Chapter 6

Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation

Table 6.2 (see textbook) provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Mall intercept
surveys allow for diversity of questions. Which two additional methods are also shown as high
on the diversity of question criteria?
a. in-home interviews; computer assisted personal interviews (CAPI)
b. in-home interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
c. Internet; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
d. computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); in-home interviews
According to Table 6.2, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the ability of the survey
mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and efficiently refers to the _____
criteria.
a. flexibility of data
b. sample control
c. diversity of questions
d. control of data collection environment
Which of the following statements about sample control is true?
a. Mailing lists for mail surveys are sometimes unavailable, outdated, or incomplete.
b. It is possible to identify specific user groups within a mail panel and to direct the survey
to households with specific characteristics.
c. It can be difficult to prevent respondents from completing an Internet survey multiple
times.
d. All of the above statements are true.
Questions that require respondents to choose from a set of predetermined answers are
_____ questions.
a) Dual response
b) Fixed alternative
c) Open-ended
d) None of the above
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the survey method of data collection?
a) The questionnaire is simple to administer.
b) The data obtained are reliable because the responses are limited to the alternatives stated.
c) Wording questions properly is not easy.
d) Coding, analysis, and interpretation of data are relatively simple.
Which of the following is not a personal interview method?
a) In-home
b) Mall intercept
c) Computer-assisted personal interview (CAPI) d) E-mail

Decisions related to the _____ portion of the mail interview package involve sponsorship,
personalization, and type of appeal.
a) Outgoing envelope
b) Cover letter
c) Questionnaire
d) Incentive
(b, moderate, page 174)
Monetary versus non-monetary and prepaid versus promised amount decisions related to
the mail interview package relate to the _____.
a) Outgoing envelope
b) Cover letter
c) Questionnaire
d) Incentive
Observational methods may be _____ or _____.
a) Structured; unstructured
b) Direct; indirect
c) Conducted in a natural environment; conducted in a contrived environment
d) All of the above
_____ involves observation techniques where the researcher clearly defines the behaviors to
be observed and the methods by which they will be measured.
a) Natural observation
b) Contrived observation
c) Structured observation
d) Unstructured observation
_____ is observation that involves a researcher monitoring all relevant phenomenon,
without specifying the details in advance.
a) Natural observation
b) Contrived observation
c) Structured observation
d) Unstructured observation
One-way mirrors, hidden cameras, or inconspicuous mechanical devices may be used
when performing ____.
a) Undisguised observation
b) Disguised observation
c) Structured observation
d) Natural observation
_____ involves observing behavior as it takes place in the environment.
a) Natural observation
b) Contrived observation
c) Structured observation
d) Unstructured observation
_____ involves observing the behavior in an artificial environment.
a) Natural observation
b) Contrived observation
c) Structured observation
d) Unstructured observation
_____ is an observational research strategy in which human observers record the
phenomenon being observed as it occurs.
a) Mechanical observation
b) Personal observation
c) Content analysis
d) Trace analysis

_____ is an observational research strategy in which mechanical devices, rather than

human observers, record the phenomenon being observed.
a) Mechanical observation
b) Personal observation
c) Content analysis
d) Trace analysis
_____ is the objective, systematic, and quantitative description of the manifest content of a
communication.
a) Mechanical observation
b) Personal observation
c) Content analysis
d) Trace analysis
_____ includes observation as well as analysis.
a) Trace analysis
b) Mechanical observation
c) Personal observation
d) Content analysis
If the marketing research application involved observing and analyzing the content or
message of advertisements, newspaper articles, television and radio programs, and the like,
then _____ would be the best observation method to use.
a) Trace analysis
b) Mechanical observation
c) Personal observation
d) Content analysis
_____ is an approach in which data collection is based on physical traces, or evidence, of
past behavior.
Mechanical observation
Personal observation
Content analysis
Trace analysis
The position of the radio dials in cars brought in for service was used to estimate share of
listening audience of various radio stations. Advertisers used the estimates to decide on
which stations to advertise. _____ is the observation method that should have been used to
gather data for this radio dial project.
Mechanical observation
Personal observation
Content analysis
Trace analysis
Limitations of e-mail surveys include all of the following except:
a. Questionnaires cannot utilize programmed skip patterns, logic checks, or randomization.
b. Skipping instructions (e.g., If the answer to question 5 is yes, go to question 9) must
appear explicitly, just as on paper.
c. There is inherent self-selection bias.
d. Some e-mail software products limit the length of the body of an e-mail message.

Advantages of Web surveys over e-mail surveys include which of the following?
a. Graphs, images, animations, and links to other Web pages may be integrated into or
around the survey.
b. It is possible to validate responses as they are entered.
c. Skip patterns can be programmed and performed automatically.
d. All of the above are correct.

The Internet is the fastest method of obtaining data from a large number of respondents. There
are many reasons for this speed. Which of the following is not one of those reasons?
a. the speed with which the questionnaire can be created
b. the speed with which the incentive is sent
c. the speed with which the questionnaire is distributed to respondents
d. the speed with which the data are returned
Which statement is false concerning the different observation methods?
a. Mechanical observation can vary widely from low to high structure depending upon on
the methods used.
b. The degree of disguise is low in the case of audits, as it is difficult to conceal the identity
of auditors.
c. Observation bias is high in the case of mechanical observation because a human observer
is involved.
d. The ability to observe in a natural setting is low in trace analysis because the observation
takes place after the behavior has occurred.
Which of the following advantages is the greatest advantage of observation methods?
a. If the observed phenomenon occurs frequently or is of short duration, observational
methods may be cheaper and faster than survey methods.
b. The reasons for the observed behavior may not be determined because little is known
about the underlying motives, beliefs, attitudes, and preferences.
c. Observational methods permit measurement of actual behavior rather than reports of
intended or preferred behavior.
d. Observational data is often time consuming and expensive and it is difficult to observe
certain forms of behavior such as personal activities.

The most serious disadvantage of observation is _____.

a. If the observed phenomenon occurs frequently or is of short duration, observational
methods may be cheaper and faster than survey methods.

b. The reasons for the observed behavior may not be determined because little is known
about the underlying motives, beliefs, attitudes, and preferences.
c. Observational methods permit measurement of actual behavior rather than reports of
intended or preferred behavior.
d. Observational data is often time consuming and expensive and it is difficult to observe
certain forms of behavior, such as personal activities.
According to Table 6.2(see textbook), the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the
degree of interaction the respondent has with the interviewer and the questionnaire, as well as
the ability to actually see the questions refers to the _____ criteria.
a. flexibility of data
b. sample control
c. diversity of questions
d. control of data collection environment

According to Table 6.2 (see textbook), the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the degree
of control a researcher has over the environment in which the respondent answers the
questionnaire refers to the _____ criteria.
a. flexibility of data
b. sample control
c. diversity of questions
d. control of data collection environment
According to Table 6.2, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, interviewers and
supervisors involved in data collection refers to the _____ criteria.
a. response rate
b. control of field force
c. social desirability/sensitive information
d. perceived anonymity
Table 6.2 provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Which two methods are shown
as low on the quantity of data criteria?
a. traditional telephone interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
b. in-home interviews; mall intercept interviews
c. Internet; mall intercept interviews
d. computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall intercept interviews
According to Table 6.2, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the percentage of the
total attempted interviews that are completed refers to the _____ criteria.
a. response rate

b. control of field force

c. social desirability/sensitive information
d. perceived anonymity

a.
b.
c.
d.

54) Table 6.2 provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Which two methods
are shown as low on the quantity of data criteria?
in-home interviews; mall intercept interviews
computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall intercept interviews
traditional telephone interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
Internet; mall intercept interviews

According to Table 6.2, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the respondents
perceptions that the interviewer or the researcher will not discern their identities, refers to the
_____ criteria.
a. response rate
b. control of field force
c. social desirability/sensitive information
d. perceived anonymity
According to Table 6.2, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the tendency of the
respondents to give answers that are socially acceptable, whether or not they are true refers to the
_____ criteria.
a. response rate
b. control of field force
c. social desirability/sensitive information
d. perceived anonymity
1.

Chapter 7
Causal Research Design: Experimentation
1. When considering _____, accumulated evidence from several investigations increases our
confidence that a causal relationship exists.
a. the time order of occurrence of variables
b. the role of evidence
c. concomitant variation
d. the elimination of other possible factors
2. Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and
sampling procedures and all of the following except:
a. specifying the independent variables
b. specifying the dependent variables
c. specifying the plan for data analysis
d. specifying how to control the extraneous variables
3. Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental
designs, which symbol below represents the exposure of a group to an independent
variable, treatment, or event the effects of which are to be determined?
a. T
b. O
c. R
d. X
4. Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental
designs, which symbol below represents the random assignment of test units or groups to
separate treatments?
a. T
b. O
c. R
d. X
5. Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental
designs, which symbol below represents the process of observation or measurement of
the dependent variable on the test units or group of units?
a. T
b. O
c. R
d. X
6. The scientific concept of causality is complex. Causality means something very
different to the average person on the street than to a scientist. If the ordinary meaning of
a statement is X is the only cause of Y, its related scientific meaning is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

The occurrence of X makes the occurrence of Y.

We can never prove that X is a cause of Y. At best, we can infer that X is a cause of Y.
X is only one of a number of possible causes of Y.
None of the above is correct.

7. The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the
following except _____.
a. time order of occurrence of variables
b. role of evidence
c. concomitant variation
d. elimination of other possible factors
8. _____ is the extent to which a cause, X,and an effect, Y,occur together or vary together in
the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
a. The time order of occurrence of variables
b. The role of evidence
c. Concomitant variation
d. The elimination of other possible factors
9. The statement An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has
taken place, refers to _____.
a. the time order of occurrence of variables
b. the role of evidence
c. concomitant variation
d. the elimination of other possible factors
10. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of occurrence of
variables?
a. In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule out all
other causal factors.
b. The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect; it cannot
occur afterwards.
c. An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken place.
d. It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect of the other
event.
11. _____ means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only possible
causal explanation.
a. The time order of occurrence of variables
b. The role of evidence
c. Concomitant variation
d. The absence of other possible causal factors

12. _____ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation

of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent
variable(s).
a. External validity
b. Extraneous validity
c. Internal validity
d. None of the above
13. _____ is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the
experiment can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the experimental
situation and if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent variables and
dependent variables can the results be projected?
a. External validity
b. Extraneous validity
c. Internal validity
d. None of the above
14. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to changes in the test units themselves
that occur with the passage of time.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect

15. _____ refers to an effect in which a prior measurement affects the test units response to the
independent variable.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect
16. _____ refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a latter
observation.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect
17. _____ refers to an extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring instrument or in
the observers or scores themselves.
a. Instrumentation
b. Statistical regression
c. Selection bias

d. None of the above

18. _____ refers to an extraneous variable that occurs when test units with extreme scores
move closer to the average score during the course of the experiment.
a. Instrumentation
b. Statistical regression
c. Selection bias
d. None of the above
19. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the improper assignment of test units to
treatment conditions.
a. Instrumentation
b. Statistical regression
c. Selection bias
d. None of the above
20. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the
experiment is in progress.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect

22. If the experimental design called for the respondents to be randomly assigned to one of
three experimental groups and for one of three versions of a test commercial to be randomly
administered to each group, this design would be using _____.
e. design control
f. statistical control
g. randomization
h. matching
23. _____ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through
statistical analysis.
i. Design control
j. Statistical control
k. Randomization
l. Matching
24. If in test marketing a new product, the researcher ensures that the product is positioned
in the correct aisle in each store and obtains the right level of store acceptance and all
commodity volume distribution, more than likely, the researcher used _____ to help control
for extraneous variables.
m. design control
n. statistical control

o. randomization
p. matching
25. The major weakness of the time series design is the failure to control _____.
a. mortality
b. history
c. selection bias
d. instrumentation
26. The effectiveness of a test commercial (X) may be examined by broadcasting the commercial
a predetermined number of times and examining the data from a preexisting test panel. Although
the marketer can control the scheduling of the test commercial, it is uncertain when or whether
the panel members are exposed to it. The panel members purchases before, during, and after the
campaign are examined to determine whether the test commercial has a short-term effect, a longterm effect, or no effect. A _____ design was used in this research project.
e. pretest-posttest control group
f. time series
g. one-group pretest-posttest design
h. multiple time series design
27. Which of the following statements is an advantage of statistical designs?
i. The effects of more than one independent variable can be measured.
j. Specific extraneous variables can be statistically controlled.
k. Economical designs can be formulated when each test unit is measured more than once.
l. All of the statements are advantages.
28. What is the main limitation of factorial designs?
m. They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is
sometimes problematic.
n. They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with
each other or with the independent variable.
o. The researcher can control for only one external variable.
p. The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the
number of variables or levels.
29. Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?
q. The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the
experiment in a carefully monitored environment.
r. The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the respondents react
to the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable.
s. Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field experiments.
t. Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments.
30. Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus nonexperimental designs?

u. It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the respondent

groups with respect to both the independent and dependent variables. However,
experiments can establish this equivalence.
v. Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.
w. In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of
variables. However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the
measurements and the introduction of the treatment.
x. All of the above statements are correct.
31. ____ is a test market in which the product is sold through regular distribution channels.
y. Simulated test market
z. Partial test market
aa. Controlled test market
ab. Standard test market
32. Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?
ac. It is a one-shot case study.
ad. Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution channels.
ae. Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used.
af. All statements are correct.
33. Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?
ag. One or more combinations of marketing mix variables (product, price, distribution, and
promotional levels) are employed.
ah. While a firms test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to
the national market.
ai. Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate
the test marketing program.
aj. All statements are correct.
34. _____ is a test marketing program conducted by an outside research company in field
experimentation. The research company guarantees distribution of the product in retail
outlets that represent a pre-determined percentage of the market.
ak. Simulated test market
al. Partial test market
am.Controlled test market
35. _____ is a quasi test market in which respondents are pre-selected, then interviewed and
observed on their purchases and attitudes toward the product.
an. Simulated test market
ao. Partial test market
ap. Controlled test market
aq. Standard test market
36. Which statement is true about simulated test markets?
ar. Simulated test markets can be conducted in 16 weeks or less.

as. The information they generate is confidential and the competition cannot get hold of it.
at. They are relatively inexpensive.
au. All of the above statements are true.
37. Which of the following is an ethical concern associated with doing experiments?
av. how to disguise the purpose of the research in a manner that does not violate the rights of
the respondents
aw. how to find respondents for the experiment
ax. ensuring that the appropriate experimental design for the problem was used
ay. both a and c are correct