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2. The protein derived from what gene serves as a transcription factor for the development and function
of regulatory T cells? (R p796-797)
Page 1 of 6
3. What is the female homologue to each of the following male structures? (FA13 p513) (FA14 p562)
(SU14 p199-200)
Male
Corpus spongiosum
Female
Prostate
Glans penis
Scrotum
Page 2 of 6
4. What important intracellular proteins are common to both the extrinsic and intrinsic apoptotic
pathways? (FA13 p212) (FA14 p220)
5. What ratio indicates fetal lung maturity? What is the proper name for the main component of
pulmonary surfactant? (FA13 p544) (FA14 p594) (SU14 p98) (Phys p468)
Page 3 of 6
6. What amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis? (FA13 p64) (FA14 p66) (SU14 p292)
7. You start a patient on a drug that has been on the market for five years. It has excellent efficacy.
However, your patient begins to have an annoying side effect one month after initiation of this drug.
She contacts the manufacturer about it; and they, in turn, contact you to gather data on her course
while on the drug. In what phase of the clinical trial would this example fall? (FA13 p50) (FA14 p50)
Page 4 of 6
8. What nutrient deficiency is associated with spooning of the nails (koilonychia)? (H p846)
9. What is the equation for determining a drugs clearance? (FA13 p227) (FA14 p239) (SU14 p388)
Page 5 of 6
10. Which bacteria are well known for being obligate intracellular bacteria? Why cant these bacteria
replicate extracellularly? (FA13 p121) (FA14 p123) (SU14 p260-261)
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1. You have a patient who is experiencing progressive difficulty with swallowing liquids and solid food.
Subsequently, the patient undergoes a barium swallow that reveals stenosis of the lower esophageal
sphincter. What is the diagnosis associated with this barium swallow finding? What are some
common causes of this diagnosis? (FA13 p324) (FA14 p349)
2. In the lower extremity, what are some of the clinical differences between peripheral vascular disease
(PVD, also known as peripheral artery disease (PAD)) and deep venous thrombosis (DVT)? (H p2066,
2170)
Page 1 of 6
3. A 22-year-old man suffers a stabbing injury to the chest. He has lost a lot of blood, and you are
concerned that his cardiac output is low. What are the two equations for cardiac output? (FA13 p253)
(FA14 p266) (SU14 p70)
4. A 66-year-old man currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation is instructed to avoid food products
that contain vitamin K to optimize anticoagulation. For what coagulation factors is vitamin K
necessary? (FA13 p95) (FA14 p96) (SU14 p272)
Page 2 of 6
5. Your 46-year-old male patient is asking your advice on whether to take a daily aspirin. How does
taking an aspirin a day prevent platelet aggregation and myocardial infarction? Which two arachidonic
acid products affect platelet aggregation? (FA13 p404) (FA14 p439) (SU14 p245-246, 274)
6. A 5-year-old boy is treated with mebendazole for a pinworm infection. Mebendazole acts on
microtubules to inhibit the pinworms. What other medications act on microtubules? What syndrome
demonstrates a defect in microtubule polymerization? (FA13 p76, 207) (FA14 p78, 213)
Page 3 of 6
8. What is compartment syndrome, and how is it treated? (SU14 p244) (COA p540)
Page 4 of 6
9. An 18-year-old woman has seasonal allergies. She complains that her eyes water and her nose runs
constantly during the spring. Which cell type is responsible for her symptoms, and what drug inhibits
these cells action? What WBCs descend from the myeloblast (granulocyte) lineage? (FA13 p345-346)
(FA14 p374-375) (SU14 p257, 266)
Page 5 of 6
10. Which GI ligaments match the following descriptions? (FA13 p310) (FA14 p336)
Description
GI ligament
Page 6 of 6
1. What are the characteristics of narcolepsy? What is the treatment for narcolepsy? (FA13 p62) (FA14
p513) (SU14 p45)
2. What is the first-line treatment for a patient with erectile dysfunction? (FA13 p541) (FA14 p592) (SU14
p224, 227) (H p377)
Page 1 of 5
3. With what physical exam finding must you presume scaphoid fracture despite a normal initial x-ray?
What might result in a proximal fracture of the scaphoid if left untreated? (COA p686)
4. A patient with Crohn disease fails traditional therapy (5-ASA, steroids, and immunosuppressants). What
other drugs are used to treat Crohn disease that target TNF-? (FA13 p210) (FA14 p217) (SU14 p143)
Page 2 of 5
5. During what week of fetal development will the fetus reach the following landmarks? (FA13 p504)
(FA14 p552)
Fetal Landmark
Week(s)
implantation
organogenesis
gastrulation
Page 3 of 5
7. What are the adverse reactions of exogenous testosterone in males? (FA13 p519) (FA14 p573) (SU14
p226)
8. What is the initial medical treatment for the arrhythmia known as torsades de pointes? (FA13 p261)
(FA14 p277) (SU14 p70-71) (H p1892)
Page 4 of 5
9. What structures give rise to the blood brain barrier? (FA13 p413) (FA14 p449)
10. Which diuretics are most appropriate for patients with hyperaldosteronism? What are their important
side effects? (FA13 p501) (FA14 p548) (SU14 p166-167)
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1. Homocystinuria is one of the few diseases that can result in subluxation of the lens. What are the
different causes of homocystinuria? How does the treatment differ for each? (FA13 p109) (FA14
p111) (SU14 p306)
2. Diagram the pathway by which the cochlea communicates a signal to the primary auditory cortex.
(Phys p639)
Page 1 of 6
3. A 20-year-old Italian woman complains of weakness and fatigue. A CBC reveals a microcytic,
hypochromic anemia with a normal iron panel. What type of thalassemia does this patient most likely
have? What is the structure of HbH? What disease results in HbH production? What is the structure of
Hb Barts? What disease results in Hb Barts production? (FA13 p352-353) (FA14 p382-383) (SU14
p281-282)
4. A 34-year-old obese white woman develops urinary retention after undergoing a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy. Which cholinergic agonist can be used to treat post-op ileus and urinary retention?
What conditions can be made worse by using cholinomimetic agents? (FA13 p233) (FA14 p246) (SU14
p401)
Page 2 of 6
5. For what conditions is hyperbaric oxygen therapy particularly helpful? (SU14 p17-18) (Phys p540)
6. A 23-year-old man undergoes a splenectomy due to splenic rupture from blunt abdominal trauma.
What would you expect to find on this patients peripheral RBC smear after the splenectomy? (FA13
p351) (FA14 p381) (SU14 p286) Asplenic patients are susceptible to which encapsulated organisms?
(FA13 p193) (FA14 p197) (SU14 p282) What vaccines for these encapsulated organisms should be
given to asplenic patients? (FA13 p121) (FA14 p123)
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7. If stroke volume determines cardiac output, and contractility determines stroke volume, what
determines contractility? (FA13 p254) (FA14 p267) (Phys p231)
8. What is the pressure in the potential spaces of the body including the pleural cavity, the joint spaces,
and the pericardial cavity? (Phys p300)
Page 4 of 6
9. How does standard deviation differ from standard error of the mean? (FA13 p54) (FA14 p56) Which
one is used in calculating confidence intervals? (FA13 p55) (FA14 p57)
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10. A 48-year-old man presents to your office with a persistent cough that has begun to become bloody.
CXR reveals a coin lesion within the lung parenchyma. Further work up reveals that the patient has the
most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers. Which cancer is this? What other lung cancers are
not associated with smoking? Which lung cancers are associated with smoking, and where are they
located, centrally or peripherally? (FA13 p558) (FA14 p609) (SU14 p116)
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1. What is the fibrous band attached to the testis and scrotum that aids in normal testicular descent?
What is this structure called in females? (FA13 p514) (FA14 p562) (SU14 p200-202)
2. What is Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome? (FA13 p85) (FA14 p87) (SU14 p92) (R p744) (H p409)
Page 1 of 6
3. What is the difference between a case-control study, a cohort study, and a clinical trial? (FA13 p50)
(FA14 p50) (SU14 p19-20) Which studies use odds ratios, and which use relative risks? (FA13 p52)
(FA14 p50, 53) (SU14 p20)
4. What are the effects of NSAIDs inhibition of PGE2? (FA13 p404) (FA14 p440) (SU14 p245) What role
do prostaglandins and angiotensin II play on the renal arterioles? (FA13 p485) (FA14 p526, 528) (SU14
p150)
Page 2 of 6
5. A female infant is brought to the clinic for evaluation of her genitalia. On exam, clitoromegaly and
labial fusion is noted. Lab studies reveal elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels. What is the most
common form of adrenal hyperplasia? Which hormone levels are altered as a result of this enzyme
deficiency? What are the clinical manifestations of this enzyme deficiency? (FA13 p291) (FA14 p312)
(SU14 p170, 188)
6. T cells are found in the paracortex of the lymph node between the follicles and the medulla. Which
cytokines are secreted by the two different types of helper T cells (Th1 and Th2)? (FA13 196) (FA14
p201) (SU14 p261)
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7. A 25-year-old man complains of a scrotal mass and pain made worse by coughing or sneezing. A
scrotal exam reveals a palpable scrotal protrusion with the Valsalva maneuver. What type of hernia is
this patient experiencing? What type of hernia protrudes through Hesselbachs triangle? What
structures form Hesselbachs triangle? (FA13 p318) (FA14 p344) (SU14 p252-253)
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8. What is the mechanism of action of the following antiemetics? (FA13 p234, 342) (FA14 p247, 372)
(SU14 p141-143) (GG p1341-1344)
Scopolamine
Promethazine
Prochlorperazine
Metoclopramide
Ondansetron
Page 5 of 6
9. What are the 3 endogenous androgens, in order from the most potent to the least potent? (FA13
p519) (FA14 p573) (SU14 p171)
10. How does a decrease in renal artery pressure cause an increase in blood pressure? (FA13 p485) (FA14
p530) (SU14 p149)
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1. Which drugs are known to cause aplastic anemia? What is the treatment for aplastic anemia? (FA13
p240, 355) (FA14 p253, 385) (SU14 p282)
Page 1 of 5
3. A 34-year-old woman develops a painful right eye with decreased visual acuity. Exam demonstrates a
firm right eye. What type of glaucoma is the patient experiencing? What is the difference between the
mechanism of closed- and open-angle glaucoma? What is the fundoscopic finding associated with
glaucoma? What is the treatment for closed- and open-angle glaucoma? (FA13 p438-439, 449) (FA14
p478, 490) (SU14 p39)
4. Is a 34-year-old schizophrenic patient having active hallucinations, who is not oriented to time, place,
or person, able to legally agree to a plan of care? What factors must be in place in order for a patient
to have the capacity to make a decision? (FA13 p57) (FA14 p60) (SU14 p23)
Page 2 of 5
5. A 32-year-old man is being treated for alcohol dependence with disulfiram. One night he begins
drinking, and later has severe nausea and vomiting. What is the mechanism of action of disulfiram?
What other drugs have a disulfiram-like effect? (FA13 p95) (FA14 p97) (SU14 p318) (GG p643-644)
6. A 1-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for evaluation of his skin. The patients skin was normal at
birth but now is erythematous, scaly, and has many new freckles. Work-up and an astute attending
reveal that this child has xeroderma pigmentosum. What cancers will this child be at higher risk of
developing? (FA13 p220) (FA14 p231) (SU14 p255)
Page 3 of 5
7. The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are
the relay stations for each of the following body sensations/activities? (FA13 p415) (FA14 p452) (SU14
p42)
Auditory sensation
Visual sensation
Facial sensation
Body sensation
8. What is PPAR-? How is it relevant to the treatment of diabetes mellitus? (FA13 p305) (FA14 p330331) (SU14 p183) (R p1137)
Page 4 of 5
9. A 23-year-old man comes to your clinic with a fever of 39C, a headache, and myalgias. This is the
second fever he has had in the last two weeks. He recently finished treatment to eradicate the lice
infestation that he acquired during a recent trip to Mexico. What organism might be responsible for
this mans recurrent fever? (FA13 p139) (FA14 p142)
10. A 40-year-old man arrives at your clinic for his first physical in 20 years. He reeks of cigarette smoke
and you notice his jacket bears the logo of his favorite tobacco company. He proudly informs you that
he got this great jacket by redeeming his cigarette cartons. At what stage of change in overcoming his
smoking habit is this man? (FA13 p470) (FA14 p513)
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1. In which phase of meiosis is a primary oocyte arrested until just prior to ovulation? In which phase of
meiosis is an oocyte arrested until fertilization? (FA13 p522) (FA14 p569) (SU14 p201, 207)
2. In performing a lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of CSF, what structures are pierced, starting with
the most exterior? (COA p505)
Page 1 of 5
3. A 65-year-old woman with COPD is in severe respiratory distress, has cyanosis and signs of right-sided
heart failure. What medications are used in the treatment of pulmonary hypertension? What is its
mechanism of action? (FA13 p564) (FA14 p614)
4. Does the notochord become the neural tube? (FA13 p408) (FA14 p444)
Page 2 of 5
5. From where does the amygdala receive inputs? To where does it send output? (Phys p719)
6. A 35-year-old man develops hallucinations just before sleep, episodes of excessive sleepiness, and
cataplexy during times of laughter and sadness. Narcoleptic sleep episodes begin with what stage of
sleep? What are the different stages of normal sleep? How do they differ from one another? (FA13
p61) (FA14 p451) (SU14 p45)
Page 3 of 5
7. The body uses both the cell-mediated and humoral immune response to fight infection. Which T cell
type regulates the humoral response? (FA13 p196) (FA14 p201)
8. What are some of the reasons a woman might have primary amenorrhea? (SU14 p206, 209) (H p385)
Page 4 of 5
9. What is a syringomyelia? What symptoms are commonly seen in patients with syringomyelia? (FA13
p410) (FA14 p446) (SU14 p41)
10. Coal miners are at an increased risk of skin cancer because of their exposure to arsenic. What type of
skin cancer is associated with this exposure? (FA13 p403) (FA14 p438)
Page 5 of 5
1. A child arrives at the ER in hypotensive shock after taking his dads phenoxybenzamine. The intern on
call orders the nurse to get her a pressor STAT. The nurse informs the intern that there are two
pressors available in the ER, epinephrine and phenylephrine. Which one will be able to increase the
blood pressure of this pediatric patient? (FA13 p237) (FA14 p250) (SU14 p79)
2. You recommend that your patient, a 51-year-old woman, begin taking a calcium and vitamin D
supplement in order to prevent osteoporosis. What are the steps in the conversion of vitamin D to its
active form in the body? By what mechanism does vitamin D help prevent osteoporosis?
(FA13 p294) (FA14 p315) (SU14 p176)
Page 1 of 5
3. What landmarks are used when placing an internal jugular central venous catheter? (COA p1011)
4. At times bupropion can be added to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for treatmentresistant depression. What can occur if a MAO inhibitor (MAOI) is added to an SSRI? What is the
treatment for this condition? (FA13 p475) (FA14 p519) (SU14 p57)
Page 2 of 5
5. Clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam aid penicillins in their activity against bacteria through
what mechanism? (FA13 p177) (FA14 p180) (SU14 p350)
6. A patient presents with a 1cm painless, mobile mass in her right parotid gland. You inform the patient
that most tumors in the parotid gland are benign. What is the most common benign tumor of the
salivary gland? What is a Warthins tumor? What cranial nerve goes through the parotid gland? (FA13
p324, 434) (FA14 p349, 472) (SU14 p43, 121)
Page 3 of 5
7. Membranous glomerular diseases involve thickening of what structure? (FA13 p489) (FA14 p535)
(SU14 p154, 158)
8. Which bacteria are most commonly responsible for sialadenitis? What condition most commonly
predisposes a patient to sialadenitis? (SU14 p121) (R p756-757)
Page 4 of 5
9. What important secretory products are secreted from the following cells of the GI tract? (FA13 p319320) (FA14 p345-346) (SU14 p119, 121)
Source
G cells
Secretory products
I cells
S cells
D cells
Parietal cells
Chief cells
10. An 88-year-old man arrives at the ER after he fell and struck his head. He has a history of atrial
fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. Noncontrast CT of the head reveals subarachnoid
hemorrhage. What is the antidote for warfarin anticoagulation or warfarin overdose? For heparin
overdose? (FA13 p239, 368) (FA14 p252, 400) (SU14 p272)
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1. A 45-year-old woman presents to the ER with complaints of chest pain, a racing heart beat, and
dizziness. Examination reveals a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, BP of 116/74, and 20
respirations/minute. The patient is diaphoretic and anxious. An initial EKG reveals ventricular
tachycardia with shifting sinusoidal waveforms. What is this classic EKG finding? What are the possible
causes of this patients condition? (FA13 p261) (FA14 p277) (SU14 p71) (R p147)
Page 1 of 5
3. What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack? (FA13 p121) (FA14 p123) (SU14 p331)
4. A patient of yours with recent complaints of weakness, pallor, craving for ice chips and tachycardia has
a history of chronic hemorrhoids. What do you immediately suspect is the cause of this patients
anemia and how do you treat it? (FA13 p352) (FA14 p382) (SU14 p281)
5. What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity? (FA13 p210) (FA14 p217) (SU14 p70)
Page 2 of 5
6. What embryological structural abnormalities might account for multiple miscarriages? What
structures arise from the paramesonephric ducts? What other name is given to the paramesonephric
ducts? (FA13 p512) (FA14 p561) (SU14 p198, 203) (R p1007)
7. Hydatidiform mole is the most common precursor of what ovarian germ tumor? What tumor marker
is monitored after the dilation and curettage of a hydatidiform mole? (FA13 p525) (FA14 p576) (SU14
p213)
Page 3 of 5
8. What are some of the circumstances in which information is HIPAA-exempt, meaning that your health
information can be shared with another party?
9. A young woman complaining of easy bleeding and menorrhagia was referred by her OB/GYN for workup of her bleeding disorder. Your preceptor tasks you with determining the cause of the patients
condition. Compare the clinical findings of platelet disorders to those of coagulation factor defects.
(FA13 p359) (FA14 p389) (SU14 p277-279)
Bleeding time
PT and PTT
Platelet disorder
Coagulation
factor defect
Page 4 of 5
Clinical features
10. You are reading a research article about the prostate specific antigen test, and it mentions that the
PSA blood test is associated with a high false positive frequency. In your own words, explain what
false positive means. (FA13 p51) (FA14 p51) (SU14 p18-19)
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1. A 30-year-old man is undergoing the Schilling test to investigate his B12 deficiency. What must be
present in the enteric system in order for vitamin B12 to be absorbed? (FA13 p93) (FA14 p348) (SU14
p121)
2. Describe the flow of blood into and out of the thyroid gland. (COA p1018-1020)
Page 1 of 6
3. What is the definition of first-degree heart block? What are the symptoms of first-degree heart block?
(FA13 p262) (FA14 p278-279) (SU14 p72)
4. The part of the brain responsible for attention and alertness has been implicated in schizophrenia,
PTSD, Parkinson disease, narcolepsy, progressive supranuclear palsy, depression, and ADHD. What part
of the brain is this? (Hint: Lesion results in coma.) (FA13 p419) (FA14 p456) (SU14 p47)
Page 2 of 6
5. What potentially fatal autoimmune skin disorder is caused by IgG antibodies against desmosomes?
What is the difference between a desmosome and a hemidesmosome? (FA13 p378, 398) (FA14 p410,
434-435) (SU14 p253-255)
6. What are the main differences between delirium and dementia? Which is more commonly reversible?
(FA13 p462) (FA14 p504) (SU14 p49-50)
Page 3 of 6
7. A 66-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident and suffers a head injury that leaves him in a
coma. Prior to this injury the man met with his lawyer to write out specific instructions in case an
event like this happened. What are these instructions called? (FA13 p57) (FA14 p60) (SU14 p23-24)
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9. A 45-year-old woman who has been taking prednisone for control of rheumatoid arthritis symptoms
has recently been diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. Other than exogenous steroids, what else can
cause Cushing syndrome? How does the level of ACTH help differentiate the etiology? (FA13 p296)
(FA14 p317) (SU14 p187)
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10. An 18-year-old man is brought to your office for delayed onset of puberty. Physical exam confirms a
small penis and testicles for his age, as well as lack of facial, pubic, and underarm hair. The patient also
reveals that he has never been able to smell. What is the likely diagnosis? (FA13 p525) (FA14 p575)
(SU14 p203)
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1. What renal pathology is characteristic of RBC casts and proteinuria? (FA13 p489, 492) (FA14 p534,
538) (SU14 p106, 156) (R p918, Table 20-5)
2. What nerve is damaged when a patient presents with the following symptom (upper extremity)?
(FA13 p381-383) (FA14 p414-415) (SU14 p240-241) (Answers given for self study)
Symptom
Claw hand
Ape hand
Wrist drop
Scapular winging
Unable to wipe bottom/anus
Loss of forearm pronation
Cannot abduct or adduct fingers
Loss of arm abduction
Weak lateral rotation of arm
Loss of arm and forearm flexion
Loss of forearm extension
Trouble initiating arm abduction
Unable to abduct arm beyond 10 degrees
Unable to raise arm above horizontal
Nerve
Ulnar
Median
Radial
Long thoracic
Thoracodorsal
Median
Ulnar
Axillary
Suprascapular and/or axillary
Musculocutaneous
Radial
Suprascapular
Axillary
Long thoracic
Page 1 of 5
3. A 56-year-old man develops right lower extremity edema after a returning from Europe from a
business trip. An exam of the right lower extremity demonstrates a red, warm, lower leg with a
positive Homans sign. What is the patients diagnosis? What is a positive Homan's sign? What is
Virchows triad? What is the most common inherited hypercoagulability syndrome? (FA13 p360, 553)
(FA14 p602) (SU14 p105)
4. In which pulmonary disease would you see an increased Reid index? (FA13 p554) (FA14 p604) (SU14
p106)
5. What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis? What class of drugs inhibits this
enzyme? (FA13 p114) (FA14 p99) (SU14 p125)
Page 2 of 5
6. Which adrenergic antagonists can be used to treat hypertension as well as urinary retention in patients
with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? What is the difference between the prostate exam findings
in BPH versus adenocarcinoma of the prostate? (FA13 p237, 535-536) (FA14 p586) (SU14 p78)
7. Many factors are involved in the proper morphogenesis of organs in utero. In the case of
oligohydramnios, lack of fluid flowing in and out of the fetal lungs leads to pulmonary hypoplasia. This
is an example of which type of error in organ morphogenesis? (FA13 p505) (FA14 p553) (SU14 p146)
Page 3 of 5
8. What arteries supply the adrenal glands? From what arteries do these arteries arise? (COA p296)
9. Which neoplasm is most commonly responsible for the following paraneoplastic effects? (FA13 p223)
(FA14 p235) (SU14 p117, 165)
Syndrome or Effect
Neoplasm
Erythropoietin polycythemia
ADH SIADH
Page 4 of 5
10. Given the following scenarios describe the corresponding complement deficiency? (FA13 p199) (FA14
p204) (SU14 p264)
Clinical scenario
Frequent Neisseria infections
Complement deficiency
Page 5 of 5
2. A patient comes to your clinic because he has not been able to extend his wrist for the last 3 days.
Upon further questioning, you discover that 4 days ago the patient passed out drunk for an entire
night while his arm was draped over a chair. What is this patients condition? (FA13 p382) (FA14
p414) (SU14 p240) (COA p54, 743) Does the regeneration of neurons occur in both the CNS and PNS?
(SU14 p25-26, 241) (R p1260) What is the rate of growth of a new axon in the PNS? (R p1260)
Page 1 of 5
4. What is the equation for determining a drugs volume of distribution? What types of disease would
alter the volume of distribution of a highly protein-bound drug such as ceftriaxone? (FA13 p227)
(FA14 p239) (SU14 p14) (Phys p376-378)
Page 2 of 5
6. A 30-year-old man begins to develop shortness of breath and cyanosis even at rest. Exam reveals
clubbing and a systolic murmur. He mentions that he has had a murmur since childhood. Further
work-up reveals a large ventricular septal defect and pulmonary hypertension. The patient is
diagnosed with Eisenmengers syndrome. Describe how this syndrome develops. (FA13 p266) (FA14
p283) (SU14 p66)
Page 3 of 5
Page 4 of 5
10. What is the rule of 2s associated with a Meckel diverticulum? (FA13 p330) (FA14 p356) (SU14 p120)
Page 5 of 5
2. What does the Eustachian (auditory) tube connect? What is its purpose? What drug is commonly
prescribed for Eustachian tube dysfunction? (H p248-249)
Page 1 of 5
4. A pediatric patient presents with a noticeable right flank mass. The patients mother also reports
blood in the patients urine. What malignancy would be most likely in this scenario? What is the
WAGR complex? (FA13 p494) (FA14 p541) (SU14 p165)
Page 2 of 5
6. What is the definition of tidal volume, residual volume, and vital capacity? (FA13 p546) (FA14 p596)
(SU14 p97)
Page 3 of 5
Page 4 of 5
10. How do primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism differ in their effect on plasma renin levels? What
agent is used to treat primary hyperaldosteronism? (FA13 p296) (FA14 p318) (SU14 p187, 167)
Page 5 of 5
1. How does the treatment of acute gout differ from the treatment of chronic gout? Why is allopurinol
sometimes used in patients with leukemia and lymphoma? (FA13 p391) (FA14 p425) (SU14 p235)
2. When performing a femoral arterial line placement or femoral venous catheter placement, it is
important to palpate the femoral artery to determine where the inguinal structures are located. What
structures are found under and just inferior to the inguinal ligament? List them in order from lateral to
medial. (FA13 p316) (FA14 p342) (SU14 p252)
Page 1 of 6
3. A 54-year-old man presents with blood pressure of 200/160, and the examination reveals right-sided
abdominal bruit suggestive of renal artery stenosis. What is the mechanism by which renal artery
stenosis causes hypertension? What are some other common causes of secondary
hyperaldosteronism? (FA13 p296) (FA14 p318) (SU14 p187)
4. Sertoli cells release a substance that acts on the paramesonephric ducts in order to prevent the
formation of what structures in a normal male fetus? What other name is given to the
paramesonephric ducts? (FA13 p512) (FA14 p561) (SU14 p200)
Page 2 of 6
5. What is the mechanism of action for methylphenidate? (FA13 p472) (FA14 p516) (SU14 p60) (GG
p298) What are the signs of intoxication of amphetamine? (FA13 p471) (FA14 p514) (SU14 p54)
6. A 38-year-old mans AIDS is being managed by his infectious disease physician, who has decided to
start him on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). Why would you place an AIDS patient on
TMP-SMX when his CD4 count drops below 200? (FA13 p146) (FA14 p149) (SU14 p370)
Page 3 of 6
7. What medication targets CD3 and is used to prevent acute transplant rejection? (FA13 p210) (SU14
p271)
Page 4 of 6
9. A 50-year-old roofing worker develops a cough for the past month that is now associated with
hemoptysis. The patient denies a smoking history or prolonged exposure to second-hand smoke. An
X-ray reveals a left-sided lower lung coin-shaped lesion. What type of lung cancer is suspected in this
individual? What is the appearance of asbestos fibers in the lung? What cancers are associated with
asbestosis? (FA13 p555, 559) (FA14 p606, 610) (SU14 p110)
Page 5 of 6
10. Given each of the following deficits, list the corresponding affected artery. (FA13 p422) (FA14 p460)
(SU14 p33)
Clinical Presentation
Page 6 of 6
2. What organisms are particularly known for causing infective endocarditis? (FA13 p128-129, 145)
(FA14 p130-131, 148) (SU14 p89) (H p1052) (R p566)
Page 1 of 5
4. A 44-year-old woman is seen in the ER for shortness of breath, malaise, and high fever. CXR reveals a
right-sided consolidation and her labs reveal a WBC count of 12,000. Which organism is overall the
most common cause of lobar pneumonia? What organisms are the most common causes of interstitial
(walking) pneumonia? (FA13 p560) (FA14 p611) (SU14 p111)
Page 2 of 5
6. A 30-year-old man is at an inpatient facility for opioid addiction. What symptoms might this patient
experience while discontinuing opioids? (FA13 p470) (FA14 p514) (SU14 p55)
Page 3 of 5
8. What medications are considered first-line in the treatment of ADHD? (GG p303)
Page 4 of 5
10. What abnormal lab values would lead you to suspect alcoholic hepatitis? (FA13 p334) (FA14 p361)
(SU14 p138)
Page 5 of 5
2. At what positive G force does visual black-out occur? Why does this occur? (Phys p531)
Page 1 of 5
4. A 40-year-old woman treated with lisinopril for stage I hypertension becomes pregnant. Why are ACE
inhibitors contraindicated in pregnancy? What centrally acting 2-agonist is often used to treat
hypertension in pregnancy? (FA13 p236) (FA14 p249) (SU14 p78)
Page 2 of 5
6. A 42-year-old obese man presents with a complaint of severe pain in his right knee. He believes he
injured it while dancing at his cousins wedding last night. You suspect gout. How would you
differentiate between gout and pseudogout upon exam of synovial fluid aspirate? (FA13 p391) (FA14
p425) (SU14 p235) (R p1243-1246)
Page 3 of 5
8. Where is most of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) generated? What is the function of CSF? (Phys p746)
Page 4 of 5
10. A child is noticed to be yellow by a visiting relative, so he was brought to the clinic. His exam revealed
jaundice and splenomegaly. The patients lab results reveal anemia and spherocytes. What test is
used to confirm the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis? What findings are associated with
hereditary spherocytosis? (FA13 p356) (FA14 p386) (SU14 p283)
Page 5 of 5
2. What are the mechanisms of action of the following toxins? (SU14 p29) (H p1197, 1200, 3580)
Strychnine
Tetanus toxin
Botulinum toxin
Alpha-bungarotoxin
Page 1 of 5
4. What is the difference between malingering and factitious disorder? (FA13 p467) (FA14 p510) (SU14
p60)
Page 2 of 5
6. A patient complains of intense thirst and profuse urination. After further testing, you suspect diabetes
insipidus. What urine specific gravity and serum osmolality findings would you see in a patient with
diabetes insipidus? (FA13 p301) (FA14 p325) (SU14 p187) (Phys p354)
Page 3 of 5
8. What is a conductive hearing loss, and what are some causes? (H p248)
Page 4 of 5
10. What pulmonary artery pressures indicate pulmonary hypertension? (FA13 p549) (FA14 p599, 608)
Page 5 of 5
Tuft of hair on lower back (FA13 p409) (FA14 p445) (SU14 p26)
2. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of severe low back pain that radiates down the back of her
leg. What is the most likely explanation for her pain? (COA p474)
Page 1 of 5
4. What type of cell differentiation and maturation takes place at the thymus? (FA13 p193) (FA14 p197)
(SU14 p257-258) The thymus also functions to positively restrict major histocompatibility complex
(MHC) at the corticomedullary junction. On which cells would you expect to find MHC I? MHC II?
(FA13 p194) (FA14 p198) (SU14 p260-261)
Page 2 of 5
6. A 50-year-old woman develops a new onset of lower back pain without a specific injury. A lumbar Xray reveals lytic lesions which raise suspicion for multiple myeloma. What is the characteristic finding
on electrophoresis with multiple myeloma? What is the classic finding in the urine of a patient with
multiple myeloma? (FA13 p363) (FA14 p393) (SU14 p269)
Page 3 of 5
8. What trace element is essential to the function of carbonic anhydrase and lactic dehydrogenase? (Phys
p856)
Page 4 of 5
10. In what clinical scenarios would you see a nutmeg liver? (FA13 p273, 335) (FA14 p291, 362) (SU14
p86, 137)
Page 5 of 5
2. A person eating fugu sashimi in Japan is at risk of what toxicity? What is the mechanism of this
toxicity?
Page 1 of 6
4. Which antifungal drugs cause gynecomastia and by what mechanism? What diuretic drug causes
gynecomastia and by what mechanism? (FA13 p185-186, 501) (FA14 p190, 548) (SU14 p218, 425,
447)
Page 2 of 6
6. What are the early cyanotic heart diseases? What are the late cyanotic heart diseases? (FA13 p265)
(FA14 p282-283) (SU14 p66)
Page 3 of 6
Page 4 of 6
Page 5 of 6
Adult Remnant
Gubernaculum (female)
Foramen ovale
Notochord
Page 6 of 6
2. What are some of the possible causes of pericarditis? (FA13 p275) (FA14 p293) (SU14 p93) (R p581)
Page 1 of 6
4. In cystic fibrosis thick, mucous secretions inhibit digestive enzymes, which can lead to malabsorption
of fat and fat-soluble vitamins. What are the fat-soluble vitamins? What are the corresponding
symptoms of fat-soluble vitamin deficiency? (FA13 p90-95, 326) (FA14 p91-96, 353) (SU14 p115, 454)
Fat-Soluble Vitamins
Deficiency Symptoms
Page 2 of 6
6. What branchial arch derivative abnormality causes facial abnormalities by affecting Meckels cartilage?
What cranial nerves are affected in this abnormality? From what germ layers are the branchial arches
derived? (FA13 p509, 511) (FA14 p558-560) (SU14 p228-229)
Page 3 of 6
11;22 translocation
Page 4 of 6
Posterior Dislocation
Arm position
Neurovascular
compromise
Classic scenario
Physical exam
9. You are treating a 63-year-old woman with small cell lung cancer who develops SIADH. She becomes
disoriented secondary to hyponatremia. Consequently, you rapidly correct the low serum sodium with
demeclocycline and water restriction. The patients sodium level and disorientation improve, but
several days later the patient develops diplopia. What is the cause of this patients diplopia? (FA13
p419, 486-487) (FA14 p457, 531-532)
Page 5 of 6
Page 6 of 6
2. What is the cause of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? (FA13 p272) (FA14 p290) (SU14 p91) (R p576)
Page 1 of 6
Mechanism of Action
pralidoxime
neostigmine
bethanechol
hexamethonium
atropine
carbachol
Page 2 of 6
5. An adult trauma patient begins to experience shortness of breath on day 3 of his hospital stay. The
patient had an open reduction internal fixation of a right femur fracture. You are concerned the
patients shortness of breath might be attributed to an embolus. What type of embolus is this patient
at risk of getting? What are the different types of emboli? (FA13 p553) (FA14 p603) (SU14 p105)
Page 3 of 6
7. What is the site of action of each of the following diuretics? (FA13 p499) (FA14 p546) (SU14 p150, 166)
Thiazide diuretics-
Loop diuretics-
Osmotic diuretics-
Potassium-sparing diuretics-
Page 4 of 6
9. The different hereditary hyperbilirubinemias can all present with jaundice and scleral icterus. What is
the underlying cause in the following hyperbilirubinemias, and what form of bilirubin is elevated in the
serum in each disease? (FA13 p336) (FA14 p364) (SU14 p134)
Hereditary
Hyperbilirubinemia
Cause
Bilirubin
(unconjugated or conjugated)
Gilbert syndrome
Crigler-Najjar
syndrome, type I
Dubin-Johnson
syndrome
Page 5 of 6
Page 6 of 6
Page 1 of 5
Schizophrenia
Parkinson disease
Alzheimer disease
Huntington disease
Anxiety
Depression
4. Name the syndromes below that are common causes of anovulation. (FA13 p296, 529-530) (FA14
p317, 581) (SU14 p209-210)
Elevated cortisol, central obesity
Amenorrhea + hirsutism + obesity
Page 2 of 5
6. What is the underlying cause of DiGeorge syndrome? What are the manifestations of DiGeorge
syndrome? (FA13 p89, 206) (FA14 p91, 212, 560) (SU14 p169, 268)
Page 3 of 5
8. What efferent fibers carry input from the brain that influences the outer hair cells (OHCs) of the
cochlea in much the same way that gamma motor neurons influence muscle spindles? What is the
result of this input? (SU14 p36) (Phys p639) (H p248) What is the result of damaging the OHCs (as
with antibiotics such as gentamicin and streptomycin)? (H p250)
Page 4 of 5
10. A child in India is brought to the doctor with symptoms of muscle weakness, malaise, headache, fever,
and hyporeflexia. For the past few weeks he had been swimming in a water way known to contain
sewage. You think this boy has contracted a pathogen via the fecal-oral route. What area of the body
is this pathogen attacking to give the neurologic symptoms seen? (FA13 p429) (FA14 p467) (SU14
p47)
Page 5 of 5
2. What synthetic agent is used both as a pituitary hormone analog and as a treatment for von
Willebrand disease? (SU14 p191) (GG p712) (H p927)
3. What viral illness is associated with Burkitt lymphoma? Is Burkitt lymphoma a neoplasm of mature Tor B-cells? (FA13 p362) (FA14 p392) (SU14 p280) Where are T-cells found in the spleen? Where are Bcells found in the spleen? (FA13 p193) (FA14 p197) (SU14 p258-259) (R p633)
Page 1 of 6
5. When is a fetus most susceptible to damage from teratogens? What drug used in the treatment of
hypertension is a teratogen? What effect does this have on the fetus? (FA13 p507) (FA14 p554)
(SU14 p78, 203)
Page 2 of 6
Premotor cortex
Page 3 of 6
8. How is the body affected by a prolonged stay in space at zero gravity? (Phys p533)
Page 4 of 6
Page 5 of 6
Mannitol
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
(thiazides)
Potassium sparing
ADH antagonists
Page 6 of 6
2. How much does the H&H change in a person that has acclimatized to a hypoxic environment for
weeks? (Phys p529)
Page 1 of 6
4. What are some extrapulmonary causes of restrictive lung disease? (FA13 p555) (FA14 p605) (SU14
p100)
Page 2 of 6
6. What muscles compose the rotator cuff? (FA13 p379) (FA14 p411)
Page 3 of 6
Mature Structure
Primitive atrium
Truncus arteriosus
Primitive ventricle
Page 4 of 6
9. A 50-year-old man crashes on a motorcycle on the highway and sustains a right anterior hip dislocation
and knee trauma. Now he cannot adduct his hip or plantar flex on that side. Which nerves are
injured? (FA13 p384) (FA14 p416) (SU14 p243)
Page 5 of 6
Rash Presentation
Herpes zoster
HHV-6
Parvovirus B19
Coxsackievirus type A
Streptococcus pyogenes
Page 6 of 6
Page 1 of 6
4. A chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis begins to experience a tremor and blurred vision. You feel like these
symptoms might be due to his progressive liver disorder and associated with hyperammonemia. What
is another hereditary cause of hyperammonemia? What are some other findings with
hyperammonemia? (FA13 p107) (FA14 p109) (SU14 p311)
Page 2 of 6
6. A 46-year-old schizophrenic woman has been treated with an atypical antipsychotic with good results
for several years. Routine labs reveal a precipitous drop in her WBCs. Which drug is this patient likely
taking, and how frequently must her labs be drawn to watch for this problem? (FA13 p473) (FA14
p517) (SU14 p56) (GG p330)
Page 3 of 6
8. How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed? (FA13 p86) (FA14 p88) (SU14 p115) (H p2149)
Page 4 of 6
Type of Hypersensitivity
Goodpasture syndrome
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Rh incompatibility (erythroblastosis
fetalis)
TB skin test (PPD)
Page 5 of 6
Page 6 of 6
Page 1 of 6
4. A 66-year-old woman is being treated in the ER for an acute MI. Nitroglycerin is given with the
expectation that it will vasodilate which vessels preferentially? Another patient in the ICU is on
hydralazine for acute treatment of his severe hypertension. How does hydralazine function? (FA13
p279-280) (FA14 p298-299) (SU14 p79)
Page 2 of 6
6. A 35-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis presents to clinic with internuclear ophthalmoplegia.
What is internuclear ophthalmoplegia? (FA13 p442) (FA14 p482) (SU14 p37)
Page 3 of 6
8. What is the treatment for digoxin toxicity? (FA13 p239) (FA14 p252) (SU14 p70) (GG p803)
Page 4 of 6
Page 5 of 6
Page 6 of 6
Liver
Bone
2. A central line is often placed in the subclavian vein to administer fluids and medications or to measure
central venous pressure. What landmarks are used when placing a subclavian central line? (COA
p1008)
Page 1 of 5
4. Which glycogen storage disease fits the following features? (FA13 p111) (FA14 p113) (SU14 p315-317)
Features
Severe hypoglycemia with elevated blood
lactate
Cardiomegaly
Page 2 of 5
6. What is the treatment of a pulmonary embolism? (FA13 p367) (FA14 p603) (SU14 p276-277) (R p706)
Page 3 of 5
8. What are some of the functions of bile produced by hepatocytes and stored in the gallbladder? (Phys
p783) What hormone is the most potent stimulator of gallbladder contractions? (Phys p785)
Page 4 of 5
10. What anatomic structures are found in the retroperitoneum? (FA13 p309) (FA14 p335)
Page 5 of 5
3. A patient with an epilepsy diagnosis is pregnant with her first child. She is concerned that her child
may also have seizures. What are the most common causes of seizures in children? In adults? In the
elderly? (FA13 p445) (FA14 p485) (SU14 p46)
Page 1 of 5
5. What organism causes Hansen disease? What animal serves as the reservoir for this organism in the
US? Where in the body does this organism live? (FA13 p133) (FA14 p135) (SU14 p460-461)
Page 2 of 5
7. A 9-year-old child is brought into the clinic for evaluation of a right wrist drop and confusion. Physical
exam reveals a bluish line on the gingivae. What peripheral smear finding is consistent with lead
poisoning? What is the treatment for lead poisoning in this patient? (FA13 p350, 353) (FA14 p380,
383) (SU14 p281)
Page 3 of 5
9. A kidney transplant patient begins to experience renal failure seven years after receiving her kidney
transplant. What type of rejection is this, and how is it mediated? (FA13 p208) (FA14 p214) (SU14
p267)
Page 4 of 5
Page 5 of 5
2. What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations? (FA13 p568) (FA14 p618) (SU14 p103) (H p1904) (Phys p512)
Page 1 of 5
Apo A-I
Apo B-48
Apo B-100
Apo C-II
Apo E
4. What drugs and endogenous hormones regulate the secretion of gastric acid? (FA13 p319) (FA14
p345) (SU14 p121)
Page 2 of 5
6. Name five or more drugs that inhibit acetylcholinesterase. What is the clinical application for each?
(FA13 p233) (FA14 p246) (SU14 p251, 413-414, 434, 442)
Page 3 of 5
8. What is HIPAA?
Page 4 of 5
10. What area of the brain is damaged in Kluver-Bucy syndrome? What are the symptoms of Klver-Bucy
syndrome? (FA13 p419) (FA14 p456) (SU14 p33)
Page 5 of 5
2. How is thyroid hormone made and stored? (SU14 p192) (Phys p907) (H p2913)
Page 1 of 5
4. What is the role of clomiphene in the treatment of PCOS? What is the mechanism of action of
clomiphene? (FA13 p540) (FA14 p590) (SU14 p226)
Page 2 of 5
6. What are the side effects of amiodarone, and what testing should be performed periodically on
patients taking it? (FA13 p284) (FA14 p303) (SU14 p74-75)
Page 3 of 5
8. A 35-year-old white woman presents with a dull ache in her jaw that is made worse by chewing. She
states that this pain corresponds to her recent promotion and increase in responsibilities. What is the
most likely diagnosis? (H p269)
Page 4 of 5
10. Your patient develops a cough with the new antihypertensive drug you prescribed her. What are some
other side effects associated with this medication? (FA13 p502) (FA14 p549) (SU14 p78-79, 86)
Page 5 of 5
2. What are the carpal bones of the wrist from radial to ulnar? (COA p674)
3. On which cells would you find CD4 molecules? On which cells would you find CD8 molecules? What
actions do the CD8+ cells accomplish? (FA13 p196-197) (FA14 p201-202) (SU14 p260)
Page 1 of 5
5. Clopidogrel (Plavix) and ticlopidine are commonly used after MI or cardiac cath with stent placement.
What is the mechanism of these drugs? (FA13 p368) (FA14 p400) (SU14 p276)
Page 2 of 5
7. What common over-the-counter medication is used to remove excess thick sputum by stimulating the
vagus nerve to generate low viscosity secretions in the bronchial tree? (FA13 p563) (FA14 p613) (SU14
p115)
Page 3 of 5
9. A 30-year-old Asian woman presents to your clinic with a variety of complaints. Upon completion of
her exam you are suspicious of Takayasu arteritis. What were likely some of the patients presenting
complaints? (FA13 p276) (FA14 p296) (SU14 p92)
Page 4 of 5
Page 5 of 5
2. What is the mechanism of action and clinical use for varenicline? (FA13 p471) (FA14 p514) (SU14 p60)
(GG p272)
3. Which diuretics are most appropriate for patients with hyperaldosteronism? What are their important
side effects? (FA13 p501) (FA14 p548) (SU14 p166-167)
Page 1 of 5
Medication
Page 2 of 5
6. What is the mechanism of action of neomycin? What are the toxicities with this class of medication?
(FA13 p180) (FA14 p184) (SU14 p434)
Page 3 of 5
8. What foods, typically high in mercury, should be avoided during pregnancy? (R p407-408)
Page 4 of 5
10. You are rotating with an anesthesiologist and learning to calculate dosages of anesthetics with her.
How does the rate of elimination differ between zero-order elimination and first-order elimination?
Which type of elimination behaves as though the enzymes responsible for the elimination are
saturated? (FA13 p228) (FA14 p240) (SU14 p16)
Page 5 of 5
2. What is Kallman syndrome? (FA13 p525) (FA14 p575) (SU14 p203) (H p2878)
Page 1 of 5
4. A 17-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room for abdominal pain and vomiting. She has a fever,
and further questioning and exam reveal that the pain is in the right lower quadrant and has rebound
tenderness. She says the pain began around the umbilicus. She is very nauseated and vomits again
during the exam. What must be ruled out prior to coming to the final diagnosis in this patient? (FA13
p329) (FA14 p355) (SU14 p120, 127)
Page 2 of 5
6. Which phagocyte dysfunction disease increases patient susceptibility to S. aureus and E. coli? What is
the cause of this disease? (FA13 p207) (FA14 p213) (SU14 p269)
Page 3 of 5
8. What medications are used in the treatment of urge incontinence? (GG p232)
Page 4 of 5
10. A 45-year-old obese woman comes to your clinic with complaint of polyuria and polydipsia. Glucose
tolerance tests are abnormally elevated. Which cell types do not require insulin for the uptake of
glucose? (FA13 p288) (FA14 p308) (SU14 p176)
Page 5 of 5
Page 1 of 5
4. A 28-year-old man is being treated with combination of bleomycin, etoposide and cisplatin for
metastatic non-seminoma testicular cancer. The patient develops SOB during the course of treatment.
Pulmonary function testing indicates that the patient has a restrictive lung disease. Which of the
chemotherapy agents is responsible for this restrictive lung disease? Which of the chemotherapy
agents in the above regimen work by inducing free radicals to interfere with DNA structure? (FA13
p372) (FA14 p404) (SU14 p290)
Page 2 of 5
6. A 3-day-old preterm infant delivered at 34-weeks gestational age develops respiratory distress
syndrome (RDS). What types of pneumocytes are affected in RDS? What is the mechanism that leads
to poor O2-CO2 exchange at the gas exchange barrier in preterm infants with RDS? What structures
make up the gas exchange barrier? How would you increase surfactant production in the pre-term
neonate? (FA13 p544, 555) (FA14 p594, 606) (SU14 p98, 103-104)
Page 3 of 5
8. Which bone is commonly fractured when a person hits something with the knuckles of a clenched fist,
causing deep pain in the anatomical snuffbox? (SU14 p244, 385) (COA p686)
Page 4 of 5
10. IFN- stimulates macrophages and inhibits T2 helper cells. What cell type releases IFN-? (FA13 p196)
(FA14 p201) (SU14 p261)
Page 5 of 5