Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
QUESTION BANK
MATHS
1.
Yard is equal to :
(i)
(iii)
2.
4.5 liters
26 liters
(ii)
(iv)
3.8 liters
None of the above
29.92 inces of Hg
2.992 inces of Hg
29.92 mm of Hg
2.992 cm of Hg
5 kg
2.2 kg
(ii)
(iv)
.45 kg
None
(ii)
6280ft
5280 ft
(iii) 6080ft
6.
(ii)
(iv)
1 Pound is equal to
(i)
(iii)
5.
.9 meter
(ii) +also equal to 73 inches
4.
(ii)
(iv)
3.
6 meter
1.1 meter
(iv) 5080ft
One micron is
a) 10-3 meter
c) 10-9 meter
b) 10-6 meter
d) None of these
b)
d)
10-10 meters
10-10 seconds
charles law
boyles law
1 KNOT
= 1.0 nmilesph
= 1.151 mph
1 nautical mile
= 1.151 miles
= 1852m
= 6080 feet
(b)
(d)
pascals law
newtons law
1 bar
= 14.5 psi
AERODYNAMICS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(b)
(d)
density of air
All (2-40)
7.
A device which gives lateral control and is moving with the opposite
surface of wing
(a) spoiler (2-34)
(b) vertex generator
(c) tab (d) flap
8.
9.
10.
11.
13.
Flab tab is
(a) balance tab
(c) servo tab
(b)
(d)
trim tab
none
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
(2-38)
span/average chord
(2-42)
span/mean aerodynamic chord
(ii)
(iv)
20. Which atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing speed of an
aircraft to be the greatest.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2-34)
27.
28.
Lateral stability
Vertical stability
(ii)
(iv)
MTCs
(i)
Vortex generator is used on high speed a/c at leading edge of wing
(2-55)
(ii)
Vortex generator is used on slow speed a/c at trailing edge of tail
plane
(iii) Vortex generator is never used on slow speed a/c
29.
30.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
31.
When aircraft is flying at a give air speed, the mach number will
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
32.
33.
M.T.C.S
(i)
Transition point moves forward towards leading edge as the air
speed increases
(ii)
Transition point is located at approx. 30% of the chord from the L.E.
(iii) Transition Point does not move with the change in speed
(iv) Both (i) & (ii)
34.
35.
Turbojet
Ramjet
(ii)
(iv)
High camber
Thin cross section
MICS
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
1.
(ii)
(iv)
36.
Turbofan
Turboprop
2.
Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag associated with it.
This is called
a) Form drag
b) Skin friction drag
c) Induced drag (2-44)
d) Shape drag
3.
4.
5.
Lift on a wing
a) Acts through centre of gravity
b) Acts vertically upwards
c) Is perpendicular to chord line
d) Acts vertically upwards through centre of pressure (2-50)
6.
7.
The angle between the chord of the tail plane and the chord of the main plane is
known as
a) Lateral dihedral
b) Longitudinal dihedral
c) Normal dihedral
d) Vertical dihedral
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
a) Incidence check
c) Structural alignment check
b) Dihedral check
d) Verticality check
21.
22.
The point on the chord line at which the total lift of a section at an aerofoil is
considered to act is known as
a) Centre of Gravity
b) Centre of Pressure (2-50)
c) Lift
d) None of the above
23.
24.
The stability which is due to features incorporated in the design of the aircraft is
called
a) Inherent stability
b) Neutral stability
c) Static stability
d) Dynamic stability
25.
The angle of attack of an aerofoil such as wing is the angle between the
(a) Chord of the wing and the longitudinal axis
(b) Chord of the wing and the relative airflow (2-38)
(c) Chord of the wing and horizontal axis
(d) Angle of incidence and stall angle
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
BASIC ELECTRICITY
ELECTRICAL
1.
Z= R + r
Z= R2 + r 2
(b)
(d)
Z2 = R2 + r2
None
2.
3.
In a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4.
capacitor
capacity depends on separation of plates and measured in farads
capacity depends on area of plates and measured in farads
capacity depends on nature of dielectric material
all (3-57)
(b)
(d)
condenser
both A&B
5.
6.
7.
9.
Ohms law is
(a) I ohm V
11.
(b)
V ohm I
(c)
inductance
(d)
All
12.
13.
14.
When two sphere of same mass, one is +ve charged and other is ve
charged, then new mass will
(a)
change
(b) unchanged
15.
If the conductor is of 4 ohm and it stretched to twice of its length then its
resistance is
(a)
1 ohm
(b) 8 ohm
(c) 12 Ohm (d) 16 Ohm
16.
A and B are big and small battery having same emf. Internal resistance of
battery A is
(a)
Less than B
(b) Greater than B
(c)
equal to B
(d) Unaffected
17.
18.
19.
A 3-8 winding rotate with 1800 rpm field having 8 pole, its ferequency will
be
20.
A wire is connected to constant voltage supply while the length and radius
is doubled
(a)
electric field is half
(b) electric field is double
(c)
heat is unchanged
(d) electric field remain same
21.
22.
(c)
Both
(c)
material
23.
24.
The work done on a moving charge from one point to another is depend
upon
(a)
the path taken
(b) position of two points
26.
bar magnet
horse shoe magnet
27.
28.
29.
If the rpm of the driver gear is 60 then the rpm of driven gear is
(a) 120 rpm
(b) 100 rpm
(c) 60 rpm
(d) 30 rpm
30.
31.
In an
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
32.
33.
diode NRV
EMF MMF
Zn-carbon
(b)
(c)
Alkaline cell
35.
(b)
(d)
34.
inductive circuit
current lags behind voltage by 90 deg.
current leads behind voltage by 90 deg.
cross sectional area
None
dc
dc ckt having resistance
(b)
(d)
ac
both a & c
36.
37.
38.
(c) zero
(b)
(d)
ampear
all
(C)
V.I
(d)
(d)
none
all
39.
40.
41.
42.
(b)
(d)
Newton meter
none
43.
44.
45.
1 HP is usual to
(a) 735 electric watts
(c)
both a & b
46.
(b)
(d)
47.
When coil of wire is placed horizontal to the earth surface and a bar
magnet dropped form the top
(a) fall with acceleration equal to g
(b) fall with acceleration less than g
48.
(c)
both
(d)
None
49.
50.
51.
53.
unchanged (9A-272)
Material
Temp
(b)
(d)
No of turns
Speed of rotation
(b)
(d)
Field strength
all are correct (4-2)
60.
(b)
58.
doubled
None of above
57.
56.
Megger
All are correct ( 3-91)
55.
(ii)
(iv)
54.
3.0
6.5
(ii)
(iv)
6.0 (3-58)
4.2
(iv)
61.
62.
55
56
55
56
(i)
(iii)
(ii)
(iv)
112
110
402 Watts
450 Watts
Rating
160 Watt
20 Watt each
5 amps
3 Amps
(ii)
(iv)
385 Watts
472 Watts
A 12 V electric motor has 1000 watts input and 1H.P. output, maintaining
the same efficiency, how much input power will a 24V, 1H.P. electricl
motor require (Note 1 H.P. = 740w)
(i)
(iii)
68.
60
57
67.
(ii)
(iv)
66.
Copper
None
65.
Aluminum
(ii)
Aluminum and copper (3-15) (iv)
64.
63.
None
1000W
500W
(ii)
(iv)
2000W
As in (ii) and less current will flow
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
69.
12 V
(ii)
3V
(iii)
24V
(iv)
48 V
71.
w
w
w
w
70.
1150
5750
5290
2300
3 Ohm
(iii)
12 Ohm
(iv)
6 Ohm
72.
73.
4
3
75.
(b)
(d)
(d)
74.
2
1
2.76
12
(ii)
(iv)
3
6
76.
77.
In a circuit the power is 28 watt and voltage is 28 volt then the resistence
is
(i)
78.
1 Ohm
Remains same
Decreases
(ii)
(iv)
Increases
Zero
83.
(iii)
82.
56 Ohm
81.
(ii)
80.
28 Ohm
Power factor is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
79.
(ii) 3 ohm
(ii)
(iv)
Battery EMF
Both (i) & (ii) (9A-289)
Power factor
Form factor
(ii)
(iv)
Load factor
Diversity factor
88. On small dia a/c electrical cables only the recommend stripping tools
should be used for removing the insulation. On no account should a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
89.
90.
Reluctance
Inductance and frequency
Instantaneous values
Effective values (3-47)
(ii)
(iv)
Mean values
Maximum values
The potential difference between two conductors which are insulated from
each other is measured in
(i)
(iii)
93.
(ii)
(iv)
92.
Impedance
Inductive Reactance(3-53)
91.
Volts
Farads
(ii)
(iv)
Amperes
Coulombs
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
94.
0.39 amperes
1.05 amperes
(ii)
(iv)
9.3 amperes
0.93 amperes
95.
96.
98.
99.
Is called induction.
Is called radiation.
Is called air gap transfer.
Will cause excessive arcing and head and as a result is impractical.
(ii0
(iv)
101. If an electrode is removed from the cell and to know its potential
difference it is compared with
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
102. MTCS
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
no of turns in coil
resistance of coil
magnetic moment of magnet
Speed of rotation of magnet (magnetic strength)
104. A transformer
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Lenzs law
(b)
Right hand fleming rule (d)
Electromagnetic induction
None
(b)
(d)
112. In a transformer is primary frequency changes from 50Hz, keep the pick
voltage constant then frenquency
(a) increases in secondary by ratio 60/50
(b)
(c)
(d)
113. Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
116. Which one among following is used to find out that whether concerned
transformer is step up or stepdown:
(i)
(iii)
Ohmmeter (9A-364)
Ammeter
(iv)
(ii)
Voltmeter and ammeter
All of the above
Same
(ii)
Half???
(iii)
Doubled
The
The
The
The
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
122. In ammeter (DArsonavol type), two oppositely wound spring are used, for
the purpose of:
(i)
Compensating expansion and contraction of springs, because of
temperature changes (9A- 322)
(ii)
Removing backlash
(iii) as (i) and having stand by
(iv) All of the above
123. How do you connect an Ammeter in a circuit.
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
low R in series
high R in parallel
By
By
By
By
connecting
connecting
connecting
connecting
low resistance(3-91)
precision resistance
(d)
connecting
connecting
connecting
connecting
(c)
Farads
(d) ampere
131. If acid is spilled over skin from an a/c battery then it cleaned with
(a) water
(b) water & boric acid
(c)
water & bicarbonate of soda
(d) all
series
(b)
shunt
(c)
(b)
(d)
Hydraulic motor
Both a & b
none
of less weight
it requires less maintenance
it is less expensive than dc motor
it does not use brush and commutator
136. In the shunt motor the field winding is connected in parallel or in shunt
with the armature winding
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
137. If load is removed from shunt motor and is in open circuit then the
current is
(i)
(iii)
Maximum
(ii)
Minimum
Depend upon the apparent power
field is rotating
Armature is rotating
Armature is stationary
141. In a differential relay system the charging of battery happens, when 22V
generated voltage is there, through
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
142. In an aircraft alternator the reverse current cut out relay can be avoided
due to the presence of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
143. In a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Rectifier unit
Voltage regulator
Current limiter
None
brush less alternator there can be
3 field windings & 2 armature windings & one permanent magnet
3 field windings & 2 armature windings & two permanent magnet
2 field windings & 3 armature windings & one permanent magnet
One field windings & 1 armature windings & one permanent magnet
(d)
None
(c)
(ii)
Full load voltage less than the no load voltage
(iii) As in (i) and changes in terminal voltage with increasing load
depends upon the degree of compounding
(iv) As in (ii) and changes in terminal voltage with increasing load
depends upon the degree of compounding(4-10)
155. In a DC generator interpoles are used
(i)
To reduce field distortion
(ii)
To As in (i) and they keep the neutral plane parallel distorted field
(iii) As in (i) and they keep the neural plane perpendicular to distorted
field
(iv) As in (ii) and improve the efficiency output and service oife of
brushes
156. Which statement is true regarding differential switch
(i)
It connects the generator to main bus when generator
exceeds the bus voltage by 0.25 to 0.45 v
(ii)
It connects the generator to main bus when generator
exceeds the bus voltage by 0.35 to 0.65 V.
(iii) As in (i) and it disconnects the generator when nominal
current flows from bus to generator
(iv) As in (ii)
and It disconnects the generator when nominal
current flows from bus to generator
voltage
voltage
reverse
reverse
ARE
CALLED
BATTERIES
1.
2.
Being charged
(iv) Under load condition
3.
In a charged condition
(ii)
In a discharged condition (314)
4.
5.
6.
7.
Nickel hydroxide
Powdered cadmium and its hydroxide
30% solution of caustic potash
All of the above.(314)
8.
When
When
When
When
(i)
(iii)
9.
(iv)
(ii)
3 months
Every year at the time of C of A renewal
10.
One month
6 months
Boric Acid
None of above
(b)
Bi-carbonate of soda(3-39)
A/C battery is :
(i)
An auxiliary source of electrical energy
(ii)
The main source of electrical energy in large A/C
(iii) (i) + the color of positive plate in the lead acid battery is chocklet
brown (9A-306)
(iv) (ii) + (iii)
11.
In a lead-acid battery the separators have vertical ribs on the side facing
the + ve plate. Its purpose is
(i)
To provide electrical conductivity between + ve & -ve plate through
the electrolyte
(ii)
To provide a path for plate material sediment to settle to the bottom
of the cell (9A-308)
(iii) To prevent electrical short have +ve & -ve plate
(iv) All are correct
12.
13.
65 F
(ii)
between 70 degree F & 90 Degree F (9A-272)
between 90 degree 100 degree F (iv) All are correct
16.
15.
(ii)
(iv)
14.
PbO, Gray
PbO2, chocklet brown
Normal operation
lader charging
(ii)
(iv)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
17.
18.
19.
(b)
(d)
nickel hydroxide
none
20.
21.
22.
23.
When a new Ni-cd battery is installed its cell seal is opened and pour
electrolyte to ensure the full charge battery
(a)
no charge is required
(b)
charge is given and boost up and (A)
(b)
as in (b) and suddenly installed in a/c service
(d)
as in (b) and after two hours check the electrolyte and installed in
service
24.
25.
26.
(b)
(d)
Dilute H2SO4
None
An A/C battery fails to perform 80% of its rated capacity which one should
be carried out
(i)
(iii)
31.
KOH
Concentrated H2SO4
30.
29.
For a battery to have high ampere hour capacity and high terminals
voltage
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
27.
Cell balancing
Voltage recovery
(ii)
(iv)
Recycle Check
None
boric powder
(ii)
Baking soda
(9A-308)
Oil soluble detergent cleaner
32.
33.
The sp. Gravity of electrolyte in a fully lead acid charged battery must be
between
(a)
34.
36.
(b)
(d)
1.23 to 1.25
1.2 to 1.275
35.
lead (3-35)
lead peroxide
(d)
Where battery or there acids have been spilled, the affected parts should
then be brushed with a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
cad.
(iv)
Errosion
Sulphuric acid
40.
(ii)
(iv)
39.
Corrosion
Nitric acid
.Battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached
because
(i)
The acid in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity
of the solution.
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
41.
42.
43.
boric acid???check
(b)
water (c)
baking soda
(d)
all
b) Thermal runaway
d) All of these
44. When applying gen left hand rule, your index finger points in the direction
the lines of magnetic flux travel, your thumb indicates the conductors direction of
movement, and your second fingure indicates the direcion of induced EMF.
45. When using the motor right hand rule, your right index finger indicates the
direction the magnectic flux flows, while your second fingure indicates the
direction of current flow and your thumb the direction the coil rotates.
46. Series wound DC generator have poor vol regulation capabilities and are
therefore not suitable for ac. However they are suitable for situations where a const
RPM and const load are applied to the gen.
47. The output and vol regulation capability of shunt type DC generator make them
suitable for light to medium duty use on ac. However, most of these units have
generally been replaced by DC alternators.
48. The amount of vol produced by a compound wound DC generator depends on
the degree of compounding. The flat-compound generator is one in which the no load
and full load vol have the same value. The under compoud gen has full load vol is
less than the no load vol and an over compound gen has a full load vol that is higher
than the no load vol.
ELECTRICITY(QB)
1.
plate area
b) Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the
plate.
c) Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between
the plate
d) None of these
2.
3.
4.
5.
7.
8.
d) Coulomb
9.
Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of
electrical connection is
a) Induction
b) Air gap transfer
c) Not possible
d) Possible but will cause excessive arcing thus not practical
10.
11.
d) Titanium
14.
15.
16.
In a parallel circuit
a) Total resistance is less than smallest resistor
b) Total resistance decreases when one of the resistance is removed
c) Total voltage drop is same as total resistance
d) All are correct
17.
18.
A 12V bulb is connected in series and draws 3 amperes current from a 12V
battery. Its resistance and power will be
a) 36 ohms, 4 W
b) 4 ohms, 36 W
c) 1 ohm, 12 W
d) None of these
19.
20.
21.
22.
a) 42000 10%
c) 12000 5%
b) 42000 5%
d) 22000 10%
23.
25.
The device used to measure very high insulation resistance of electric cable is
a) High resistance voltmeter
b) Megger / Insulation resistance tester
c) Iron vane meter
d) Ammeter of high range
26.
If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the
battery will be
a) 6E
b) 3E
c) 4E
d) 12E
27.
Special test equipment comprising a meter and two cables each of specific
length, is required for checking the resistance of bonding. A meter widely
used , consists of an ohm-meter operating on
a) Principle of current ratio
b) Principle of voltage ratio
c) None of these
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
What is the value of a resistance if given colour codes as brown, black, brown,
black and brown.
a) 1010 ohms
b) 1000 ohms
c) 101 ohms
d) 10.1 K ohms
34.
What is the value of a capacitor if given colour codes are orange, orange, blue
and white.
a) 33nF
b) 33F
c) 33pF
d) 3300F
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
47.
48.
Unit of m.m.f. is
(a) weber
49.
(b) gilbert
(c) maxwell
(d) henry
(b) potential
(d) none of these
50.
51.
52.
55.
56.
57.
60.
(d) None
(c) E volt
(b) Permitivity
(d) both (a) & (c)
61.
62.
63.
64
65.
(c) 50MHz
69.
71.
72.
73.Three phase winding rotate with 1800 rpm in magnetic field having 8 poles, its
frequency will be
(a) 120 Cycle/Sec
(b) 800 Cycles/ Sec
(c) 1200 Cycles/ Sec
(d) 1800 Cycles/ Sec
74.
75.Two wires each one meter long are kept at a distance of 0.02mt. apart. If 1 amp
current is flowing through each wire, then force acting in the wire will be
a) attractive if the direction of the current flowing through wires is same.
b) attractive if the direction of the current will be opposite.
78.
79.
80.The identical insulated wire coils are hung from air so that they are facing each
other and supplied with same direction a.c.
(a) both are attracted to each other
(b) both are repelled
(c) clockwise rotation
(d) anticlockwise rotation
81.
82.
Rheostat varies
(a) amount of current
(c) both (a) & (b)
Potentiometer varies
(a) amount of current
(c) both (a) & (b)
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
If the ratio of the transformer input voltage to the output voltage is same as the
turn ratio then, transformer is said to be
a) 50% efficient
b) 110% efficient
c) 100% efficient d) 25% efficient
b)
d)
b)
d)
Allows DC
None
indicates
Conductor
Capacitor
Condenser
Variable Condenser
(a) Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by the
water
rinse
(b) Rinse the affected area thoroughly with the clean water.
(c) Apply sodium-bi-carbonate solution to the affected area followed by the
water rinse
(d) All of the above
2.
3.
4.
5.
To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The
method used is
a) Interpole Method
b) Brush setting method
c) both (a) & (b)(4-11) d) None of these
6.
7.
8.
9.
10. The relationship between back emf and applied voltage in case of a dc motor is
given by
a) Eb = V + Ia Ra
b) Eb = V Ia Ra
c) Eb = V
d) None of these
11.
12.
An engine driven 50 Hz alternator has a speed of 750 rpm. How many poles it
has?
a) 6 poles
b) 4 poles
c) 2 poles
d) 8 poles
13.
14.
15.
16.
30
C
50T
D
18.
19.
22.
24.
25.
26.
28.
29.
33.
34.
35.
A generator in which the no load and full load voltages have the same value is
called
(a) Flat compound generator(4-10)
Shunt generator
(B) Series generator
Both b and c
36.
37.
38.
39.
b) Fans
c) Turbines
d) All of these
40.
If the shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the armature
and series field, then the connection is said to be
a) Long shunt connection(4-10)
b) Short shunt connection
c) Parallel connection
d) Both a and b
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
ELECTRONICS
1.
2.
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
3.
two terminal
(b) three junction
Two are forward biased and two are reversed bias
Increases
None
(b)
decreases
7.
as an amplifier
6.
As a amplifier
5.
(b)
4.
Voltage Regulation
All are correct
they
they
they
they
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
8.
BREAKDOWN DIODE IS
(i)
Vaccume diode
(ii)
Zener diode(M-86)
(iii) None
9.
10.
No.
No.
No.
No.
of
of
of
of
Switches
Transformers
(ii)
(iv)
Rectifiers
Relays
14.
13.
Amplifier
Oscillator
12.
(ii)
(iv)
11.
Rectifier
Modulator
Induct
Conduct
(ii)
(iv)
15.
Pure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
semiconductor shows
infinite resistance at 0 degree
increase in resistance with increase in temperature
decrease in resistance with increase in temperature
None
16.
17.
18.
Transistor used as
(a) voltage regulator/double
(c)
amplifier
(b)
(d)
rectifier
all are correct
19.
Zener diode
(a) has high forward voltage rating
(b) Has negative resistance
(c)
has sharp breakdown of low reverse voltage
(d) used as amplifier
21.
22.
23.
In a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
24.
In a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
26.
ELECTRONICS(QB)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
In N-type semiconductors, the concentration of minority carriers mainly
depends upon
a) Doping technique
b) Number of donor atoms
c) Temperature of material
d) quality of intrinsic material
8.
Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV) across the non-conducting diode (Reverse biased) in
center tap full wave rectifier is equal to
a) Vm
b) 2/Vm
c) Vm/2
d) 2Vm
9.
10.
11. When the conduction-band orbit of one atom may intersect the
hole orbit of another atom, merging of a free electron and a hole takes
place. This merging of electron and hole is known as
(a) Current flow
(b) Minority current flow
(c) Combination
(d) Recombination(M-25)
12.
13.
14.
15.
(d) none
16.
17.
18.
20.
Mili Henry
Farads
DIGITAL
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(b)
(d)
111111
110110
(b)
(d)
AND-gate
XOR-gate
(b)
(d)
1101.11
1111.01
Figure indicate
(a)
X-OR
(C)
CMOS-OR
(b) X-NOR
(D) X-NAND gate
10
(d)
16
6.
7.
Convert 27 in binary no
(a) 11111
(b) 10111
8.
9.
(c)
11011
(d)
11101
A.0=0
A.1=0
(d)
XOR
10.
Output is zero when one input is 1 or both inputs are 1, the gate is
(a) AND gate
(b) NAND gate
(c)
NOR gate
(d) OR gate
11.
(c)
(b)
(d)
X-OR gate
Both a & b
12.
13.
(d)
None
14.
15.
16.
(c)
110
(d)
100
(0.625)10=( )2
(a) 0.110
(b)
0.101
(c)
0.011
(d)
0.100
(1010101)2 = (
(a) 110
)10
(b)
85
(c)
75
(d)
95
17.
18.
19.
NAND or NOR
1100101000
100101000
(ii)
(iv)
1010101000
100010100
101
(ii)
111
(iii)
100
(iv)
24.
(b)
23.
AND or OR
NAND or OR
22.
1101.11
21.
(b)
20.
1011.10
1011.11
28
30
(ii)
(iv)
29
27
AND gate
(ii)
OR gate
(iii)
NOR gate
DIGITAL ELECTRONICS(QB)
1.
2.
Y= (5, 15, 23, 29, 37, 47, 55, 61) + X (7, 13, 21, 31, 39, 45, 53, 63)
a) Y=EF
b) Y= AB c) Y=CD + EF
d) Y=BD
3.
d) 1001
4.
If active low output is required for checking odd parity we will use
a) AND gateb) OR gate
c) XOR gate
d) XNOR gate
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
d) T= clock period
12.
13.
b) 10 input, 4 output
d) 10 input, 1 output
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
a) 11101
b) 10101
c) 10011
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
d) 11111
28. The output is high only when both input are different. The device is
a) AND gate
c) EXOR gate
29.
NAND gate
EXNOR gate
30.
(b)
(d)
Current driven
Voltage driven
Power driven
None
31.
b)
d)
Collpit
Clapp
COMPUTER
1.
2.
(b)
(d)
millions of instruction
None
programme
disk operating system
(b)
(d)
processing unit
All
hard disk
(b)
ROM
(c) RAM
(d) Floppy
programme
Operating system
(b)
(d)
language
All
(b)
(d)
diode
chips
9.
one instruction
two instruction
Software is
(a)
(c)
8.
a software
operating system
7.
(b)
(d)
DOS is a
(a)
(c)
6.
a part of CPU
a input/output peripheral
Algorithm
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5.
mouse
all are correct
4.
(b)
(d)
MODEM (Modulator-demodulator) is
(a)
(c)
3.
keyboard
telephone line
microprocessor
transistor
10.
Analogue computer is
(a) more correct than digital computer
(b) less accurate than digital computer
(c)
equal to digital computer
(d) none
11.
12.
13.
UNIX
(a)
(b)
(c)
14.
(d)
is
single operating unit
double operating unit (multi purpose)
CAD and record of engineering organization
super computer
laptop computer
15.
16.
17.
18
hard disk
(b)
key board
19.
Representation of GATES is
(diagrams)
20.
Binary No.
(d)
None
21.
22.
24.
25.
26
27.
8 bits
24 bits
(ii)
(iv)
16 bits
32 bits
(ii)
(iv)
Process management
Security
(ii)
(iv)
Memory management
All of the above
Milli seconds
Nono seconds
(ii)
(iv)
Micro seconds
Mega seconds
37.
36.
(b)
35.
Scanners are
(i)
(iii)
32.
30.
(b)
28.
(ii)
Electronic data processing
Electronic discrete programme
(i)
(iii)
39.
(ii)
(iv)
page printer
Embossed printer
Language processing
Lingustics processing
(ii)
(iv)
List processing
(i) and (ii)
ALU
(iii)
Memory
(iv)
Monitor
(ii)
(iv)
Algorithm is
(i)
(iii)
46.
(iv)
(ii)
800 to 1600 dpi
(iv) None of the above
impact printer
Line printer
(i) CPU
44.
LSI
43.
ULSI (iii)
42.
VLSI (ii)
41.
40.
Program
Calculations
Inputting Data
Processing data
A system in which a computer is used to turn data into information
Performing complex mathematical calculation
1.
2.
3.
c) Division
4.
5.
A computer basically
a) Processes data
b) Stores data as per given instructions
c) Perform mathematical calculations
d) All are correct
6.
7.
Assembler is
a) An individual who assembles computer
c) Programme
b) Language
d) None of these
8.
9.
10.
11.
14.
15.
d) 16
16.
17.
Which of the following memories has got equal access time for
all locations of the memory limit?
a) Read Only Memory (ROM)
b) Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM)
c) Random Access Memory (RAM)
d) Erasable ROM
20.
27.
28.
30.
31.
32. The decimal number 422 is equal to which of the following hexadecimal number
(a) 6A
(b) A6
(c) 6A1
(d) 1A6
33.
(d) 47
34. High speed semi conductor memory, which is used as additional memory device
(a) ROM (b) PROM (c) Cache memory (d) None of these
Floppy disk is a
(a)
Flexible storage
(b)
Permanent storage
(c)
ROM
(d)
Fast storage
37.
MODEM is a
a) Code changing system
b) Programme conversion system
c) Modulator Demodulator system
d) Demodulator modulator system
38.
39. A device that works in conjunction with a computer but not as part of it is called
(a) Hardware
(b) Memory
(c) Microprocessor
(d) Peripheral device
41. Which of the following storage has greatest capacity with less cost per bit?
a) Semi conductor memory
b) Magnetic tape
c) Magnetic drum
d) None of these
42.
(1 + 1)
The memory unit that communicates directly with the CPU is called
a) Main memory
b) Auxiliary memory
c) Cache memory
d) EPROM
3. CD ROM
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 2 & 4
53.
54.
4. Monitor
b) Microprocessor is used
c) Transistors are used
d) None of the above
55.
57.
58.
33.
Parallel processing
All of the above
Floppy
Magnetic disk
(ii)
(iv)
CD
Floppy and CD
(ii)
(iv)
12.
(ii)
(iv)
45.
Multiprocessing
Multiprogramming
38.
b) Assembly Language
d) Fourth Generation Language
CPU Register
Main memory
Algorithm uses
a) One input, one output
c) One input, multiple output
(ii)
(iv)
Cache
All of the above
18.
19.
(d) 10
44. Which of the following memories will be used to store variable quantities or data
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) PROM
d) EPROM
DRAWING
1.
2.
hidden line
black line
3.
4.
5.
6.
(d) all
Lines made up of alternate long and short dashes in the drawing are
called
(i)
(iii)
Dimensional line
Datam lines
(ii)
(iv)
Centre lines(5-13)
Hidden lines
7.
In the drawing lines indicated the alternate position of parts of the object
and are composed of one long and two short evenly spaced dashes is known as
(i)
(iii)
8.
Break lines
Phantom lines(5-13)
(ii)
(iv)
Sectioning lines
Stitch lines
Stitch lines(45)
centre lines
(ii)
(iv)
dutum lines
dimensional lines
9.
In the drawing, lines consists of short dashes evenly spaced and
frequently referred as dash lines are known
(i)
(iii)
10.
Phantom lines
Sectioning lines
(ii)
(iv)
Break lines
Hidden lines(5-13)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
11.
13.
Phantom line.
Break line.
(ii)
(iv)
Hidden line(5-13).
Broken line.
The sketch giving the description of object made up of two or more parts
(a)
(c)
15.
14.
detail drawing
installing drawing
(b)
(d)
detail drawing
installation drawing(5-3)
(b)
(d)
assembly drawing
sectioning drawing
18.
19.
(b)
(d)
trouble shooting(5-8)
all of the above
(iii) Amount of pressure in the pressure and return lines, and in system
components
(iv)
None of the above
20. What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an a/c wing
skin repair
(a)
(c)
21.
(iii)
Top view
23.
(b)
(d)
22.
24.
25.
26.
Limits of partial view or sections when the line is not on axis are shown in
the drawing by
(i)
Continuous (thin) lines
(ii)
Continuous short dashes (thin) lines
(iii) Continuous irregular (thin) lines
(iv) Chain (thin) lines
27.
28.
29.
(ii)
(iv)
Dimensions(5-14)
Tolerance
30.
Allowances
1 & 2 are correct
Steel
Wood
(ii)
(iv)
Cast iron(5-13)
Aluminium
Circle
(ii)
Hyperbola (iv)
Ellipse
Both (i) & (ii)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
c) Dimension line
7.
8.
9.
10.
15.
16.
17.
Wt of A/C which includes all operating equipment that has a fixed location
and is actually installed on the aircraft is called:(i)
(iii)
2.
(ii)
(iv)
Tare weight
Empty weght (56)
3.
Pay load
Use ful load
Empty
Empty
Empty
Empty
weight
weight
weight
weight
4.
The max. allowable weight of a loaded aircraft with out fuel is known as :
(i)
(iii)
5.
(ii)
(iv)
When an a/c with full oil tanks is weighed the weight of the oil
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
6.
Empty weight
Pay load
7.
When computing weight and balance an airplane is considered to be in
balance when
(i)
Ballast weight is added
(ii)
The average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG
range
9.
Useful load(56)
Zero fuel weight
(iv)
(ii)
Pay load
Ballast weigh
10.
crew
11.
and
A point on Aircraft about which the nose and tail heavy moments are
exactly equal in magnitude is known as :
(i)
Datun
(ii)
Centre of gravity
(iii) As in (ii) and it is the point at which the weight of an aircraft is
concentrated (56)
(iv) None of the above
12.
13.
14. Which of the following can provide the empty weight of an aircraft if the
aircrafts weight and balance records become lost, destroyed, or other wise
inaccurate?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
The datum(6-4)
The armn
(iv)
(ii)
The C.G
The fulcrum
A.M.E.
(ii)
Owner or operator of A/C
The manufacturer(6-5)
Regulating Authority of country of manufacture
(b) Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and
hydraulic fluid weight
(c) Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and
fill hydraulic reservoir(6-7)
(d) All of these
2.
3.
4.
5.
7
For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be
achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity)
(a) end C of P (Pressure) together
(b) rear of C of P
(c) front of C of P
(d) along aerodynamic C of P
9.
(d)
AIRCRAFT HARDWARE
1.
2.
Safe and efficient operation of ac is dependent upon the correct
selecion of ac hardware.
3.
Most items of ac hardware are identified by AN (Airforce-Navy),
NAS (National aircraft standards) or MS (Military standards).
4.
Bolts and screws are type of fastening devices that give the
required security of attachment and rigidity.
5.
6.
7.
8.
SCREW
Either blunt or pointed
Fits into a female receptacle
Has long threaded section and
no clearly defined grip
length.
Screw is always tightened by
turning its head.
9.
The difference between NF series and UNF series is that in 1
inch size,the NF thread has 14 threads per inch and in UNF thread
has 12 threads per inch.
10.
Class 1 fit- loose fit, Class 2 fit- free fit, Class 3 fit medium fit ,
Class 4 fit- close fit, Class 5 fit tight fit.
SCREW
1.
2.
3.
Grub
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4.
5.
A grub screw is a
a)
Headless type set screw
b)
Cap screw with fine threads
c)
Machine screw with flat countersunk head
d)
Cylindrical piece threaded at both ends and is plain in the middle
6.
BOLT
1.
(b)
(d)
5.
6.
ACST
(d)
7.
8.
(b)
(d)
tension load
none
9.
(b)
(d)
ALSF(125)
tension load
none
10.
11.
(b)
(d)
12
13.
14.
Close
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17.
18.
When bolts and rivets are used to joint the metal sheets then both should
be protected from corrosion by
(a) applying grease on both
(b) By plating bolt and rivets
(c)
By painting bolt and rivets
(d) They must be placed separately approximately, two times then the
thickness of the metal being joint.
19.
20.
23.
When safety-wiring the widely spaced bolts the max number of bolts in a
series that can be safety wired is(i)
(iii)
24.
Reworked Bolt
6
24
(ii)
(iv)
3 (146)
12
(iii)
(iv)
25.
M.T.C.S
(i)
AN-3 & AN-73 series bolts are inter changeable
(ii)
AN hex head bolts and internal wrenching bolts are interchangeable
(iii) AN hex head bolts and internal wrenching bolts are not inter
changeable as they do not have the required strength.
(iv) Both (i) and (iii) (123)
26.
27.
28.
29. Alloy steel bolts smaller than No.10-32 and AL alloy bolts smaller than
inch diameter are not used in
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
30.
When Internal wrenching bolts are used is steel parts, the bolt hole must
be
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Spot faced
Counter bored
Slightly counter sunk
(iv) Slightly counter sunk to seat the large corner radius of the shank at
the head (123).
31.
Jo-bolts are used to areas which are not often subjected to:
(i)
Tensile load
(ii)
Replacement or servicing
(iii) As in (ii) and it is blind rivet(124)
(iv) As in (i) and may be used in torsion load
32.
33.
Jo-Bolt is
(i)
(ii)
high
(iii)
(iii)
34.
Drilling with one size small drill than the lock bolt size
Splitting it axially
As in (ii) with a sharp cold chisel(126)
Chiseling the head of a lock bolt
35.
38.
39.
(ii)
(iv)
(iv)
40.
41.
42.
Lock bolts are more easily and quickly installed than the conventional
rivets or bolts and eliminate the use of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
43.
When safety wiring closely spaced bolts the number that can be safely
wired
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
44.
46.
When tightening nuts on bolts, cotter pin hole may not align with the nut
slot in case of highly stressed engine parts
(i)
The nut may be over tightened to align the hole and slot
(ii)
The nut may be under tightened to align the hole and slot
(iii) Nut may be turned in clock wise direction
(iv) None of the above
47.
AN-186
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
48.
MS 20073
(i) It is close tolerance bolt
(ii) It is drilled head engine bolt
(iii) As in (ii) and dia is 3/16 (8-19) (iv) It is an eye bolt and dia is 3/8
49.
Decode AN-31-32
(i)
AN standard clevis bolt
(ii)
An standard clevis bolt with dia. of 1/16 & length is 2(8-20)
(iii) AN standard clevis bolt dia is 1/6 material is Nickle alloy and
length is 31/4
(iv) As in (i) and dia is 11/4 and length is 3/4
51.
52.
1/16 of an inch
1/64 of an inch
(ii)
(iv)
1/3th of an inch
In hundredths of an inch
54.
turn clockwise
53.
(ii)
Loose fit
BOLT(QB)
1.
2.
b)
d)
by method of securing
all of the above (123)
7.
8.
10.
11.
12.
13.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Bolt head is of
a
Steel
c.
Al. Alloy
Bolt head is of
a.
Steel
c.
C.R.S. close tolerance(122)
b.
Al. Alloy
d.
Al. Alloy close tolerance
Which of the bolt head code marking shown identifies a internal hex head
bolt?
a)
b)
c)
1) a
22.
b.
d.
2) b (122)
3) c
4) none
a.
b.
c.
d.
b)
d)
Free fit
Tight fit
30.
The hardware pre-lubricated & must not be degreased before assembly is/are
a)
Jo-bolt
b)
Avdelok Fastener
c)
Both a) & b) are correct
d)
Huck mechanical lock rivet
31.
32.
10 KB 105
a)
Flat head
c)
Countersunk
b)
d)
33. 10 KB 107
a)
Closed end and a key
c)
As a and countersunk head
Special bolt
All of these
Flat head
None
37.
d)
38.
39.
AN 4 - 7 bolt shows
a)
7/8 dia
b) 1/4" length
40.
c) 4 length
d) 1/4" dia(123)
2.
3.
At
At
At
At
(ii)
(iv)
4.
5.
6.
7.
5/8 dia
10 TPI
(ii)
(iv)
10/32 dia
10 shank length
Self locking nuts are acceptable for use on certificated Aircraft subject to
the
(i)
Where tight connections are required
(ii)
As in (i) and which will not shake loose under severe vibration
(iii) Restrictions of the manufacturer
(iv) As in (i), (ii) and (iii) and these nuts should not be used at joints
which subject either the nut or bolt to rotation(127)
8.
After the self locking nut has been tightened, make sure:
(i)
Four threads of the bolt are visible out side the nut
(ii)
The rounded or cham-fered end of the bolt extend at least the full
round or chamfer through the nut
(iii) Flat end bolts should extend at least 1/32 through the nut
(iv) (ii) and (iii) are correct(129)
9.
10.
11.
When tightening nuts on bolts, cotter pin hole may not align with the nut
slot. In case of highly stressed engine parts
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
13.
The nut may be over tightened to align the hole and slot
The nut may be under tightened to align the hole and slot
Nut may be turned in clock wise direction
None of the above
15.
16.
Dzus (ii)
Cam Lock
(iii)
Airlock(142)
(iv)
None
17. When reusing elastic stop nuts be sure the fibre has not lost its locking
friction. If a nut can be
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
18.
19.
Turned with
Turned with
Turned with
None of the
(ii)
Where the screw is subject to frequent removal
(iii) Where failure would permit the opening of a joint to the air flow
(iv) Any of the above(131) (Used with machine screws or bolts where
self locking or castellated type nut is not appropriate)
22.
23.
(b)
(d)
NUTS (QB)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
b.
c.
d.
7.
8.
A fiber type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is
a)
Under shear loading
b) Under tension loading
c.)
Subject to rotation
d) All of these
Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is
(a)
Plain nut
(b) Castle nut
(c)
Castellated shear nut(126)
(d) Self locking nut
9.
Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on
threaded bolt or rod
(a) Self-locking nut
(b) Jamb but
(c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin
(d) None of these
10.
11.
Acme
Square
Worm
Buttress
WASHERS
1.
5.
To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut
and bolt, the washer used is
a) AN 936
b) AN 935
c) AN 970(130)
6.
d) AN 960
8.
AN 935 is
a. Plain washer
c. Shake proof washer
AN 936 is
a. Shake proof washer
c. Plain washer
TURNLOCK FASTENERS
1. Dzus Fastners consist of a stud, grommet and receptacle. The stud length is
measured in
a) Tenth of an inch
b) Sixteenth of an inch
c) Hundredth of an inch
d) Thousandth of an inch
2. The marking found on the head of the stud
a) Body diameter, length & shank type
b) Body diameter, length & head type (141)
c) Only length
d) None of these
3. Airloc Fasteners consists of three parts
a.Stud, grommet and receptacle
b.Stud & grommet
c.Stud, cross pin and receptacle(142)
d.None
PINS
1.
Three types of pins are used viz. taper pin, flathead pin and cotter
pin.
2.
1.
2.
3.
If safetying with cotter pin, the prong bent over the bolt and should not
exceed beyond the
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Nut diameter
Equal to the dia of cotter pin
Bolt diameter (150)
(iv)
4.
5.
8.
d. 1 in 60
11.
c. 1 in 50
AN 406
(i)
inch
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
10.
b. 1 in 10
taper pin(145)
roll pin
12.
15.
steel/CRS
(b) cadmium plated low carbon steel
corrosion resistant steel
(d) both b & c(8-29)
RIVETS
1.
2.
4.
2024
none
maximum 15 times
none
5.
If countersunk is not possible to use on thin sheet to get flush surface,
then.. use
(a)
round head rivet
(b) brazier head rivet
(c)
counter sunk rivet with (d) flat head
6.
7.
8.
9.
Rivet
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10.
11.
10 KB-107 rivet is
(a) flat head
(b) counter sunk head
(c)
as in (a) and with key and close end
(d) as in (b) and with key and close end(162)
12.
Dia of rivet is
(a) 2 times of thickness of sheets
(b) 3 times of thickness of thickest sheet
(c)
(d)
13.
(d) 5056-W
14.
In selecting rivets
(a) no type and size depends on shear stress
(b) as in (a) and tensile strength and does not depends on
bearing strength
(c)
rivet dia should be twice the thick ness of metal being
joined
(d) none of the above
15.
16.
17.
18.
M.T.C.S
(i)
If an ice box rivet is removed from the refrigerator, it should not be
mixed with the rivets still in the cold storage.
(ii)
Ice box rivets should always be used after 10 min from the removal
from the refrigerator
(iii) Ice box rivets should necessarily be used with in 15 min after its
removal from the refrigerator other wise be re-heat treated.(152)
(iv) All are correct.
19.
(ii)
(iii)
20.
riveting Mg structure(8-5)
Riveting Titanium Structure
(ii)
(iv)
One raised dot or the head of a rivet indicates its material is:
(i)
(iii)
23.
(iv)
21.
2024-T
2017-T(8-5)
(ii)
CRS
24.
25.
Two hours
Five hours
3/64 to 1/8(160)
3/32 to 1/8
(iv)
(ii)
3/32 to 3/16
1/32 to 3/16
29.
(ii)
(iv)
28.
27.
Ice box rivets attain about one half their max strength in approximately
after driving
(i)
(iii)
26.
(ii)
(iv)
(i)
30.
(iv)
3/64
35.
3/32
34.
(iii)
33.
1/32 (8-3)
How would you prepare the hole to use 1/8 flush rivet to fasten a piece
of 0.032 skin to a 0.064 frame.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
32.
(ii)
31.
1/16
O.S.D. is sufficient
I.S.D. is sufficient
O.T.S.D. is suficnet
I.D. is sufficient
RIVETS
1.
2.
Pin rivets
(a) are Hi-shear rivets
(b) Used where access to both side of the material is required
(c) They are approximately three times as strong as solid shank rivets
(d) All. (163)
3.
b) Raised dash
d) No marking on head
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
d) Mild steel
12. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received &
need no further heat treatment.
a) 2117-T. (151) b) 2017-T
c) 2024
d) 1100
13.
14.
c) 2024-T
d) all
15.
16.
17.
18.
19. The absence of latter following the AN-standard number for rivets indicate
a) material is Al-alloy
b) material is steel
c) material is mild steel. (153)
d) any of the above
20.
a) 5056
b) 2219
c) 7075
d) Monel
21.
22.
23. The shank length used for making blind head in a pull thru rivet should extend
the thickness by
a) 1
b) - c) 3/64
d) 3/64 1/8 (157)
24. Its proven fatigue strength make it the only blind rivet
interchangeable structurally with solid rivet is
a) wire draw cheeylock rivet
b) dill lock rivet
c) bulb cherrylock rivet. (157)
d) deutsch rivet
25.
26.
Riv nut is
a) hollow, blind rivet
b) made of 6053-Al alloy & a)
c) counter bored & threaded inside
d) all of the above. (161)
27.
28.
29.
30.
c) in shear.(163)
d) all of the above & also carry bending load.
31.
32. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the
center of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet)
a) 2d to 4d
b) 8d
c) 6d
d) 75% of the pitch
39.
40.
42.
(b) 6d to 8d
(d) All of these
43.
The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet
is
(a) 2 d
(b) 4 d
(c) 1 x d
(d) 8 d
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
(d)
A) Rivet smaller than 3/32 diameter are never used on stressed structure.
(B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117rivet.
(a) both are correct.
(b) both are incorrect
(c) only (A) is correct
(d) only (B) is correct
50.
Transverse pitch is
(a) twice the rivet diameter
(c) 75% of rivet pitch
51.
Rivet pitch is
(a) distance between center of rivet in a row
(b) distance between edge to center of rivet
(c) four times the rivet diameter
(d) both (a) & (c) are correct
4.
(ii)
(iv)
1/16 0- 3/16
3/8
1.
1/8 3/8
1/16 3/8(144)
Carbon steel
(i) + stainless steel(143)
(ii) + heat treated Al-alloy
(i) + 2024 T4 AL-ALLOY
In engine controls, trim tab controls & indicator controls, the type of
cable used is:
(i)
7 x 19 extra flexible
(ii)
7 x 7 medium flexible(143)
(iii)
8.
1 x 19
(iv)
1x7
Seldom
Slow
(ii)
(iv)
Frequent(143)
Abruptly
9.
Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a
control cable showing approximate 20% wear on several of the individuals
outer wires at a fairlead?
(i)
( flexible or non flexible cables will be replaced when the individual wires
in each strand appear to blend toether or when the outer wires are worn
out 40 to 50 %.)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
10.
Removed and replaced the control cable and rerigged the system
Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from fairlead
None of the above.
16.
14.
Clevis pin
Nut and bolts
(ii)
Cottor pin
(iv) Welding or brazing
Turn buckle
(a) is a mechnical screw device consisting of two threaded terminals
and a threaded barrel.
(b) is for minor adjustment in cable length and cable tension
(b) barrel has matching left and right hand internal threads
(c)
has externally threaded end terminals
(d) all of the above(144)
15.
Turn
(a)
(b)
(c)
buckle consists of
brass barrel with left and right hand thread(8-36)
stainless barrel with either left hand or right hand thread
only cadinium plated steel barrel and end fitting
(d)
7.
All turn backle terminals be screwed in to the barrel until not more than:
(i)
three threads are exposed on either side of the turn buckle
barrel(144)
(ii)
Five threads are exposed in either side of the turn buckle barrel
(iii) Three threads are exposed on one side of the turn buckle barrel
(iv) None of the above
3.
In a Turn buckle
(i)
Left hand threaded end is identified by a groove or knurl around
that end(144)
(ii)
When installing a turn buckle in a control system, it is necessary to
screw both the terminals a equal number of turns into the barrel.
(iii) Not more than four threads
4.
0000
(ii)
(iv)
40
60
CONTROL CABLES(QB)
1. 7x19 & 7x7 cables is made up
a) Seven strands of 7 wires
b) Nineteen strands of seven wires each
c) Seven strands of nineteen wires each & Seven strands of seven wires each (143)
d) 19 strands of 19 wires each
2. The diameter range of 7x19 & 7X 7 cables are
(a)
1/8 to 3/8 & 1/16 to 3/32 each (143)
(b)1/16 to 3/32
(c)1/8 to
(d)1/8 to 1/16
3. Turnbuckle assembly is a
(a)
Mechanical screw
(b)
Making minor adjustment in cable length and adjusting
cable tension
(c)
Consisting two threaded terminals and a threaded barrel
(d)
2.
HARDWARE MISC
7.
Do not install elastic stop in place where the temperature is higher than
(i)
(iii)
2.
250 degree F
350 degree F
(ii)
(iv)
300 degree F
400 degree F
(i)
60 degree
(ii)
29 degree
(iii) 90 degree
(iv) 45 degree
40. Cotler pin for castellected nut is made of
(a) steel
(b) cadmimum plate low carbon steeel
(c)
stainless steel
(a)
Carbon steel
28.
5/32 (ii)
3/16 (iii)
1/8 (iv)
3/32
78.
12.
Torsion loads
Bending loads
(ii)
(iv)
Dia and length of the screws is decoded by the dash number -516-10
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
37. When power is to be transmitted inn one directionally and the force is
transmitted parallel to axis ie use
(i)
(iii)
0.
Plain washers
Tab washers
(ii)
(iv)
Spring washers
Crinkle washers
10.
41.
ACME thread
Knuckle
69.
(ii)
(iv)
41.
Square thread
Buttress
29 deg
90 deg
More than 90 deg to provide correct fit
Less than 90 deg to provide correct fit
(d)
35.
For repairing the oversize hole with sleeve, the hole must be drilled
oversized by
(a) 3/16
(b) 1/32
(c) 1/64
(d) 3/64
36.
(b)
(d)
40.
An 12 H5 indicates
(a) dia 3/5 and head is not drilled
(b) dia 6/8 and head is drilled
(c)
dia 6/8 and head is drilled
(d) dia 6/8 and shank & head is drilled
42.
AN 12115 indicates
(a) dia 3/5 and head
(b) dia 6/8 and head
(c)
dia 6/8 and head
(d) dia 6/8 head and
45.
3.
10.
11.
53.
35.
37.
7 strand of 19 wire
none
is not drilled
is not drilled
is drilled
shank is drilled
(c)
hole finder
Edge distance is
(a) 2 times the shank diameter
(b) 2 times the sheet thickness
(c)
2 times of head diameter
(d) none
Rivet can be removed by
(a) center punch
(b) prick punch
(c)
pin punch (drift punch drive or punch)
(d) alignment punch
While riveting center hole can be located by
(a) center pitch
(b) template
(c)
hole finder
(d) all of the above
Edge distance is
(a) 2 times the shank diameter
(b) 2 times the sheet thickness
(c)
2 times of head diameter
(d) none
For repairing the oversize hole with sleeve, the hole must be drilled
oversized by
(a) 3/16
(b) 1/32
(c) 1/64
(d) 3/64
Which of the following pin is used to take shear load
(a) taper pin
(b) clevis pin
(c)
roll pin
(d) cotton pin
42.
10.
AN 12115 indicates
(a) dia 3/5 and head
(b) dia 6/8 and head
(c)
dia 6/8 and head
(d) dia 6/8 head and
is not drilled
is not drilled
is drilled
shank is drilled
TOOLS
HAMMER
1.
2.
3.
What amount of load is acting on the bold extension bar is used on the
torque wrench as shown in figure
(a) 150 lbs
(b) 125 lbs
(c)
175 lbs
(d) 200 lbs
5.
6.
Allen wrenches are six sided bars and they range in size from
(i)
(iii)
7.
3/64 to 1
3/32 to
(ii)
(iv)
1/8 to
3/64 to (534)
8.
15 degree
32 degree
(ii)
(iv)
22 degree(533)
55 degree
9.
(i)
Te
Tw x A
------B
(iii)
Te
=
AxB
-----Tw
(ii)
Tw
(iv)
None
Te x A
------- (9-29)
B
Torsion
Length of range multiplier
(ii)
(iv)
10.
11.
Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft of other cylindrical work
(i)
(iii)
12.
Combination set(9-33)
Micrometer caliper
(ii)
(iv)
Dial indicator
Slip gauge
(ii)
(iv)
15.
Nose pliers
Diagonal pliers(531)
Stronger teeth
(ii)
Weaker teeth
Strength has nothing to do with pressure angle
Could be stronger or weaker depending on module adopted
16.
17.
18.
(b)
(d)
19.
21.
22. Aviation snips are designed especially for cutting heat treated Al alloy
and stainless steel as thick as
(i)
.031 (ii)
.051(534) (iii)
.075 (iv)
.085
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
flat chisel
Round nose chisel (536)
(ii)
(iv)
cape chisel
Diamond point chisel
33.
Telescoping gage
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
32.
(ii)
(iv)
31.
30.
45 to 55 degree
55 to 75 degree
Chisel used to recenter a drill which has moved away from its centre
(i)
(iii)
29.
(ii)
(iv)
28.
60 to 70 degree(536)
50 to 75 degree
checking
checking
checking
all of the
34.
35.
(b)
(d)
scale punch
center gage
(b)
(d)
on both side
(b)
use on slat by diameter and (d)
42.
41.
In square thread
(a)
(b)
(c)
40.
(b)
(d)
39.
38.
37.
(b)
(d)
36.
filler gage
filler gage
43.
When material is forced through a die to take the shape of die is called
(a)
(c)
44.
47.
30 to 60 (ST/41)
35 to 75
49.
(ii)
(iv)
48.
rolling
Casting (Mg)
46.
(b)
(d)
45.
Forging
Extrusion
50.
51.
(ii)
(iii)
52.
(ii)
75% (529)
(iii)
25%
(b)
(d)
raker
none
Hacksaw strokes should be long and steady with a speed not more than
35 to 40 strokes per minutes
40 to 50 strokes per minutes (535)
45 to 55 strokes per minutes
100 strokes per minutes
57.
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
58.
To reduce the friction between the drill and the sides of the hole
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
60.
90%
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
59.
(iv)
56.
50%
55.
54.
(iv)
The common screw driver must fill at least.. percent of screw slot
(i)
53.
59 degree
(ii) 45 degree
90 degree (539) (iv) 118 degree
61.
63.
64.
(b)
(d)
3/16 (0.1875)
E (0.2500)
(ii)
(iv)
66.
No 80 (0.0135)
3.75mm (0.1475)
65.
Fiberglass
Carbon/graphite
(ii)
(iv)
Aramid
Epoxes
The dia of a twist drill may be given is one or three ways. The more
accurate system for classification
(i)
(iii)
67.
68.
69.
By fraction
By numbers(539)
(ii)
(iv)
Margin of drill is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
By letters
By decimal
70.
71.
72.
before reaming
before and after reaming
(b)
(d)
after reaming
none
2.5
(b)
2.1667
(c)
3.5 (d)
2.75
76.
empty paper
75.
(b)
74.
file
oversize drilling
73.
77.
(c)
(d)
78.
(i)
Pyramid shank
(iii) Hexagonal shank
79.
80.
(ii)
Drilling holes
Smoothing and enlarging holes to exact size(539)
Polishing the holes
Repairing the holes
81.
82.
(b)
(d)
forging
both a & b
65 to 85 degree
30 to 45 degree
(ii)
(iv)
40 to 45 degree(536)
70 to 80 degree
40 to 45 degree
70 to 80 degree
(ii)
(iv)
30 to 45 degree
65 to 85 degree(536)
86.
machining
extrusion
The single cut file has a single row of teeth extending across the face at
an angle of
(i)
(iii)
85.
118 degree
(iv) 135 degree
The double cut file has two rows of teeth which cross each other the angle
of first row is
(i)
(iii)
84.
(ii)
83.
59 degree
100 degree (J 9-18)
Over cut(536)
Double cut
(ii)
(iv)
Up cut
Under cut
(i)
Choose the right file for the material and work to be performed
(ii)
Keep all files racked and separated so they dont bear against each
other
(iii) Apply oil and grease to the file when not in use
(iv) As in (i) & (ii) and keep the files clean(538)
87.
Hand shears are needed to make large holes or curved parts. They have
coloured handles which identifies direction of cuts. The red colour
(i)
(iii)
88.
Cuts straight
(ii) Cut curves both left and right
Cuts curves left (J 9-12) (iv) Cut curves right
3/16
(iv)
16 gauge
89.
90.
91.
(ii)
(iv)
Carbon/graphite
Ceramic
92.
Aramid
Fiberglass
Ceramic
Aramid
(ii)
(iv)
Baron
Carbon/Graphite
The operation of pushing and pulling a across the work and holding
(i)
(iii)
Draw filing
Safe
(ii)
(iv)
Cross filing
Pinning
Filing straight
File is moved by holding at each end and moving length wise to
or side ways across the work (537)
Filing cross wise
Filing width wise
center punch
(b)
template
(c)
hole finder
95.
96.
glat drill
twist drill
(b)
(d)
97.
98.
99.
tap extractor
easy out screw extractor (for broken screw)
by drilling on the top of tap
None
flap wrench
(b)
die stock
(c)
none
105. Which is used to transfer rivet size from template to new sheet is
(a)
(c)
centre punch
alignment punch
(b)
(d)
pin punch
transfer punch(532)
50 degree
(ii)
100 degree(542) (iv)
118 degree
135 degree
Face (iii)
Pitch circle
PRECESION INSTRUMENT
1.
2.
3.
shaft gage
All
Dial indicator(9-39)
Protractor
(iv)
(ii)
Shaft gauge
None of the above
(ii)
(iv)
Combination set
Depth gauge
7.
(b)
(d)
What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main
bearing journals for out of round wear
(i)
(iii)
6.
Which tool can be used to measure the out of round condition on a shaft
or the plane of rotation of a disk?
(i)
(iii)
5.
Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the
plane of rotation of disk.
(a)
(c)
4.
Gage block
(ii)
DTI
Surface plate or surface gage
(iv)
Depth micrometer
(c)
DTI
(d)
None
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
(b)
(d)
boroscope
All
Gauge block(9-37)
Machinist scale
(iv)
(ii)
Dial indicator
None of the above
14.
15.
16.
For very accurate readings during such calibrations the thimble may be
viewed under a microscope of
(a) low magnification
(b) medium magnification
(c)
High magnification
17.
If the thimble scale zero mark is above the zero mark of barrel
mark in micrometer it indicates
(a)
(c)
18.
negative error
None
0.169
0.170
(ii)
(iv)
0.174
0.173
20.
(b)
(d)
19.
Positive error
zero error
The Zero line of the sleeve is above the datum line of the barrel in a
micrometer, the error is
(i)
(iii)
Positive error
Backlash error
(ii)
(iv)
Negative error
Any of the above
21.
22.
23.
(ii)
(iv)
5.64 mm
5.64 cm
24.
5.39 mm
5.39 cm
1 mm
(b) 0.01 mm
(c)
0.01 cm
(d)
0.001 mm
0.01mm
(b) 0.002 cm
25.
DTI
(b)
Micrometer (c)
Vernier scale
(d)
rules
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
0.01 mm
(b)
(d)
40 TPI
50 TPI
(b)
(d)
0.001 mm
0.1 mm
31.
0.02 cm
0.01 cm
(ii)
(iv)
0.002 cm
0.001 cm
HAND TOOLS(QB)
1.
Tw=100;
Te=? Extension=5,
150 in lbs
175 in lbs
b) 125 in lbs
d) 200 in lbs
GAGE
1.
Which tool is used to measure the clearance between the surface plates and a
relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness.
a. Depth gauge
b. Thickness gauge
c. Dial indicator
d. Vernier Caliper
2.
Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylinder work
a. Combination set
b. Dial indicator
c. Micrometer caliper
d. Set square
3.
4.
5.
The convenient gages which are designed to inspect the
thickness of paper, plastic, steel metal, leather and so on with great
accuracy are
(a) indicating depth gage
(b) indicating thickness gage
(c) amplifying comparative gage (d) indicating gage
6.
Telescoping gage
(a) is used for inside diameter (b) range from to 6
(c) range from to 1
(d) both (a) & (b)
7.
8.
An amplifying, comparative gage is an instrument that amplifies
the variation in the size of two similar parts by
(a) 2 times
(b) 5 times
(c) 10 times
(d) 20 times
9.
Johansson precision gage blocks, the second series of gage blocks contains
(a) 19 blocks
(b) 49 blocks
(c) 81 blocks
(d) none of these
HAMMER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5) Tool steel
5.
6.
(i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground
(ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metal
a) Only (i) is correct
b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct (9-3)
7.
8.
(i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out nails
(ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handle
a) Only (i) is correct (9-2)
b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
PUNCH
1.
A punch is used to
a) Mark a location
c) Locate a drill properly
2.
i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet
head has been chiselled off
ii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the
rivet to be removed
a) Only i) is correct (9-5)
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
3.
4.
5.
Punch used for making a series of light pops along scribed line, which will be
machined or filed away
a) Pin punch
c) Light centre punch
6.
b) Stout punch
d) Parallel pin punch
7.
b) 450
c)650
d) 900
8.
While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch should be
a) Larger than the size of the pin
b) Smaller than the size of pin
c) Same size of the pin
d) Can be of any size
10.
PLIER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Heavy pliers
Lever jaw wrench
Monkey pliers
None
d) 12 inches
6.
7.
9.
Round
Half-round
Square
None
In interlocking-joint pliers,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
CHISEL
1.
2.
3.
b) 70 degrees (9-8)
d) 110 degrees
4.
i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it
has been drilled through
ii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold chisel
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct (9-8)
5.
SNIPS
1.
Aviation snip
a) Is same as Dutchman snip
b) Has serrated cutting edges
c) Can easily cut thick sheet metals
d) All are correct
FILES
1.
2.
3.
b) Length
d) All are correct (536)
b) Smooth cut
d) Both a) & b) are correct (536)
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
b) Round files
d) All are correct
10.
b) 6-12 inches
d) 10-20 inches
11.
b) Fitting end
c) Tang (9-9)
d) Point
12.
9.
Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at
a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees (9-9)
b) 45 degrees and 45 degrees
c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees
d) None of these
13.
There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the
wrong one
a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest (9-9)
14.
15.
Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth
a) Vixen (537)
16.
20.
b) Cut of file
d) Section of files
(i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work
(ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
19.
d) Triangular
a) Length of file
c) Grade of file
18.
c) Knife
17.
b) Wood rasp
SAW
1.
2.
b) Rip saw
d) Wood saw
3.
4.
5.
i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum
steel
ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade
should be lifted for the return stroke
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
6.
i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used
ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are
there on each side of the tube as it is cut
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
7.
8.
d) None of these
9.
Hacksaw is used by
a) Putting same pressure for forward and backward stroke
b) Putting pressure for forward stroke and release the pressure in backward
stroke
c) Putting less pressure in forward stroke and more pressure in backward stroke
d) Any of these
10.
11.
i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used
ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are
there on each side of the tube as it is cut
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
12.
BITS
1.
SCREW DRIVER
1.
2.
b) As a punch
d) All are correct
b) Blade length of up to 2
d) All are correct
3.
Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called
a) Closed area screw driver
b) Stubby screw driver
c) Off set slot screw driver
d) Any one of the above
4.
A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain
width of the screw slot. It should cover at least
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 75%
d) 90%
6.
i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driver
ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw driver
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
7.
8.
9.
Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are
not parallel
a) Phillips screwdriver
b) Reed & prince screwdriver
c) Both are correct
d) None
10.
11.
WRENCHES
1.
2.
4.
5.
i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end wrench is used
ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips the nut at
many places compared to an open ended wrench
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
6.
7.
8.
9.
Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated
jaws for gripping round pipes?
Warnok type
Stillson type
Super wrench tool
Williams type
10.
11.
Ratchets
a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement
b) Are available with long and short handles
c) Can easily fit into sockets
d) All are correct
13.
Pinning is related to
a) Chisels
c) Screw drivers
b) Punches
d) None of these
14.
15.
16.
DRILL
1.
The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is
a) Dead centre
b) Point
c) Margin
d) Lip
2.
The angle between a lip and axis of the drill bit is known as ______ and mostly
590
a) Heel angle
b) Lip angle
c) Lip clearance
d) None of these
3.
Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled
is known as
a) Point
b) cutting lips
c) Margin
d) Flutes
4.
a) 2 : 3
b) 3 : 2
c) 1 : 4
d) 4 : 1
5.
6.
The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is
(a) dead centre
(b) point
(c) margin
(d) lip
7.
The angle between a lip and axis of a drill bit is known as ___________ and
mostly 59.
(a) heel angle
(b) lip angle
(c) lip clearance
(d) none of these
8.
Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled
is known as
(a) point
(b) cutting lips
(c) margin
(d) flutes
9.
10.
MEASURING INSTRUMENTS(QB)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1.
2.
AN 818-5
AN-818-8
(b)
(d)
AN 818-2
any one
3.
4.
5.
9.
smoothness
more concentric
seats better
all (10-6)
7.
6.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
10.
11.
16
(b)
21
(c)
(d)
36
All long extruded parts such as bar, tube, pipe etc are stored
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17.
Steel (d)
16.
(c)
15.
Cu
Fusible metals are used for tube (1/4 inch and below) bending has
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14.
(b)
13.
Al-alloy
12.
horizontally
Horizontally well supported along its length
vertically inclined at an angle of 60 deg.
all
(b)
(c)
working pressure
(d)
all (10-20)
18. While testing for magnetic testing it was found non magnetic. In nitric
acid it was found rapid action greenish blue color. The material is
(a)
(b)
Monel(d) CRS
20.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
Red
green
24.
2 to 3 % of total length
3 to 9 % of total length
23.
22.
(b)
(d)
21.
1
6 times of its radius
-65 degree F
-65 degree C to +350 Degree C
+65 degree F + 450 degree F
-65degree F to +450 Degree F ( 10-14)
25.
26.
27.
Black
(iv)
Red (100)
(ii)
Green
(iii)
Purple (100)
(iv)Red
Green
Blue and yellow
(ii)
(iv)
b) 14
c) 9.5
d) 11.5(119)
9 (ii)
11
(iii)
12
(iv)
14 (119)
(ii)22
(iii)
15 (119)
(iv)
18
The max distance between supports for Al alloy tubing of 3/8 (6/16)
dia tubing is as
(i)
52.
(iii) Grey
The max distance between supports for steel tubing of 3/16 dia is
(i)
64.
Purple
Maximum distance between support for fluid tubing of 1/8 (2/16) size of steel
(i)
31.
(ii)
Black
a) 12
30.
Blue
Black & Blue respectively (10-8)
The rigid pipe lines can be identified for the material by a colour band
painted on the tube. If the Al alloy is 7075, the colour is
(i)
(iii)
29.
is
(ii)
(iv)
The rigid pipe lines can be identified for the material by a colour band
painted on Tube . If the Al alloy is 5052 , the colour is
(i)
29.
Gray
Black
The rigid pipe lines can be identified for the material by a colour band
painted on the tube. If the Al alloy is 2024 the colour is
(i)
28.
12
(ii)
15
(iii)
19
(iv)
16 (119)
(iv)
61.
Tubing may be beaded with a hand beaded tool if the tube dia is not more
than
(i)
(iii)
31.
to 1 (10-10)
to 1
(ii)
9iv)
to 1
1/8 to
32.
PHDAN
FUEL (10-13)
(ii)
(iv)
FLAM (10-13)
FLEM
33.
34.
(ii)
Hot flow
(iii)
None
36.
If a/c hose is removed from the system and to reinstall that hose it should
have
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
37.
38.
With the hose assy suspended from one end ball should pass truly
through and check should be repeated from other end. If the ball fails to
pass through the hose, the hose must be
(i)
Pressure tested
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
39.
40.
41.
Vaporizing fule.
(ii)
Rubber hose (flexible tubes) (114) (iv)
42. Which maintenance record entry best describe the action taken by FAR
when a 0.125 dent in a straight section of alloy tubing is found.
(a) dent is acceptable limit and repair not necessary
(b) dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing
flared 45.
(c)
Dent removed by drawing appropriate size bullet through the
tubing. (10-12S)
(d) Deferred to maintenance check.
44.
45.
10% (10-3)
5 to 8% longer
(ii)
15%
(iv) 20% longer
46.
47.
48.
49.
(iii)
(iv)
51.
53.
54.
55.
56.
58.
Teflon hoses
(i)
Offers little resistance to flow
(ii)
No. sticky viscous material will stick to it
(iii) Has less volumetric expansion than rubber
(iv) As in (i), (ii) & (iii) and the shelf and service life is practically
limitless (10-14)
59.
Tube fitting which has a shoulder between the end of the threads and the
flare cone is of:
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
60.
A.C. Standard
(ii)
M.S. Standard
AN Standard(10-8)
As in (ii) and (iii) and the AC fitting does not have shoulder
1.
(iv)
2.
(ii)
4.
5.
A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow strip running the
length of the hose. This stripe
a) Identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only
b) Is used to insure that the hose is installed without excessive
twisting
c) Identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and
may be suitable for a wide range of operation
d) Both a) and b) are correct
6.
7.
8.
48.
b)
c)
3/8 d)
9.
5052-O Al-alloy
6061-T Al-alloy tubing with size from 1/8 3/8 OD
7075-T
Both a) and b) (111)
2.
(ii)
(iv)
Voltage
All (11-19)
Amperes
(ii)
Voltage range (11-19) (iv)
Penetrating power
Electromagnetic radiation
8.
Thickness of material
Type of material
7.
Material thickness
Shape of object
Character of x-ray
All are correct (11-19)
6.
5.
Fibroscope
All are correct (11-2)
4.
(b)
(d)
3.
Boroscope inspection
Endoscope
Disassembled parts
Little or no disassembly
(ii)
(iv)
9.
In Radiological examination of aircraft parts, fluoroscopic images are
greatly
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
10.
11.
12.
13.
b) Eddy current
d) X-Ray (BL/8-4)
(b) 10-10
(c) 10-11
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
(b) frequency
(d) both (a) & (b)
Fluroscopy is applicable to
(a) normal X-ray sources
(c) X-rays
19.
20.
21. Blurring at the edges of a radiographic image due to the radiation source being
of finite dimensions
(a) penumbra (BL/8-4) (b) resolution
(c) unsharpness
(d) none of these
22.
23.
USI
(b)
DPI
(c)
endoscope (d)
Radiography
Distortion
Longitudinal cracks only
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
26.
27.
(ii)
(iv)
45 Degrees (11-8)
Transverse.
on surface
on sub surface
As in (ii) and due to amount of flux leakage is less (11-10)
Part is not properly magnetized
30.
Lateral.
Longitudinal.
In the M.P Inspection, when fewer particles are held in place and a
fainter and less sharply defined indication is obtained, the defect is:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
29.
By the solenoids
As in (i) and by induction from the magnetic field (11-8)
By consisting of concentric circles
None of the above
28.
31.
A fernlike pattern.
Transverse lines.
(ii)
(iv)
A single line.
Parallel lines (11-12).
35.
4 to 8 turns
2 to 5 turns
37.
36.
38. One way a part may be demagnetizing after magnetic particle inspection
is by
(i)
Subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage ac.
(ii)
Slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient
strength (11-12)
(iii) Slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient
strength
(iv) Demagnetizations is not required when part is fitted away from
cockpit
39.
In magnetic flaw detection method, black ink suitable for use on bright
machined components but red inks may be more suitable for
(i)
(ii)
Coated parts
Forged parts
(iii)
(iv)
40.
41.
42.
MPI
As in (a) but DPI is more efficient
both are equally efficient
none
(b)
(d)
welding cracks
laps
43
What method of magnetic particles inspection is used often to
inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks
(a) Residual
(c) Intermittent
44.
45.
46.
(b) Inductance
(d) Continuous
(c)
passing the alternating current througho the part being
demagnetised and reduce the current to zero ( this procedure is used
with portable units)
(d)
all are correct (477)
47.
(ii)
(iv)
Ultrasonic inspection
None of the above
Al
All type of metals (11-15)
(b)
Mg
53.
52.
51.
(b)
(d)
50.
54.
55.
56.
57.
(b) disbond
(d) all are correct (BL/8-3)
58.
59.
60.
61.
A transducer converts
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
62.
63.
66.
65.
64.
Which of the following NDT process is not suitable for the detection of the
minute flaws of tightly shut crack.
(i) dye penetrant
(iii) Oil and chalk process
67.
(ii) Magnaflux
(iv) Ultrasonic method
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
black
(ii)
(iv)
Ferrous material
Ceramic
In the dye perctrant method of inspection the penetrant action of the dye
will retard if temperature is below
(iii)
75.
(b)
74.
green
red
73.
80 deg F
(iv)
60 deg F (BL/8-2)
76.
To avoid the risk of corrosion, dye-penetrant test of magnesium alloys are done
after
(a) anodising
(c) carburizing
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
In flourescent method
a) if wet developer is applied, it must be dried.
b) if wet developer is applied, it must not be dried.
c) dry for long period.
d) none
85.
Electromagnetic method
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
86.
Reflectoscope
X-ray
(ii)
(iv)
Boroscope
None
CORROSION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of
8.
9.
10.
11.
The metal that is oxidized due to the corrosion attack that is called as
(a) Neutralized agent
(c) Cathodic change
(d) Gold
14.
(c) Copper
Stainless steel
b) Chromium (12-6)
c) Al-alloy
Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to
occur
a.
Presence of electrolyte
b.
Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area
c. Presence of passive oxide film (12-8)
d.
15.
None of these
16.
17.
19.
20.
22.
23.
Corrosion usually occurs under thin oil grease or varnish films on metal
surfaces, if there is evidence of lack of adhesion of the film. It is known
as
(i)
(iii)
24.
Stress corrosion
Filiform(12-11)
Fretting corrosion
Surface corrosion
When metal is in contact with plastics, glass wool (non-conducting material) the
corrosion form is known as
a. Fretting
25.
(ii)
(iv)
28.
29.
33.
(c)
(d)
34.
35.
both a & b
None
Brinelling
(ii) Granulation
Exfoliation (12-12) (iv) Freting
36. Very severe inter granular corrosion may some times cause the surface of
the metal
(i)
(iii)
37.
(ii)
(iv)
to Exfoliate (12-12)
to deep pitting
Exfoliation Corrosion is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
38.
to corrode
for galvanic action
40..
MTCS
a) Inter-granular corrosion is attack along the grain boundaries
b) Al-alloy and some stainless steel are particularly susceptible
c) Ultrasonic and radiographic inspection method are used
d) Both a) and b) are correct (12-12)
41.
43.
44.
45. Corrosion caused by when two mating surfaces normally at rest with
respect to one another are subject to slight relative motion is called:
(i)
(iii)
46.
Stress corrosion
Fretting corrosion (12-13)
(ii)
(iv)
47.
48.
49.
(ii)
(iv)
(b)
(d)
surface corrosion
stress corrosion
52.
50.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
53. The internal surface of sealed structural steel tubing is best protected
against corrosion by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
54. The process of Al and its alloys been covered with pure aluminium to avoid
corrosion is called
a) Sherardizing
c) Cladding (12-25)
55.
b) Anodizing
d) Chromating
b) Sodium oxide
d) Calcium oxide
56.
57.
Alodizing
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
58.
59.
What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel part
a) Steel wire brush
61.
wire brush
controlled sand brushing
(b)
(d)
62.
carborundum abrasive
all of the above
64.
(b) Galvanizing
(d) Metal spraying
63.
Emery paper
all are correct (12-27)
65.
66.
67.
b) Anodizing
d) Chrome pickle treatment (12-29)
(iii)
(iv)
68.
69.
Electrolytic action
Scaling
(ii)
(iv)
Corrosion
(i) & (ii) are correct
aluminium
CRS
(b)
(d)
Mg
Al and stainless steel
corrosion
fettlers
(b)
(d)
abrasion
all
76.
susceptible to corrosion
Has tendency to corrosion
Resistance to corrosion
Both a & b (LG/19)
The part which is dry and un-lubricated which of the following occurs
(a)
(c)
75.
raised ring/dash
no head marking
74.
73.
Mg is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
72.
Sulphur,phosphorus lead
Tungsten, Molybdenum,
vanadium chromium
71.
CPCP refer to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
70.
corrosion resistance
resistance to tarnish
difficult to detect
(b)
(d)
build up
all
(b)
(c)
(d)
77.
79.
corrosion resistance
prevents from raveling
82.
flexibility
both a & b
Austenitic in nature
Austenitic but only when heated above critical range
Never in austenitic nature
None
(b)
(d)
80.
easy to detect
as in (a) & increase with high temperature and salt.
as in (b) & removed with Al-grid or Al-polished
b) HCL
c) HNO3
83. The type of corrosion that is generally present in aircraft but not visible is
a) Exfoliation
b) Fretting c) Electrolytic
d) Inter-surface
84. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline upto
height of _____________ above water line
(a) 1 Feet
(b) 2 Feet
(c) 1 meter
(d) 2 meter
85.
86.
(a) Al-alloy
(c) Steel-Alloy
89.
90.
91.
92.
Al. Alloy bell cranks employing pressed in taper pins are suspected to
a) Fatigue corrosion
c) Stress corrosion(12-13)
93.
b) 17 S
d) All of these
b) Fretting corrosion
d) None of these
94.
99.
alloys
a) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent
b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemically
c) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed
mechanically
d) All of the above
104. The correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steel
a) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solution
b) Phosphoric acid can also be used
c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surface
d) All of the above
105. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up
action of chromate bearing conversion coating treatment?
(a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover
(b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover
(c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water
(d) Nitric acid + water
106.
109. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless steel forms__ due to high temperature
(a) Crevice corrosion
(c) Inter-granular corrosion
(b) Aluminium
(c) Mg
115. The rust and corrosion is removed from highly stressed steel parts by
(a) abrasive paper
(c) wire brush
(b)
(c)
121. The transferring metal from one object to another by chemical and
coating is done to protect the base metal from
(a) corrosion
(b) Wear
(c)
Increase the dimension to protect the base metal against chemical
reaction
(d) All
122. Combination of corrosion resistance steel
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
helicoil insertion
scrap the part
(b)
(d)
abrasive
(c)
Chemical
(b)
Al wire brush
128. Which solvent is used for removing the corrosion products from Mg alloy
(i)
10-15% sulphuric acid in water
(ii)
25% HCL in water
(iii) 10% Chronic acid and 0.1 % sulphuric acid
(iv) 10% chronic acid & 0.1% sulphuric acid
(v)
5% sulphuric acid solution with a suitable wetting agent
(vi) Solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in distilled water with
0.1% salphuric acid
(vii) Almagmated mercuric acid
130
131
Chromatizing:
(i)
(ii)
acid
(iii)
(iv)
132
.00005
.001 to .005
.002 to .015
.0002 to .0005
Eddy current
BNJ Jet Test
(ii)
(iv)
Magnaflux
Micrometer
Monthly
Submitting them to a salt spray test
Salt spray test consists of 20% sodium solution
As in (i), (ii) and as in (iii) for 30 days
139. Anodic coating in the process of hard anodizing the coating thickness
should be
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
.001 to .003
.0001
6.
47.
MTCS
(i)
Al oxide in a protective layer of Al. which is porous and prevent
further corrosion and iron oxide in non porous and eat away the metal
(ii)
Al oxide is non porous and prevent further corrosion but iron oxide
is porous and eat away the metal
(iii) Only (i) is correct
4.
26.
Tang of a drill
Bit shank
(ii)
(iv)
Shank of a drill
Tapered shank
64.
63.
9.
Paralketone used on
(a) cable
(c)
conduit
(b)
(d)
iron
none
52.
70.
(b)
(d)
Electroplating provides
(a) corrosion resistant surface
(c)
both a & b
72.
64.
(b)
(d)
too built up
All are correct
GROUND HANDLING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(d)
10.
Levelling of a/c
(a) lateral leveling of H/A is more critical than L/A(61)
(b) jacking points are located on longitudinal axis
(c)
leveling is always done on longitudinal axis
(d) leveling of lateral point is always done on longitudinal axis
11.
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12.
(i)
Jack should be inspected for lifting capacity
(ii)
Check proper functioning
(iii) All work stands and other equipment should be removed from under
and near the Aircraft
(iv) All of the above(523)
13.
14.
(ii)
(iv)
Aircraft jacks in constant use usually check for leaks corrosion hose
condition etc at intervals of
(i)
15. Large multi engine aircraft when towed by tractor the tow bar is fitted
with a
(i)
Shear pin or bolt
(ii)
Wheels to move on the ground
(iii) As in (i) and to prevent excessive force being Applied to the nose
under carriage
(iv) Hook to engage in a tractor
16. While towing the large multi engine a/c the centre ofr gravity of the a/c
must be determined before towing
(i)
For the purpose of weight and balance
(ii)
To right aircraft
(iii) To ensure that there is sufficient weight on the nose wheel
(iv) Ballast may some times be required to achieve a safe CG
operation+3
17.
While towing the large multi engine A/C before towing is commenced
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
18. When taxing (or towing) an a/c , an alternating red and green light rom
the control tower means
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
19.
A minor check and major check of all tow bars to be carried out
(i)
Once weekly and three months intervals respectively
(ii)
Twice weekly and either 3 months or 6 months intervals respectively
(iii) As in (ii) and depending on the complexity and amount of usage of
a particular to bar
(iv) None of the above
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
(c)
Thermos copy is most difficult method since it require
material with high thermal conductivity
(d) all of the above
25.
26.
The person incharge of towing the Aircraft should verify that on Aircraft
with a stearable nose wheel :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
30.
Surface area ratio behind the pivot point (main gear is less
When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft , a flashing red light from the control
tower means
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
29.
Face
Face
Face
Face
a/c
a/c
a/c
a/c
31. Which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some
aircraft
(i)
Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent accidental operation of
the nose wheel steering mechanism
(ii)
Tail wheel a/c must be towed backward
(iii) If the a/c has a steerable nose wheel , the torque link lock should
be set to full swivel(519)
(iv) None of the above
32.
33.
Which statement (s) is/are true regarding the down of small aircraft?
(i)
Manla (help) rope has a tendency to stretch when it gets wet
(ii)
Nylon or Dacron rope is preferred to manila rope
(iii) The aircraft should be headed downwing in order to eliminate or
minimize wing lift
(iv) Leave he nose wheel or tail wheel unlocked
34.
35.
36.
(ii)
(iv)
Pad eye
Pin eye
38.
Bull eye
Anchor eye
6000 lbs
4000 lbs
(ii)
(iv)
5000 lbs
3000 lbs
39.
40.
(b)
(c)
(d)
42.
43.
(ii)
(iv)
44. Surface oil hyd fluid, grease or fuel can be removed from a/c tyres by
washing with a
(i)
(iii)
45.
46.
Vaccume cleaner
Jet of compressed air
(ii)
Carborundum paper
Aluminum wool(12-3).
(ii)
Steel wool
(iv) Crocus cloth
49. Caustic cleaning products used on aluminium structures have the effect of
producing
(i)
(iii)
Passive oxidation
Anticorrsive surface
(ii)
(iv)
50. What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease
come in contact with a tire
(i)
Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth and then rinse with clean
water
(ii)
Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a wash down and rinse
with soap and water(12-4)
(iii) Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic naphtha and
then wipe dry with a clean cloth
(iv) Wash with as jet of pressure
51.
52.
Head to wind
To any direction of wind
Before starting as piston engine shut down for more than 30 minutes
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
54.
(ii)
(iv)
Before starting an Aircraft Jet Engine the area in front of the Jet Inlet:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
53.
Metal
Tufnol
(ii)
(iv)
Plastic
Perspex
Aircraft to be jacked up
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
57.
58.
Surface is scratched
Treat the surface with an anti static charge
Static charge is build up
(ii) & (iii) are correct
63.
Used as a retarded
2&3
62.
Used as a thinner
(ii)
Used in zinc chromate (iv)
Because of the high surface and volume resistirities of Acrylic sheet when
it is rubbed with a dry cloth
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
61.
Toluence is
(i)
(iii)
60.
(ii)
Methyl ethyl ketone
Gasoline
GROUND HANDLING(QB)
1.
When approaching the front of an idling jet engine the hazard area extends
forward of the engine approximately
a. 10 feet
b. 15 feet
c. 25 feet
d. 35 feet
2.
Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a
carburetor or intake fire
a. Dry chemical
b. A fine water mist
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Form
3.
When approaching the rear of an idling turbo jet engine the hazard area extends
aft of the engine approximately
a. 200 feet
b. 100 feet
c. 50 feet
d. 25 feet
4.
5.
6.
Tail-wheel type aeroplanes have the greatest tendency to move side-ways during
taxing when there is
a) Cross wind
b) Tail wind
c) Head wind
d) None of these
7.
When parking a aircraft after towing, the nose wheel should be left
a) Pointed straight ahead b) As it was when towing stopped
c) Unlocked
d) All are correct
8.
9.
10.
12.
13.
14.
15.
18. When taxying an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from
the control tower means
(a) Move clear of the runway/taxy way immediately
(b) OK to proceed but used extreme caution
(c) Return to starting point
(d) Stop where are
19.
FUEL
1.
2.
(c) Blue
(d) Yellow
(c)
(d)
3.
Flow of aviation fuel which passes greater antiknock quality than 100
octane areClassified
(a) according to the multiplier of lead
(b) by reference to normal neptane
(c)
by performance number(95)
(d) none
4.
5.
6.
7.
The fluid use for all types for aircraft engine except rocket is
(a) gasoline
(b) air
(c) ATF
(d) all are correct
8.
AVGAS dispenser is
(a)
red
(b)
blue
(c)
black
(d)
green
9.
10.
Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine
fuel. Which statement is true in reference to the advantages of each
(i)
Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit weight than gasoline
(ii)
Gasoline has a higher heat energy per unit weight than kerosene
(iii) Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume than
gasoline(77)
(iv) Kerosene has a lower heat energy per unit weight than gasoline
11.
12.
13.
14.
If an engine produces 1000 H.P with 100-octane fuel and 1800 H.P with a
specimen fuel then :
(i)
Specimen fuel has octane no. 18
(ii)
Specimen fuel has 18 performance no.
(iii) Specimen fuel has 180 performance no(75).
(iv) Both 1 & 3 are correct
15.
Additives in fuel
(i)
Prevents the formation of microbial growth & fungus
(ii)
Prevent detonation
(iii) Increase the octane rating
(iv)
Any of the above(75/79)
16. Rigid tanks may be pretested by filling with few gallons of kerosene and
applying a mixture of whiting and methylated spirit to all secure and joints
apply a air pr. Of
(i)
(iii)
17.
3 PSI
2 PSI
(ii)
(iv)
3.5 PSI
1.5 PSI
18.
FUEL(QB)
1.
d. None of these
2.
The main difference between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are
a. Volatility and lead content
b. Volatility, lead content and colour
c. Lead content and colour
d. All of these
3.
d) 0.5
6.
7.
8.
Rigid fuel tanks are tested for leak with the air pressure of
a) 2.5 PSI
b) 1.5 PSI
c) 2 PSI
d) 3 PSI
9.
Flexible fuel tanks are tested for fuel leak with the air pressure of
a) 0.25 PSI
b) 1.5 PSI
c) 2.5 PSI
d) 0.5 PSI
10.
Fuel leak of the tank is checked for the seepage for the period of
a) 15 min
c) 30 min
c) 45 min
d) 60 min
11.
The bladder type of fuel cell is made to size in the cavity when it sit
a) Larger b) Smaller
c) Equal
d) All of these
12.
13.
14.
15.
The fluid is used for all type of aircraft engine except rocket is
(a) gasoline
(b) air
(c) aviation turbine fuel
(d) all of the above
16.
(d) green
FIRE
1.
(ii)
2.
3.
4.
5.
7.
8.
9.
(ii)
(iv)
Dry powder
Foam
6.
Class A fires
Class C fires
(ii)
(iv)
Class B fires
Class D firm
red(102)
(d)
(d)
maroon
(d)
Brown
All
(c)
(d)
Dry chemical
CC 14 ( balon gas)
10. Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use
on a carburetor or intake fire
(i)
(iii)
11.
Plastic
(ii)
Metal
Tufnol
As in (ii) and material should not generate static electricity (501)
13.
by
(ii)
12.
Dry chemical
Carbon dioxide(491)
By CO2
By dry chemicals (503)
(ii)
(iv)
By water
By C.T.C
b) Marking on neck
d) All of these
14. If air intake fire occurs before the engine picks up an ideal ground fire
extinguishes used is
(a) methyl bronze
(c) BCF
15.
(b) CO2
(d) both (b) & (c)
(b) 1 year
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
DOCUMENTATION
1.
2.
(b)
(c)
(d)
3.
Alert
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4.
5.
6.
7.
As per ATA-100 specification . Of air conditioning fuel navigation
and oil system is
(a) 21, 28, 34, 70
(b) 21, 31, 28, 79
(c)
31, 34, 52, 80
(d) 32, 28, 34, 79
8.
9.
as
10.
11.
ATA-37 indicates
(a) vaccum/pressure
(c)
pneumatic
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
side by side
at the end
water/waste
none of the above
(d)
12. In ATA coding system the size and type of the electrical cables/wires in
a/c are given by
(i)
(iii)
13.
(ii)
(iv)
Side by side
None of the above
RADIO
RADIO(QP)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
9.
10.
d) 4000Hz
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
b) LOS system
d) HF system
d) /8
17.
18.
AM transmitter
FM transmitter
19.
20. The modulation in which, amplitude is kept constant and frequency is changed
is called
(a) amplitude modulation
(b) space modulation
(c) frequency modulation
(d) phase modulation
21.
22.
26.
27.
28.
Advantage of modulation is
(a) Low frequency signals can be sent over long distance
(b) Size of antenna is greatly reduced
(c) No interference with other transmitters
(d) All of the above
29.
In frequency modulation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
30. If the signal frequency band is between 550 1500 KHz., and local oscillator
frequency band [1045 1995] KHz then I.F. will be
(a) 405 KHz (b) 495 KHz (c) 500 KHz (d) 1000 KHz
31.
32.
d) 90KHz to 1800KHz
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
d) HF wave
INSTRUMENT
1.
In pilot static system ,static vents are placed separately in a/c to reduce
(a) problems that are created by pressure effects.(57)
2.
3.
An altimeter has
(a) Stack of three evacuated bellows
(b) Stack of two evacuated bellows
(c)
Barometric pressure setting provision
(d) All
4.
5.
The static vents with the flat surface plate at two position to
(a) minimize position error
(b) have is formation freedom
(c)
both (a) & (b)
(d) none
6.
In uniform fluid flow the fluid is first made to flow through a tube and the
pressure exerted by the fluid is measured by
(a) dynamic pressure
(b) static pressure
(c)
reynolds no.
(d) all
7.
all
8.
9.
(d)
11.
VSI
10.
(c)
increased
decreased
(b)
(d)
remain unchanged(166)
depend upon direction of flight
When journey from magnetic equator towards pole, the dip and
(a)
(c)
increased(166)
depend upon direction
(b)
(d)
decreased
None
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
(ii)
(iv)
(i)
(iii)
22.
(ii)
23.
Tide gyro
Earth gyro
Change in pressure
Magnetism and electricity
Gyroscopic action(149)
Change in temp
24.
Atmospheric impact
Gyroscope
(ii)
(iv)
25.
26.
27.
28. In direction indicator instrument after uncaging the drift from this heading
should be noted a max. drift of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
INSTRUMENT
1. Pitot head is mounted parallel to the
(a) Latitudinal axis of aircraft
(b) Longitudinal axis of aircraft
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
2.
3.
b) Air density
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(b)
(c)
(d)
9.
10. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static system?
a) Vertical speed indicator
b) Altimeter
c) Airspeed indicator
d) All are correct
11. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static pressure is
a) Altimeter
b) Pressure gauge
c) Airspeed indicator
d) Vertical speed indicator
12.
15.
16.
17.
18.
An ROCI is connected to
(a) Static pressure only(99)
(b) Pitot pressure only
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
19.
20. Any sudden or abrupt change in the aircraft altitude may cause
erroneous indications of ROCI
(a) Due to a sudden change of airflow over static port
(b) Sudden change of air flow over pitot head
(c) On both A and B
(d) None of the above
21.
An instantaneous ROCI is
(a) Recent development
(b) Incorporates acceleration pumps
(c) Eliminates limitations associated with calibrated leak assembly
(d) All of the above(105)
22.
An ASI is
(a)
A sensitive differential pressure gauge
(b) Indicates differential between the impact and static
pressure surrounding an aircraft
(c) Consists of a sensitive metallic diaphragm
(d) All of the above
23.
Machmeter indicates
(a)The ratio of aircraft speed to the speed of sound at any altitude
(b)Mechanism is similar to that of True airspeed indicator
(c)Mechanism is similar to that of altimeter
(d)Both A and B
24.
2.
3. Static vents are always located one on each side of a fuselage and inter connected
so as to balance out pressure effect resulting from
a Any yawing or side slip motion of an aircraft
b Sudden pitch up
c Sudden pitch down
d None of the above
4.
A gyro having freedom in three planes at right angles to each other but
controlled by some external force is called
a. Free gyro
b. Tied gyro
c. Earth gyro
d. Rate gyro
5. Ability of gyro to resist any force, which tends to change the plane of rotation
is termed as
a. Gyroscopic Inertia
b. Gyroscopic Rigidity
c. Gyroscopic Precession
d. Both A and B(117)
6.
On application of an external force, the angular change at right angle to the
applied force is called gyroscopic
(a)Rigidity
(b)Precession(118)
(c)Inertia
(d)All of the above
7.
d)
8.
9.
Angular momentum is
a) Moment of inertia
c) Product of a) & b)
b) Angular velocity
d) Sum of a) & b)
10.
11.
12. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one
or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is
termed as
a) Gimbal lock(125)
b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift
13. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at
right angles to each other is termed as
a) Gimbal Lock
c) Apparent Drift
14.
The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope
which is regulated by a relief value at
a) 3.5 in Hg
b) 4.5 in Hg
c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg(126)
d) None
15.
16. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction
motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are
possible of approximate.
a) 23000rpmb) 24000rpm(127) c) 24500rpmd) None
17.
Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative position of
a) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol)
c) Both a) & b) (128)
d) None of these
18. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in gyro
horizon is ______ respectively
a) 3600 and 900
b) 3600 and 800
c) 3600 and 850(129)
d) None
19.
20.
21.
Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage
induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds
are possible of approximate.
a) 23000rpm
b) 24000rpm
c) 24500rpm
d) None
22.
In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear
from gyro rotor shaft, the speed of holder being__________
a) 25 rpm(135)
b) 20 rpm
c) 30 rpm
d) 35 rpm
23. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the supply fed to
the centre electrode is
a) 25V AC
b) 20V AC(137)
c) 12V AC
d) 15V AC
24.
25.
26.
c) 30/min
d) None
d) 30/sec
d) 30/sec
34.
35.
Both a and b
None of the above
36.
37.
In TSI, in practice, the gimbal ring deflection is generally not more than
a) 50
b) 120
c) 80
d) 60(151)
38.
c) None
39. To prevent the entry of water and other foreign matter, the pilot pressure tube is
provided with
(a) mast
(b) baffles(55)
(c) drain hole
(d) moisture trap
40. If at mean sea level ambient temperature decreases than ICAO standard
atmosphere
(a) altimeter under read
(b) altimeter over read(71)
(c)
no indication error
41. In order to compensate for barometric error i.e. altitude error due to atmospheric
pressure change an altimeter is incorporated with
(a) capsule of suitable material
(b) bimetallic strip
(c) barometric pressure setting device(74)
(d) hair spring
42. A mach meter is a compound flight instrument and uses the following
mechanism to compute the required ratio.
(a) air speed mechanism
(b) altitude mechanism
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) & (b) (92)
43.
44.
will
During a descent, the static vent become blocked by ice, the air speed indicator
(a) under read due to static pressure increasing.
(b) fall rapidly to zero due to differential pressure equalizing.
(c) over read due to static pressure increasing.
(d) continue to indicate correctly because the instrument only
uses pilot pressure.
45. An aircraft is flying a constant rate of descent at 650 fpm when the static vents
become blocked by ice. A few seconds after the blockage occurs the most likely VSI
indication will be
(a) zero
descent
46.
is
In TSI, the slip indicator is of the ball and liquid filled tube type the liquid used
(a) silicon fluid
(b) alcohol
47.
48.
49. TSI is normally consisting electrical driven gyro so in case of failure of vacuum
driven artificial horizon and direction indicator, it acts as
Safety factor
Stand by instrument for emergency operation
Both A and B
None of the above
50.
51. The tube of slip indicator is curved so that horizontal position of the ball tends to
seek
(a) The lowest point
(b) The highest point
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
52. In T.S.I a small projection on the left end of tube contains a bubble of air, which
compensates for
(a) Expansion of the fluid during change in temperature
(b) Contraction of the fluid during change in temperature
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
53. Two stands of wire wound around the glass tube of bank indicator of T. S. I.
(a) Fasten the tube to the instrument case
(b) Serve as reference makers
(c) Indicates the correct position of ball in the tube
(d) All of the above
54. During coordinated straight and level flight, the force of gravity causes the ball to
rest
(a) In the lowest part of the tube
(b) Centered between the reference wires
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
55.
General
1.
The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument panel is
determined by the
a) Size of the panel(38)
b) Type of the panel
c) Weight of the complete panel unit
d) Number of instruments to be installed
3.
on
4.
5.
8.
EDAS means
a) Electrical and digital Aircraft system
b) Electronics / digital Aircraft system
c) Electronics digital and avionics system
d) None of these
9.
10. The satellites are placed in geo-synchronous orbit for sat com system and they
provide coverage between
a) Longitude 750
b) Between latitude 750 North and South
c) Both a) & b) above
d) None of these
11.
12.
13.
16.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25. In square law compensating devices, the principle being made in use is that the
length of lever is altered as progressive deflection of the capsule takes place causing
the
(a) mechanism & pointer movement to be increased for small
deflection and decreased for large deflection. (88)
(b) mechanism & pointer movement to be decreased for small
deflection and increased for large deflection.
(c) either (a) or (b).
(d) none of these.
26. The number, size and disposition of shock proof mounting requires are
governed by
(a)the size of the panel.
30.
1.
(b)
(d)
Brayton cycle
Both a & b
2.
3.
4.
5.
(b)
(d)
brayton cycle
both a & c
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
Mark
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
12.
13.
Hard starting
(ii)
Detonation
(iii)
More consumption
(iv)
14. How is a flooded engine , equipped with a float type carburetor, cleared of
excessive fuel
(i)
Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture
control in cutoff, ignition switch off, and the throttle fully open, until the
fuel charge has been cleared(13-19)
(ii)
Turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the starting attempt
until the excess fuel has cleared.
(iii) Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture
control in cutoff, ignition switch on , and the throttle fully open, until the
excess fuel has cleared or until the engine starts.
15.
16.
Al alloy 2024
Carbon steel
(ii)
(iv)
Mag. Alloy
1 & 2 are correct
ENGINE
1.
2.
3.
4.
Crank shaft
Converts heat energy in propulsive force
Converts heat energy in mechanical work
Transform reciprocating motion of piston in to rotary motion
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
BEARING
1.
Roller bearing take more radial load than ball bearing of same size
because
(a) Larger contact area(LG/150) (b)
(c)
(d)
2.
3.
(b)
(d)
sliding
none
4.
5.
6.
Which type of load taken by given bearing :(Figure of cylindrical roller bearing and Tappered roller bearing)
(a)
(c)
7.
8.
Bushing
Ball Bearing
(ii)
(iv)
Roller bearings(LG/150)
Needle bearing
10.
Only Radial
(b) Only axial
A-Radial and B-Radial & axial(LG/150)
Which type of bearing will you select for combined radial and axil loads in
one direction only
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
11.
None
(ii)
1+ Oscillatory motion(LG/150)
13.
(iv)
12.
Where
Where
Where
Where
14. Which type of bearing will you select for combined radial and axil loads in
one direction only
(i)
Spherial roller bearing
(ii)
Taper roller bearing(LG/150)
(iii) Both 1 & 2
(iv) None
15.
16.
Bearing is cleaned by
(i)
(iv)
17.
petrol
(ii)
all are correct
kerosene oil
(iii)
whit spirit
18.
Fretting corrosions
as in (i) and also called exfoliation corrosion
Crevis corrosion
All of the above
20.
21.
d) All of these
22
23.
24.
b. Radial load
d. Both (a) and (b)
25.
26.
27.
28.
GEAR
1.
2.
throat radius
both A&B(ST/454)
3.
4.
5.
Gear
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
6.
Rack is meshed with a gear, it is used to change (the purpose of rack and
pinion is to change )
(a) rotary motion to reciprocating motion
(b) reciprocating motion to rotary motion
(c)
both a & b
(d) none
7.
8.
Feeler gage
Micrometer
(ii)
(iv)
Fillet gage
D.T.I
9.
The distance measured parallel to the axis to represent the distance
advanced by each tooth per revolution is known as
(i)
(iii)
Pitch
Normal pitch
(ii)
(iv)
Axial pitch
Lead
10. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts
whose axes are
(i)
(iv)
Parallel
None
(ii)
Perpendicular(2-13)
(iii)
1 & 2 both
11. Which of the following does not change with the conditions of the mating
gears
(i)
(iii)
12.
(ii)
Base circle
All of the above
13.
Are non-parallel and non intersection and the teeth are curved
Are non paralleled and non intersection and the teeth are straight
Intersect and the teeth are curved and oblique
Intersect and the teeth are curved and can be ground
14.
The surface of the gear tooth below the pitch surface is called
(i)
(iii)
15.
(c)
16.
Fleuk
Land
(ii)
(iv)
Face
tooth space
(b)
(d)
helical gear
worm gear
17.
18
b) Intermittent motion
c) Reciprocating motion
d) None of these
19.
20
Addendum + Duodenum =
a) Working depth
c) Tooth space
b) Whole depth
d) Backlash
(b)
(d)
helical gear
worm gear
1.
The property of a metal to resist ABRASION CUTTING ACTION,
penetration or permanent distortion is called: (J 7-2) & 9A-191
(i)
(iii)
Brittleness
Toughness
(ii)
(iv)
Hardness
Malleability
2.
The property of a metal which allows them to bent (FORMED SHAPED
WITHOUT CRACKING /BREAKING . MALLEABILTIY IS OPPOSITE OF
HARDNESS)or permanently distorted without rupture is called (J 7-3)
(i)
(iii)
Malleability
Conductivity
(ii)
(iv)
Brittleness
Toughness
3.
The property of a metal to return its original shape when the force
causing the shape of change is removed is called: (J 7-3)
(i)
(iii)
4.
(ii)
(iv)
Ductility
Elasticity
Toughness
Brittleness
(ii)
(iv)
Hardness
None
Malleability
Toughness
(ii)
(iv)
Ductility
None
8.
Funbility
Conductivity
7.
Malleability
Conductivity
6.
(ii)
(iv)
5.
Ductility
Elasticity
Fusibility
Conductivity(J7-3)
(ii)
Ductility
(iv) Elasticity
Max tensile load P.S.I which a material can with stand is known as
(i)
Tensile strength
(ii)
As in (i) and also known as ultimate tensile strength AND IS
COMPUTED BY DIVIDING THE MAX LOAD OBTAINED IN A TENSILE TEST
BY THE ORIGINAL CROSS SECTIONAL AREA OF THE TEST SPECIMEN GFT3
(iii) Stress
(iv) As in (iii) and also strain
9.
10.
Unit of tension is
a) N
b) N/m
c) KN/m2
d) Kg/cm2
11.
Maximum load per square inch a material can with stand is:
(a) Yield strength
(b) Tensile strength
(c) Proof stress
(d) Elasticity
12.
13.
14.
17.
For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is:
a) 1 to 1 inch wide with suitable length
b) 1 by in cross section
c) Full section
d) None of these
18.
21.
In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of
material will not occur is known as:
(a) Plastic limit
(b) Elastic limit
(c) Proof stress
(d) Endurance limit
22.
23.
24.
25. (1) For checking elastic limit, load can be released upto zero,
where as
(2) For checking proof stress load is released up to 20%
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
26.
27. For bending test, the diameter of the pin over which bend is to
be performed, should be:
a
b (a) Equal to the diameter of the test specimen
c (b) Equal to the thickness of the material
(c) Equal to diameter of thickness of the test specimen
(d) None of these
28.
be:
29.
d
e
The jaws of the vice are to be rounded for reverse bending test:
(a) 3/16 inch radius for wire above 3/16 inch diameter
(b) 3/16 inch for wire below 3/16 inch diameter
(c) 3/16 inch radius up to 3/16 inch wire
(d) None of these
30. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire less than 0.033
inch diameter:
(a) 10 inch
(b) 20 inch
(c) 30 inch
(d) 40 inch
31. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire more then 0.033
inch diameter:
(a) 10 inch
(b) 20 inch
(c) 30 inch
(d) 40 inch
32.
33.
34.
35.
Flattening test is
a) Bending test
c) For tube testing
b) Height of upswing
d) Hardness
d) 40
36.
37.
d) Elongation of wire
c) Rods
d) Sheet
c) Hardness
d) Density
38.
39
40
41.
46.
47.
(c)
T-section
(d) All
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
58.
2.
A process which makes the cable more flexible and easier to splice and
more resistant to kinking is known as
(i)
(iii)
Preforming J 8-35
Proof loading
(ii)
(iv)
Pre-stretching
Tensile testing
3.
The load per sq inch beyond which the increases in strain ceases to be
directly proportional to the increases in stress
(i)
(iii)
4.
(ii)
(iv)
Yield strength
Yield point
5.
Proof stress
Proportional limit GFT 6
Not
Not
Are
Are
6.
7.
Rolling of metal should not be done below the critical range because:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
8.
9.
Tenacity
Malleability
Ductility
therefore must be annealed frequently
Hardness
Heat treated
Annealed
Heat treatment temperature should not be less than 1800 F
As in (i) (ii) & (iii) and quenched in cold water
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
16.
17
In drop forging, the inside faces of the die are given a slope of 30
70 to permit drawing out the finished parts. This slope is referred to
as:
(a) Up setting
(b) Drawing angle
(c) Draft
(d) Fin
20.
21.
22.
Size of hot drawn rod used for cold drawing of wires are:
(a) 1/8 3/4 inch diameter (b) 1/16 1/32 inch diameter
(c) 1/32 5/8 inch diameter (d) None of these
(d) Forging
24. The type of forging in which two dies are used, one is attached
to the hammer and other to anvil, is known as:
(a) Hammer forging
(b) Drop forging
(c) Cold forging
(d) Press forging
25. After hot rolling, it is necessary to cold roll:
(a) To avoid cracking
(b) To avoid scaling
(c) To avoid oxidation
(d) To impart smooth surface and accurate dimensions
26. When cold drawing of wire, reduction in diameter in each draw
can be up to:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
27.
28.
I-Beam is produced by
(a) extruding
(b) forging
(c) casting
(d) rolling
30.
31.
What Inspection are desirable for all castings and forging of steel ?
(i)
(iii)
32.
(ii)
(iv)
Ultra sonic
None
33.
Visual
Magna flux
By
By
By
By
hot drawing
machining
cold drawing
cold rolling
2.
J 7-13
3.
0.50 %
0.50 to 1.05 %
0.30 %
Soft
Not strong
(b)
(d)
ductile
All
4.
The higher carbon content of steel is, the greater will be the ultimate
strength and :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Ductility
Malleability
Hardness GFT 24
Toughness
The range through which it can be heat treated.
5.
Sulphur is a very undesirable Impurity in Steel which must be limited in
amount to not : GFT 26
(i)
(iii)
6.
(ii)
(iii)
7.
8.
9.
Stainless Steel
GFT97
Vanadium
Tungsten 14 to 18 %
GFT 28
And Chromium 2-4 %, property known as Red Hardness, High
Speed Steel and used for tools which will retain their cutting edge
even when heated to dull redness.
11.
10.
3 to 5 % nickel
5 to 7 % nickel
nickel
25% nickel
(i)
(iii)
12.
Longerons
Spars
Propeller hubs
Under Carriage axle
Malleable
Ductile
Weldable
All the above
Percentage
Percentage
Percentage
Percentage
of
of
of
of
impuntes
Carbon
Carbon in hundredths of 1 %
Major alloying
18.
Wrought Iron
High Carbon Steel
17.
(ii)
(iv)
Nickel is GFT 27
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
16.
15.
(ii)
Cast Iron
Medium Carbon Steel
14.
(iv)
13.
K-Monel
Inconel GFT 123
Monel
None
Chrome Molybdenum
Chrome Nickel Molybdenum
18-8 CRS
(i) and (ii) GFT 40-41 & 86
19. The presence of Sulphur renders steel brittle. In this condition the steel
in said to be
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Cold shortness
Hot short
As in 2 and at rolling or Forging temperature GFT 26
As in 1 and at rolling or freezing temperature
.09 %
.05 %
(ii)
GFT27
.6 %
(iv) .06%
21. Hard grey metal with a high melting point, when added to steel imparts
hardness and strength wear and corrosion resisting qualities. The metal is :
GFT 27
(i)
Nickel WHITE AS SILVER, MALLEABLE, DUCTILE, WELDABLE AND
DOES NOT CORRODE
(ii)
Chromium
(iii) Tungsten HARD SPEED STEEL , NO USE ON AIRCRAFT
(iv) Titanium REDUDES EMBRITTLEMENT AT EXHAUST COLLECTORS
AND STACKS AT OPERATING TEMPERATURES.
22.
23
Ball bearings, Roller bearings and races are made from the material:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
24.
25.
Locking wire
Chains & Sprockets GFT 34
Axles
Longerons & Spares
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
26.
Static casting
Centrifugal casting GFT 93
Molding
Cold rolling
C.R.S
Brass or bronze
(ii)
(iv)
27.
28.
29.
30.
Phosphorous
Mangancse
Sulphur
GFT26
Silicon
Fire wall
Engine mount GFT39
Oil tank
Oil lines
Hot shortness
Brittleness
Cold shortness
2 and 3 are correct GFT27
31.
32.
Carbon steel
Stainless steel
Copper
33.
34.
35.
Nickle
Chromium
Magnese
(i) & (iii)GFT45
White iron is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
36.
Nickel in steel
(i)
Improve wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness.
(ii)
Refine grain size and produces less tendency to carbonization
improves corrosion and heat resistance properties. GFT 27
(iii)
Improves cutting ability and reduces harden ability
(iv)
Gives ductility,toughness ,tenacity strength and anti-corrosion
properties
37.
Tungsten in steel
(i)
Improve wear resiststance cutting ability and toughness.GFT28
(ii)
Refine grain size and produces less tendency to carbonization
improves corrosion and heat resistance properties.
(iii) Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenbility.
(iv) Gives ductility, toughness, tenacity strength and
anti-corrosion properties.
38.
39.
Promotes decarburization
Tungsten in steel
Forms very hard carbides and thus increases wear resistance.
Promotes retention of austenite 50.
40.
41.
to manufacture cowlings
Propeller hubs
Propeller blades
Exhaust collector 9A -196 & J 7-11
42. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine fire walls
a. Stainless steel
b. Chromium Molybdenum alloy steel
c. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel
d. Wrought iron
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel
52.
Carbon steel is
a) Refined form of cast iron
b) Extremely hard
c) Made by adding carbon to steel
d) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur & phosphorous
53.
54.
55.
All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel has
a) Two critical points
b) Three critical points
c) Four critical points
d) Six critical points
56.
57.
Creep in metals is
a) Elongation due to temperature
b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses
c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation
d) All are correct
58.
b) Manganese Steel
d) Chromium Steel
59.
60.
SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel
61.
During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
3a) Monel metal
b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel
d) 18-8 steel
62.
63.
64.
65.
MS 20004 is a
a) Internal wrenching bolt
c) Clevis bolt
66.
67.
68.
Forging steel is
69.
70.
Stainless steel is
a) Ni Cr steel
c) Ni W steel
b) Cr Mo steel
d) Cr Va steel
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
c) SAE 9260
77.
78.
79.
80.
c) Heat treatment
Diamond is a:
(a) Metal (b) Non-metal
(c) Glass
(d) Composite
83.
84.
85.
(d) 0.6%
88.
An element of steel which is white in colour and increases the strength, yield
point and hardness without effecting the ductility:
(a) Chromium
(b) Molybdenum
(c) Silicon
(d) Nickel
89.
An alloying element of steel which improves its homogeneity and reduces the
grain size, is:
(a) Nickel
(b) Molybdenum
(c) Chromium
(d) Silicon
90.
The High Speed Steel used for tools, which will retain its cutting edge even
when heated to dull redness by working:
(a) Nickel-chromium
(c) Vanadium-Tungsten steel
91.
94.
95.
96.
97. The numerals and digits for 1.25% Nickel, 0.60% Chromium of
Nickel-chromium steel in SAE numbering system is:
(a) 32xx
(b) 31xx
(c) 33xx
(d) 30xx
98.
99.
SAE 4037 steel is used for aircraft bolts, its AN specification is:
(a) AN-S-85
(b) AN-S-13-B
(c) AN-S-9a
(d) QQ-S-624
100. First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast furnace is
a) Pig Iron
b) Wrought Iron
c) Cast Iron
d) Steel
101.
Siderite is
a) Oxide ore of Iron
c) Sulphide ore of Iron
.106 Steel parts are pickled before plating with the solution of :
(i)
Sulphuric acid 5% to 10% by weight
(ii)
Hydrofluoric acid part of acid per gallons of solution
(iii) Two parts of borax to 1 part of boric acid
(iv) As in (i) or a hydrochloric acid solution 15 % 25% KEPT IN STONE
WARE TANK AT 140-150 DEG CENTIGRADE BY MEANS OF STEAM COIL
GFT 251
(a) MIL-T-6737
(c) MIL-T-6732
(b) MIL-T-6731
(d) MIL-T-6735
110. Carbon is in chemical combination with iron as iron carbide, which is known as:
(a) Austenite
(b) Pearlite
(c) Martensite
(d) Cementite
111. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is known as:
(a) Hyper-eutectoid
(b) Hypo-eutectoid
(c) Eutectoid
(d) None of these
112. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is composed of:
(a) Austenite
(b) Cementite and martensite
(c) Martensite and troostite
(d) Pearlite with excess cementite
113. Main constituent of hardened steel is:
(a) Austenite
(b) Troostite
(c) Sorbite
(d) Martensite
114. The hardest structure obtained in the steel is:
(a) Pearlite
(b) Troostite
(c) Martensite
(d) Sorbite
115. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
a) Monel metal
b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel
d) 18-8 steel
116. Special steel HY-TUF has a good toughness at a tensile strength of:
(a) 2,30,000 psi
(b) 2,40,000 psi
(c) 2,50,000 psi
(d) 2,60,000 psi
117. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is known as:
(a) Eutectoid
(b) Hypo-eutectoid
(c) Hyper-eutectoid
(d) None of these
118. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is composed of:
(a) Pearlite
(b) Pearlite with excess ferrite
(c) Pearlite with excess cementite
(d) Pearlite and Austenit
119. Number of atoms in a Face Centered Cubic (FCC) crystal are:
(a) Fourteen
(b) Seventeen
(c) Nine
(d) Fifteen
120. When a metal is deformed plastically, forces required to
deformed it in reverse direction will be less, this is known as:
HEAT TREATMENT
1.
Furnace
(b)
Air
(c)
Mica (d)
both
A & B GFT48
3.
4.
thermistor
pyrometer (9A 206)
color of work
thermocouple
5.
Seak often forms on the surface of the metal and dirt blocked on it
.. by
(a)
Steel wire brush
(b)
sand blasting
(c)
scrap
(d)
All
6.
7.
8.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9.
wire brush
scraping
sand blasting
all
10. What
it has been
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11.
12.
13.
Re-heating is done to
(a) remove strain and stresses
(b) remove effect of heat treatment
(c)
remove hardness and brittleness
(d) none
14.
In 7075 - 0 indicates
(a) annealed 9A 200
(b) strain hardened
(c)
solution IIT
(d) None
15.
Normalizing is applicable to
(a) cu-alloys
(b) Al-alloy
(c)
Ferrous alloy only
(d) Ferrous alloy only
16.
17.
After
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18.
19.
20.
oil
21. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Annealing
Normalising
Tempering
Hardening
gft5
22. Immersion of the heated metal in a liquid either in oil, brine or water to
accelerate cooling is termed as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Dipping
Quenching
Carbonizing
Refining
gft 5
Normalizing
Tempering ------gft5
Drawing
(ii) & (iii) are correct
24. Heat treatment which relieves the strains in hardened steel, decreases the
brittleness and restores ductility is :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
25.
Normalizing
Annealing
Tempering
As in (iii) and drawing also
26.
27. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Annealing
Normalising
Tempering
Hardening
28. The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding
torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
29.
30.
Spherodizing
Normalizing
Shop annealing -----GFT48
Annealing
(i)
(iii)
31.
Purpose of tempering is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
32.
Pyrometer
(ii)
Hydrometer
By pouring water into the furnace
33.
34.
Heat treatable alloys may require a fuel heat treatment to restore then
properties after welding magnesium alloys
(i)
Should not be heat treated at all
(ii)
Should not be heat treated more than three times
(iii) Should be heat treated only once
(iv) Require only hardening
35.
Unless the pipes are annealed the loading unloading operations must be
completed
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
36.
In solution heat treatment of rivets the time between removal from the
bath and quenching must be not more than
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
37.
10 seconds
(ii)
30 seconds
As in (i) and to achieve satisfactory properties
As in (ii) and to avoid reheat treating
(iv)
38.
39. The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding
torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
(iii)
Spherodizing
Shop annealing
(iv)
(ii)
Normalizing
Annealing
40. In the process of heat treatment, During soaking period the temperature
of the furnace:
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
41.
42.
Must be lowered
(ii)
Must be increased
To be determined as per the metal
Must be hold constant
Water
Paraffin
(ii)
(iv)
Oil
Brine9A 208
43.
44.
(ii)
Hardining
(iv) Normalising
45.
Tempering
Annealing J 7-15
Rate of hardening
(ii)
Rate of Annealing
As in (i) and increases the depth of hardening
None of the above
In relieve the internal stresses and refine the grain all welded parts should
be
(i)
46.
(ii)
(iii)
48.
47.
J 7-15
Pyrometer is used to
a) Measure the temperature
c) Give protective atmosphere
51.
While heating the steel, the critical points are designated by:
(a) Ac1, Ac2,
(b) Ar1, Ar2,
(c) Ar3-2
(d) Arcm
52.
59.
60.
While cooling the steel, its critical points are designated by:
(a) Ac3, Ac2,
(b) Ar3, Ar2,
(c) Arcm
(d) Ar3-2-1
61.
62.
63.
(d) Air
CASE HARDENING
1.
2.
3.
oil
(d)
In SAE-1030
carbon percentage is
(a) 30 % (9A-195)
(b) 9.5 %
(c)
10 %
(d)
both A & C
(d)
30 %
both a & b
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(d)
Al
both A & C
In SAE-1030
carbon percentage is
(a) 30 % (b) 9.5 %
(c)
10 %
(d)
30 %
(d)
both a & b
9.
10.
11.
(i)
(iii)
12.
(ii)
(iv)
Al
from to 1/8
from 1/32 to 1/64
13.
(d)
Shot peening :
(i)
It is a sand blasting
(ii)
It is a shot blasing
(iii) It improves the fatigue and resistance m steel
(iv) As in (ii) & (iii) and increases the life of parts subjected to repeated
stress
(iii)
(ii)
.0004 to .0005 in
depth
15.
(iv)
Carburizing (ii0
Nitriding
Cyaniding
(iv)
Sulphating (9A-218)
16.
17.
18.
Liquid carburizing is used for small parts, where case depth required upto:
(a) 0.010 inch
(b) 0.020 inch
(c) 0.030 inch
(d) 0.040 inch
19.
NONFERROUS METALS
ALUMINUM AND ITS ALLOYS
1.
2.
of 2024-T Al-alloy is
grey
blue + yellow
red
(b)
(d)
(b)
.
green
3.
4.
2.5 mg
5.6 Zn 9A 199 FIG 6-63
(b)
1.2
Mg
(d)
2.5 Zn
5.
In four digit N-alloy index system, No.-2024, the first digit indicates(a) the % of Al-added.
(b) the different alloy in this group
(c)
alloy group
(d) copper is the major alloying element. ALLOY TYPE 9A 198-1 / 2
6.
7.
8.
(c)
9.
10.
white 1100
11.
12.
13.
14.
cylinder head
alclad
(c)
Cu
(d)
(d)
Si
Si
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
(c)
grey
(d)
white
20.
21.
Cu
(d)
Si
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
9A200
(d)
Si
Less than
(ii)
Less than
(iii)
(iv)
31
Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit signifies
something. In 2024, the first digit indicates
a) Copper is the major alloying element
b) Two alloying elements have been added
c) Total percentage of alloying elements
d) None of these
32.
33.
Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged?
a) 3003-F
b) 5052-H
c) 6061-O
d) 7075-T6
34.
35.
36.
37.
i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high hydraulic
pressure
ii) Clad metals mean forged non ferrous metals
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
38.
Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment
medium to quench tank within 10 seconds or so. A delay results in
a) Retarded age hardening
b) Reduced corrosion resistance
c) Dull/Strained surface
d) Hard/brittle surface
39.
40
41
Al clad is generally of
a) 17 S & 24 S
b) 24 S & 52 S
c) 52 S & 53 S
d) 53 S & 62 S
Aluminium alloy 1100 implies
a) Pure aluminium
b) It contains 11% copper
c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy
42.
43
44.
45.
Al clad is generally of
a) 17 S & 24 S
b) 24 S & 52 S
c) 52 S & 53 S
d) 53 S & 62 S
46. Solution heat treatment & artificially eged is indicated by
a) T5
b) T7
c) T6
d)T8
47. Solution heat treated & artificially edged is indicated by
(a) T5
(b) T7(c) T6 (d) T8
48.
49.
50.
51
Al- Alloy AND MAGNESIUM ALLOYS are :(a)
(b)
(c)
52.
(b)
53.
54.
55.
When Al Allay surface coated with pure Al, called :(a) Pure clad
(b) Alclad
(c)
both a and b are correct (9A-201)
Aclad is a metal consisting of
(i)
Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aliuminium core
(ii)
Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy
J 7-6
(iii) Al. and capper
(iv) A homogenous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy
Clad Al alloys during super annealing, soak the material
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
core
56. Pure aluminum sheet laminated over base aluminum alloy is called
(i)
(iii)
57.
(ii)
InconeL layer
All the above
An 2024 AL ALLOY
(i)
(iii)
58.
J 7-6
59.
60.
61.
2117 ALOLLOY
(i)
(ii)
Coat of zinc chromate is given after attachment
(iii) Known as field rivets J 8-5
AD, DIMPLE IN THE CENTRE, REQUIRE
NO HEAT TREATMENT
Color of 2024-T Al-alloy is
(a) grey
(b) green
(c)
blue + yellow
(d) red
Which is the correct statement at regarding best treatment of Al-alloy.
(a) longer soaking time and lower cooling rate result in greater
softening.
(b) longer soaking time and higher cooling rate result in greater
softening.
62.
2.
(c) titanium
(d) all
3.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
corrosion resistance
uniform grain structure
Hardening GFT135
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Annealing
Tempering
As in (ii) and will relieve
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
14.
16.
17.
2.
3.
In Magnesium :(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4.
5.
Susceptible to corrosion
Not Susceptible to corrosion
Susceptible to crack
a and c are correct J 7-10
J 7-10
(d)
Non sparking
Non magnetic
Used adjacent to magnetic compass
(b) PHT
None
(iv)
6.
To clean aluminum and magnesium. Alloys surfaces steel wool should not
be used
(i)
To avoid electro-chemical attack
(ii)
To avoid scratching the surface because of soft metal
(iii) Particles may be lodged in crevices or embedded on organic
coatings may cause corrosion
(iv) (i) & (iii) are correct J 12-24
7.
8.
Metalling is a process of
(a) rolling pure Al-alloy on Al-alloy surface
(b) Ni and cd plating on steel
(c)
By sparying Ni, or on steel with oxy-acctylene flame GFT 257
(d) all of the above
9.
In four digit N-alloy index system, No.-2024, the first digit indicates(a) the % of Al-added.
(b) the different alloy in this group
(c)
alloy group
(d) copper is the major alloying element.
10.
10.
11.
1.2 Mg
2.5 Zn
12.
(b)
(d)
(iv)
13.
14.
Tensile strength
Ductility
Shock resistance
All of the above 9A-216
b) Light in weight
d) Highly prone to corrosion
2.
3.
4.
5.
High
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6.
From 10 to 30 hrs
(ii)
From 20 to 100 hrs ---GFT77
From 20 to 50 hrs
(iv) None of the above
10.
11.
Temper designation for solution heat treated cold worked and then
artificially aged the letter is :
(i)
T4
(ii)
T6
(iii) T8
(iv) T10
Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy. The soaking time ranges from
(i)
10 to 18 hours---(ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in (i) and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness----9A217
(iv)
None of the above
12.
(i)
25 to 325 degree F
(ii)325 TO 500 degree F---9A217
(iii) 325 to 600 degree F
(iv) 500 to 725 degree F
13. Some aluminum alloys develop their full properties as a result of solution
heat treatment followed by :
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
14.
Quenching
(ii)
Soaking
Aging for about four days-----GFT156
As in (iii) and aging at room temperature
15.
16.
Spherodizing is a form of :
(i)
annealing above lower critical temperature and making globular
ferrite structure in cementite matrix.
(ii)
Annealing below lower critical temperature and making globular
cementile structure in ferrite matrix
(iii) Annealing above lower critical temperature and making lamellar
structure of ferrite and cementile
(iv) None of the above
17.
18.
19.
Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy , the soaking time ranges form
(i)
10 to 18 hours 9A--216
(ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in 10 and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness
(iv) As in 3 and 10 hours
What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received
no hardening or tempering treatment ?
20.
(i)
(iii)
3003-F
6061 O
(ii)
(iv)
5052-H36.
7156- T
24 to 48 hrs
At a temperature around 300 F
As in (ii) and for 8 to 24 hrs
As in (i) at a temp of 600 F
HARDNESS TEST
1.
2.
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Resistance to impact
(ii)
Resistance to penetration
Resistance to change in its length
None of the above
the correct statement regarding the hardness tester
brinell system uses diamond point
vikers uses round ball
above are correct
none
3.
In Vickers Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals of diamond
pyramid is:
(a) 1260
(b) 1360
(c) 1460
(d) 1560
4.
While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from
edges should be there to avoid:
(a) Buldging at opposite side
(c) Ridge scales
5.
6.
(b) Hardening
(d) Annealing
(b) Hardening
(d) Heat treatment
9.
For checking the area of depression in Brinell Hardness Test,
Accuracy of microscope should be:
(b) 15 kg
(d) 5 kg
11.
12.
13.
Resistance to impact
(ii)Resistance to penetration J7-18
Resistance to change in its length
None of the above
ROCKWELL TESTER
1.
2.
3.
4.
A Rockwell hard ness tester determines hardness by forcing a penetrator
into a sample and measuring
(i)
The diameter of the resulting impression
(ii)
The depth of the resulting impression
(iii) As in 1 an d10 Kg load is called minor load
(iv) As in 2 and a conical diamond, a 1/16 ball and a 1/8 ball can be
used 9A 218,219
5.
6.
7.
8.
(b) 10mm
(d) 1 mm
9.
(c) mm
(b) B0 B100
(d) None of these
10.
Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell hardness test is:
(a) 0.027 inch
(c) 0.0027 inch
BRINELL TESTER
1.
In brinell hardness testing, the thickness of material should not be less
than
(a) 5 times (b) 10 time(ST/526)
(c) 20 times
(d) 50 times
2.
3.
4.
barcol or Rockwell
(d) none of the above
Structural steel
a and c are correct
5.
(b)
(d)
6.
7.
In brinell tester, during testing of hardness of non ferrous metal pressure
uses ir of
(i)
(iii)
8.
3000kg
1000 kg
(ii)
(iv)
(1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to inches, where as
(2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg.
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(c) Both are true
9.
500kg
100 kg
10.
11.
Brinelling is
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
12. In brinell tester, during testing of hardness of non ferrous metal pressure
uses ir of
(i)
(iii)
3000kg(FOR STEEL)
1000 kg
(iv)
(ii)
100 kg
500kg J 7-17
BARCOL TESTER
1.
(b)
(d)
softer material(220)
none
2.
C.R.S.
Al-alloy, copper, brass or other relatively hard materials
Relatively soft material (Al Cu etc.)
None
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
(b)
(b)
core (c)
aramin
8.
9.
A-Glass
E-Glass
(ii)
(iv)
S-Glass(CF/2-2)
C-Glass
Which one is the best known for its high tensile resistance
(i)
(iii)
10.
(ii)
(iv)
Aramid(CF/2-3)
Boran
11
Fiber glass
Carbon
Novalox is
(i)
ortho aramid
(ii)
Para aramid
(iii) Meta aramid
iv)
Ortho and meta aramid but meta-aramid is more oftenly used to
manufacture a/c part
12.
Kevalor is
(a)
White gliming cloth
(b)
4 times more tensile strength than aluminum(CF/2-3)
13.
14.
15.
Fibre glass is
(a)
Also known as E-glass or electric glass
(b)
E-glass or borosilicate glass
(c)
both A & B(CF/2-2)
(d) None
16.
17.
Fibre glass is
(a)
Also known as E-glass or electric glass
(b)
(c)
(d)
18.
In aramid
(a) Kevlar has 4 times the strength of aluminum(CF/2-3)
(b) white colour
(c)
All
(d) None
19.
20.
Hybrid is
(a)
used as a core material in composite
(b) two or more different layer of reinforcing material(CF/2-15)
(c)
used as a met rise material
(d) refrigeration of the film
21.
Matrix is used to
(a) transfer stress of fibers
(b) takes stress from the fiber
(c)
increase the hardness of adhesive
(d) (a) and give hardness to fiber(CF/3-1)
22.
23.
Plastic materials which repeatedly soften when heated and harden when
cooled are:
(i)
(iii)
25.
curing agent(CF/3-1)
all
24.
(b)
(d)
Thermoplastics(CF/3-1)
Protein plastics
(ii)
(iv)
Thermosetting plastics
Natural resins
Plastics which will not softer on further application of heat and can not be
reshaped are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Thermosetting
Thermoplastic
Protein Plastics
Natural resins
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
by
(b)
(d)
polyester
thermoplastic
thermography
heat resistant and dissipates heat slowly
visual inspection
none
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Peel
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
39.
40.
41.
Nomex is a
(a)
honey comb material
(b)
reinforced material
(c)
matrix material
(d) none
42.
With adhesives
With washers
Snap and dolly
Ball peen hammer only
Non Scatterable glass is used for wind shields on most a/c with min .
thickness:
(i)
(iii)
44.
Plastic materials are usually joined by means of rivets and bolts: when
using rivets it is advisable to use:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
43.
ply means
prevent excess resists
remove after cure
prevent vacuum bagging from striding to the paint
all are correct
1/8 to 3/16
to 5/16
(ii)
(iv)
3/16 to 1/4
5/16 to 5/8
45.
48.
Injection molding
Compression molding
carbon fibres
Fibre glass
(ii)
(iv)
Aramid
None
Prepreg of carbon/graphite
As (i) and usec as flooring of A/C
Pre-Prg of Aramid
As (iii) and used as flooring of A/C
STANDARD DGEBA is
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
51.
(ii)
(iv)
Novniox is :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
50.
Transfer molding
Jet molding
49.
epoxy resine
(ii)
polyester resine
(i) and its if called as diglycidyl Bisphenot AA
as (i) and called as Diglycidyle Bishemd A
M.T.C.S
(i)
Reinforced plastic components of A/C are formed of either solid
laminates or semisolid laminates
(ii)
Reinforced plastic components of A/C are formed of either solid
laminates or semisolid laminates
(iii) (i) + Resins used to impregnate glass clothes are in liquid or solid
state
(iv) (ii) + Resins used to impregnate glass clothes are in liquid state
which can vary in viscosity from a water like consistency to a thick syrup
52.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
53.
54.
(ii)
(iv)
Ceramic
Aramid and carbon/graphite
Carbon/graphite
Ceramic and carbon graphite
55.
Syntactic core is :
(i)
Sphere filled resin
(ii)
Honey comb
(iii) Sphere filled resin in honey comb form
(iv) None
56.
57.
58.
(i)
metal core
(ii)
wood core
(iii) Aluminum honey comb core
(iv) Metal faced honey comb core
Syntactic core is :
(i)
(iii)
(V)
59.
Prepregs material is
(a)
eliminate manual mixing and weighing
(b)
must be stored in freeze
(c)
also made in unidirectional
d)
all are correct
60.
61.
(a)
(c)
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
(b)
(d)
polyester
thermoplastic
(c)
none
none
Paralketone used on
(a) cable
(c)
conduit
(b)
(d)
iron
none
7.
direction
direction
direction
direction
in
in
in
in
which
which
which
which
honey
honey
honey
honey
as curing agent
as hardener
mixed with resin
all are correct AC CF 33
comb
comb
comb
comb
structure
structure
structure
structure
can
can
can
can
Naturai rubber is
(i)
(iii)
Polymer of isoprene
(ii) polymer of neoprene
Copolymer of isoprene and neoprene
(iv) None
2.
3.
4.
5.
Rubber which has good resistance to oil and excellent resistance to heat
air light and flame is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
6.
7.
8.
Natural rubber
Buty1
Neoprene
Thiokol
Butyl
Neoprene
(ii)
Thiokol
(iv) Buna-N
BUNA-S is a copolymer of
(i)
(iii)
(ii)
(iv)
9.
Buna-N
Neoprene
(ii)
(iv)
Buna-S
Butyl
10. Where only better tensile strength & resistance is required the rubber
used as
11.
(i)
(iii)
Natural rubber
Butyl rubber 19. Buna-s is used for
(i)
Synthetic rubber
Natural rubber
Synthetic rubber
Buna-n
Buna-N
Synthetic Rubber
Chloroprene
(iii) Isoprene
(ii)
(iv)
Buna-s
Natural rubber
(iv)
(ii)
Buna-s
Natural rubber 39.
Natural
(ii)
Beoprene
(iv) Polysulphide
Skydrol hydro fluids are compatible with rubber seals made from :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Butyl rubber
Neopren rubber
Natural rubber
Synthetic rubber
O RINGS
1.
Butyl rubber
Neopron rubber
Rubber is a polymer of
(i)
16.
(ii)
(iv)
Rubber, which has excellent resistance to oil and will resist heat up to
250F is :
(i)
(iii)
15.
Rubber which has better tensile strength and resilience but deteriorates
much more rapidly is:
(i)
(iii)
14.
O rings
13.
(iii)
12
(ii)
a)
4 power magnifying glass
b)
Small cracks, particles of foreign material or other irregularities are
checked by rolling
c)
Slight stretching of the ring checked by dowel
d)
All
2.
3.
To increase mechanical strength and tackiness
To reduce mechanical strength and tackiness
To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness
To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness
4.
49.
RUBBER
1.
Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of
aircraft tubeless tyre
a. Butyl rubber
b. Neoprene rubber
c. BUNA-N d. thiokol
2.
Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and
wire insulation
a. Silicon rubber b. Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d. BUNA-N
3.
Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property is the
characteristic of which kind of synthetic rubber.
a. GR I
b. GR S
c. GR P
d. GR A
4.
5.
6.
Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base
hydraulic fluids
a. Butyl
b. Buna-N
c. Neoprene d. Buna-S
7. Natural rubber is a polymer of
a) Isoprene
b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of these
8. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural rubber?
a) Sulpher
b) Phosphorus
c) Sodium d) Carbon
9. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S
a) White
b) Black
c) Red
d) Green
10. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands for
a) Butadieneb) Acrylonitrile
c) Monovinyl
d) Nitrile
11. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is stands
a) Monovinyl
b) Chloroprene
c) Acrylonitrile
d) Styrene
12.
d) Butyl
a) Elasticity
c) Reduce the tackiness
b) Strong ness
d) All of these
SEALS
1.
COMPOSITE MATERIAL(QB)
1.
Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation
field are
a. Kevlar with carbon / graphite
b. Kevlar with fiber glass
c. Carbon / graphite with fiber glass
d. None of these
2.
3.
4.
Plexiglass is
a. Thermoplastic
c. Laminated
b. Thermoset
d. None of these
5.
Nomex is a
a. Filler material
c. Reinforced fiber
b. Matrix
d. Core material
8.
Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to
high stress and vibration
a. Fibergalss
b. Aramid
c. Carbon/Graphite
d. None of these
9.
Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of
fiber
a. S glass
b. Hollow fibre glass
c. A
glass
d. Carbon glass
10.
11.
12.
Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to
aluminium
a. A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie
b. Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly
c. Both (a) and (b) will be applied together
d. None of the above
13.
14.
Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of material
a. Titanium
b. Tin
c. Tungsten
d. All above
15.
Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses
a. Ceramic fiber
b. Boron fiber
c. Fiber glass
d. Graphite fiber
16.
17.
18.
19.
20
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is
a) Mineral
b) Vegetable
c) Synthetic
d) All of these
a.
26.
direction
direction
direction
direction
in
in
in
in
which
which
which
which
honey
honey
honey
honey
comb
comb
comb
comb
structure
structure
structure
structure
can
can
can
can
WELDING(QB)
1.
Hole and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be
taken
a) Re-weld the defective portions
b) Remove all the old weld and re-weld the joint (258)
c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect and re-weld all gaps / holes
d) Can be used in the same way
2.
Which condition indicate a part has cooled too quickly after being welded
a.
Cracking adjacent to the weld (257)
b.
Discoloration of the base metal
c.
Gas pockets and porosity
d.
Slag inclusion
3.
4.
6.
7.
8.
Oxy acetylene welding process is suitable for joining metal sheets and plates
having thickness of
a) 1 to 30mm
c) 2 to 40mm
b) 2 to 50 mm
d) All of these
9.
In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod is required as a filter metal when welding
is carried out above
a) 15mm
b) 10mm
c) 40mm
d) 5mm
10.
b) 32000F
c) 32000C
d) 30000C
d) None of these
14.
15.
16.
Seam welding is
(a) Pressure welding
(c) Electric resistance
(b) MIG
(d) Oxyacetylene
In leftward welding
(a) Filler rod precedes torch
(b) Torch precedes filler rod
(c) A 60 V is prepared at the end of plate
(d) Both (a) & (c)
19.
20.
21.
22.
WELDING
1.
The weld is
(a)
(c)
2.
V butt weld
Beveled butt weld
(b)
(d)
U butt weld
T butt weld
3.
porosity
Irregular shape
(b) Crack
d) both B & C (CAIP-6/12-363)
carbonizing
neutral (LG/307)
(b) oxidizing
(d) there is no such flame
(a)
(c)
but welding(15A-256)
lap welding
(b)
spot welding
un sufficient heat
rough and irregular appearance
not feather into the base metal
all are correct
10.
(b)
(d)
oxidizing flame
any flame
11.
12.
13.
14.
but
15.
16.
17.
Weld
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18.
19.
20.
Braze
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21.
22.
welding is
known as force welding (bronze welding)
a welding is which base metal is not fuse
a combination of brazing and welding
all CAIP
(d)
23.
24.
25.
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
26.
27.
28.
In brazing
(a)
post heat treatment may be carried to relieve stresses (CAIP-6/2294)
(b)
post heat treatment may not be carried to relieve stresses
Precaution in Al welding
(a)
neutral flame is used
(c)
flux is used
(b)
(d)
preheating is needed
all (15A-260).
29.
30.
31.
(d)
(c)
52 S
32.
(d)
53 S
33
34.
(b)
35.
36.
MIG welding
(b) excessive O2
all are correct
37.
38.
39.
Acctylene gas is
(a) colorless
(b) as in (a) and if stored above 15 PSI it becomes highly unstable
(c)
as in (b) and produced by reaction of calcium carbide with water
(d) as in (a) and produces a yellow coloured flame and smoky
flame(15A-248).
40.
oxidizing flame
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47. While Gas welding stainless steel if an excess of oxygen is used the metal
will bubble :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
48.
Weld
Weld
Weld
Weld
will
will
will
will
be stronger
be porous(CAIP-6/4-304)
have crators
have no adhesion
49. In order to remove all traces of flux from the joint the finished work is
washed with a solutions of : 10% OF NITRIC ACID IN WATER FOR 20 MIN
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
50.
51.
Chrome pickling
Etching for 10 seconds with a 10 to 50 % solution of acctic acid
As in (i) and boiling in a dichromate solution
Any of the above
52.
53.
54.
Oxidising
Slightly Reducing GFT 132
Neutral
Can not be gas welded
55.
56.
57.
58.
to dissolve oxides(15A-2).
as (i) and to increase surface tension of the molten filler alloy
flux will decide the composition of filler rod
None
59.
60.
(iv)
(ii)
Filleft welding
As in (i) and (iii)
61.
Identation
Penetration 9A-486
(ii)
Precipitation
(iv) None
(ii)
(iv)
Excessive heat
Carborizing flow
MIG welding is a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
66.
67.
69.
Gas welding
Inert gas welding
(ii)
(iv)
Arc welding
Spot welding GFT-77
70. To relieve the internal stresses and refine the grain all welded parts
should be :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
71.
72.
TIG
(ii)
Arc
(iii)
MIG (iv)
Oxy-acetylene
Bucking bars are widely used with automatic T I C welding and seve to
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
76.
75.
(iv)
(ii)
Red & Green
Maroon & Black
74.
Seam welding is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
73.
Prevent corrosion
Prevent oxidation
Minimise distortion and to control penetration CAIP-615-323
None of the above
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
77.
78.
Non corrodible and heat resisting austenitic stainless steels before brazing
to be picked in a solution of
(i)
Sulphuric and chromic acid
(ii)
Hydrofluoric and Sulphuric acid
(iii) Hydrofluoric acid ferric sulphate and water CAIP-6/2-284
(iv) Any of the above
79.
81.
When acetylene gas generators are in use a daily check for acertaining
purity is necessary, a bloating paper soaked in a 10% aquous solution of
silver nitrate should show
(i)
Darkening when placed in the gas stream
(ii)
No darkening when placed in the gas stream CAIP-6/4-297
(iii) Changing colour to blue
(iv) Changing colour to pink
82.
83.
84.
Cleaning surfaces for welding , all scale, grease, dirt or other extraneous
matter should be removal from each side of the edges for min. distance of
(i)
25 mm OR I INCH CAIP-6/4-300
(ii)
50 mm
(iii) As in 1 and 1
(iv) 1.5
Welding jigs should be fairly rigid but not so rigid that the parts becomes
stressed
(i)
During cooling
(ii)
During expansion and contraction of the parts
(iii) During welding
(iv) 1 & 2 are correct CAIP-6/4-301
85.
86.
When butt welding sheets and jigs are not available , distortion can be
considerably reduced
(i)
If the joints lack welded
(ii)
If temperature is not allowed to exceed 500C
87.
The oxyacetylene welding process is used mainly for all alloys sheets
which is approximately
(i)
Greater than 14 S.W.G.
(ii)
Lesser than 14 S.W.G. 2mm
(iii) Sheets of greater thickness are normally welled by the inert gas
welding process
(iv) 2 & 3 are correct CAIP-6/4-302
88.
89.
90.
The blow pipe and welding rod should be held at angles of about
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
30
45
60
75
and
and
and
and
60
75
30
45
respectively
respectively
respectively CAIP-6/4-304
respectively
91.
92.
After welding flux can be removed from ferrous parts by immersing them
in
(i)
Icy water for a period of not less than 20 minutes
(ii)
Boiling water for a period of not less than 30 minutes water being
changed frequently CAIP-6/4-304
(iii) Bath of salphuric acid
(iv) Solution of hydrofluoric acid ferric sulphate and water
93.
94.
95.
96.
Bucking bars are widely used with automatic T.I.C. welding and serve to
(i)
Prevent corrosion
(ii)
Prevent oxidation
(iii) Minimize distortion and to control penetrationCAIP-6/5-323
(iv) None of the above
97.
98.
99.
In spot welding the joining of more than three sheets together would
resultion
(i)
weak welds CAIP-6/12-350
(ii)
Very strong weld
(iii) As in 1 and solutions attempted
(iv) None of the above
inch J-11-3
(ii)
1 inch
(iii)
1 inch
(iv)
inch
104. Silver soldering is used to solder the metals that fuse at temperature of :
(i)
(iii)
1000F GFT-243
1800F
(ii)
(iv)
1400F
2000F
105. In order to remove all traces of flux from the joint the finished work is
washed with a solution of :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(d)
112. The best results are obtained in brazed joint provided the gap in joint is
kept
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
0.05mm to 0.1mm
0.1mm to 1.5 mm
0.002 to 0.004
1& 3 are correct CAIP-6/2-285
(iv)
120. A joint clearance which will allow the solder to fill the gap by capillary
action and give max. strength the clearance should be
(i)
.002 to .004
(ii)
As in 1 and may be .05mm to 0.1 mm CAIP 6/1-280
(iii) .004 to .006
(iv) As in 3 and may be 0.1mm to 0.15 mm
121. The strength of a joint brazed with silver brazing alloy if properly designed
is often equal to the strength of
(i)
The material joined CAIP-6/2-281
(ii)
Welding
(iii) Pivetting joint
(iv) None of the above
122. The strength and efficiency of brazed joints depend on a number of
factors including the
(i)
Design of the joint
(ii)
Cleanliness of the surface to be joined
(iii) The method of applying the process
(iv) 1,2,3 & composition of the materials to be brazed CAIP-6/2-281
123. Flux should be removed from parts by washing in hot water, washing
should not be carried out while the parts are
(i)
Still in a light jigging
(ii)
Still hot from brazing CAIP-6/2-282
(iii) Still on the soldering table
(iv) None of the above
124. The area to be brazed may be prepared by aluminum blasting or by
brushing with a wire brash or sand shot blasting when a blasting process
is used
(i)
The material should be brazed as soon as possible after blasting
CAIP-6/2-284
(ii)
The material to be washed in hot water
(iii) The material should not be braze within 24 hrs after this process
(iv) None of the above
125. Brazing often used where precisely localized heating is required to prvent
loss of mechanical properties through out the parent metal this brazing
known as
(i)
Furnace brazing
(ii)
Torch brazing
(iii) Resistance brazing CAIP-6/2-286
(iv) Induction brazing
126. Flame produced by an excess of acetylene in proportion to oxygen giving
a furry edge to the inner flame is known as
(i)
Oxdiging flame
(ii)
Carbonizing flame
(iii) Neutral flame
(iv) As in 2 also known as reducing flame CAIP-6/2-288
129. Argon cylinders should not be used if the pressure is less than
a. 20 lbf/in
b. 30 lbf/in
c. 10 lbf/in
d. None
NOT KNOWN
1.
2.
Tinned copper
Ni plated
(ii)
(iv)
Cd plated
2+3
When hydraulic fluid lines and electrical line is passing through same
portion of a/c then
(a) hoses should be fitted above the wires and should be secured to a/c
structure
(b) Electrical wire should be fitted above and be secure to a/c structure
(c)
A minimum of 4-distance should be maintained between
two and any of two can be unstable above
(d) Either of wire can be installed above and minimum of
3.
6.
31.
(b) 90
(c) 180
(d) None
(iii)
(iv)
QUESTIONS.
1.
When it is necessary to use electrical connectors where they may be
exposed to moisture.
= Use a special type of moisture proof connector.
2.
3.
4.
High tension ignition wires are checked for current leakage with
=
Hardness tester
5.
The wheat stone bridge utilize in a particular type of oil temperature
gauge. It is an electrical device for measuring electrical resistances and in this
instance the resistance of wire bridge.
=
Increase with rise in oil temperature
6.
to
The use of small bundles of wire in a/c electrical system is desirable due
=
Better flexibility
7.
8.
9.
10.
11. If the generator output were fluctuating how would you place a resistor in
the line to settle out the fluctuations
=
In series with the generator
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19. When an a/c is in flight the cabin bater?? combustion motor get its power
from the
=
battery
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
as
The type of control switch used for a retractable landing light is described
=
25.
26. The voltage regulator has a broken wire in the coil under this
circumstances you will obtain
= Zero voltage
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32. During the operation of a four engine aircraft which of the following
generator control are available to the pilot
33.
During flight when more electrical power is needed the generator voltage
=
37.
38. The tensile strength of the cable to terminal joints should be at least
equivalent to
=
The tensile strength of the cable itself
39. When frequent disconnections are required in the electrical system, the
mechanic should use in order to facilitate maintenance
=
Connectors (plugs and receptacles)
40.
41. Electric wiring that offers the advantages of case of installation, simple
maintenance and reduce weight is known as
=
Open wiring method
42. Junction boxes should be mounted with the open side facing downward,
this arrangement permits
=
Loose metallic objects, such as washers bolts etc to fall out of the
box and prevent possible short circuits
43. An arcing fault between an electric cable and a metallic flammable. Fluid
line may puncture the line and result in a serious fire, when separation is
impracticable, the electrical cable should
=
Be places over flammable fluid line and securely clamped to the
structure
44.
45.
46.
47.
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1.
a)
What is the purpose of circuit breakers & lines ? What is the
property of fuse?
(b) What is the purpose of self locking nut? Describe any three types of
self locking nut.
(c)
What are the chemical treatment applicable of Aluninium.
3.
a)
What is the purpose constant voltage & current charging method?
Why they are used?
(b) Write down truth table for NAND & NOR gates along with a neat
sktch?
Why they are called univers.
(c)
What are the chemical treatment applicable for Aluminum.
4.
5.
a)
What do you mean by impedance Calculate the impendance of the
given circuit and current flow in the gird.
(b) What are the six special inspection to be carried out on airframe as
well as engine.
(c)
Show with a neat diagram, Flexible extra flexible and on flexible
cables.
a)
Name the various parts of the micromenter & calculate its least
count in inch.
b)
What is the angle of attack and what are its effects on lift and drag.
(c)
Name the various instruments used for checking the performance of
piston engine.
(d) Describe the principle of NDT by ECL.
6.
HT
1.
2.
both
A&B
4.
How
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5.
Seak often forms on the surface of the metal and dirt blocked on it
.. by
(a)
Steel wire brush
(b) sand blasting
(c)
scrap
(d) All
6.
7.
as hardener
all are correct
8.
9.
10.
(b)
(d)
11.
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12.
Monel is
(a) heat treatable and non heat treatable
2 hrs/unit volume
none
(b)
(c)
(d)
13.
14.
(b)
(d)
full annealing
All
15.
16.
Which hardening heating (hardness) as best suitable for sleep and alloy
(a) Brinell and Bareol
(b) Brinell and Rockwell
(c)
thermal hardening to improve strength
(d) all are correct
19.
20.
21.
(c)
(d)
22.
23.
(c)
ultrasonic test
all
(d)
24.
Re-heating is done to
(a) remove strain and stresses
(b) remove effect of heat treatment
(c)
remove hardness and brittleness
(d) none
25.
In 7075 - 0 indicates
(a) annealed
(c)
solution IIT
(b)
(d)
strain hardened
None
Normalizing is applicable to
(a) cu-alloys
(c)
Ferrous alloy only
(b)
(d)
Al-alloy
Ferrous alloy only
26.
27.
28.
None
room temperature
none
29.
30.
High
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
31.
32.
33.
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
36.
After
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
(b)
(d)
yield strength
None of these
(c)
(d)
42.
43.
44. End of steel bar sometimes painted in various colors and color
combination as a mean of identifying different grade of steel
(a) solid colors identify the alloy and strips identify the carbon contents
(b) strips identify the alloy and solid colors identify the carbon
content
(c)
both a & b
(d) none of the above
45.
46.
47.
red
(d)
oil
48.
49.
Heat
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
black
50. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as:
(i)
(iii)
Annealing
Tempering
(ii)
(iv)
Normalising
Hardening
51. Immersion of the heated metal in a liquid either in oil, brine or water to
accelerate cooling is termed as :
(i)
(iii)
Dipping
Carbonizing
(ii)
(iv)
Quenching
Refining
(ii)
(iv)
Annealing
As
in
(iii)
and
drawing
30 minutes to 1 hourGFT52
1 hour to 1.30 hour
As in (i) and depending on the thickness of the material
As in (ii) and depending on the thickness of the material
55. Nitriding operation Consists of heating the steel to 950 F in the presence
of ammonia gas for
(i)
(iii)
56.
From 10 to 30 hrs
From 20 to 100 hrs GFT77
(ii)
From 20 to 50 hrs
(iv) None of the above
57
58.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
59.
60.
Brinelling is
(i)
a hardness test J
(ii)
Lateral defects
(iii) Logitudinal defects
(iv) Lateral defects and defects at 45 degree angle with the axi
OCCERANCE OF SPHERACAL DEPRESSIONS IN A SURFACE PRODUCED BY PART
HAVING SMALL RADIUS IN CONTACT WITH SURFACE UNDER HIGH LOAD.15A
130
61.
Granodizing:
(i)
It is identical to Parkerizing except from fail that the solution is of
iron fillings and phosphoric acid:
(ii)
As in (i) and process is completing in 3 to 5 minutes
(iii) Is carried in a 15% solution of potassium dichromate
(iv) It is an Electro plating process by which zinc phosphate is deposited
on the surfaces treated.GFT256
62.
63.
Temper designation for solution heat treated cold worked and then
artificially aged the letter is :
(i)
T4
(ii)
T6
(iii) T8 J7-9
(iv) T10
During anneaaling, soaking time is approximately:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
64.
Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy. The soaking time ranges from
(i)
10 to 18 hours (ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in (i) and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness 9A 217
(iv)
None of the above
65.
25 to 325 degree F
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
66. the temper designation consist of a letter indicating temper in addition the
or more limits. The stain hardened stabilized denoted by ;
(i) H (ii)
H1
(iii)
H2
(iv)
H3 9A200
67. The temper designation consists of a letter indicating temper. The letter O
indicates
68.
(i)
As fabricated
(iii)
ANNEALED
Stain hardened and partially annealed
69.
(ii)
T3
(ii)
T4
(iii)
T5
(iv)
T9
T10
(ii)
T8
(iii)
T6
(iv)T4
70. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Annealing
Normalising
Tempering
Hardening
71. The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding
torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
72.
Spherodizing
Normalizing
Shop annealing GFT48
Annealing
73. Some aluminum alloys develop their full properties as a result of solution
heat treatment followed by :
(i)
(iii)
Quenching
(ii)
Aging for about for days
Soaking
(iv)
74.
75.
76.
Spherodizing is a form of :
(i)
annealing above lower critical temperature and making globular
ferrite structure in cementite matrix.
(ii)
Annealing below lower critical temperature and making globular
cementile structure in ferrite matrix
(iii) Annealing above lower critical temperature and making lamellar
structure of ferrite and cementile
(iv) None of the above
77.
78.
79.
Pyrometer
(ii)
Hydrometer
By pouring water into the furnace
Purpose of tempering is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
80.
Water(ii) Brine
(iii) Oil
81.
82.
83.
Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy , the soaking time ranges form
(i)
10 to 18 hours (9A-217)
(ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in 10 and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness
(iv) As in 3 and 10 hours
84.
85.
Heat treatable alloys may require a fuel heat treatment to restore then
properties after welding magnesium alloys
(i)
Should not be heat treated at all
(ii)
Should not be heat treated more than three times(CAIP-BL6/5)
(iii)
(iv)
86.
Unless the pipes are annealed the loading unloading operations must be
completed
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
87.
In solution heat treatment of rivets the time between removal from the
bath and quenching must be not more than
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
88.
What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received
no hardening or tempering treatment ?
(i)
(iii)
89.
10 seconds
(ii)
30 seconds
As in (i) and to achieve satisfactory properties
As in (ii) and to avoid reheat treating
3003-F
6061 O (9A-200)
(ii)
5052-H36.
(iv) 7156- T
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
90.
The rubber which swells and often softens in all A/C fuels and in solvents
is known as :
(i)
Butyl rubber
(ii)
Synthetic rubber
(iii) Natural rubber
(iv) (i) and (iii) are correct
(9A-165)
91.
Skydrol hydro fluids are compatible with rubber seals made from :
(i)
Butyl rubber (9A-165vv
(ii)
Neopren rubber
(ii)
Natural rubber
(iv) Synthetic rubber
92. Which of the following describe the effect of annealing steel and
aluminum alloys?
(1) Decrease in internal stress
(2) Softening of the metal
(3) improved corrosion reisstence
(i)
(1),(2) (9A-211 (ii) (1),(3)
(iii) (2),(3)
(iv) (1),(2), (3)
93.
94.
95.
96.
98.
99.
Aromatic (9A-165)
(ii)
Aliphatic
(iii)
Synthetic
MATERIAL
103. If plastic is stored horizontally, the height should not be more than
a) 6
b) 24
c) 12
d) 18
93.
c) Cork
d) All of these
68.
46.
69.
b) Cast iron
d) Rubber
91.
The tip of the rivet is upset to form a second head and that is known as
a) Round head
b) Shop head
c) Flat head
d) Brazier head
94.
While bending tubing, a small flattening is allowed but the small diameter of the
bend should not be less than _______ of the outside diameter
a) 90%
97.
b) 25%
c) 75%
d) 80%
122. Addition of carbon to the surface of steel to make it hard, is known as:
(a) Case hardening (b) Carburizing
(c) Quenching
(d) None of these
127. Gamma rays used for inspecting aircraft material for internal
cracks / defects are having wave length of:
(a) 10-3
(b) 10-6
(c) 10-9
(d) 10-11
141. In AN-QQ-S-689 specification, AN indicates:
(a) Army-Navy (Aeronautical) standard
(b) Air force-Navy (Aeronautical) specification
(c) American National (Aeronautical) specification
(d) None of these
175. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid
lanoline upto height of _____________ above water line
(a) 1 Feet
(b) 2 Feet
(c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter
176. Mark the correct statements
(a) Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal
(b) Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method
(c) Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease
(d) All of the above
177. What percentage of manganese and sulfur will completely form manganese
sulfide in steel, which is harmless in small quantity:
(a) 0.3% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese
(b) 0.30% Manganese and 0.06% Sulfur
(c) 0.03% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese
(d) None of these
47.
63
d) Ceramic
(d) All
(d) Al-clad
219. The load per unit square inch at which material breaks
(a) ultimate tensile strength
(b) yield point
(c) tensile strength
(d) all are correct
221. Sand blasting is not done on
(a) Steel
(b) Cast aluminium cylinder head
(c) Where strength is not primary concern
(d) Copper
222.. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness?
a) Spectrometer
b) Prosfetrometer
c) Profilometer
d) Hilsegmetometer
11.
Metalling is a process of
(a) rolling pure Al-alloy on Al-alloy surface
(b) Ni and cd plating on steel
(c)
By sparying Ni, or on steel with oxy-acctylene flame
(d) all of the above
58.
9.
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(iv)
Rolling of metal should not be done below the critical range because:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
27.
Brass composed of 50% copper and 50% copper and 50% zinc
Brass composed of 60% copper and 40% zinc
Copper brass and zinc is equal proporation
Tin composed of 20% copper 50% and zinc 30%
24.
By punching
Electro engraving
27.
(ii)
(iv)
Muntz metal is a :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
26.
Electrical etching
Electroplating
Which one is the best known for its high tensile resistance
(i)
(ii)
. Glass
Carbon
(ii)
(iv)
Aramid
Boran
74. If the material used in the size as delivered and must not bear any incised
marking the these parts should be marked by
(i)
Etching
(ii)
Stamping
(iii)
Electro engraving
5.
Eutectic alloy is the name given to that alloy of two substance which has
lowest
(i)
(iii)
Heating point
Pouring point
(ii)
(iv)
Fusing point
All
Symmetrical aerofoil
(i) and its thickness is 19% of the chord
(i) and thickness is 9% of the chord
All of the above
31.
(b)
(d)
phosphorus
sulphur
33.
(a)
52.
T6 indicates
(a) artificially aged only
(b) SHT and cold worked
(c)
SHT and their artificially aged
(d) solution heat treated
53.
54.
emotional stress
all of the above
55.
brine 1.
It is stable weave
It is improve draping quality
It is porous after weaving
All of the above
Octal No of 189 is
(a) 235
(b)
237
(c)
265
(d) 275
10.
1.
With
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
23.
prepregs
manual application not required.
has to be kept in freezer
both a & b
none
Buna N
Buna S
Neoprene
Thiokol
24.
25.
38.
17.
10.
12.
None
13.
Monel is
(a) heat treatable and non heat treatable
(b) non heat treatable ONLY BY COLD WORKING 9A 203
(c)
magnetic
(d) as in B and weldable AND HAS VERY GOOD MACHNING
CHARECTERISTICS J 7-11
14.
15.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
normalizing
full annealing MILL , DUPLEX AND TRIPLEX ANEALLING AGE LG 28
Case hardening
All
16.
24.
34.
40.
42.
52.
(a) pot life is related to mixed resin mixture while shelf life is related to
resin and hardened individually
(b) (a) if catalyst is mixed in less amount, then it will increase pot life
but reducing curing properties
(c)
both a & b
(d) none
2024 Rivets age hardens:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
53.
54.
H1
(iii)
H2
(iv)
H3---J7-9
62. The temper designation consists of a letter indicating temper. The letter O
indicates
63.
(i)
As fabricated
(iii)
T3
(ii)
T4
(iii)
T5J7-9
(iv) T9
72.
ANNEALED--9A 201
64.
(ii)
T109A 200
(ii)
T8
(iii)
T6
(iv)T4
88.
89.
90.
Fiberglass
Carbon/graphite
(ii)
(iv)
Aramid
Ceramic
(ii)
(iv)
C-glass
A-glass
91.
With
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12.Granodizing:
(i)
It is identical to Parkerizing except from fail that the solution is of iron
fillings and phosphoric acid:
(ii)
As in (i) and process is completing in 3 to 5 minutes
(iii) Is carried in a 15% solution of potassium dichromate
(iv) It is an Electro plating process by which zinc phosphate is deposited
on the surfaces treated.---GFT256
10. The shrinkage allowance for Al Alloy sand castings is:
(i)
3/32 per foot
(ii)
5/32 per foot GFT-186 IF MACHINING IS REQUIRED 1/16 IS TO
BE ALLOWED FOR MACHINING
(iii) 5/32 per inch
(iv) 5/32 per meter
12.
5.
(b) 90
(c) 180
(d) None