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MITRC REFRESHER COURSE ANSWER KEY Radiowave

Propagation & Antenna

1. __________ is the amount of voltage induced in a feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and
wave by an electromagnetic wave 10 dB feedline antenna gain?
a. Receive voltage a. 2000 W
b. Magnetic induction b. 126 W
c. Field strength c. 317 W
d. Power density d. 260 W

2. An electromagnetic wave consists of _____ 14. In a vacuum the speed of an electromagnetic


a. Both electric and magnetic fields wave
b. An electric field only a. Depends on its constant
c. A magnetic field only b. Depends on its wavelength
d. Non-magnetic field only c. Depends on its electric and magnetic fields
d. Is a universal constant
3. What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere?
a. F1 15. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the
b. F2 surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the
c. E TEM wave?
d. D a. Circular
b. Horizontal
4. Who profounded electromagnetic radiation c. Vertical
theory? d. Elliptical
a. Sir Edward Appleton
b. James Clerk Maxwell 16. A changing magnetic field gives rise to
c. Christian Huygens a. Sound field
d. Sir Isaac Newton b. Magnetic field
c. Electric field
5. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by d. Nothing in particular
means of
a. Ground waves 17. The index of refraction of a material medium
b. Sky waves a. Is greater than 1
b. Is less than 1
c. Surface waves
c. Is equal to 1
d. Space waves
d. May be any of the above
6. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
18. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space,
__________
only one of the following can happen to them
a. Pass into a medium of different
a. Absorption
dielectric constants
b. Attenuation
b. Are polarized at right angles to the
c. Refraction
direction of propagation
d. Reflection
c. Encounter a perfectly conducting
surface
19. Groundwave communications is most effective in
d. Pass through a small slot in a
what frequency range?
conducting plane
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
7. What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere
c. 30 to 300 MHz
a. F2 d. Above 300 MHz
b. F1
c. D 20. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals
d. E in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
8. What is the highest frequency that can be sent b. 3 to 30 MHz
straight upward and be returned to earth? c. 30 to 300 MHz
a. MUF d. Above 300 MHz
b. Skip frequency
c. Critical frequency 21. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft.
d. Gyro frequency high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft. high. The
minimum transmission distance is
9. What is the unit of electric field strength? a. 20 mi
a. Volts per square meter b. 33.2 mi
b. Volt per square cm c. 38.7 mi
c. Volts per meter d. 53.2 mi
d. Millivolt per watt
22. States that power density is inversely
10. Velocity of a radiowave in free space proportional to the distance from its source
a. 186,000 miles per sec a. Principal or Reciprocity
b. 300 x 106 meters per sec b. Inverse Square Law
c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec c. Huygen’s Principle
d. All of the above d. Faraday’s Law

11. Refers to the direction of the electric field vector 23. What is the primary cause of ionization in the
in space atmosphere?
a. Polarization a. Sun spot
b. Directivity b. Cosmic rays
c. Radiation c. Galactic disturbance
d. ERP d. Ultraviolet radiation

12. A TEM wave whose polarization rotates 24. Which layer does not disappear at night?
a. Vertically polarized a. D
b. Omnidirectional b. E
c. Horizontally polarized c. F1
d. Circularly polarized d. F2

13. What is the effective radiated power of a 25. The shortest distance measured along the
repeater with 200 W transmitter power output, 4 dB earth’s surface that a skywave is returned to earth
a. MUF
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MITRC REFRESHER COURSE Radiowave
Propagation & Antenna

b. Quarter-Wavelength c. Entropy
c. Skip distance d. Quantum
d. Skip zone
38. If an antenna has a gain of 30 dB, it increases
26. What do you call the gigantic emissions of the output of the transmitter by
hydrogen from the sun? a. 10,000 times
a. Solar flares b. 1000 times
b. SIDs c. 100 times
c. Kennely-Heaviside d. 1 million times
d. Sun spots
39. Which does not use vertical polarization
27. Two directional antennas are pointed so that antenna?
their beams intersect in the troposphere a. AM Broadcasting
a. Skywave b. FM Broadcasting
b. Surface wave c. Mobile Communications
c. Microwave d. Satellite Communications
d. Troposcatter
40. Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional
28. Super refraction pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical
a. Ducting polarization?
b. Troposcatter a. Marconi antenna
c. Skywave b. Discone antenna
d. Space wave c. Horn antenna
d. Helical antenna
29. Two or more antennas are used separated by 41. An antenna with very high gain and very narrow
several wavelengths beamwidth
a. Space diversity a. Helical antenna
b. Frequency diversity b. Discone antenna
c. Hybrid diversity c. Horn antenna
d. Polarization diversity d. Parabolic dish antenna

30. Two or more receivers are used using a single 42. _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an
antenna antenna
a. Space diversity a. Azimuth
b. Frequency diversity b. Angle of elevation
c. Hybrid diversity c. Right angle
d. Polarization diversity d. Beamwidth

31. Each point on a spherical waveform maybe a 43. What is the estimated medium wind loading in
source of a secondary spherical wavefront the Philippines for antenna tower design?
a. Snell’s law a. 300 kph
b. Huygen’s principle b. 100 kph
c. Rayleigh’s principle c. 200 kph
d. 250 kph
d. De Morgan’s theorem
44. _____ is an open-ended slot antenna
32. Ducting occurs in which region of the
a. Helical antenna
atmosphere?
b. Rhombic antenna
a. Stratosphere
c. Notch antenna
b. Troposphere
d. Cassegrain antenna
c. Ionosphere
d. Ozone layer
45. What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole
antenna?
33. Which ionosphere layer has an average height of
a. Omnidirectional
225 km at night?
b. Bidirectional
a. D layer
c. Unidirectional
b. E layer
d. Hemispherical
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
46. An antenna with unity gain
a. Rhombic
34. In what range of frequencies are most
b. Half-wave dipole
omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas
c. Isotropic
used?
d. Whip
a. VHF, UHF
b. VLF, LF
47. An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long
c. SH, EHF
a. Hertzian dipole
d. MF, HF b. Loop antenna
35. What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over c. Marconi antenna
isotropic antenna? d. Elementary doublet
a. 1.64 dB
b. 2.15 dB 48. What is the minimum number of turns a helix
c. 1.76 dB antenna must have?
d. 1.55 dB a. 3
b. 5
36. _____ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna c. 4
properties of directivity d. 6
a. Phase angle
b. Antenna gain 49. Which of the following improves antenna
c. Beamwidth directivity?
d. Bandwidth Driven element
Reflector element
37. _____ is the amount of uncertainly in a system of Director element
symbols Parasitic element
a. Bandwidth
b. Enthalpy

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MITRC REFRESHER COURSE ANSWER KEY Radiowave
Propagation & Antenna

50. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna c. Isotropic


which radiates 500 watts in a northernly direction d. Whip
and 50 watts in a southernly direction?
a. 25000 dB 62. _____ is an antenna array which is highly
b. 10 dB directional at right angles to the plane of the array?
c. 100 dB a. Broadside array
d. 20 dB b. End-fire array
c. Turnstile array
51. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna d. Log-periodic array
cut to a length of 3.4 m
a. 88 MHz 63. The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiation is
b. 44 MHz a. A figure – 8
c. 22 MHz b. A sphere
d. 11 MHz c. A unidirectional cardioid
d. A parabola
52. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it
appear as if it were 5% longer 64. The purpose of stacking elements on an antenna
a. End effect a. Sharper directional pattern
b. Flywheel effect b. Increased gain
c. Skin effect c. Improved bandpass
d. Capture effect d. All of these

53. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the 65. Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave
strongest signal antenna?
a. At 45 degrees to its axis a. At the ends
b. Parallel to its axis b. Three–quarters of the way from the
c. At right angles to its axis feed point toward the end
d. at 60 degrees to its axis c. One–half of the way from the feed point
toward the end
54. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength d. At the feed point
being used, the effective length can be increased by
adding 66. A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of
a. Capacitance in series 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal wire that is
b. Inductance in series hanged between two towers. What is the frequency
c. Resistance in parallel of its third harmonic?
d. Resistance in series a. 727 kHz
b. 6545 kHz
55. Which of the following antennas is used for c. 436 kHz
testing and adjusting a transmitter for proper d. 6.546 kHz
modulation, amplifier operation and frequency
accuracy? 67. What is the gain of an antenna over a half-
a. Elementary wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an
b. Real isotropic radiator?
c. Isotropic a. 6.0 dB
d. Dummy b. 8.1 dB
c. 3.9 dB
56. The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is d. 10.0 dB
100 watts. If the antenna has a 2dB power gain, what
is the effective radiated power 68. What is the usual electrical length of a driven
a. 317 watts element in an HF beam antenna?
b. 158 watts a. ¼ wavelength
c. 200 watts b. ¾ wavelength
d. 400 watts c. ½ wavelength
d. 1 wavelength
57. If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 69. Strong interference from one particular station
meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant frequency will can be eliminated by the use of
a. Increase a. Noise limiters
b. Depend on the velocity factor so the resonant b. Squelch circuits
frequency can either be increased or decreased c. Negative feedback
c. Will be unchanged d. Wave traps in the antenna circuits
d. Decrease
70. Good grounding is important for
a. Horizontal antennas
58. It is an array of metallic conductors buried
b. Broadside array antennas
beneath the antenna, which is used to improve the
c. Vertical antennas
conductivity of the natural earth
d. Yagi-Uda antennas
a. Loading coil
b. ATU
71. Which of the following antennas is best excited
c. Counterpoise
from a waveguide?
d. Earth mat
a. Biconical
b. Horn
59. What is the electrical wavelength of a 500 MHz
c. Helical
signal?
d. Discone
a. 60 centimeters
b. 6 meters
72. Not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler
c. 0.06 meter
a. To make the antenna resistive
d. 60 meters
b. To provide the output amplifier with the
correct load impedance
60. Actual height of antenna should be at least
c. To discriminate against harmonics
a. One wavelength
d. To prevent reradiation of the local
b. Half wavelength
oscillator
c. Quarter wavelength
d. Three-fourth wavelength
73. Which antenna is not a wideband?
a. Discone
61. Which antenna is not properly terminated?
b. Folded dipole
a. Resonant
c. Helical
b. Non-resonant
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MITRC REFRESHER COURSE Radiowave
Propagation & Antenna

d. Marconi

74. _____ is an antenna made up of a number of full


wavelengths
a. Elementary doublet
b. Log-periodic
c. Long wire
d. Whip

75. Which antenna does not use the ground?


a. Marconi
b. Yagi
c. Hertz
d. Rhombic

76. It is a measure of the microwave power radiated


from an antenna as a function of angular direction
from the antenna axis
a. Antenna pattern
b. Polarization
c. Beamwidth
d. Sidelobes

77. In a turnstile antenna, the crossed dipoles are


excited with voltages
a. In phase with each other
b. 360° out of phase with each other
c. 90° out of phase with each other
d. 180° out of phase with each other

78. It is described as the MUF factor


a. sec θ
b. cos θ
c. sin θ
d. csc θ

79. Known as the technique for adding a series


inductor at or near the center of an antenna element
in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an
antenna
a. Dipole
b. Center loading
c. Reflector
d. Loading coil

80. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values


of current and voltage exist compared to the
remainder of the antenna?
a. Minimum voltage and minimum current
b. Equal voltage and current
c. Minimum voltage and maximum current
d. Maximum voltage and minimum
current