(D) Only (3) is correct
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following car com-panies has launched a
small cheaper car “Nano” ?
(A) Maruti Suzuki Udhyog Ltd.
(B) Hyundai Motor India Ltd.
(C) Tata Motors Ltd.
(D) Hindustan Motors Ltd.
(E) None of these
30. The Govt. of India in general and the Banks in
particular are very much after the “Financial Inclusion”
a goal which both of them wish to achieve as
early as pos-sible. What is the actual meaning of
“Financial Inclusion” ?
1. Each and every individual above the age of 21 years
should have an employ-ment and/or independent
source of income enough for him/her to sustain.
2. It is a concept which envi-sages that maximum people
in India should have access to banking services.
3. Banking services should be provided only to those who
have a valid and legal source of income as Govt.
of India wants each and every per-son in the
income tax net irrespective of the level of their
income.
(A) Only (1) is true
(B) Only (2) is true
(C) Only (3) is true
(D) Both (1), (2), (3) are true
(E) None of these
31. As per the reports in the major financial newspapers
India has urged China to redress imba-lance in trade.
What does it really mean ? It means
(A) India exports more items to China whereas China
does not export much to India
(B) India is not able to export much to China whereas its
import from China is of higher value
(C) China and India are not at all trade partners. Hence
there is no transaction between the two countries
(D) As per WTO laws India is supposed to export food
grains to China. But China has not placed any order
for the same in 2006-07. It has also refused to accept
200 lakh tonnes of wheat exported to it by India.
(E) None of these
32. As reported in the newspapers the collection of Direct
Taxes which includes IT, FBT, STT and BCTT grew
by about 50% during the current fiscal year. Which of
the following is the name of the tax levied on a cash
withdrawal or deposit from/to a bank ?
(A) IT (B) FBT
(C) STT (D) BCTT
(E) None of these
33. As reported in some financial newspapers some banks
in India (including major banks) these days are not
accepting US dollar transactions from Iranian buyers.
Which of the following is the major reason of banks
not accep-ting such transactions from Iran ?
1. USA has put a ban on major iranian Banks hence
Indian banks are also not accepting transaction
from Iran as they do not get return of the same
from it.
2. Iran is facing a major Reces-sion hence all Banks have
stopped major transactions with Iranian banks.
3. Iran has declared itself as an Islamic country and hence
its banking is also Islamic Banking. This is the
reason owing to which most of the countries are
not able to develop financial ties with it.
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) and (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
34. As reported in some major financial news papers many
times it is said that “Other Income” boosts the profit of
a bank to a substantial level. What is this other income
for a bank ? (Pick up the option (s) which are the part
(s) of this other income)
1. Commission for selling insurance policies.
2. Fee for providing various services (like ATM/Extra
cheque etc.)
3. Interest on advances and loans.
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
35. Amongst the BRIC nations the GDP of which of the
following took a fast growth of 11.·5% in recent past ?
(A) None (B) Brazil
(C) Russia (D) India
(E) China
36. Which of the following is the achievement/outcome of
Mrs. Sonia Gandhi”s visit to China in October 2007 ?
1. A working group is estab-lished to prepare a framework
for the settlement of boundary issue.
2. China has agreed to support India”s claim to have a
permanent seat in UN Security Council.
3. China agreed to stop all exports to Pakistan till it
switches over to a democra-tically elected
government.
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
37. As reported time and again and in the media most of
the Indian Industrialists are against a regional trade
pact with China. Why China is not a preferred partner
in trade and business activities in India ?
1. India has already instigated maximum number of cases
against China under anti dumping laws.
2. China is not a quality cons-cious country. Hence the
products are not of good market value.
3. China has maximum trade agreements with those
countries whose activities are not liked by India
and some major countries of E.U. China is
importing goods from them and redirecting it to
India.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
38. India has a regional trade pact SAFTA. This pact is
with mem-bers of which of the following group of
countries ?
(A) IBSA (B) EU
(C) OPEC (D) BRIC (E) SAARC
39. As reported in some news-papers/magazines some
banks have decided to install Biometric ATMs so that
fraudulent with-drawals can be prevented. Bio-metric
ATMs will be able to do so as it also checks
1. Signatures of the card holdes.
2. Finger prints of the card holders.
3. Skin colour of the card holders.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
40. Which of the following schemes is launched
specifically for helping Senior Citizens to avail loan
by mortgage of their resi-dential property ?
(A) English mortgage scheme
(B) Senior Capital Loan scheme
(C) Reverse Mortgage Loan scheme
(D) DEMAT Account Scheme (E) None of these
41. Who amongst the following received the Nobel Prize
2007 for Medicine ?
1. Martin Evans 2. Mario Capecchi
3. Oliver Smiths
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) jointly
42. A summit of which of the follo-wing two countries
took place for the first time recently which is being
considered a big leap in the direction of diffusing
conflict between them from last 50 years ?
(A) China-Russia (B) Vietnam-USA
(C) China-Pakistan (D) Russia-USA
(E) South-Korea-North Korea
43. The Gorkha Hill Council is in function in which of
the follo-wing districts of West Bengal (Since October
2007) ?
(A) Midnapore (B) Birbhum (C) Nadia
(D) Howrah (E) Darjeeling
44. Prime Minister of India was on a visit to Russia in
November 2007. Which of the following is/are the
outcome of his meeting with Russian Leaders ?
1. Both the countries signed an agreement for their joint
space programme.
2. India signed a nuclear deal with Russia for construction
of four new Nuclear Reac-tions in Tamil Nadu.
3. India and Russia agreed to take a joint military action to
stop insurgency problem in some parts of India.
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
45. The Govt. of India has decided to take a major stake in
Sakhalin IV and Sakhalin V oil fields. Both these oil
fields are situated in which of the following countries?
(A) Brazil (B) Russia (C) China
(D) Saudi Arabia (E) None of these
46. The Planning commission of India has established a
National Fund to improve the distribution of which of
the following in the country ?
(A) Electricity (B) Cooking gas
(C) Food grains through public distribution system
(D) Fresh currency notes
(E) None of these
47. The US economy is in a bad shape these days as a slow
down is noticed in it in recent past. What will be its
impact on “Global economy” in general ?
1. Dollar will be depreciated.
2. Export from European mar-kets will gain strength.
3. Interest rates of short term loans in money market will
shoot up sharply as demand for short term rupee
loan will shoot up.
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3) (E) All (1), (2) and (3)
48. As published in the newspapes the RBI has issued
certain guide-lines to be followed by the Recovery
Agents appointed by the banks. In addition to this the
Indian Bank Association (IBA) has to formulate a
special training course for them. Why RBI and IBA
has to come into picture for such an issue which is the
res-ponsibility of the banks ?
1. RBI and Govt. were getting many complaints from the
public about the misbeha-viour of Recovery
agents.
2. Govt. of India is paying much emphasis on provi-ding
banking services to the poor section of society.
News about ill treatment by agents or suicides
due to inability to payback loans create a negative
picture. RBI do not want this to hap-pen.
3. Despite banks efforts to recover loans many people still
do not wish to repay their loans intentionally.
Recovery agents will help banks to get their
money back by all possible means.
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3) (E) All (1), (2) and (3)
49. The imports of which of the following items from
Indiahas been lesser than its Exports of the same
during 2007-08 ?
(A) Oil (B) Chemicals (C) Steel (D) Tea
(E) None of these
50. The Planning commission of India decided to fix the
target growth of GDP during 11th Five year plan at
9%. What was the growth rate in 10th plan period ?
(A) 4% (B) 8% (C) 5.·5% (D) 7.·6% (E) 6.·7%
Answers with Explanations :
1. (E) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (E) 5. (C)
6. (E) 7. (D)
8. (B) “El-Nino” is the nature”s Vicious Cycle caused due
to deranged weather pattern, as happed the giant El-
Nino of 1997-98, killed about 2,100 people.
9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) “NWDPRA” (National Water- shed Development
Project for Rainfed Area) was launched in 1990-91 for
25 states and 2 UTs in the country for rainfed farming.
12. (E) 13. (C)
14. (D) With 6330 Points, Justine Henin is at the First
Place.
15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (E) 19. (B)
20. (D) 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (B)
25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (C)
30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D)
35. (E) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (E) 39. (E)
40. (C)
41. (E) The “Nobel Prize, 2007” in Medicine/or
Physiology was awarded jointly to Mario R. Capecchi
(USA), Sir Martin J. Evans (UK) and Oliver Smiths
(USA) i.e., 1/3 of the prize to each, announced on 8th
Oct., 2007 at Karolinska Institute by the Nobel
Assembly.
42. (E) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C)
47. (E) 48. (A) 49. (D)
50. (B) In 10th Plan (2002-07), “NDC” (National
Development Council) envisaged an average growth
rate of 8%
Andhra Bank Special Officers Solved Paper
Directions(Q. 1-5 ) In a certain code the symbol for 0
(zero) is l and that for 1 is H. There are no other symbols
for numbers and all numbers greater than 1 are written
using these two symbols only, the value of the symbol for
1 doubling itself every-time it shifts one place to the left.
Thus
0 is written l
1 is written H
2 is written H l
3 is written H H
4 is written H l l and so on
01. If HHH is multiplied by HH, the product will be
(A) H l H l H
(B) H H l l H
(C) H l l H H
(D) l H H H H
(E) H l l l H
02. Which of the following will represent 20% of 45 in that
code ?
(A) H H H H (B) H H H
(C) H l l H (D) H H l H
(E) H H H l
03. Which of the following stands for 7 in that code ?
(A) H H H H H H H
(B) H l H l H l H
(C) H H l
(D) H l l H
(E) H H H
04. If H H l is added to H l H H, the sum will be
(A) H H H H H
(B) H l l l H (C) H H l l H
(D) H l l H H (E) H H H l H
05. Which of the following numbers is written as H l H l in
that code ?
(A) 8080 (B) 202 (C) 42 (D) 10 (E) 9
06. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(A) Jasmine (B) Rose (C) Dahlia (D) Marigold (E) Lotus
07. “Jackal” is related to “Carnivo-rous” in the same way
as “Goat” is related to .
(A) Omnivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Herbivorous
(D) Multivorous (E) None of these
08. If blue is called red, red is called green, green is called
black and black is called white, what is the colour of grass?
(A) Red (B) Black (C) White (D) Green
(E) None of these
09. In a certain code RAID is written as %#H$, ripe is
written as %H@.©. How is dear written in that code ?
10. “Radish” is related to “Root” in the same way as
“Brinjal” is related to .
(A) Fruit (B) Stem (C) Flower (D) Root (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 11-15) Each of the questions below consists
of a question and two statements num-bered I and II are
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give the answers
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in State-ment I alone or in Statement
II alone are sufficient
Question Bank
Haja Peer Mohamed H [hajapeermohamedh@msn.com] Page 5 ‐15
05. Which of the following numbers is written as H l H l in
that code ?
(A) 8080 (B) 202 (C) 42 (D) 10 (E) 9
06. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(A) Jasmine (B) Rose (C) Dahlia (D) Marigold (E) Lotus
07. “Jackal” is related to “Carnivo-rous” in the same way
as “Goat” is related to .
(A) Omnivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Herbivorous
(D) Multivorous (E) None of these
08. If blue is called red, red is called green, green is called
black and black is called white, what is the colour of grass?
(A) Red (B) Black (C) White (D) Green
(E) None of these
09. In a certain code RAID is written as %#H$, ripe is
written as %H@.©. How is dear written in that code ?
10. “Radish” is related to “Root” in the same way as
“Brinjal” is related to .
(A) Fruit (B) Stem (C) Flower (D) Root (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 11-15) Each of the questions below consists
of a question and two statements num-bered I and II are
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give the answers
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in State-ment I alone or in Statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data even in both the Statements I and II are not
sufficient to answer the ques-tion.
(E) If the data in both the State-ments I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
11. How many children are there in the group ?
I. Sangita has scored more marks than 12 children in the
group.
II. Reena has scored less than Sangita.
12. What is the value of 36$4H8 ?
I. P$Q means divide P by Q.
II. AHB means multiply A by B.
13. What is Samir”s rank from the top in the class of 30
students ?
I. Sudhir, who is four ranks above Samir, is fifteenth in
rank from the bottom.
II. Samir is three ranks below Neeta who is eighteenth
from the bottom.
14. Who among L, N, F, G and Q was the first to reach the
college ?
I. F reached before L and G but not before Q who was not
the first to reach.
II. N reached before F and G and L reached after F.
15. In the code language what is the code for “fat” ?
I. In the code language “she is fat” is written as “he ra ca”.
II. In the same code language “fat boy” is written as “ra
ka”.
Directions(Q. 16-20) Below in each question are given two
state-ments (a) and (b). These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent
causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be
the effect of the other statement. Read both the state-ments
and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its
effect.
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its
effect.
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent
causes.
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent
causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some
common cause.
16. (a) Large number of primary schools in the villages in
the district are closed down this year.
(b) Severe draught situation gripped the state resulting into
acute shortage of drink-ing water.
17. (a) Govt. has imposed a strict ban on use of plastics all
over the state.
(b) All the small scale units producing plastic products are
on the verge of closure.
18. (a) Police had launched a crack-down on all the
criminal activities in the locality last month.
(b) There has been a significant decline in the cases of
criminal activities in the locality.
19. (a) Large number of devotees visited the shrine on
Satur-day.
(b) Every Saturday special prayers are offered.
20. (a) The Village Panchayats in the state are empowered
by the Govt. to settle cases of land disputes in the villages.
(b) There has been significant reduction in the number of
criminal cases in the district court.
Directions(Q. 21-25) Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Digits in the numbers are to be codes as follows
Digit : 3 5 7 2 4 6 1 8 9
Code : F K R L D T G H B
Following conditions are to be applied
i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd, both are
to be coded as X.
(ii) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, both
are to be coded as A.
(iii) If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both
are to be coded as the code for last digit.
(iv) If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are
to be coded as the code for the first digit.
Applying above conditions you have to find out the correct
code for the letter in each question and indicate your
answer accordingly. If none of the codes is correct, (E) i.e.
None of these is your answer.
21. 364289
(A) BTDLHB (B) FTDLHB (C) FTDLHF
(D) BTDLHF (E) None of these
22. 521437
(A) KLGDFK (B) RLGDFR
(C) KLGDFR (D) KLDGFK (E) None of these
23. 392648
(A) ALBTDA (B) XBLTDA
(C) XBLTDX (D) ABLTDA (E) None of these
24. 279654
(A) LRBTKD (B) LRBTKL (C) DRBTKL (D) DRTBKD
(E) None of these
25. 725638
(A) ALKTFH (B) ALKTFA (C) XLKTFX
(D) XLKTFH (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 26-33) In the following questions the
symbols @, #, $, % and & are used with different
meanings as follows
“P @ Q” means “P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q”.
“P # Q” means “P is not greater than Q”.
“P $ Q” means “P is not smaller than Q”.
“P % Q” means “P is neither greater than nor smaller than
Q”.
“P & Q” means “P is neither greater than nor equal to Q”.
In each of the following ques-tions assuming the given
statements to be true, find out which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely
true. Give the answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or con-clusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
26. Statements : G # H, H $ K, K @ M
Conclusions :
I. M # G
II. G & M
27. Statements :F $ D, H # M, M % D
Conclusions :
I. F $ H
II. F @ H
28. Statements : R & M, M # L, L $ Q
Conclusions :
I. M % Q
II. M @ Q
29. Statements :F # R, Q $ R, Q & M
Conclusions :
I. F # Q
II. R & M
30. Statements :D & T, R # T, R $ M
Conclusions :
I. M & T
II. M % T
31. Statements :E % H, H $ M, M # Q
Conclusions
I. H $ Q
II. E $ M
32. Statements :S # A, S @ T, L & T
Conclusions :
I. L & A
II. S @ L
33. Statements :G $ J, J @ K, K % N
Conclusions :
I. G @ N
II. G % N
Directions(Q. 34-40) These questions are based on the
following arrangement of numerals, symbols and letters.
W T D I 5 M K % L $ 3 7 F E B # 1 G H A .© @ J U V 2 4
34. How many such symbols are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a
numeral and also immediately preceded by a letter ?
(A) None (B) Two (C) Three (D) One (E) None of these
35. If KL : $7 then B1 : ?
(A) GA (B) H.© (C) GH (D) .©J (E) None of these
36. If all the vowels are dropped from the arrangement,
which element will be fifth to the right of the thirteenth
element from the right ?
(A) H (B) G (C) A (D) 1 (E) None of these
37. If the first ten elements in the arrangement are
reversed, which element will be third to the left of eleventh
element from the left ?
(A) D (B) % (C) K (D) I (E) None of these
38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on
the basis of their position in the above arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group ?
(A) D5W (B) L3K (C) E#7 (D) H.©G (E) U2@
39. How many such vowels are there in the above
arrangement which are immediately preceded as well as
immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
(E) None of these
40. Which element is exactly mid-way between the eighth
element from the left and the tenth ele-ment from the right
?
(A) E (B) 7 (C) B (D) # (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 41-45) Given an input, a coding machine
generates pass-codes for six batches every day as follows
Input the shopkeeper offered dis-count to customers Passcode
for :
Batch I customer the shopkeeper offered discount to
Batch II customer discount the shopkeeper offered to
Batch III customer discount offered the shopkeeper to and
so on until the arrangement is completed.
After the arrangement is com-pleted the next batch gets the
same code as that for Batch I.
Duration of each batch is 1 hour. There is a break of one
hour after the fourth batch. Sixth batch is the last batch.
Now answer the following questions
41. If the pass-code for the second batch is do lean window
out of not, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch ?
(A) do lean of not out window
(B) do lean of out not window
(C) do lean not out window of
(D) do lean not of window out
(E) None of these
42. If the input is
please do not delay the matter, what will be the pass-code
for third batch ?
(A) do please not delay the matter
(B) delay do matter please not the
(C) delay do matter not please the
(D) delay do matter not the please (E) None of these
43. If the pass-code for third batch is brisk every for
morning go walk, what will definitely be the input ?
(A) morning brisk go walk for every
(B) morning go brisk walk for every
(C) morning go walk brisk for every
(D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
44. If the pass-code for the second batch is children for not
is good watching television, what will be the pass-code for
the fifth batch ?
(A) children for good not is watching television
(B) children for good is not wat-ching television
(C) children good for is not tele-vision watching
(D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
45. If the input is necessary arrange-ments have already
been made, how many batches are required to complete the
arrangement ?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 46-55) Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below. An
organization wants to recruit System Analysts. The
following con-ditions apply.
The candidate must
(i) be an engineering graduate in Computer/IT with at least
60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of Computer at
least for 2 years after acquiring the requi-site qualification.
(iii) have completed minimum 25 years and maximum 30
years of age as on 1.12.2005.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs. 50,000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.
However, if a candidate fulfills all other conditions except
(a) At (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65%
or more marks the case is to be referred to the General
Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) At (iv) above, but has an experience of at least 5 years
as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.
In each question below, detailed information of candidate
is given. You have to carefully study the infor-mation
provided in each case and take one of the following
courses of actions based on the information and the
conditions given above. You are not to assume anything
other than the information povided in each ques-tion. All
these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2005. You have to
indicate your decision by marking answers to each
question as follows.
Mark answer-
(A) If the case is to be referred to VP.
(B) If the case is to be referred to GM.
(C) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision.
(D) If the candidate is to be selected.
(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.
46. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at
graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a
Software Engineer for last 3 years after complet- ing
engineering degree and has completed 27 years of age. She
is willing to sign the bond of Rs. 50,000.
47. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and
there- after is working as a Software Manager for past 6
years. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67%
marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December
1976. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs. 50,000.
48. Ramkumar is an engineering graduate in Computers
with 78% marks passed out in 1999 at the age of 23 years.
Since then he is working as a Software Manager in an
engineering firm. He doesn”t want to sign the bond for Rs.
50,000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.
49. Nishant is an Electronics Engi-neer passed out in June
2002 at the age of 22 years. Since then he is working as a
Programmer in a software company. He has pas-sed the
selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the
bond.
50. Kalyani is an engineer with 72% marks in
Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 years of
age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She
is willing to sign the bond.
51. Sangita is an IT Engineer and is working as an EDP
Officer in a bank for past 5 years. She has completed 28
years of age and is willing to sign the bond of Rs. 50,000.
She has obtained 65% marks in the selection test.
52. Abhijit is a Computer Engineer with 65% marks passed
out in 2001 at the age of 22 years. Since then he is working
as a Software Engineer, in a private firm. He is willing to
sign the bond for the required amount. He has secured 63%
marks in selection test.
53. Giridhar is working as a Soft-ware Engineer in a
reputed com-pany for past 4 years after com-pleting
Computer Engineering with 68% marks. He has cleared the
selection test with 75% marks and is willing to sign the
bond. His date of birth is December 17, 1978.
54. Nikita has just completed 26 years of age. She has
passed IT Engineering examination in 2002 with 66%
marks and is working as a Sr. Programmer since then. She
has no problem in signing the bond of Rs. 50,000. She has
secured 53% marks in selection test.
55. Mr. Rajan is working as a Programmer for the last 6
years in an engineering firm after pas-sing engineering
examination. He has passed Electronics Engi-neering with
76% marks. His date of birth is 16.05.78. He has cleared
the selection test with 62% marks and is willing to sign the
bond for Rs. 50,000.
Directions(Q. 56-60) Study the following information to
answer these questions.
Seven Professors A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in
evaluation of answer papers in three different subjects
English, Mathematics and History. At least two persons
evaluate the papers in each subject. Each of the evaluators
stay in different buildings P, Q, R, S, T, V & W not
necessarily in the same order. A evaluates English papers
only with E and stays in building R. D stays in building W
and does not evaluate Maths papers. The one who stays in
building V evaluates History papers. B and C do not
evaluate the papers in the same subject. Those who
evaluate English papers do not stay in building Q. F stays
in building P but does not evaluate History papers. G
evaluates same papers as F. C stays in building T.
56. Who stays in building V ?
(A) E (B) F (C) G (D) B (E) None of these
57. Which of the following combina-tions of subject,
person and buildings is definitely correct ?
(A) Maths F-Q (B) Maths G-Q (C) History D-T
(D) History E-S (E) None of these
58. Which of the following groups of persons evaluate the
Mathema-tics paper ?
(A) CF (B) EFG (C) CFG (D) FG (E) None of these
59. Papers in which subject are evaluated by D ?
(A) History (B) Maths (C) English
(D) English or Mathematics
(E) History or Mathematics
60. E stays in which building ?
(A) P (B) Q (C) T
(D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 61-65) In each question given below, use the
follow-ing notations
“A ] B” means “Add A to B”, “A I B” means “Subtract B
from A”, “A $ B” means “Multiply A by B”, and “A @ B”
means “Divide A by B”.
61. Profit percentage is computed by using the following
method. Cost Price (C) is subtracted from the Sale Price
(S) and the difference is multiplied by 100 and the product
is then divided by Cost Price (C).Which of the following
expres-sions indicates the profit percen-tage ?
(A) (CIS) $ 100 @ C (B) (SIC) $ 100 @ C
(C) (SIC) @ 100 @ C
(D) CIS $ 100 ] C (E) None of these
62. IQ is worked out by dividing mental age (MA) of a
person by his chronological age (CA) and the quotient so
obtained is multiplied by 100. Which of the following
expressions
indicates the IQ of a person ?
(A) MA $ 100 @ CA
(B) MA $ CA @ 100
(C) CA $ MA ] 100
(D) MA $ CAI 100 (E) None of these
63. The percentage increase in pro-duction in a particular
year over that of its previous year is com-puted by dividing
the difference between production of the two years (P1 and
P2) by the pro-duction in the previous year (P1), and
multiplying the quotient so obtained by 100. Which of the
following expressions indicate the percentage increase in
pro-duction in the particular year over its previous year ?
(A) P2 I P1 @ 100 $ P1 (B) P1 I P2 $ P1 @ 100
(C) (P2 I P1) @ P1 @ 100
(D) P2 I P1 $ P1 @ 100 (E) None of these
64. The average salary of the Mana-gers is computed by
the follow-ing method
(i) The average salary (A) is multiplied by the Grand
Number (GN),
(ii) The average salary of other employees (AE) is multiplied
by number of emplo-yees (N),
(iii) (ii) is subtracted from (i), and
(iv) The difference so obtained is divided by the number of
Managers (NM).
Which of the following expres-sions indicates the average
salary of the Managers ?
(A) A $ GN I (AE $ N @ NM)
(B) A $ GN ] (AE $ N @ NM)
(C) GN I AE @ N @ NM
(D) (GN $ A I AE $ N) @ NM (E) None of these
65. For earthquake relief fund, each employee of a
company had con-tributed an amount equal to the total
number of employees (N) in the company. To this amount
was added the contribution made by 10 Directors, each of
whom had paid Rs. 100 more than what each employee
had paid. Which of the following expressions indi-cate the
total contribution made by the company ?
(A) N ] N $ 10 @ (N ] 100)
(B) N $ N ] 10 $ (100 ] N)
(C) N $ N @ 10 $ (N I 100)
(D) N $ N ] 10 $ (100 $ N) (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 66-68) Study the following information
carefully to answer these questions
Seven executives A, B, C, D, E, F and G from a company
have to visit seven different places Ahmedabad, Kolkata,
Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Jaipur to
market their newly launched product. The order of persons
and cities may not be necessarily the same. Each one flies
by a different airline Spicejet, King-fisher, Sahara, Jet, Air
Deccan, Indian Airlines, Air India, not necessary in the
same order. C goes to Kolkata but not by Sahara or Jet
Airlines. D flies by Air India to Bangalore. The one who
goes to Jaipur does not travel by Air Deccan or Sahara. E
travels by Air Deccan. A does not go to Ahmeda-bad. F
travels to Hyderabad by Spice jet. B goes to Chennai by
Kingfisher. E does not go to Ahmedabad. G does not go to
Jaipur.
66. Who travels by Sahara Airlines ?
(A) A (B) C (C) G
(D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
67. Who goes to Jaipur ?
(A) A (B) E (C) G (D) D (E) None of these
68. The one who travels by Air Deccan, visits which place?
(A) Ahmedabad (B) Delhi
(C) Chennai (D) Bangalore (E) None of these
Directions(Q. 69-75) Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions
A word and number arrange-ment machine when given an
input line of words and numbers rear-ranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrange-ment
Input day case 20 13 now for 49 56
Step I 13 day case 20 now for 49 56
Step II 13 now day case 20 for 49 56
Step III 13 now 20 day case for 49 56
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Step IV 13 now 20 for day case 49 56
Step V 13 now 20 for 49 day case 56
Step VI 13 now 20 for 49 day 56 case
and Step VI is the last step As per the rules followed in the
above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate Step for the given input.
69. Input : yes 21 far 32 17 12 wide goal Which of the
following will be Step V of the above input ?
(A) 12 yes 21 wide 32 far 17 goal
(B) 12 yes 21 wide far 32 17 goal
(C) 12 yes 21 far 32 17 wide goal
(D) There will be no such step (E) None of these
70. Step IV of an input is : 17 hotel 29 father 83 76 door
eye. Which of the following will be Step VII ?
(A) 17 hotel 29 father 76 door 83 age
(B) 17 hotel 29 father 76 age 83 door
(C) 17 hotel 29 father 76 83 door age
(D) There will be no such step (E) None of these
71. Step III of an input is : 25 win 32 85 73 tax break
home. How many more steps will be required to complete
the rearrangement ?
(A) Five (B) Four (C) Six (D) Seven (E) None of these
72. Step III of an input is : 37 yellow 42 61 53 violet green
red. How many more steps will be requi-red to complete
the rearrange-ment ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) None of these
73. Input : can you go there 22 36 13 46.
How many steps will be required to complete the
rearrangement ?
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 5 (E) None of these
74. Input : 42 36 go and come back 20 15
Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
(A) IV (B) V (C) VII (D) VIII (E) None of these
75. Step II of an input is : 39 sure 72 63 height over 42
lamp. Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(A) height 39 sure 72 63 over 42 lamp
(B) 72 63 39 sure height over 42 lamp
(C) 63 39 sure 72 height over 42 lamp
(D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
ANSWER SHEET : Andhra Bank Special Off Exam
1. (A) H H H Þ (4 + 2 + 1) = 7
H H Þ (2 + 1) = 3
(H H H) .´ (H H)
= 7 .´ 3 = 21
= (16 + 0 + 4 + 0 + 1) = H l H l H
2. (C) 20% of 45 = 9
= (8 + 0 + 0 + 1) = H l l H
03. (E) 7 = 4 + 2 + 1 = H H H
04. (B) (H H l) + (H l H H)
= (4 + 2 + 0) + (8 + 0 + 2 + 1)
= 6 + 11 = 17
= (16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1) = H l l l H
05. (D) H l H l Þ (8 + 0 + 2 + 0) = 10
06. (E) Only lotus is a water flower.
07. (C) As “Jackal” is “Carnivorous” in the same way
“Goat” is a “Herbi-vorous”.
08. (B) The colour of “Grass” is “green” and “green” is
called “black”. Hence the colour of “Grass” is black.
09. (D) R A I D Þ % # H $
and R I P E Þ % H @ .©
D E A R Þ $ .© # %
10. (A) As “Radish” is related to “Root” in the same way
“Brinjal” is related to “Fruit”.
11. (D) The data even in both the statements I and II are
not sufficient to answer the question.
12. (E) From I and II,
36 $ 4 H 8 = 36 ÷ 4 .´ 8 = 8 = 72
13. (C) From I,
15 + l l l l l + 10
Sudhir Samir
Samir”s rank from the top is 20th.
From II, 12 + l l l l + 14
Neeta Samir
Samir”s rank from the top is 16th.
14. (A) From I, N > Q > F > L, G
Hence N was the first to reach the college.
From II, N > F, G
and F > L
There is no any information regarding Q.
15. (E) From I,
“she is fat” .® “he ra ca”
From II, “fat boy” .® “ra ka”
From I and II,
“fat” .® ra
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (E) 25. (B)
26. (D) G # H Þ G ≤ H
H $ K Þ H ≥ K
and K @ M Þ K > M
G≤H≥K>M
I. M # G Þ M ≤ G (False)
II. G & M Þ G <>
27. (A) F $ D Þ F ≥ D H # M Þ H ≤ M and M % D Þ
M = D \ F ≥ D = M ≥ H I. F $ H Þ F ≥ H (True) II. F @ H
Þ F > H (False)
28. (D) R & M Þ R < m =" Q"> Q (False)
29. (E) F # R Þ F ≤ R
Q $ R Þ Q ≥ R
and Q & M Þ Q <>
30. (C) D & T Þ D < m =" T">
31. (B) E % H Þ E = H H $ M Þ H ≥ M and M # Q Þ
M ≤ Q \ E = H ≥ M ≤ Q I. H $ Q Þ H ≥ Q (False) II. E $
M Þ E ≥ M (True)
32. (E) S # A Þ S ≤ A S @ T Þ S > T
and L & T Þ L <> L (True)
33. (A) G $ J Þ G ≥ J
J @ K Þ J > K
and K % N Þ K = N
G≥J>K=N
I. G @ N Þ G > N (True)
II. G % N Þ G = N (False)
34. (B) L $ 3 and B # 1
35. (A)
36. (B) After dropping all the vowels we get,
Here 13th element from the right is 7 and fifth element to
the right of 7 is G.
37. (A) On reversing the first ten elements we get,
11th element from the left is “3” and the third element to
the left of “3” is “D”.
38. (D)
39. (C) F E B and J U V
40. (E) 8th element from the left is “%” and 10th element
from the right is G. The element exactly midway betwe'en
“%” and “G” is “F”.
41. (D) Batch II do lean window out of not
Batch III do lean not win-dow out of
Batch IV do lean not of window out
42. (B) Input please do not delay the matter
Batch I delay please do not the matter
Batch II delay do please not the matter
Batch III delay do matter please not the
43. (D)
44. (E) Batch II children for not is good watching
television
Batch III children for good not is watching television
Batch IV children for good is not watching television
Batch V children for good is not television watching
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45. (C) Input necessary arrangements
have already been made
Batch I already necessary arrangements have been made
Batch II already arrange-ments necessary have been made
Batch III already arrange-ments been neces-sary have
made
Batch IV already arrange-ments been have necessary made
Batch V already arrange-ments been have made necessary
This is the last batch.
46. (D) Ms. Suneeta fulfils all the conditions. Hence she is
to be selected.
47. (A) Rakesh Rao fulfils all the conditions except (iv) but
he has been working as a software manager for the last 6
years so according to (b) his case is to be referred to V.P.
48. (A) Ram Kumar fulfils all the conditions except (iv)
but he has been working as a software manager for the last
6 years so according to (b) his case is to be referred to V.P.
49. (C) Since the marks obtained by Nishant in graduation
are not given. So the data provided is not sufficient to take
a decision.
50. (E) Kalyani is a Telecommuni-cation engineer. Hence
she is not to be selected.
51. (C) The marks of graduation is not given. So data is
inadequate to take the decision.
52. (D) Abhijit fulfils all the condi-tions. Hence he is to be
selected.
53. (D) Giridhar fulfils all the condi-tions. Hence he is to
be selected.
54. (E) Nikita does not fulfil the condition V. Hence she is
not to be selected.
55. (B) Mr. Rajan does not fulfil the condition (i) But he
passed the Electronics Engineering will more than 65%.
Hence according to (a) his case is to be referred to G.M.
56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (E)
61. (B) 62. (E) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B)
69. (E) Input yes 21 far 32 17 12 wide goal
Step I 12 yes 21 far 32 17 wide goal
Step II 12 yes 17 21 far 32 wide goal
Step III 12 yes 17 wide 21 far 32 goal
Step IV 12 yes 17 wide 21 goal far 32
Step V 12 yes 17 wide 21 goal 32 far
70. (D) Step IV 17 hotel 29 father 83 76 door eye
Step V 17 hotel 29 father 76 83 door eye
Step VI 17 hotel 29 father 76 eye 83 door
There will be no VII step.
71. (E) Step III 25 win 32 85 73 tax break home
Step IV 25 win 32 tax 85 73 break home
Step V 25 win 32 tax 73 85 break home
Step VI 25 win 32 tax 73 home 85 break
To complete the rearrange-ment there will be 3 more steps.
72. (A) Step III 37 yellow 42 61 53 violet green red
Step IV 37 yellow 42 violet 61 53 green red
Step V 37 yellow 42 violet 53 61 green red
Step VI 37 yellow 42 violet 53 red 61 green
Hence to complete the rearrange-ment 3 more steps will be
required.
73. (A) Input can you go there 22 36 13 46
Step I 13 can you go there 22 36 46
Step II 13 you can go there 22 36 46
Step III 13 you 22 can go there 36 46
Step IV 13 you 22 there can go 36 46
Step V 13 you 22 there 36 can go 46
Step VI 13 you 22 there 36 go can 46
Step VII 13 you 22 there 36 go 46 can
Hence to complete the rearrange-ment 7 steps will be
required.
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74. (B) Input 42 36 go and come back 20 15
Step I 15 42 36 go and come back 20
Step II 15 go 42 36 and come back 20
Step III 15 go 20 42 36 and come back
Step IV 15 go 20 come 42 36 and back
Step V 15 go 20 come 36 42 and back
Step VI 15 go 20 come 36 back 42 and
The last but one step is V.
75. (D)
Haryana Gramin Bank Officer Exam 2008
1. “Food For Oil” programme running in which of the
following countries was in news recently ?
(A) Kuwait (B) Iran (C) Iraq
(D) Lebanon (E) None of these
2. The “Supreme Court of India” recently declared which
of the following proclamations unconstitutional ?
(A) Formation of an enquiry commission to probe Volcker
Reports
(B) Dissolution of Bihar Assembly
(C) Setting up another commission in place of Phukan
Commission
(D) Setting up a commission headed by an eminent
diplomat to investigate recent Bomb Blast in Delhi instead
of allowing CBI to do the same
(E) None of these
3. Which of the following is true about the recent
discussion on the tariff reduction formulae proposed at the
WTO ?
(A) India accepted the formulae presented by South Africa
as it more or less matches with the formulae presented by
it. South Africa was given the responsibility to find an
amicably acceptable solution to the same
(B) India along with several others presented a formulae
which was accepted by the USA but the EU refused to
accept it
(C) USA, Australia and EU presented a formulae which is
not acceptable to India
(D) India wishes to resign from the membership of the
WTO as it is not ready sacrifice the interests of the
agriculturists of India
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following European Countries was
recently in news as violent riots broke out there ?
(A) Italy (B) Germany (C) Spain
(D) France (E) None of these
5. Sunil Mittal is adjudged the “Business Leader of the
Year” by which of the following news paper/magazines ?
(A) Businessworld (B) Business India
(C) Economic Times (D) Business Standard
(E) None of these
6. Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann won the
“Nobel Prize-2005” for their contribution in the field of
(A) Physics (B) Economics (C) Chemistry
(D) Literature (E) None of these
]7. India, recently decided to conduct a joint air exercise
with which of the following countries ?
(The exercise was in news recently as a group of people
was not in favour of such joint ventures)
(A) Britain (B) Sri Lanka (C) China
(D) France (E) USA
8. India wants that the UN Security Council must have at
least
(A) 5 permanent members including India and China
(B) 7 permanent members including India and China
(C) 9 permanent members including India and China
(D) 11 permanent members including India and Pakistan
(E) 15 permanent members in both permanent and nonpermanent
category
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9. Which of the following states was badly hit by a killer
earthquake in October 2005 ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Punjab (C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana (E) Jammu & Kashmir
10. R. K. Surati who won four Gold Medals in a
Championship held in Pretoria recently is associated with
which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Rifle Shooting (B) Archery
(C) Power lifting (D) 400 mt. Race (E) None of these
11. Which of the following companies is not an
IT/Software company ?
(A) Infosys (B) Wipro (C) NIIT
(D) Rolex (E) All are IT/Software Companies
12. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related
term ?
(A) NPA (B) NAV (C) Liquidity
(D) NAFTA (E) IPO
13. Rahul Dravid was appointed the Captain of the Indian
Cricket Team for one day series against which of the
following ?
(1) Sri Lanka (2) South Africa (3) Australia
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3) (E) (1), (2) and (3) all
14. “Nalchik” which was recently in news, is a city in
(A) Italy (B) France (C) Germany
(D) China (E) Russia
15. Anju Bobby George won Gold Medal in 16th Asian
Atheletics Meet held recently. The meet was organized in
(A) South Korea (B) India (C) China
(D) Pakistan (E) None of these
16. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the
Central Information Commission (CIC) set up recently
under the Right to Information Act ?
(A) Sam Pitroda
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) Wajahat Habibullah
(E) None of these
17. The 13th SAARC meet was held in
(A) Dhaka (B) Kathmandu
(C) Islamabad (D) New Delhi (E) None of these
18. Who amongst the following is the author of the book
“The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes” ? (The author
is regarded a great astrophysicists of the modern times)
(A) Dr. C. V. Raman
(B) Dr. J. V. Narlikar
(C) Dr. S. Chandrashekhar
(D) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(E) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
19. Asian Junior Table Tennis Championship matches
were played recently in
(A) China (B) India (C) South Korea
(D) Singapore (E) None of these
20. Mr. Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri is the
(A) External Affairs Minister of Pakistan
(B) External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh
(C) Home Minister of Pakistan
(D) Home Minister of Bangladesh
(E) None of these
21. What is India”s position in terms of the number of
Internet users in the world ?
(A) 3rd (B) 4th (C) 5th (D) 10th
(E) None of these
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22. Which of the following countries had emerged as
World”s largest Cell phone maker ? (As per the figures
available upto April 2005)
(A) India (B) USA (C) Japan (D) China
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following schemes is being implemented
in rural areas which provides an assured employment of
100 days to a willing youth in India ?
(A) Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)
(B) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
(C) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(D) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
(E) None of these
24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book
“Doctor Zhivago” ?
(A) Maxim Gorky (B) Boris Pasternak
(C) Aldous Huxley (D) George Eliot
(E) None of these
25. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of
“Bharat Ratna” ?
(A) Pt. Ravishankar (B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan (D) Prof. Amartya Sen
(E) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
26. Justice Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal was the new Chief
Justice of
(A) Allahabad High Court (B) Mumbai High Court
(C) Delhi High Court (D) Kolkata High Court
(E) Supreme Court of India
27. Ramon Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of
the following categories ? (A) Government Service
(B) Community Leadership
(C) Journalism (D) Public Service (E) Music
28. Harold Pinter, who won the Nobel Prize for Literature,
is a citizen of
(A) China (B) Britain (C) USA (D) Russia
(E) Canada
29. Which of the following countries is not the member of
SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan (B) Maldives (C) Sri Lanka
(D) Surinam (E) All are members
30. Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion
recently, is associated with which of the following
games/sports ?
(A) Chess (B) Golf (C) Snooker
(D) Badminton (E) None of these
31. Which of the following is not an anti inflationary
measure of the Government ?
(A) Strict fiscal discipline
(B) Rationalization of Excise Duties
(C) Strengthening Public Distribution System
(D) Issuing new currency notes/coins
(E) Rationalization of Import Duties
32. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization
(WTO) is in
(A) Vienna (B) Geneva (C) New York
(D) Nebraska (E) None of these
33. “Kyat” is the monetary unit of
(A) North Korea (B) Israel (C) Indonesia
(D) Mongolia (E) Myanmar
34. Which of the following is the full form of “PPP” ?
(A) Purchase Price and Power
(B) Producer Price and Power
(C) Poverty, Production and Purchases
(D) Purchasing Power Parity (E) None of these
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35. Which of the following universities of North-East
states has now the status of a Central University ?
(A) Manipur (B) Shilong (C) Guwahati
(D) Mizoram (E) None of these
36. Who amongst the following is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Australia (B) Canada (C) Japan
(D) France (E) USA
37. “Quartz”, which is used in ornaments or in industries,
is a crystal containing
(A) Silicon Dioxide (B) Platinum Dioxide
(C) Silver Chloride (D) Fluoro Carbon
(E) None of these
38. A farmer engaged in Organic Farming will never use
which of the following manures ?
(A) Compost (B) Sewage Sludge
(C) Cow dung (D) Urea (E) None of these
39. Which of the following is a Cricket related term ?
(A) Push in (B) Scissor Kick (C) Hook
(D) Smash (E) Dribble
40. Nirmal Verma who died recently was a famous
(A) Painter (B) Classical singer (C) Author
(D) Politician (E) Social Worker
41. Which of the following is not a Banking/Finance
related term ?
(A) Current Account (B) Pay Order (C) Par Value
(D) Short Position (E) Infringement
42. Which of the following awards is given for excellence
in the area of music ?
(A) Saraswati Samman (B) Tansen Samman
(C) Vyas Samman (D) Borlaugh Award
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following is a major jute producing state?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Karnataka (D) Kerala (E) West Bengal
44. The study of the origin of universe is known as
(A) Cosmology (B) Chronology (C) Geology
(D) Orography (E) None of these
45. “Radcliffe Line” divides the borders of
(A) India-China (B) China-Russia
(C) Russia-Afghanistan (D) Pakistan-Afghanistan
(E) India-Pakistan
46. Which of the following is the currency of Saudi
Arabia?
(A) Taka (B) Rial (C) Baht
(D) Ruble (E) None of these
47. Which of the following is a book written by Dr. A.P.J.
Abdul Kalam ?
(A) Wings of Fire (B) The Transparent Mind
(C) A Brief History of Time (D) Indian Modernity
(E) None of these
48. The RBI revised the Reverse Repo Rate recently by 25
basis points. The present rate is
(A) 4% (B) 4.25% (C) 5%
(D) 5.25% (E) 6.00%
49. Which of the following is not a famous “Tiger
Reserve” in India ?
(A) Sunderbans (B) Kaziranga (C) Sariska
(D) Kanha (E) None of these
50. “Subroto Cup” is associated with which of the
following games/sports ?
(A) Football (B) Hockey (C) Badminton
(D) Cricket (E) None of these
Answers with Explanation
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (C) Sunil Bharti Mittal is adjudged the “Business Leader
of the Award” by the Economic Times news paper in the
year 2005.
6. (B)The Nobel Prize winners in Economics in the field of
“Game Theory Analysis” in the year 2005 were Thomas C.
Schelling and Robert J. Aumann (Jointly).
7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (E) 14. (E)
15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A)18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (E) 21. (C) 22.
(D) 23. (E) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (B) 29. (D)
30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37.
(A)
38. (D) For Organic Farming, fertilizer”s use is restricted
like Urea, DAP, MOP etc. Only organic
sourcesconventional / FYM, Compost etc. and nonconventional
organic sources like sewage, Municipal
Waste, Press mud, coir pith etc. are being used.
39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46.
(B) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (B) 50. (A)
ALLIGATION
1. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper 9 times. in what ratio should these metals be
mixed so that the mixture may be 15 times as heavy as water? ans:3:2
2. how much chicory at Rs 4 / kg should be added to 15 kg of tea at Rs 10/kg,so that the mixture
be worth Rs 6.50/kg?ans:Rs 21 kg of chicory
3. a mixture of 40 ltrs of milk and water contains 10% water. how much water must be added to
make water 20% in the new mixture?ans:5 ltrs
4. a man has 30000 rupees to lend on loan. he lent some of his capital to mohan at an interest
rate of 12% per annum. at the end of one year he got 17% of his capital as interest. how much
did he lend to mohan?ans:Rs 18750/‐
5. a vessel of 80ltrs is filled with milk and water. 70% of milk and 30% of water is taken out of the
vessel.it is found that the vessel is vacated by 55%. find the initial quantity of milk and
water?ans:50 ltrs
6. a man has 60 pens. he sells some of these at a profit of 12% and the rest at 8% loss. on the
whole, he gets a profit of 11%.how many pens were sold at 12% profit and how many at 8%
loss?ans:19:1
7. the ratio of milk and water in 66 kg of adulterated milk is 5:1. water is added to it to make the
ratio 5:3. the quantity of water added is?ans:22 ltrs
8. a dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water and
thereby gains 25%. the percentage of water in the mixture is?ans:25%
9. a sum of Rs 41 was divided among 50 boys and girls. each boy gets 90 paise and each girl 65
paise. the number of boys is?ans:34
10.a can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in proportion 7:5. when 9 ltrs of mixture are drawn
off and the can is filled with B the proportion of A and B becomes 7:9. how many litres of liquid A was
contained by the can initially?ans:36 ltrs
HCF AND LCM
1. Find the greatest weight which can be contained exactly in 1 kg 235 gm and 3 kg 430 gm?ans:5
gm
2. find the HCF of 54, 3 9 and 36 ? ans: 6
9 17 51 17
3.what is greatest number that will divide 2400 and 1810 and leave remainders 6 and 4
respectively?ans:42
4.find the greatest no. which will divide 410,751 and 1030 so as to leave remainder 7 in each
case?ans: 31
5. the product of two numbers is 7168 and their HCF is 16.find the numbers?ans:448,16 or 112,64
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6.find the least number which when divided by 18, 24, 30 and 42, will leave in each case the same
remainder 1? ans:2521
7.find the least number which when divided by 2,3,4,5,6 leaves in each case a remainder of 1,but
when divided by 7 leaves no remainder?ans:301
8.find the sum of numbers between 300 and 400 such that when they are divided by 6,9 and 12 , it
leaves no remainder.?ans:1080
simple interest&compound interest
1. in what time will Rs 390625 amount to Rs 456976 at 4% compound interest? ans:4 yrs
2. a sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 yrs. in how many yrs will it
amount to eight times itself? ans: 12 yrs
3. find the least number of complete yrs in which a sum of money at 20% CI will be more than
doubled?ans 4 yrs
4. if CI on a certain sum for 2 yrs at 3% be Rs 101.50, what would be the SI?Rs 100
5. the difference between the CI and the SI on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 yrs
is Rs 1.50. find the sum? ans:Rs 600
6. find the difference between the CI and the SI for the sum Rs 1500 at 10% per annum for 2
yrs?ans:Rs 15
7. if the compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 yrs at 5% is Rs 246, find the SI at the
same rate for the same time?ans: Rs240
8. find the simple interest on Rs 306.25 from march 3 to july27 at 3.75% per annum? ans:Rs 4.59
nearly
9. what annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs 770 due in 5 yrs, the rate of interest (si) being
5% per annum?ans:Rs 140
10.a certain sum of money amounts to Rs 756 in two yrs and to Rs 873 in 3.5 yrs.find the sum and
the rate of interest.?ans:13% per annum
ratio and proportion
1. if 0.7 of one number be equal to 0.075 of another, what is the ratio of the two
numbers?ans:3:28
2. two sums of money are proportional to 8:9. if the first is Rs 20, what is the
other?ans:Rs22.50
3. calculate the 4th proportional to the number 490,70,69?ans:60/7
4. divide Rs 324.36 into three parts in the proportion of 5:6:7?ans:90.10,108.12,126.14
5. if 30 men do a piece of work in 27 days, in what time can 18 men do anotherpiece of work
3 times as great?ans:135 days
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6. if 1000 copies of a book of sheets require 26 reams of paper , how much paper is required
for 5000 copies of a book of 17 sheets? ans:170 reams
7. an employee reduces the no. of his employees in the ratio 9:8 and increases their wages in
the ratio 14:15. state whether his bill of total wages increaes or decreases, and in what
ratio?ans:decrease in bill,21:20
8. what must be added to two numbers that are in ratio 3:4. so that they become in the ratio
4:5? ans:1
9. the speed of three cars are in the ratio 2:3:4. what is the ratio among the times taken by
these cars to travel the same distance?ans:1/2:1/3:1/4 or,6:4:3
PROFIT AND LOSS
1. man buys a shirt and a trouser for Rs 371. if the trouser costs 12% more than the shirt,find
the cost of the shirt?ans.Rs 175
2. if by selling 2 items for Rs 180 each the shopkeeper gains 20% on one and loses 20% on the
other, find the value of the loss?ans:Rs15
3. by selling 15 mangoes a fruit vendor covers the cost price of 20 mangoes. find the profit
percentage?ans.33.33%
4. a manufacturer makes a profit of 15% by selling a colour TV for Rs6900. if the cost of
manufacturing increases by 30% and the price paid by the retailer is increased by 20%, find
the profit percent made by the manufacturer?ans 6.15%
5. find a single discount to equal three consecutive discount of 10%, 12% and 5%? ans 24.76%
6. ashok bought an article and spent Rs 110 on its repair. he then sold it to bhushan at a profit
of 20%. bhushan sold it to charan at a loss of 10%. charan finally sold it for Rs 1188 at a
profit of 10%. find the cost price that ashok had to pay?ans Rs 890
7. oranges are bought at 12 for a rupee and are sold at 10 for a rupee. find the percentage
profit or loss?ans 20%
8. a digital diary is sold for Rs 935 at a profit of 10%.what would have been the actual profit or
loss on it, if he had sold his goods for Rs 810?ans:
9. a trader allows discount of 5% for cash payment. how much percent above the cost price
must he mark his goods to make a profit of 10%? ans. Rs115.59
Numerical Ability:
1)723.870 ‐ ? = 251.36 +450.478
a. 22.032 b.23.032 c.22.132 d.none of these
2)35% of 80 = 56
?
a.2 b.2/3 c.1/2 d.0.57 e. none of these

3)(11)2 ‐ (1.1)2 ‐ (0.11)2 = ?


a. 119.7779 b. 121 c.119.79 d.119.8021 e. none of these
4)60+5*12 /(180 / 3 ) = ?
a.60 b. 120 c.13 d.61 e. none of these
5)49% of 490 + 490% of 49 = ?
a.2641.1 b.240.1 c.2401 d.480.2 e. none of these
6)8.36 *4.35 +8.0004 = ?
a.44.37 b.44.3664 c.43.5304 d.42.3664 e.none of these
7)19.24/4 = ?
√169 *74
a.0.005 b.0.002 c.0.0002 d.0.00002
8)3/4 ‐ 1/2 ‐ 1/6 ‐ 1/3 is equal to
a.1 b.1/8 c.2 d.1/12 e.(‐1/4)
9)Which is the smallest fraction?5/6, 3/8, 2/3 ,3/4
a.5/6 b.3/8 c.3/4 d.2/3
10)0.55*0.55+2*0.55*0.45+0.45*0.45/ 0.55+0.45
a 2 b 0.25 c.0.2 d. 1{hint a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a+b)(a+b)}
TIME & WORK
Q1) 'A' can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. In how many days the
work will be done them together?
Ans ‐ A & B whole work can do = 6 days
Q2)If 'm' men working 'm' hours a day for for 'm' days can produce 'm' units of work,then the units of
work produced by 'n' men working 'n' hrs a day for 'n' days is
Ans ‐ n3 /m2
Q3)3 men can do as much work on 5 women or 10 children. If 40 children can do a piece of work in 7
days , then 6 men , 5 women and 5 children can do the same work in:
Ans ‐ a)7 days b)8 days c)9days d)12days e)none
Q4)A tap can fill a tank in 9 min,another can fill it in 18 min and a third one can empty at in 12 min.
How long does it take to fill the tank if all are open.
a)15mts b)18 mts c)24mts d)36mts e)none {ans 12mts}
Q5)A and b can do a piece of work in 12 days.B and c can do it in 15 days .C and A can do it in 20
days.They all worked for 6 days and then A and C left.In how many days B can finish the balance of
work.
a)8days b)9days c)10days d)12days
Q6)A contractor undertakes to do a piece of work in 40 days.He engages 100 men and after 35 days ,an
additional 100 men,and completes the work.How many days behind schedule would he has been ,if he
not engaged the additional men?
a)5 b) 8 c) 12 d)18 e)data is insufficient
Q7)In a day A does twice as much work as B and is therefore able to finish a piece of work in 60 days
less than B.In what would A and b working together can finish the work?
a)20days b)25days c)30days d)40days e)60days
Q8)20men can do a work in 18 days. How many men are required to finish 3/4 of the work in 15 days?
a)10 b)12 c) 18 d)20 e)none
Q9)Ramesh can do a work in 20 days.He worked alone for 10 days.Remaining work was completed with
the help of Dinesh in 2 days will the work be completed by both together?
Ans ‐ 4days
Q10)A and B together can do a work in 24 days. B alone does its 1/3 part in 12 days . How long will A
alone take to do the remaining work?
a)48 b)36 c)24 d)72 e) none of these
SPEED ,TIME AND DISTANCE
� 1 km = 5/18m/sec
� when a train crosses a man/pole,distance = length of train
� when a train crrosses a bridge/platform ,distance = length of train + length of platform
� when there are two moving bodies ,speed is to be replaced by relative speed,RS = x +y
(opposite direction)
RS = x ‐y (same direction )
Q1) A person walking at 2.5km/hr ,reaches his office 6 min late . If he walks 3.5km/hr ,he reaches there
6 min earlier.How far is the office from his house?
Ans ‐ 1 3
4
Q2)A man can swim 40km downstream in 4 hrs and the same distance upstream in 20 hrs.Find the
speed of the stream?
Ans ‐ x+y = 40/4 = 10
x ‐y = 40/20 = 2
2y = 8 ,speed of stream = 4km/hr
Q3)A passenger train 250m in length crosses a platform 350m long in 45 sec .The speed of the train will
be.
Ans ‐ 48 km/hr
Q4)A train of length 290m, is going at a speed of 30 km/hr and another train of length 210m is moving
at a speed of 20km/hr in the opposite direction .The time required by them to cross each other is
a)20sec b)24sec c)36sec d)54sec e)none
Q5)I can row 100km downstream in 5 hrs and the same distance upstream in 10 hrs.the speed of the
stream is
a)15km/hr b)10km/hr c)5km/hr d)5/2km/hr e) none
Q6)A cyclist goes at a speed of 12km/hr .He can cover 100m in
a)10sec b)20sec c)30sec d) 1min e)none
Q7)The speed of a boat in still water is 3km/hr and the speed of the stream is 2km/hr. It can cover
10km downstream on
a)10hrs b)5hrs c)3hrs d)2hrs e)none
Q8)A train moving at a speed of 50km/hr crosses a length 100m in 18 sec. Its length is :
a)100m b)120m c)150m d)180m e)none
Q9)A 150m long train crosses a man walking at the speed of 6km/hr in the opposite direction in 6
sec.The speed of the train in km/hr is
a)66 b)84 c) 96 d)106
Q10)A man can row 9 1/3km/hr in still water and he finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row
up them so as to row down the same distance in river.The speed of the current is
a)10/3km/hr b)28/9km/hr c)5/4km/hr d)14/3km/hr
MISCELLEANOUS PROBLEMS
Q1) The price of one dozen pens is Rs540. What will be the price of 319 such pens ?
Ans ‐ price of 12 pens = Rs540
price of 1 pen = 540/12
price of 319 pens = 540*319/12 = Rs 14355
Q2)A tank can be filled by 20 buckets each of capacity 13.5 lit. If the capacity of each bucket be 9lit
,how many bucket will fill the same tank?
Ans ‐ 30 buckets
Q3)Five dozen toys are packed in a box and 98 boxes are kept in tempo.How many tempoes can lift
29400 toys in one round.
a)4 b) 5 c)7 d)6 e) none of these
Q4)The ratio between the present ages of Naveen and Prabhat is 4:5. If after 5 years the ratio of the
present age of Prabhat and tha age of Prabhat at that time is 7:8 what will be the ratio between the
present age of naveen and Naveen's after 4 years?
Ans ‐ 7:8
Q5)The age of sushil 6 years ago was 3 times the age of Snehal .6 years hence the age of Sushil would
be 5/3 times that of Snehal.What is the present age of Snehal?
a)14yrs b)22yrs c)18yrs d)21yrs e)none of these
Q6)1/4th part of money of Nikhil is equal to 1/6th part of the money of Yogesh. If total sum of both is
equal to Rs 600 then , what is the difference of their money
Ans ‐ Rs120
Q7)In an office there are 114 tables and 129 chairs . If 1/6 of the tables and 1/3 of the chairs are
broken, how many people work in the office when each person requires one table and one chair?
Ans ‐ required no. of persons 86
Q8)1/5th of Gopal's expenditure is equal to 1/2 of his savings.if his monthly income is 5600 how much
amount does he save per month ?
a)Rs1350 b)1500 c)1680 d)1400 e)none of these {savings = 1600}
Formulaes:
Let 3 consecutive odd no. be y‐2 , y , y+2 respectively
total of these odd no. = 3y
Let 3 consecutive even no. be x‐2,x, x+2 respectively
total of these = 3x
Q9)The difference between the middle number of three consecutive odd numbers and the middle of
three consecutive even no is 7. What will the difference between the total of these odd no and the
total of those three even numbers?
Ans ‐ 21
Q10)The difference of two numbers of two digit each is 24 while the sum of these two no. is 102.What
is the larger no?
Ans ‐ 63
Q11)When 30% of one no. is added to another no the second no. increases by 1/5th. what is the ratio
of the first no to the second no.
a)5:6 b)3:2 c)2:3 d)1:2 e)none of these
Q12)The difference between a two digit no and the no. obtained by interchanging the digits is 45.What
is the difference between the digits of that no.?
a)4 b)5 c)6 d)7 e)none of these
Q13)If the difference between the digits of a two digit no is 3 and the product of the digits is 18, What
is the sum of the digits of that no.?
a)8 b)9 c)7 d)6 e)none of these
MISCELLANOUS PROBLEMS
Q1)Find out the wrong number in the following given sequences?
� 51 64 24 75 14.75 78.75
a)51 b)64 c)24 d)75 e)none of these
Q2)The diameter of the driving wheel of the bus is 140cm.How many
revolutions per minute must the wheel make in order to keep a speed of
132km/hr?
b)300 c)400 d)500 e)none of these
Q3)Three persons A,B, C whose salaries together amount to Rs14400, spend 80,85,75 percent of their
salaries respectively.If their savings are in the ratio 8:9:20 then find the ratio of their salaries.
a)1:2:3 b)3:2:1 c)2:3:4 d)4:3:2 e)data inadequate
Q4)How many words can be formed with the letters of the word PATLIPUTRA without changing the
relative position of vowels and consonants?
a)2160 b)3250 c)3230 d)3660 e)none of these
Q5)If the salary of a person is fprst decreased by 25% and then increased by 15%, what is % loss or gain
a)13.75%loss b)12.75%gain c)10%loss d)10%gain e)none of these
Q6) 63,45,72 litres are to be drawn from three cans respectively . What is the exact capacity of
measure which will do it most quickly?
a)9lit b)7lit c)8lit d)11lit
Q7)Three integers a, b ,c are such that b/c = 3.The fraction b/a is in its lowest form. Which of the
following is the possible value of a?
a)180 b)234 c)104 d)414
Q8)what is the least value of x, such that 85324x6 is divisible by 11?
a)2 b)3 c)1 d)6
Q9)If 3a+5b/3a‐5b =5 ,find a:b
a)2:5 b)5:2 c)3:5 d)5:3
Q10)A pressure cooker is sold for Rs1200/‐ .Sales tax amounts for 1/5th of this and profit 1/3rd of the
remainder. Find the CP.
a)Rs740 b)Rs620 c)Rs640 d)Rs560
MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS
o Train A crosses another train B in 30 sec. the length of train B is 140% of the length of train A.
the speed of train A is 72 km/h. what is the difference between the lengths of the two
trains?ans:100 m
o mr. Z spends 24% of his monthly income on food and 15% on the education of his children. he
spends 25% of the remaining salary on entertainment and 20% on conveyance. he is now left
with Rs 10376. what is the salary of mr. Z?ans:Rs 32000
o the average marks secured by Ankit in maths , science and english are 70 and that in history
and english are 60. what are his avg. marks in maths and science?ans: cannot be determined
o the difference between a 2 digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the
positions of its digits is 36. the digit at units place is 1/3rd of the digit at ten's place in the
original number. what is the original number?ans:62.
o in each of the following questions two equations I and II are given. you are required to solve
both the equations and give answers
(1) if a<b (2) if a>b (3) if a>=b (4) if a<=b
(5)if a=b
a] I. a2=4 II.4b2‐24b+1=0
ans. 1
b] I.6a2‐5a+1=0 II.20b2‐9b+1=0
ans.2
c]I.5a+7a+2=0 II. 8b+30b+25=0
ans.2
o manoj invested an amount of Rs 50000 to start a software business. after six months Madhu
joined him with an amount of Rs 80000. at the end of three years they earned a profit of Rs
24500. what is the share of Manoj in the profit?ans: Rs 10500.
o if the cost of gardening is Rs 85 per square meter then what will be the cost of gardening 1.4
metre wide strip inside around a circular field having an area of 1386 sq.m?ans.Rs 15184.40
o the ratio between the incomes of Satish and Manoj was 7:8 respectively. the income of Satish
increased by 20% and that of Manoj was decreased by 10%. what will be the new ratio
between their incomes?ans:7:6
o avg. of five consecutive odd nos. is 61. what is the difference between the highest and lowest
no.?ans:8
o the difference between a two digit no. and the no. obtained by interchanging the digits is 9.
what is the difference between the two digits of the no.?ans:1
o a circle and a rectangle have same perimeter. the sides of the rectangle are 18 cms and 26 cms.
what is the area of circle?ans:616 sq. cm.
o N number of persons decide to raise Rs 3 lacs by equal contributions from each. had they
contributed Rs 50 extra, the contribution would have been Rs 3.25 lacs. how many persons are
there?ans. 500
o the difference between a number and its three is 50.what is the number?ans. 125
o a tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. the pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice
as fast as A. how much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?ans: 35 hrs
o milk contains 5% water. what quantity of pure milk should be added to 10 ltrs of milk to reduce
this to 2%?ans 15 ltrs
o starting with the initial speed of 30 km/h, the speed is increased by 4 km/h every two hours.
how many hours will it take to cover a distance of 288 km?ans:8 hrs
o with a uniform speed, a car covers the distance in 8 hours. had the speed been increased by 4
km/h, the same distance could have been covered in 7.5 hrs. what is the distance
covered?ans.480 km
o if 2a‐b=33, b+2c=1 and a+3c=1, then what is the value of (a+b+c)? ans:34
o if 40% of a no. is equal to 3/7 of other no. and sum of these nos. is 145. which is the larger
number?ans: 75
o the area of a circular field is equal to the area of a rectangular field. the ratio of the length and
the breadth of the rectangular field is 14:11respectively and perimeter is 100 m. what is the
diameter of the circular field?ans.28 m
o in how many ways can the letters of the word CAPITAL be arranged in such a way that all the
vowels always come together?ans 360
o for what value of x the inequality 2x2+5x<3 is satisfied?ans.‐3<x<1/2
o what will come in place of the question mark(?) in the following equation‐
(185% of 240) / (? x 6)=666
ans.4
questions
1. A train runs at the rate of 45 kmph. What is its speed in metres per second?
2. Two trains start at the same time from two stations and proceed towards each other at the rates off
20 kmph and 25 kmph respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train travelled 80 km more
than the other. Find the distance between the two stations?
3. A motor car does a journey in 10 hours, the first half at 21 kmph, and the rest at 24 kmph. Find the
distance?
4. Two men start together to walk a certain distance, one at 3 ¾ km an hour and the other at 3 kmph.
The former arrives half an hour before the latter. Find the distance?
5. What is the length of the bridge which a man riding 15 kmph can cross in 5 minutes?
6. How long will a train 60 m long travelling at a speed of 40 kmph take to pass through a station whose
platform is 90 km long?
7. How many seconds will a train 60 m in length, travelling at the rate of 42 kmph, take to pass another
train 84 m long, proceeding in the same direction at the rate of 30 kmph?
8. A train takes 5 secs to pass an electric pole. If the length of the train is 120 mts, How much time will
it take to cross a railway platform the length which is 180 metres ?
9. Two trains are running in opposite directions with speeds of 62 kmph and 40 kmph respectively. If
length of one train is 250 mts and they cross each other in 18 secs. Find the length of the other train?
10. If a man's rate with the current is 12 kmph and the rate of the current is 1.5 kmph. Find the man's
rate against the current?
11. A boat goes 40 km upstream in 8 hours and 36 km downstream in 6 hours. Find the speed of the
boat in still water?
12. A can row a certain distance downstream in 6 hours and return the same distance in 9 hours. If the
stream flows at the rate of 2 ¼ kmph, find the speed of A in still water?
13. During one year, the population of a locality increases by 5% but during the next year, it decreases
by 5%. If the population at the end of the second year was 7980, find the population at the beginning of
the first year?
14. If A's salary is 25% more than that of B, then how much percent is B's salary less than that of A?
15. The number of seats in a cinema hall is increased by 25%. The price on a ticket is also increased by
10%. What is the effect on the revenue collected?
16. A candidate who gets 30% of the marks in a test fails by 50 marks. Another candidate who gets 320
marks fails by 30 marks. Find the maximum marks?
17. A man sells two watches for Rs. 99 each. On one he gained 10% and on the other he lost 10%. Find
his gain or loss percent?
18. The cost price of 16 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles. Find the gain or loss percent?
19. A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price, but allows 10% discount for cash. Find the
percentage profit?
20. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at a profit of 20% and also weighs 800 grams in place
of a kg. Find his actual gain%?
21. I sold a book at a profit of 7%. Had I sold it for Rs. 7.50 more, 22% would have been gained. Find the
cost price?
22. If goods be purchased for Rs. 450, and one‐third be sold at a loss of 10%, at what gain percent
should the remainder be sold so as to gain 20% on the whole transaction?
23. A tradesman marks his goods at 25% above his cost price and allows purchasers a discount of 12 ½
% for cash. What profit % does he make?
24. Manju sells an article to Anju at a profitof 25%. Anju sells it to Sonia at a gain of 10% and Sonia sells
to Bobby at a profit of 5%. if Sonia sells it for Rs. 231, find the cost price at which Manju bought the
article?
25. A man buys a shirt and a trouser for Rs. 371. If the trouser costs 12% more than the shirt, Find the
cost of the shirt?
26. Manish travels a certain distance by car at the rate of 12 kmph and walks back at the rate of 3kmph.
The whole journey took 5 hours. What is the distance he covered on the car?
27. Two trains A and B start simultaneously in the opposite direction from two points A and B arrive at
their destinations 9 and 4 hours respectively after their meeting each other. At what rate does the
second train B travel if the first train travels at 80 kmph?
28. A train requires 7 seconds to pass a pole while it requires 25 seconds to cross a stationary train
which is 378 mts long. Find the speed of the train?
29.A and B travel the same distance at the rate of 8 km and 10 km an hour respectively. If A takes 30
minutes longer than B, the distance travelled by B is?
2008 ICICI Bank's Probationary Officers Exam
- Aptitude Questions Question paper
1.
2. 1. In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girlsA.y/(x
+ y) B.x/xy C.x/(x + y) D.y/xy (Ans.C)
3. 2. What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4gallon
can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
A.16 B.24 C.30 D.64 (Ans.D)
1. 3. .If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a =
a^3
2. A.0 B.1 C.-1 D.4 (Ans.B)
4. A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of
a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive
grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90 B.Rs.1.00 C.Rs.3.00 D.Rs.8.00 (Ans.C)
2. 5. There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination.Among these questions are 50 mathematics
problems.It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other
question.How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36 B.72 C.60 D.100 (Ans.B)
1. 6. In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied
either.How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
2. A.0 B.3 C.4 D.5 (Ans.B)
1. 7. If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 = A.1/4 B.1/2 C.1 D.2 (Ans.C)
2. 8. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b < a (B) b > a (C) b = a (D) b >= a (Ans. A)
9. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a
phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team
have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
10. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to
contribute towards the purchase of the gift/
A. D/(M-3) B. MD/3 C. M/(D-3) D. 3D/(M2-3M) (Ans. D)
11. . A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black
would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black
begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 11 D. 12 (Ans.C)
12. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the
same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes
the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
A. 30 B. 40 C.58 D. 60 (Ans. B)
1. 13. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ? A.-5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 (Ans. D)
2. 14. There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability
of getting a red shoe (Ans 5c1/ 9c1)
3. 15. What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over
selling price is earned (Ans: Rs 66/-)
4. 16. 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to
canteen.
Ans: Cannot be determined.
5. 17. The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to
make it 100% (Ans: 42.857%)
6. 18. There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the
area of circle to square. (Ans. 11/14 )
7. 19. There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of
six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same
time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long
ago did Ramesh light the two candles . Ans: 3 hours.
8. 20. If M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?
9. 21. If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?
10. 22. If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST .
(Ans: 1:2 )
23. The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling
price ?
(Ans: Rs 13.86/- )
11. 24. There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the
probability of getting red shoes (Ans: 6c2/10c2)
12. 25. To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol.
(Ans : 15% )
13. 26. A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week.
What is the total amount paid for that worker ? (Ans : 57.50 )
14. 27. If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
(a) x b) x2 (c) –x (d) 1/x (Ans : (d) )
1. 28. If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at
40kmph what is the average speed during the journey? Ans: 48kmph
2. 29. A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students.
Find the total percentage of Bombay? (Ans: 6%)
3. 30. An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of
side 1 inch can be formed from it? (Ans: 9)
4. 31. If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ? (Ans : 9B)
5. 32. Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area
increase? (Ans : 300%)
6. 33. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front
wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance? Ans : 315 feet
7. 34. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How
many revolutions will the back wheel take? Ans: 360 times
35. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the
mixture of solution
(Ans: 36%)
8. 36. City A’s population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having
population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities
will have same population? (Ans: 130 years)
9. 37. Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph
. How much time will it take for the two cars to meet? (Ans: 3/2 hours)
10. 38. A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys
which of the following number of stamps he won’t able to buy 3 paise stamps. Ans:
11. 39. There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2
boys and 3 girls.
12. 40. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62 (b) 15/46 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 (Ans: (b))
1. 41. There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a
square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle? Ans: 1 : 2
42. Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively.How many kgs
of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quntities of
band c are equal
a)70,15,15 b)50,25,25 c)60,20,20 d)40,30,30 (Ans. (b))
2. 43. in a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age. How many
people are there
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) none of these. (Ans. (d))
44. If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of
40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ?
(a) 13 km/hr (b) 26 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr (d) none of these (Ans. A)
45. Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.075 + 0.01)
(a) 0.845 (b) 1.908 (c) 2.312 (d) 0.001 (Ans. A)
46. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work
five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ?
(a) 3 days (b) 8/9 days (c) 4 days (d) can’t say (Ans. B)
47. A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey
increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 hrs.What is the distancetravelled
(a) 210 kms (b) 30 kms (c) 20 kms (c) none of these (Ans. B)
1. 48. Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage
of error obtained ?
2. 49. Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) data insufficient (Ans. C)
1. 50. A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He
then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of liquid.What is the % of water in the new
mixture?
2. 51. If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15,
then what is the percentage of gain?
3. 52. Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 mins.If 3/4th of the tank is
filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the
tank completely ?
4. 53. If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10%
discount then what is the profit percentage.
(a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 35% (d) 30% (Ans. D)
54. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men
less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?
(a) 110 men (b) 130 men (c) 100 men (d) none of these (Ans. A)
55. In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ?
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans. C)
56. If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years will
it become 9 times itself.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (Ans A)
57. Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the
slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him. What is
the length of faster train ?
(a) 100m (b) 75m (c) 120m (d) 50m (Ans B)
58. How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each meshis 8mm
long and 5mm wide ?
(a) 2500 (b) 25000 (c) 250 (d) 250000 (Ans B)
59. x% of y is y% of ?
(a) x/y (b) 2y (c) x (d) can’t be determined Ans. C
60. The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of
sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ?
(a) 15% (b) 16.66% (c) 12% (d) 9% (Ans B)
61. A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses,
the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his
monthly salary ?
(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1500 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans C)
1. 62. The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4%
of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ?
2. 63. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and
25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.?
3. 64. 15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each
would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 29 (Ans. A)
65. A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from
the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere?
(a) 5 cms (b) 2 cms (c) 3 cms (d) 4 cms (Ans C)
1. 66. A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the
diagonal of a square shown below.(Figure is not available)What is the area of the plank? (
Ans :7*(2)1/2 )
2. 67. What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a
perfect square ?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (Ans. C)
68. A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5
years what is father’s present age ?
(a) 40 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 50 yrs (d) none of these (Ans. A)
1. 69. An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/-
the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article?
2. 70. If an item costs Rs.3 in ‘99 and Rs.203 in ‘00.What is the % increase in price?
(a) 200/3 % (b) 200/6 % (c) 100% (d) none of these (Ans. A)
1. 71. 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women
to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14
days.
a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 12 (Ans 7)
2. 72. A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of
interest?
a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 9% (Ans 8%)
_ .73. In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are —. a
student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct?
_ .a) 120 b) 130 c) 110 d) 150 (Ans130)
3. 74. An artical sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the
artical?
a) 500 b) 488 c) 480 d) 510 (Ans 500)
4. 75. A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him
from office and bring back home.One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for
driver he starts walking towards home. In the way he meets the car and returns home on
car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual. In how much time does the man reach
home usually?? (Ans. 1hr 20min)
_ .76. A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number
of days it would take to complete the work if both work together?
_ .Ans. 22½days
5. 77. How many 1’s are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3 Ans. 4
6. 78. In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements
(A B) (A)XOR(B) What is the probability of error in it ?
7. 79. A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the
game he loses Re 1.He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5.Find the
number of ways in which this is possible? (Ans. 16)
8. 80. If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million
colors. Find the memory required for this? (Ans. 4MB)
_ .81. . On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie. C asks A
whether he is speaking truth or lying? He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what
A has said B says “A says that he is a liar” What is B speaking ?(a) Truth (b) Lie (c) Truth when A
lies (d) Cannot be determined
_ .Ans. (b)
9. 82. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when time is 8:30 Ans. 75(approx)
10. 83. A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th from left. How many students are there in
totality ?
11. 84. A man walks east and turns right and then from there to his left and then 45degrees to his
right.In which direction did he go (Ans. North west)
12. 85. A student gets 70% in one subject, 80% in the other. To get an overall of 75% how much
should get in third subject.
13. 86. A man shows his friend a woman sitting in a park and says that she the daughter of my
grandmother’s only son.What is the relation between the two Ans. Daughter
14. 87. How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft
long and 6 ft wide
(a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 3456 (d) 13824 (e) 14266
88. If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/
(a) 8/27 (b) 4/9 (c) 2/3 (d) 75% (e) 4/3 Ans. (b)
89. 2598Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of
(a) 30% (b) 32% (c) 34% (d) 35% (e) 36 Ans. (b)
90. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full,
what part of the full tank was removed?
(a)g-a (b)g/a (c) a/g (d) (g-a)/a (e) (g-a)/g (Ans. (c))
ANNUAL POLICY STATEMENT : 2010-11
State of the Economy
1. GDP growth: The final real GDP growth for 2009-10 may settle between 7.2 and 7.5 per cent.
2. Industrial Production: The index of industrial production (IIP) recorded a growth of 17.6% in December 2009,
16.7% in January 2010 and 15.1% in February 2010. 14 out of 17 industry groups recorded accelerated growth
during April 2009February 2010.
3. Imports: After a continuous decline for eleven months, imports expanded by 2.6% in November 2009, 32.4% in
December 2009, 35.5% in January 2010 and 66.4% in February 2010.
4. Exports: After contracting for twelve straight months, exports have turned around since October 2009 reflecting
revival of external demand.
5. Growth in demand side components of growth: private consumption (36%), govt. consumption (14%), fixed
investments (26%), net exports (20%).
6. Inflation: (a) Headline inflation, as measured by year-on-year variation in Wholesale Price Index (WPI), 9.9% in
March 2010. (b) Year-on-year WPI non-food manufactured products (weight: 52.2%) inflation, which was (-) 0.4%
in Nov 2009, rose to 4.7% in March 2010. (c) WPI inflation is no longer driven by supply side factors alone. The
contribution of non-food items to overall WPI inflation, which was negative at (-) 0.4% in November 2009 rose
sharply to 53.3% by March 2010. (d) Consumer price index (CPI) based measures of inflation were in the range of
14.9-16.9 per cent in January/February 2010.
7. Credit Growth: Year on year Non-food credit growth was recorded at 16.9 per cent by March 2010.
8. Fiscal Deficit for 2010-11: Budgeted at 5.5% of GDP in 2010-11 as compared with 6.7% in 2009-10.
9. Revenue deficit for 2010-11: Budgeted at 4% of GDP in 2010-11 as compared with 5.3% in 2009-10
10. Current account deficit: During April-December 2009 it was US$ 30 billion as compared with US$ 28 billion for
the corresponding period of 2008.
11. Net capital inflows:at US$ 42 billion were also substantially higher than US$ 7 billion in the corresponding
period last year.
12. Forex Reserves: Foreign exchange reserves stood at US$ 279 billion as on March 31, 2010.
13. REER: The six-currency trade-based real effective exchange rate (REER) (1993-94=100) appreciated by 15.5
per cent during 2009-10 up to February as against 10.4 per cent depreciation in the corresponding period of the
previous year. Outlook and Projections
1. IMF has projected that global growth will recover from (-) 0.8 per cent in 2009 to 3.9 per cent in 2010 and further
to 4.3 per cent in 2011. Three major factors that have contributed to the improved global outlook are the massive
monetary and fiscal support, improvement in confidence and a strong recovery in Emerging Market Economies
(EMEs).
2. GDP growth for 2010-11: RBI projections for 2010-11 is placed at 8.0 per cent with an upside bias Inflation
3. Inflation: The baseline projection for WPI inflation for March 2011 is placed at 5.5 per cent. This is based on
following factors. (i) Though there are some signs of seasonal moderation in food prices, overall food inflation
continues at an elevated level. (ii) The firming up of global commodity prices poses upside risks to inflation. (iii)
Corporates are increasingly regaining their pricing power in many sectors. (iv) Household inflation expectations
have remained at an elevated level.
4. M3 growth for 2010-11: is placed at 17.0 per cent.
5. Aggregate deposits of SCBs: to grow by 18%.
6. Non-food credit of SCBs: projected to grow by: 20%
7. Exchange Rate policy: RBI’s policy has been to retain the flexibility to intervene in the market to manage
excessive volatility and disruptions to the macroeconomic situation.
8. The overall size of the government borrowing programme is still very large and can exert pressure on interest
rates. Fiscal consolidation has to shift from one-off gains to structural improvements on both tax and expenditure
sides, and focus increasingly on the quality of fiscal consolidation. Policy Stance
Policy stance for 2010-11 has been guided by the following three major considerations:

1. Recovery is consolidating. Growth in 2010-11 is projected to be higher and more broad-based than in 2009-10. In
the emerging scenario, lower policy rates can complicate the inflation outlook and impair inflationary expectations.
2. Inflationary pressures have accentuated in the recent period. Inflation, which was earlier driven entirely by supply
side factors, is now getting increasingly generalised. There is already some evidence that the pricing power of
corporates has returned. Inflation expectations also remain at an elevated level. There is, therefore, a need to ensure
that demand side inflation does not become entrenched.
3. Despite lower budgeted government borrowings in 2010-11 than in the year before, fresh issuance of securities
will be 36.3 per cent higher than in the previous year. RBI has to do a fine balancing act and ensure that while
absorbing excess liquidity, the government borrowing programme is not hampered. Therefore, the stance of
monetary policy of RBI is to:
1. Anchor inflation expectations
2. Actively manage liquidity to ensure that the growth in demand for credit by both the private and public sectors is
satisfied in a non-disruptive way.
3. Maintain an interest rate regime consistent with price, output and financial stability. Monetary Measures
1. Bank Rate: retained at 6.0 per cent.
2. Repo Rate: increased by 25 basis points from 5.0 per cent to 5.25 per cent with immediate effect.
3. Reverse Repo Rate: increased by 25 basis points from 3.5 per cent to 3.75 per cent with immediate effect.
4. Cash Reserve Ratio: increased by 25 basis points from 5.75 per cent to 6.0 per cent of net demand and time
liabilities (NDTL) effective the fortnight beginning April 24, 2010. As a result of the increase in the CRR, about Rs.
12,500 crore of excess liquidity will be absorbed from the system. Expected Outcomes
1. Inflation will be contained and inflationary expectations will be anchored.
2. The recovery process will be sustained.
3. Government borrowing requirements and the private credit demand will be met.
4. Policy instruments will be further aligned in a manner consistent with the evolving state of the economy.
Development and Regulatory Policies
1. The focus of the Reserve Bank’s regulation will continue to be (i) to improve the efficiency of the banking sector
while maintaining financial stability. (ii) vigorously pursue the financial inclusion agenda to make financial sector
development more inclusive.
2. Financial Stability: The first Financial Stability Report (FSR) was released on March 25, 2010. The Financial
Stability Reports will be published half-yearly.
3. Interest Rate Policy: Guidelines on the Base Rate system were issued on April 9, 2010. It is expected that the
Base Rate system will facilitate better pricing of loans, enhance transparency in lending rates and improve the
assessment of transmission of monetary policy. Financial Markets
1. Interest Rate Futures: The Interest Rate Futures contract on 10-year notional coupon bearing Government of India
security was introduced on August 31, 2009. It is proposed to introduce Interest Rate Futures on 5-year and 2-year
notional coupon bearing securities and 91-day Treasury Bills.
2. Introduction of Exchange-Traded Currency Option Contracts: Currently, residents in India are permitted to trade
in futures contracts in four currency pairs on two recognised stock exchanges. In order to expand the menu of tools
for hedging currency risk, the recognised stock exchanges to be permitted to introduce plain vanilla currency options
on spot US Dollar/Rupee exchange rate for residents.
Corporate Bond Market
1. Non-SLR Bonds of companies engaged in infrastructure: Valuation: At present, banks’ investments in non-SLR
bonds are classified either under held for trading (HFT) or available for sale (AFS) category and subjected to ‘mark
to market’ requirements. Considering that the long-term bonds issued by companies engaged in infrastructure
activities are generally held by banks for a long period and not traded and also with a view to incentivising banks to
invest in such bonds, banks to be allowed to classify their investments in non-SLR bonds issued by companies
engaged in infrastructure activities and having a minimum residual maturity of seven years under the held to
maturity (HTM) category.
2. Investment in Unlisted Non-SLR Securities: At present, banks’ investments in unlisted non-SLR securities should
not exceed 10 per cent of their total investments in non-SLR securities as on March 31 of the previous year. Since
there is a time lag between issuance and listing of security, banks may not be able to participate in primary issues of
non-SLR securities, which are proposed to be listed but not listed at the time of subscription. In view of the above,
investment in non-SLR debt securities (both primary and secondary market) by banks where the security is proposed
to be listed on the Exchange(s) may be considered as investment in listed security at the time of making investment.
If such security,
however, is not listed within the period specified, the same will be reckoned for the 10 per cent limit specified for
unlisted non-SLR securities.
Financial Market Infrastructure
1. Reporting Platform for CD and CP: to be introduced for all secondary market transactions in CDs and CPs. Credit
Delivery and Financial Inclusion
1. Financing MSE: Banks to be asked not to insist on collateral security in case of loans up to Rs.10 lakh extended to
all units of the micro and small enterprises (MSEs) sector.
2. High Level Task Force on MSMEs headed by Shri T.K.A. Nair has recommended that: (i) all scheduled
commercial banks should achieve a 20 per cent year-on-year growth in credit to micro and small enterprises (ii) any
shortfall in the achievement of sub-target of 60 per cent for lending to micro enterprises of the total advances
granted to the micro and small enterprises, would also be taken into account for the purpose of allocating amounts
for contribution to rural infrastructure development fund (RIDF) or any other Fund. (iii) all scheduled commercial
banks should achieve a 15 per cent annual growth in the number of micro enterprise accounts. Banks should take
steps to increase the flow of credit to the MSE sector, particularly to micro enterprises.
3. Business Correspondents: Relaxations: With a view to providing more flexibility to banks, banks to be permitted
to engage any individual, including those operating Common Service Centres (CSCs), as BC, subject to banks’
comfort level and their carrying out suitable due diligence.
4. Priority Sector Lending Certificates: Working Group: Working Group on Introduction of Priority Sector Lending
Certificates (PSLCs) (Chairman: Shri V.K.Sharma) constituted by RBI to examine the pros and cons of the
recommendation made by the Committee on Financial Sector Reforms (Chairman: Dr. Raghuram G. Rajan) relating
to PSLCs and make suitable recommendations on its introduction and their trading in the open market. Customer
Service
1. Committee to be set up to look into banking services rendered to retail and small customers, including pensioners.
2. Mechanism, for implementing the Reserve Bank’s guidelines on customer service, to be strengthened through on-
site and off-site inspections.
3. Banks to devote exclusive time in a Board meeting once every six months on customer service.
Regulatory and Supervisory Measures
1. Convergence of Indian Accounting Standards with International Financial Reporting Standards: All scheduled
commercial banks will convert their opening balance sheet as at April 1, 2013 in compliance with the IFRS
converged IASs.
2. Infrastructure Financing: In terms of extant instructions, rights, licenses and authorisations of borrowers, charged
to banks as collateral in respect of project loans (including infrastructure projects) are not eligible for being reckoned
as tangible security for the purpose of classifying an advance as secured loan. As toll collection rights and annuities
in the case of road/highway projects confer certain material benefits to lenders, RBI has proposed to treat annuities
under
build-operate-transfer (BOT) model in respect of road/highway projects and toll collection rights, where there are
provisions to compensate the project sponsor if a certain level of traffic is not achieved, as tangible securities subject
to the condition that banks’ right to receive annuities and toll collection rights is legally enforceable and irrevocable.
3. Provisioning of sub standard infrastructure loans: Banks are required to make provision of 20% on unsecured sub
standard accounts. In view of certain safeguards such as escrow accounts available in respect of infrastructure
lending, infrastructure loan accounts classified as sub-standard will attract a provisioning of 15 per cent instead of
the current prescription of 20 per cent.
4. Presence of Foreign Banks: to prepare a discussion paper on the mode of presence of foreign banks through
branch or Wholly owned subsidiary.
5. Licensing of New Banks: RBI has proposed to prepare a discussion paper marshalling the international practices,
the Indian experience as also the extant ownership and governance (O&G) guidelines for granting license to new
banks.
6. Conversion of Term Deposits, Daily Deposits or Recurring Deposits for Reinvestment in Term Deposits: As per
extant guidelines, banks should allow conversion of term deposits, daily deposits or recurring deposits to enable
depositors to immediately reinvest the amount lying in the aforesaid deposits with the same bank in another term
deposit. Banks are required to pay interest in respect of such term deposits without reducing the interest by way of
penalty, provided that the deposit remains with the bank after reinvestment for a period longer than the remaining
period of the original contract. On a review of the extant regulatory norms and in order to facilitate better asset-
liability management (ALM),
banks to be permitted to to formulate their own policies towards conversion of deposits.
7. Compensation Practices: RBI to issue comprehensive guidelines based on Financial Stability Board (FSB)
principles on sound compensation practices by end-June 2010. The guidelines will cover effective governance of
compensation, alignment of compensation with prudent risk-taking and disclosures for whole time directors
(WTDs)/chief executive officers (CEOs) as well as risk takers of banks.
8. Implementation of Pillar 2 of Basel II: RBI to implement the Supervisory Review and Evaluation Process (SREP)
sInspection (AFI) of banks. One of the major objectives of SREP is to evaluate whether the capital maintained by
the bank is adequate keeping in view its risk profile and to determine the supervisory capital ratio (SCR).
9. Cross-border Supervision: The Working Group headed by Shri S. Karuppasamy examined the legal position on
cross-border supervision arrangements. With a view to ensuring effective cross-border supervision and supervisory
cooperation, RBI has proposed to enter into bilateral MoU with overseas supervisory authorities within the existing
legal provisions, consistent with the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) principles.
10. Information Technology and Related Issues: RBI to set up a Working Group on information security, electronic
banking, technology risk management, and tackling cyber frauds.
Institutional Developments
1. Core Investment Companies (CICs): CICs having an asset size of Rs.100 crore and above to be treated as
systemically important core investment companies. Such companies will be required to register with the Reserve
Bank. The CICs fulfilling minimum capital and leverage criteria will be given exemption from maintenance of net
owned fund and exposure norms applicable to NBFCs-ND-SI.
2. Securitisation Companies/Reconstruction Companies: (i) SCs/RCs can acquire the assets either in their own books
or directly in the books of the trusts set up by them.(ii) The period for realisation of assets acquired by SCs/RCs can
be extended from five years to eight years by their Boards of Directors. (iii) Asset/Security Receipts (SRs), which
remain unresolved/not redeemed as at the end of five years or eight years, as the case may be, will henceforth be
treated as loss assets. (iv) It will be mandatory for SCs/RCs to invest an amount not less than 5 per cent of each class
of SRs issued under a particular scheme and continue to hold the investments till the time all the SRs issued under
that class are redeemed completely. (v) With a view to bringing transparency and market discipline in the
functioning of SCs/RCs, additional disclosures relating to assets realised during the year, value of financial assets
unresolved as at the end of the year, value of SRs pending redemption, among others, are being prescribed.
3. High Value Clearing: As a step towards encouraging migration of paper-based high value payments to more
secure electronic modes, High value clearing discontinued w.e.f. March 31, 2010.
4. NEFT: As at end-March 2010, over 66,500 branches of 95 banks had participated in NEFT and the volume of
transactions processed increased with a record volume of 8.3 million transactions in March 2010.
5. Mobile Banking in India: Currently, this channel is used to settle on an average 1.9 lakh transactions of average
value 12 crore in a month.