The Transition Level is? A. Is published for the aerodrome in the section ENR of the AIP. B. Is calculated and dedared for an approach by the pilot-in command. C. Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established. D. Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude. (Correct Answer)According to EASA Air Operations, a category | operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with ta decision height (DH) no lower than ...(i)... and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than...(ii)..? A, (i) 200 ft {ii) 350 m B. (i) 200 ft (ii) 550 m (Correct answer) C. (i) 100 ft ii) 550 mFollowing an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of? A) 30 days. B) 90 days. C) 60 days.The Centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category | lighting system shall be fixed lights, showing variable intensity of the following colour? A. White (correct answer) B. Green C. BlueIn accordance with EASA Air Operations, during a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond? ‘A. 1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport on the final approach segment. B. The FA, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no FAR €. The middle marker, or 500 ft above the aeredrome / heliport if there is no middle marker.An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold? A. Acurrent dass II medical assessment B. A current class | medical assessment. C. A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence.In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to? A. Protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases. B. Protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization. C. Give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders. (correct answer)Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You should: A. Select code A7500 on your transponder B. Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft. C. Follow ATC instructions.EASA Part-FCL Instructor categories are? A. FI(A), TRI(A), CRE(A), IRE(A) ratings and SFI authorization. B. FI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) ratings, SFI and MCCI authorization. C. FE(A), TRE(A), TRE(A), IRE(A) ratings and SFI authorization.The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the? A. Aircraft owner B. Operator C. Pilot in CommandOn aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall give way to: A. Aircraft taking off or about to takeoff. B. All vehides on the taxiways except the “follaw me” vehide. C. Other converging aircraftAccording to EASA Part FCL, an examiner’s authorization is valid for? A. Not more than two years. B. The period of validity of the dass/type rating. C. Not more than three years.In accordance with EASA Air Operations, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization is? A. Is only considered for PPL B. Depends on the regulations of the contracting state which renders valid the licence. C. Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.Over high terrain or mountainous areas, where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least? A: 1000 ft above the highest obstade located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. B: 2.000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. €: 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft. D: 2 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.At an ATO the MCC training course shall be completed within? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 3 monthsAircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights may display them? ‘A. White taxiing, but not when being towed. B. On the ground when the engines are running. C. Outside the daylight period in fight, but not on the ground when being towed.A Pilot with instructor’s rating shall carry out? A. Flight instructions in aircraft. B. Skill test in full flight simulator. C. light exam in aircraft.EASA Air Operations applies to? A. Aeroplanes proceeding from European states or flying over them. B. The operation by a EASA state member of any civil aeroplane. C. The operation by a EASA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane.The duration of the periord of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date? A. The license is issued or validated B. The medical assessment is issued. C. The license is delivered to the pilot.MNPS is the abbreviation for? A. Minimum Navigation Positioning System. B. Minimum Navigation Performance Specification. C. Military Network Performance Structure.During the climb out phase of a flight the pilot in command becomes incapacitated. The copilot takes over control of the aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to be taken after landing? A. The crew must follow the procedure relevant for this case. B. The handling agent must inform his insurance company. C. The airport operator or the company in charge of the handling shall establish a report for the insurance company.According to EASA Part FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a EASA Member State at least? A. 200 hours of flight time. B. 150 hours of flight time. €. 250 hours of flight time.According to EASA Part FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot in command, the procedures and maneuvers of an aeroplane type certificated for? A. A minim crew of two pilots under IFR B. The carriage of passengers at night. C. Aminimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineerAccording to EASA Part - FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non EASA state may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA member state? A. A the discretion of the authority of the member state concemed for a period no exceeding the period validity of basic license. B. The period of validation of a license shall not exceed 1 year, provided that the basic license remains valid. C. A the discretion of the authority of the member sate concemed for a period not exceeding the period agreed.The revalidation of an IR(A), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for the revalidation of a class or type rating: A. Class Rating B. Type Rating C. Both are correctAccording to EASA Part FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has? ‘A. Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member. B. Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training. C. A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.In accordance with Part-FCL the credit for MPA copilot time is? A, 50% of the copilot ftight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license. B. 100% of the copilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license. €. 100 hours of the flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot license.An applicant for a TRI certificate shall have minimum of? A. Hold ATPL licence with at least 1000 hours of flight time. B. Hold ATPL license with at least 500 hour of flight time. C. Hold CPL license with at least 1500 hours of flight time.The holder of a pilot’s license shall inform the authority of any illness, which they are suffering, which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the license relates throughout a periord of a certain number of days or more. The number of days are? A. 60 B. 30 c.21The minimum and maximum age for ATPL holders engaged in commercial air transport is? A. 18 and 60 years B. 18 and 65 years C. 21 and 60 yearsWhat is the minimum vertical separating between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? A. 1000 feet B. 2000 feet D. 1500 feetThe recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than: A. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days B. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days C. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 monthsAccording to EASA Air Operations, if a piece of equipment on your aircraft becomes inoperative while you are still parked, before making the decision o proceed the reference document used is? A. The operations Manual under the heading “Abnormal and Emergency procedures” B. The flight manual. C. The operations manual under the heading MELThe term decision height (DH) is used for? A. Anon-precision approach B. A cirding approach only C. A precision approachThe MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by? A. The manufacturer. B. The aircraft state or registry. C. The operator.Which separation will be provided if RVSM is used when operating in MNPS airspace? A. 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical. B. 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical. C. 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.In RVSM airspance the operator shall report recorded or communicated occurences of heigh keeping errros casued by malfunction of aircraft equipment or of operational nature, equal to or greater than? A. Total vertical error (TVE) of +-90m (300ft) 8. Total vertical error (TVE) of +-120m (400ft) C. Total vertical error (TWE) of +-150m (500ft)The operator shall only conduct CAT II, OTS CAT II or CAT III operations if? 1. The DH is determined by means of a radio altimeter. 2. The flight crew consists of at least two pilots. 3. The DH is determined by mean of a baro altimeter. Aad B.2-3 c.1-2According to EASA Air Operations, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category C aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of: A. 1500m B. 2400m C. 3600mThe privileges of a TRI are to instruct for the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate, provided that the holder has ___ years of experience as TRI. A.3 B.5 Ce.According to Part-FCL, successful completion of multi crew cooperation (MCC) training shall be required to? A. Obtain a professional pilot license. B. Obtain the first type rating on multi pilot aeroplanes. C. Revalidate any rating or license.When two aircraft are approach head on o approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall? A. Alter its heading to the left B. Switch on all available lights in order to warn the other traffic. C. Alter its heading to the right.According to Part-MED, Medical certificates classes are? A.1, 2and3 B. fand 2. C. Only 1.If a pilot is carrying out multi pilot commercial passenger transport operations how does the validity of his class 1 medical change on his 60" birthday? A. From 12 months to 6 months. &. From 36 months to 24 months C. From 24 months to 12 monthsWhen is an airworthiness Certificate required? A. Any flight operation. B. Any flight with passengers. C. International fight.While flying at night, another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degree relative bearing. In tha case, you should see his? A. Green navigation light B. Red navigation light C. Green and white navigation lightPrior to the expiry date of the medical certificate examinations and / or assessments for the revalidation of a medical certificate may be undertaken up to? A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 45 daysTRE certificate holder has a privilege to conduct? 1. Skill tests for the initial issue of type ratings for aeroplanes or powered lift aircraft, applicable. 2. Proficiency checks for revalidation or renewal of type and IRs 3. Skill tests for ATPL (A) issue A.1-2 Borg 922-3:1- speak about the 3 of Airbus Laws 2- what is runway lights and when change from yellow to red 3- speak about 3 of airbus memory items 4- what is the SRS Mode 5- how long the wing span of A320FIRST DAY :- ASSESSMENT SIMULATOR AT BALTIC AVIATION ACADEMY ALL SIM ASSESSMENTS was IN MANCHESTER AIRPORT chart 1- VISUAL CIRCUIT WITH CROSSWIND 20K 2- ENGINE FAILURE AT V1 (WITH NO DAMAGE) 3- TACA 2 AICs 4-GPWS 5- WIND SHEER During T/O GILS RAWDATA 7- LOC APP 8 VOR APP