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QUESTION BOOKLET

Domain : Electrical Engineering INSTRUCTIONS

BOOKLET Domain : Electrical Engineering INSTRUCTIONS Please read the following instructions carefully/ 1) Mark
BOOKLET Domain : Electrical Engineering INSTRUCTIONS Please read the following instructions carefully/ 1) Mark

Please read the following instructions carefully/

Please read the following instructions carefully/ 1) Mark carefully your Roll Number and series of the
Please read the following instructions carefully/ 1) Mark carefully your Roll Number and series of the

1) Mark carefully your Roll Number and series of the paper on the OMR Answer Sheet and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number on the question booklet.

place. Write your Roll number on the question booklet. 2) Strictly follow the instructions given by

2) Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor / Room invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet.

/ Room invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet. 3) Please mark the right responses

3) Please mark the right responses ONLY with a Blue/Black ball point pen.

the right responses ONLY with a Blue/Black ball point pen. 4) Candidates are not allowed to

4) Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, pagers etc. to the Ex- amination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, indulging in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.

summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 5) After finishing the examination, hand over

5) After finishing the examination, hand over the complete question booklet the OMR Answer Sheet and Subjective Answer Sheet. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the exami- nation room. Doing so, is a punishable offence.

the exami- nation room. Doing so, is a punishable offence. 6) The test is of objective

6) The test is of objective & subjective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 124 questions and the total time allotted is 3 hours. The written test consists of 4 Sections.

is 3 hours. The written test consists of 4 Sections. Part - A: General Awareness has
Part - A: General Awareness has 40 questions of 1 marks each
Part - A: General Awareness has 40 questions of 1 marks each
Part - B: relates to domain with 80 questions to be attempted
Part - B: relates to domain with 80 questions to be attempted

Part - C: General Awareness and has 2 descriptive questions which carries 5 marks each.

and has 2 descriptive questions which carries 5 marks each. Part - D: relates to domain

Part - D: relates to domain with 2 descriptive questions to be at- tempted which carries 10 marks each

questions to be at- tempted which carries 10 marks each 7) Each objective question is followed

7) Each objective question is followed by four responses. Your task is to choose the correct response and mark your response on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet.

on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet. 8) All questions are COMPULSORY.

8) All questions are COMPULSORY. There will be NO NEGATIVE MARKING.

questions are COMPULSORY. There will be NO NEGATIVE MARKING. 9) Completely darken the CIRCLE so that

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of darkening the CIRCLE on the OMR sheet are given below. Coorect Method Wrong Method A

Coorect Method

the CIRCLE on the OMR sheet are given below. Coorect Method Wrong Method A B C

Wrong Method

the OMR sheet are given below. Coorect Method Wrong Method A B C D A B
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
A B
C
D
A
B
C
D

10) In view of the tight time span, do not waste your time on a question which you find to be difficult. Go on solving questions one by one and come back to the difficult questions at the end.

by one and come back to the difficult questions at the end. 11) DO NOT make

11) DO NOT make any stray marks anywhere on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet and the Subjective Response Sheets. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your test booklet for this purpose.

Response Sheets. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your test booklet

1 (Elec.-A)

Part-A General Awareness (MCQs)

1. Arrange the following Mughal emperors in chronological order:

a.

Akbar, Shah Jahan, Jahangir, Aurangazeb

b. Akbar, Aurangazeb, Jahangir, Shah Jahan

c.

Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Aurangazeb

d. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Akbar, Aurangazeb

a. c. c. d.
a.
c.
c.
d.

2. The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ for annexation of protected states to the British Empire was the brainchild of

a.

Lord Cornwallis

b. Lord Dalhousie

c.

Lord Wellesley

d. Lord Mountbatten

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

3. The modern districts of Tirunelveli, Madurai, Ramanad, etc were part of the territory ruled by the

a.

Chera dynasty

b. Chola dynasty d. Pandya dynasty

c.

Pallava dynasty

a.

a. b.

b.

a. b.

c.

d.

4. Kalibangan, a site associated with the Harappan civilization, is situated in

a.

Rajasthan

b. West Punjab in Pakistan

c.

Punjab in India

d. Sind in Pakistan

a. b. c. ( ) d.
a.
b.
c.
(
)
d.

5. An area of knowledge the Vedic Aryans were not conversant in was

a.

Chemistry

b. Surgery

c.

Mathematics

d. Astronomy

a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

Surgery c. Mathematics d. Astronomy a. c. b. d. 6. Which Tamil King had gone to

6. Which Tamil King had gone to the Himalayas to fetch a stone to make an idol of Goddess Kannaki?

a.

Senguttuvan

b. Nedumcheran

c.

Kuttuvancheran

d. Imayavaramban

a. c. b. d.
a.
c.
b.
d.

7. A social reformist organization in Lahore invited Dr B R Ambedkar in 1936, to deliver the presidential address. The manuscript of the speech did not receive the approval of the hosts. It later became a book called

a.

Annihilation of Caste

b. Federation

versus Freedom

c.

Buddha of Marx

d. Pakistan or Partition of India

b. Federation versus Freedom c. Buddha of Marx d. Pakistan or Partition of India a. c.
a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

b. Federation versus Freedom c. Buddha of Marx d. Pakistan or Partition of India a. c.

2 (Elec.-A)

8.

Which of the following statements are not true of the Home Rule Movement?

I. The demand was for self-government and not complete independence.

II. The movement included promoting political education to build a base for self-government

III. It did not achieve much impact or popularity.

IV. The movement was the part of the Congress activity.

a.

I and II

b. II and III

c.

III and IV

d. IV and I

I. II. III. IV. a. I II b. II III c. III IV d. IV
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
I
II
b. II
III
c.
III
IV
d. IV
I

9. Who said, ‘The British Empire is rotten to the core, corrupt in every direction and tyrannical and mean’?

a.

Mrs. Annie Besant

b. W. Digby d. William Wedderburn

c.

Sister Nivedita

a.

a. b. d.

b. d.

a. b. d.

c.

10. India and Pakistan were partitioned under which of the following plans of the British colonial government?

a.

Mountbatten Plan

b. Cripps Plan

c.

Chelmsford Plan

d. Wavell Plan

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

11. Who was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

a.

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

b.

Vinoba Bhave

c.

Firoz Gandhi

d. Manilal Gandhi

a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

c. Firoz Gandhi d. Manilal Gandhi a. c. b. d. 12. The Vedanga consists of the

12. The Vedanga consists of the following:

a. Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish

b. Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish

c. Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish

d. Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

13. The earliest available work of the Tamil Sangams is

a.

Pattinappalai

b. Tirumurugarruppadai

c.

Maduraikanchi

d. Tolkappiyam

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

3 (Elec.-A)

14.

Which foreign traveller visited India during the Mughal period and left us an expert’s description of the Peacock Throne?

a.

Geronimo Verroneo

b.

‘Omrah’ Danishmand Khan

c.

Tavernier

d. Francisco Palsaert

Danishmand Khan c. Tavernier d. Francisco Palsaert a. c. b. d. 15. The Constitution of India
a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

c. Tavernier d. Francisco Palsaert a. c. b. d. 15. The Constitution of India describes India

15. The Constitution of India describes India as a ‘Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’. Prior to the 42 nd Amendment in 1976, it was described as a

a.

‘Sovereign Democratic Republic’

b. ‘Sovereign Socialist Republic’

c.

‘Sovereign Secular Republic’

d. ‘Secular Democratic Republic’

Secular Republic’ d. ‘Secular Democratic Republic’ a. b. c. d. 16. Which Constitutional Article lays down
a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

16. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST?

a.

Article

337

b. Article 334

c.

Article

338

d. Article 339

b. Article 334 c. Article 338 d. Article 339 a. c. 337 338 b. 334 d.
a. c.
a.
c.

337

338

b.

334b.

d.

339d.

17. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List?

a.

Lok Sabha

b. Parliament

c.

Rajya Sabha

d. Legislative Council

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

18. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that ‘the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha’? a. S R Bommai vs Union of India AIR 1994 SC 1916

b. State of Kerala vs Union of India AIR 1957 SC 1361

c. State of West Bengal vs Union of India AIR 1999 SC 131

d. None of the above

vs Union of India AIR 1999 SC 131 d. None of the above a. AIR SC
a. AIR SC b. AIR SC c. AIR 1999 SC 131 d.
a.
AIR
SC
b.
AIR
SC
c.
AIR 1999 SC 131
d.

19. In case the recommendation for imposing President’s Rule in a state is not approved by the Parliament, for how many months can the promulgation last?

a.

Four months

b. Two months

c.

Three months

d. Six months

the promulgation last? a. Four months b. Two months c. Three months d. Six months a.
a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

the promulgation last? a. Four months b. Two months c. Three months d. Six months a.

4 (Elec.-A)

20. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj?

a.

District Sabha

b. Gram Sabha

c.

Nagar Panchayat Sabha

d. Zila Sabha

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

21. What do we understand by the term ‘Government Bill’ in the Parliament?

a. Bill presented by Ruling Party member

b. Bill approved by the Government

c. Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill

d. A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

22. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency?

a.

Executive

b. President

c.

Governor

d. Prime Minister

b. President c. Governor d. Prime Minister a. b. c. d. 23. Under which act, the
a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

23. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legislature was established during the British period for the first time?

a.

Government of India Act 1938

b. The Indian Council Act 1861

c.

Government of India Act 1919

d. Government of India Act 1935

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

24. Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you’?

a.

Dr Babu Rajendra Prasad

b. Dr S Radhakrishnan

c.

Abraham Lincoln

d. Woodrow Wilson

Radhakrishnan c. Abraham Lincoln d. Woodrow Wilson a. c. b. d. 25. Who has the powers
a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

c. Abraham Lincoln d. Woodrow Wilson a. c. b. d. 25. Who has the powers underArticle

25. Who has the powers underArticle 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.?

a.

Regional Election Commissioner

b. Election Committee of Government

c.

Electoral Officer

d. Election Commission

c. Electoral Officer d. Election Commission a. c. (1) b. d. 26. Spell out the condition
a. c.
a.
c.
c. Electoral Officer d. Election Commission a. c. (1) b. d. 26. Spell out the condition

(1)

b.

d.

26. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published. a) The report must be a report of the ‘proceedings’ of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged.

5 (Elec.-A)

b) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or ‘Comment’.

c) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice.

d) All of the above

must not be actuated by malice. d) All of the above a) expunged b) c) actuated
must not be actuated by malice. d) All of the above a) expunged b) c) actuated
must not be actuated by malice. d) All of the above a) expunged b) c) actuated

a)

expunged b) c) actuated d)
expunged
b)
c)
actuated
d)

garbed

d) All of the above a) expunged b) c) actuated d) garbed 27. Under Constitutional Articles

27. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court?

i.

Delimitation of Constituencies

ii.

The allotment of seats to such Constituency

a.

i only

b. ii only d. Neither of them

c.

Both i & ii

i.

i i ii
i
i
ii
 

ii.

a.

b.

ii
ii

c.

d.

28. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognizing or de-recognizing a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party?

a. Under Article 32

b. Under Article 229

c. As a Special leave petition

d. As Public Interest Litigation

As a Special leave petition d. As Public Interest Litigation a. b. c. d. 29. The
a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

29. The central banking functions in India are performed by the

a. Central Bank of India

b. Reserve Bank of India

c. State Bank of India

d. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

30. The following item(s) is/are traded in the gilt-edged market:

a.

Precious metals like platinum and palladium

c.

Unlicensed guns understudy

a. c. understudy
a.
c.
understudy

b. Bullion (Gold and silver) d. Government securities (gilt-edged market) b. d.

a. c. understudy b. Bullion (Gold and silver) d. Government securities (gilt-edged market) b. d. 6

6 (Elec.-A)

31. Devaluation of a currency means

a. reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies

b. permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

c. fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre-determined currencies

d. fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank and major trading partners

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

32. Development Expenditure of the Central Government does not include

a.

Defence Expenditure

b. Expenditure on economic services

c.

Expenditure on social and community services

d. Grants to states

a. a. c. d.
a.
a.
c.
d.

33. In the last decade, which of the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India?

a.

c.

Services sector

Telecommunication

b. Food processing d. Retail trade

sector Telecommunication b. Food processing d. Retail trade a. c. b. d. 34. The main role
a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

b. Food processing d. Retail trade a. c. b. d. 34. The main role of State

34. The main role of State Financial Corporations in India is to provide financial assistance for the development of

a. Agriculture

c.

Large scale industry

b. Cottage industry d. Medium and small scale industries

b. Cottage industry d. Medium and small scale industries a. c. b. d. 35. The major

a.

c.

Cottage industry d. Medium and small scale industries a. c. b. d. 35. The major outcome

b.

d.

industry d. Medium and small scale industries a. c. b. d. 35. The major outcome of

35. The major outcome of the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee was that guidelines were framed to

a. govern entry of new private sector banks to make the banking sector more competitive

b. reduce the freedom given to banks to rationalize their existing branch network

c. setup more foreign exchange banks

d. lend more easily for industrial development

banks d. lend more easily for industrial development a. b. c. d. 36. Indirect taxes contribute
banks d. lend more easily for industrial development a. b. c. d. 36. Indirect taxes contribute

a.

b. c. d.
b.
c.
d.

36. Indirect taxes contribute

% of the revenue of India.

%
%

a.

74%

b. 85%

c.

63%

d. 93%

7 (Elec.-A)

37. In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes. Which of the following reason(s) account(s) for this?

1.

A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture

2.

Prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products

3.

Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

a.

1 alone

b. 1 and 2

c.

2 and 3

d.1, 2 and 3

1. 2. 3. a. I b. 1 2 c. 2 3 d.1, 2 3
1.
2.
3.
a.
I
b. 1
2
c.
2
3
d.1, 2
3

38. Which of the following is responsible for formulating the fiscal policy in India?

a. The Planning Commission

b. The Ministry of Finance

c. The Finance Commission

d. The Reserve Bank of India

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

39. Which of the following are the measures of Integrated Slum Development Programme adopted in India in the Eleventh Five Year Plan?

1.

Creating and updating database on slums.

2.

Using land as a resource for housing and shelter development for slum dwellers

3.

Asking slum dwellers to apply for house loan from government.

4.

Granting tenure security to slum dwellers.

a.

1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c.

2 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4

1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2 and
1. 2. 3. 4. a. 1, 2 3 b. 1 d. 1, 2 2 c.
1.
2.
3.
4.
a.
1, 2
3
b. 1
d. 1, 2
2
c.
2
4
4

40. The total public sector outlay in the Eleventh Five Year Plan (Central, State and Union Territories) which is for the period 2007 – 2012 is estimated at about:

a.

Rs. 30 lakh crore

b. Rs. 36 lakh crore

c.

Rs. 40 lakh crore

d. Rs. 46 lakh crore

Rs. 30 lakh crore b. Rs. 36 lakh crore c. Rs. 40 lakh crore d. Rs.
a. c.
a.
c.

b.

d.

Rs. 30 lakh crore b. Rs. 36 lakh crore c. Rs. 40 lakh crore d. Rs.
Rs. 30 lakh crore b. Rs. 36 lakh crore c. Rs. 40 lakh crore d. Rs.

8 (Elec.-A)

Part-B Electrical Engineering (MCQs)

41. The periphery of the armature divided by the number of poles of the generator is called as

?

a.

Back pitch

b.

Front pitch

c.

Pole pitch

d.

Resultant pitch

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

42. By adding extra ampere-turns to the main field winding, the following effect can be neutralized?

a.

c.

Demagnetizing effect

Commutation

b.

Cross magnetizing effect

d.

None of the above

a. Demagnetizing b. magnetizing c. d.
a.
Demagnetizing
b.
magnetizing
c.
d.

ampere-turns

43. The below circuit has C1 = 0.5µF and if it has to pass 5000 cycles wave, then the value of inductor L = ?

C1 = 0.5µF L L = ? 0.5µF a. 2.03mh b. 3.1mh c. 2.5 mh
C1 = 0.5µF
L
L = ?
0.5µF
a.
2.03mh
b.
3.1mh
c.
2.5 mh
d.
5h

44. A four pole lap wound generator has 56coils with 6 turns per coil. The speed is 1150rpm. What must be the flux per pole in order to generate 265V?

v
v

coils

coil
coil

rpm

flux per pole in order to generate 265V? v coils coil rpm a. 20.2mWb b. 19mWb

a.

20.2mWb

b.

19mWb

c.

20.6mWb

d.

2.5mWb

45. Calculate the torque developed by a 440V d.c. motor having an armature resistance of 0.25and running at 750rpm when taking a current of 60A?

V d.c. A
V d.c.
A

armature

at 750rpm when taking a current of 60A? V d.c. A armature 0.25 Ω 750 rpm

0.25

when taking a current of 60A? V d.c. A armature 0.25 Ω 750 rpm a. 325N-m

750 rpm

taking a current of 60A? V d.c. A armature 0.25 Ω 750 rpm a. 325N-m b.

a.

325N-m

b.

320N-m

c.

300N-m

d.

155N-m

46. A d.c. shunt motor operating on 220V supply takes an armature current of 20A and run at 800rpm. Its armature resistance is 1. Calculate the additional resistance to be inserted in series with the armature to reduce its speed to 520rpm with same armature current.

v A rpm 1Ω rpm
v
A
rpm
1Ω
rpm

a.

3.5

b.

4.5

c.

5

d.

1

47. The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 4 poles and rotating at 1800rpm is

Hz.

rpm Hz.
rpm
Hz.

a.

60

b.

7200

c.

120

d.

450

48. If the angle of a four pole synchronous motor is 8 degrees (electrical), its value in mechanical degree is

pole synchronous motor is 8 degrees (electrical), its value in mechanical degree is a. c. 0.25

a.

c.

0.25

2

b.

d.

0.5

4

9 (Elec.-A)

49. In a synchronous motor, damped winding is provided in order to

a.

Stabilize rotor motion

b. Suppress rotor oscillation

c.

Develop

necessary starting torque

d. Both a and c

damped a. b. c. d. a b
damped
a.
b.
c.
d.
a
b

50. In a SCIM torque with auto starter is

times the torque with direct switching

SCIM

SCIM

SCIM
SCIM

a.

k 2

b.

k

c.

1/ k 2

d.

1/k

51. A 100 : 5 transformer is used in conjunction with a 5A ammeter. If the latter reach 3.5 A. Then the line current

is

100 : 5 current
100
: 5
current

5A ammeter

3.5 A. Then the line current is 100 : 5 current 5A ammeter ammeter 3.5 A.

ammeter 3.5 A.

line current is 100 : 5 current 5A ammeter ammeter 3.5 A. a. 70A b. 35A

a.

70A

b.

35A

c.

100A

d.

5A

52. An auto transformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 3kW. The power transformed

conductively from primary to secondary is

power transformed conductively from primary to secondary is 3kw a. 0.6kW b. 2.4kW c. 1.5kW d.

3kw

transformed conductively from primary to secondary is 3kw a. 0.6kW b. 2.4kW c. 1.5kW d. 0.27kW

a.

0.6kW

b.

2.4kW

c.

1.5kW

d.

0.27kW

53. The iron loss of a transformer at 400Hz is low. Assuming that eddy current and hysteresis losses vary as the

square of flux density, the iron loss of a transformer at rated voltage but at 50Hz would be

watt.

400Hz transformer 50hz
400Hz
transformer
50hz

a.

80

b.

640

c.

1.25

d.

100

54. A 100KVA, 2 winding transformer has an iron loss of 1kW and a copper loss on normal output current of 1.5kW.

The KVA loading at which the efficiency would be maximum is

?

100KVA, 2 k kW copper 1.5kw kva
100KVA, 2
k
kW
copper
1.5kw
kva

a.

85KVA

b.

82.3KVA

c.

80KVA

d.

100KVA

55. A concentric cable has a conductor diameter of 1cm and an insulation thickness of 1.5cm. When the cable is

subjected to test pressure of 33kV, the maximum field strength would be cm

?

cm kV
cm
kV

a.

47.6kV

b.

45.5 kV

c.

40 kV

d.

10 kV

56. The most economical value of the conductor radius of an 80kV cable having an insulation with a voltage gradient

of 60kV/cm is

80kV

?

with a voltage gradient of 60kV/cm is 8 0 k V ? 60kv/cm a. 1.33cm b.

60kv/cm

with a voltage gradient of 60kV/cm is 8 0 k V ? 60kv/cm a. 1.33cm b.

a.

1.33cm

b. 2.5cm

c.

1.8cm

d. 1cm

57. In case of m-derived low pass filters, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is

?

a.

below the cut-off frequency

b.

above the cut-off frequency

c.

at the

cut-off frequency

d. All of the above

b. d.
b.
d.

m

a.

c.

58. If Z 11 =2, Z 21 =1, Z 12 =1, Z 22 =3, then the determinant of the admittance matrix is

Z 1 1 =2 Ω , Z 2 1 =1 Ω , Z 1 2 =1 11 =2, Z 21 =1, Z 12 =1, Z 22 =3

Ω , Z 2 1 =1 Ω , Z 1 2 =1 Ω , Z 2

?

a.

5

b.

1/5

c.

1

d.

2

10 (Elec.-A)

59. A series RLC circuit has a Q of 80 and a bandwidth of 160 cycles. Then the resonant frequency is

Hz.

bandwidth of 160 cycles. Then the resonant frequency is Hz. RLC Q a. 12800 b. 12720

RLC

Q
Q

a.

12800

b.

12720

c.

12880

d.

13880

60. A voltage e = 340sin 314t is applied to a resistor and the current is I = 42.5sin314t. Then

the resistor is e = 340sin 314t

Ohmic
Ohmic

?

= 42.5sin314t. Then the resistor is e = 340sin 314t Ohmic ? ? I = 42.5sin314t

?

I = 42.5sin314t

a.

8

b.

6

c.

4

d.

3

the Ohmic value of

6 Ω c. 4 Ω d. 3 Ω the Ohmic value of 61. Two coupled coils

61. Two coupled coils of L1 = 0.9H and L2 = 0.4H have a coupling coefficient k=0.8. Then the mutual inductance (M)

50.

In a SCIM torque with auto starter is SCIM

(M) 50. In a SCIM torque with auto starter is SCIM times the torque with direct
(M) 50. In a SCIM torque with auto starter is SCIM times the torque with direct

times the torque with direct switching

auto starter is SCIM times the torque with direct switching (m) a. k 2 b. k

(m)

starter is SCIM times the torque with direct switching (m) a. k 2 b. k c.

a.

k 2

b.

k

c.

1/ k 2

d.

1/k

62. Three wattmeter method of power measurement can be used to measure power in

?

a.

Balanced Circuits

b.

Unbalanced circuits

c.

Both (a) and (b)

d.

Neither (a) nor (b)

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

63. The maximum energy stored in a capacitive circuit is

?

capacitive

capacitive

capacitive
capacitive

a.

W=CE 2

b.

W=C 2 E

c.

W=1/2CE 2

d.

1/2C 2 E

64. Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when

 

?

current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when   ? RLC oscillatory a. R=2(L/C) ½ b.

RLC

in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when   ? RLC oscillatory a. R=2(L/C) ½ b. R=0

oscillatory

RLC circuit is oscillatory when   ? RLC oscillatory a. R=2(L/C) ½ b. R=0 c. R>2(L/C)

a.

R=2(L/C) ½

b.

R=0

c.

R>2(L/C) ½

d.

R<2(L/C) 1/2

65. A 50 C/S, 11kV generator is connected to a power system. The system reactance and capacitance per phase are

10mH and 0.02µF respectively. The maximum voltage across the contacts of the circuit breaker at an instant

when it passes through zero is

?

50c/s, 11kv 10mH
50c/s, 11kv
10mH

0.02µF

a.

17.96kV

b.

14.59kV

c.

10.9kV

d.

15kV

66. The data for a three phase oil circuit breaker are as follows:

- Operating voltage = 11kV

- Rupturing capacity = 500mVA

- Normal current = 500A

- Time = 3seconds

Then the rated symmetrical breaking current is

?

a. 21.25kA(rms) b. 26.25kA(rms) c. 20.25kA(rms) d. 20kA(rms) kV Rupturing mVA current A 3 ?
a.
21.25kA(rms)
b.
26.25kA(rms)
c.
20.25kA(rms)
d.
20kA(rms)
kV
Rupturing
mVA
current
A
3
?
a.
21.25kA(rms)
b.
26.25kA(rms)
c.
20.25kA(rms)
d.
20kA(rms)

11 (Elec.-A)

67. A zinc strip of width 0.4inch and of thickness 1 inch fuses when a current of 66A passes through it. Then the

fusing current for a fuse of same width and double the thickness is

inch 1 inch A
inch
1 inch
A

current

?

width and double the thickness is inch 1 inch A current ? a. 109A b. 115A

a.

109A

b.

115A

c.

129A

d.

60A

68. The disadvantage of oil circuit breaker is

?

a. that it is Inflammable

b. that it forms an explosive mixture with air

c. due to its composition, the oil has to be kept clear and then requires maintenance

d. All of the above

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

69. When large currents are required it is necessary to use

?

a.

lap winding

b.

wave winding

c.

single layer winding

d.

lap and wave winding

a. c.
a.
c.
b. b.
b.
b.

70. Six bulbs are connected in parallel across 110V. Each bulb is rated as 75W. The total current flow will be equal

to

is rated as 75W. The total current flow will be equal to ? 110V 75W a.

?

110V

rated as 75W. The total current flow will be equal to ? 110V 75W a. 4.092A

75W

as 75W. The total current flow will be equal to ? 110V 75W a. 4.092A b.

a.

4.092A

b.

9.7A

c.

75A

d.

110A

71. Eddy current loss is proportional to

?

c. 75A d. 110A 71. Eddy current loss is proportional to ? a. f 2 b.
c. 75A d. 110A 71. Eddy current loss is proportional to ? a. f 2 b.

a.

f 2

b.

f

c.

1/f 2

d.

1/f

72. If the network contains B branches and N nodes then the number of mesh current equations would be

?

B N
B
N

a.

B - (N - 1)

b.

N - (B - 1)

c.

B – N – 1

d.

(B + N) - 1

73. An electric motor is developing 10kW at a speed of 900rpm. Then the torque available at the shaft is

?

speed of 900rpm. Then the torque available at the shaft is ? ? 900rpm 10kW a.

?

900rpm

900rpm. Then the torque available at the shaft is ? ? 900rpm 10kW a. 106N-m b.

10kW

Then the torque available at the shaft is ? ? 900rpm 10kW a. 106N-m b. 101N-m

a.

106N-m

b.

101N-m

c.

95N-m

d.

100N-m

74. A lift of 250kg mass is raised with a velocity of 5m/s. If the driven motor has an efficiency of 85, then the input

power of the motor is

250kg ?
250kg
?

5m/s

?

of 85, then the input power of the motor is 250kg ? 5m/s ? a. 14.45kW

a.

14.45kW

b.

12.25kW

c.

11.25kW

d.

15.5kW

75. A generating station has a daily output of 280MWH and uses 500t (tons) of coal in the process. The coal releases

7MJ/kg when burnt. Then the overall efficiency of the station is

when burnt. Then the overall efficiency of the station is 280MWH 7mj/kg ? 500t (tons) ?

280MWH

7mj/kg

Then the overall efficiency of the station is 280MWH 7mj/kg ? 500t (tons) ? a. 28.8%

?

500t (tons)

efficiency of the station is 280MWH 7mj/kg ? 500t (tons) ? a. 28.8% b. 30% c.

?

a.

28.8%

b.

30%

c.

45%

d.

47.5%

12 (Elec.-A)

76. The lamps in a set of Christmas tree lights are connected in series. If there are 20lamps and each lamp has a

resistance of 25then the total current taken from 240V supply is

?

25 Ω then the total current taken from 240V supply is ? 25 Ω 240v a.

25

240v

240v

240v

a.

0.48A

b.

0.5A

c.

1.5A

d.

2A

77. Given the following circuit diagram, can you find the value of R ?

R
R

10A

circuit diagram, can you find the value of R ? R 10A 2V R (A) a.
circuit diagram, can you find the value of R ? R 10A 2V R (A) a.
circuit diagram, can you find the value of R ? R 10A 2V R (A) a.
circuit diagram, can you find the value of R ? R 10A 2V R (A) a.

2V R (A)

a.

0.5 ohms

b.

10 ohms

c.

2 ohms

d.

2.5 ohms

78. Given the below circuit, can you find the value of Rth?

R
R

200V

60ohm 26ohm 40ohm
60ohm
26ohm
40ohm

a.

50 ohms

b.

60 ohms

c.

40 ohms

d.

0 ohms

79. Find the value of I in the below circuit.

I
I
0 ohms 79. Find the value of I in the below circuit. I -3A 2A 4A

-3A

2A0 ohms 79. Find the value of I in the below circuit. I -3A 4A I

79. Find the value of I in the below circuit. I -3A 2A 4A I a.

4A

79. Find the value of I in the below circuit. I -3A 2A 4A I a.

I

a.

–5A

b.

5A

c.

6A

d.

–6A

80. At what frequency, the current leads the voltage by 30 0 in a series RL circuit with R = 8ohms and C = 30µF?

RL
RL

R = 8ohms

RL circuit with R = 8ohms and C = 30 µ F? RL R = 8ohms

C = 30µF

with R = 8ohms and C = 30 µ F? RL R = 8ohms C =

a.

1149 Hz

b.

900 Hz

c.

240 Hz

d.

998 Hz

13 (Elec.-A)

81. A DC voltage is applied to a series RL circuit by closing a switch. The voltage across L is 100V at t = 0 and drops

to 13.5 V at t = 0.02s. If L = 0.1h, the value of R is RL

?

L = 0 13.5 V at t = 0.02s. L = 0.1h R
L
= 0
13.5 V at t = 0.02s. L = 0.1h
R

100V at t

a.

10 ohm

b.

5 ohm

c.

0.1 ohm

d.

0.5 ohm

82. A series RL circuit having current i = 4.24 cos(5000t+450) has an input power of 180W. What would be the value

of R ?

RL
RL

i = 4.24cos (5000t+450)

What would be the value of R ? RL i = 4.24cos (5000t+450) 180W. R a.

180W. R

be the value of R ? RL i = 4.24cos (5000t+450) 180W. R a. 20 ohm

a.

20 ohm

b.

22.5 ohm

c.

25 ohm

d.

4 ohm

83. The equivalent impedance of the couple circuit shown below is

equivalent impedance of the couple circuit shown below is circuit 2ohm j5ohm ? 2ohm j5ohm ?

circuit

impedance of the couple circuit shown below is circuit 2ohm j5ohm ? 2ohm j5ohm ? a.
2ohm j5ohm
2ohm
j5ohm

?

2ohm

j5ohm

?

a.

1+ j5

b.

5 + j

c.

4 + 12j

d.

4 - 12j

84. The equivalent capacitance value as viewed from the voltage source is

?

capacitance value as viewed from the voltage source is ? 6F 2F 4F 4F V 6F
6F 2F 4F 4F V
6F
2F
4F
4F
V

6F

a.

2.85F

b.

2.8F

c.

6F

d.

6.5F

85. In a DC generator the generated emf is directly proportional to the

a. field current b. c. number of armature parallel path d. DC emf a. b.
a.
field current
b.
c.
number of armature parallel path
d.
DC
emf
a.
b.
c.
d.

pole flux number of dummy coils

?

Meh coils
Meh coils

?

86. Which one of the below statements about shunt field speed control method for DC shunt motor is False?

a. It is based on the fact that motor speed is inversely proportional to the flux

b. It gives constant hp characteristics to the motor

c. It is very useful due to high I2R loss in the field rheostat

d. It gives speed above the basic speed

DC a. inversely b. c. rheostat I2R d.
DC
a.
inversely
b.
c.
rheostat
I2R
d.

14 (Elec.-A)

87. ADC motor develops a torque of 200 Nm at 25 rps. At 20 rps it will develop a torque of

ADC

200 Nm at 25 rps. At 20 rps it will develop a torque of ADC 25rps

25rps

at 25 rps. At 20 rps it will develop a torque of ADC 25rps 20M, rps

20M,

rps
rps
?
?

?

a.

200 Nm

b.

160 Nm

c.

250 Nm

d.

128 Nm

88. A 230 volt DC series motor is taking 50 amps. Resistance of armature and series field windings is 0.2 ohms and

0.1 ohm respectively. Then the brush voltage is amps

?

0.1 ohms ?
0.1 ohms
?

0.2 ohms

a.

215 V

b.

205 V

c.

195 V

d.

0 V

89. A 14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc shunt motor draws a current of 40A. When running at full load, the full load torque

is

of 40A. When running at full load, the full load torque is ? 14.92 kW, 400V,

? 14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc

load, the full load torque is ? 14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc 40A ? a. 356

40A

the full load torque is ? 14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc 40A ? a. 356 Nm

?

a.

356 Nm

b.

350 Nm

c.

300 Nm

d.

256 Nm

90. The most efficient method of increasing the speed of a 3.75kW dc shunt motor is

a. armature control

c.

3.75kW dc

a.

c.

b.

flux control

d.

tapped field control

ward Leonard

b. d.
b.
d.

method.

91. The maximum efficiency of a 100KVA transformer having iron loss of 900kW and full load copper loss of 1600W

occurs at

KVA?

100kvaof 900kW and full load copper loss of 1600W occurs at KVA? 900kw 1600w KVA a.

and full load copper loss of 1600W occurs at KVA? 100kva 900kw 1600w KVA a. 56.3

900kw

full load copper loss of 1600W occurs at KVA? 100kva 900kw 1600w KVA a. 56.3 b.

1600w

load copper loss of 1600W occurs at KVA? 100kva 900kw 1600w KVA a. 56.3 b. 133.3

KVA

copper loss of 1600W occurs at KVA? 100kva 900kw 1600w KVA a. 56.3 b. 133.3 c.

a.

56.3

b.

133.3

c.

75

d.

177.7

92. If copper loss of a transformer at 7/8 full load is 4900W. Then its full load copper loss would be

?

7/8
7/8

4900W

7/8 4900W ?

?

a.

5600W

b.

6400W

c.

375W

d.

429W

93. The no load voltage ratio in a single phase 50Hz, core type transformer is 1200/440. If the maximum flux is to be

0.075wb then the number of turns in each winding is

,

50Hz
50Hz

?

1200/440

the number of turns in each winding is , 50Hz ? 1200/440 ? 0.075wb a. 24,

?

0.075wb

of turns in each winding is , 50Hz ? 1200/440 ? 0.075wb a. 24, 74 b.

a.

24, 74

b.

60, 240

c.

204, 60

d.

200, 70

94. Two transformers A and B having equal outputs and voltage ratios but unequal percentage impedance of 4 and 2

are operating in parallel. Transformer A will be running overloaded by

?

A B A
A
B
A

a.

50%

b.

66%

c.

33%

d.

25%

95. For eliminating seventh harmonic from the emf wave of an alternator, the fractional pitch must be

the emf wave of an alternator, the fractional pitch must be alternator emf a. 2/3 b.

alternator

of an alternator, the fractional pitch must be alternator emf a. 2/3 b. 5/6 c. 7/8

emf

an alternator, the fractional pitch must be alternator emf a. 2/3 b. 5/6 c. 7/8 d,
an alternator, the fractional pitch must be alternator emf a. 2/3 b. 5/6 c. 7/8 d,

a.

2/3

b.

5/6

c.

7/8

d,

6/7

?

96. The winding of the four phase alternator having 36 slots and a coil span of 1 to 8 is short pitched by degrees.

slots and a coil span of 1 to 8 is short pitched by degrees. a. 140

a.

140

b.

80

c.

20

d.

40

by degrees. a. 140 b. 80 c. 20 d. 40 97. The effect of increasing load

97. The effect of increasing load on a synchronous motor running with normal excitation is

a.

to increase both its Ia and pf

b.

to decrease its Ia and increase its pf

c.

to increase its Ia and decrease its pf

d.

to decrease both its Ia and pf

15 (Elec.-A)

excitation a. b. Ia pF c. Ia pF d.
excitation
a.
b.
Ia
pF
c.
Ia
pF
d.

98. Three phase alternators are invariably Y connected because

a.

magnetic losses are minimized

b.

less turns of wire are required

c.

smaller conductors can be used

d.

higher terminal voltage is obtained

alternators a. b. c. d.
alternators
a.
b.
c.
d.

99. Find the most economical value of the conductor radius of a 80kV cable having an insulation with a voltage gradient of 60kV/cm.

80kV 60kV/cmhaving an insulation with a voltage gradient of 60kV/cm. a. 1.33cm b. 1.5cm c. 2cm d.

insulation with a voltage gradient of 60kV/cm. 80kV 60kV/cm a. 1.33cm b. 1.5cm c. 2cm d.

a.

1.33cm

b.

1.5cm

c.

2cm

d.

1cm

100. The minimum voltage at which the corona just becomes visible is called as

a.

visual critical voltage

b.

c.

threshold voltage

d.

a. c.
a.
c.

corona

a. c. corona
 

b.

d.

disruptive critical voltage None of the above

?
?

101. The contacts used in the circuit breakers are usually made up of

?

?

a. copper b. iron c. steel d. alumina ? a. b. c. d.
a.
copper
b.
iron
c.
steel
d.
alumina
?
a.
b.
c.
d.

102. The operating voltage of a three phase oil circuit breaker is 11kV; rupturing capacity is 500MVA and the normal

current 500A, 3 seconds. Then the rated symmetrical breaking current is

?

current
current

11kV

current 11kV

rupturing

current 11kV rupturing MVA A

MVA

A
A

?

a.

26.25kA rms

b.

25.25kA rms

 

c.

25.75kA rms

d.

20.15kA rms

103. The series and parallel system of speed control of series motors widely used in traction work gives a speed range

of about

?

widely used in traction work gives a speed range of about ? ? a. 1 :
widely used in traction work gives a speed range of about ? ? a. 1 :

?

a.

1 : 2

b.

1

:

3

c.

1 : 4

d.

1 : 6

104. The following relay is used for the production of transformers?

a.

Buchholz relay

b.

Induction relay

c.

Electro dynamic relay

d.

Solenoid

a. Buchholz a. a. d. Solenoid
a.
Buchholz
a.
a.
d.
Solenoid

105. A circuit delivers energy at the rate of 20W and the current is 10A. The energy of each coulomb of charge in the

circuit is

?

20W

20W

20W current 10A Coulomb ?

current 10A

current 10A Coulomb

Coulomb

20W current 10A Coulomb ?

?

a.

2J

b.

0.5J

c.

20J

d.

10J

106. A current of 5A flows in a resistor of resistance 8ohms.Then the heat dissipated in 30sec is

?

5A
5A

8ohms

8ohms.Then the heat dissipated in 30sec is ? 5A 8ohms ? a. 6000J b. 3000J c.

?

a.

6000J

b.

3000J

c.

2400J

d.

1000J

16 (Elec.-A)

107.

A capacitor is made with seven metal plates connected as multi plate capacitor and separated by sheets of mica having a thickness of 0.3mm and a relative permittivity of 6. The area of one side of each plate is 500cm 2 . Then the

capacitance value is

?

0.3 mm 500cm 2
0.3 mm
500cm 2

a.

0531 μF

 

b.

0155 μF

 

c.

0122 μF

d.

0512 μF

108.

A 50μF capacitor is charged from a 200V supply. After being disconnected it is immediately connected in parallel

with a 30μF capacitor which is initially uncharged. Then the potential difference across the combination is ?

A 50μF

30μF

30μF
V
V

uncharged

?

 

a.

12 5V

 

b.

120 V

c.

200 V

d.

100 V

109.

Retardation test on a dc shunt motor is used to find the

 

?

 

a.

a. friction loss

 

b.

b. copper loss

c.

c. stray loss

d.

d. iron loss

a. b. c. d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

?

110.

A three phase, three wire ABC system with a balanced load has effective line voltage 200v (minimum) and line

current IA = 13.61/600.The total power is

 

?

IA = 13.61/600.
IA = 13.61/600.

ABC

v
v

current

current
 

?

a.

2887W

 

b.

3087W

 

c.

3000W

d.

2500W

111.

Find the impedance corresponding to apparent power 3500VA, power factor 0.76lagging and effective current

18A.

 
3500VA

3500VA

3500VA 0.76lagging current A  

0.76lagging

0.76lagging

current

A
A
 

a.

10.8/40.540 ohms

 

b.

12/50.5040 ohms

c.

50.8/80.50 ohms

 

d.

18/400 ohms

112.

When two resistors are connected in series the total equivalent is 90 ohms; when in parallel the equivalent is 20

ohm, then the value of each resistor will be

 

?

ohms

ohms

ohms

ohms

ohms ohms

a.

30, 60 ohms

 

b.

35, 30 ohms

c.

30, 30 ohms

d.

10, 10 ohms

113.

A 4 pole dc generator runs at 750rpm and generates an e.m.f of 240V. The armature is wave wound and has

792conductors. If the total flux from each pole is 0.0145wb. The leakage coefficient is

 

?

rpm V emf conductors 0.0145wb
rpm
V
emf
conductors
0.0145wb

792

a.

1.2

b.

1.4

c.

0.2

d.

0

114.

For a four pole, two layer dc lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer, the number of commutators

bars are

?

 
commutators

commutators

commutators

a.

80

b.

20

c.

40

d.

160

115.

If a charge of 25C passes a given point in a circuit in a time of 125ms, then the current in the circuit is ?

25Cin a time of 125ms, then the current in the circuit is ? 125ms current ?

in a time of 125ms, then the current in the circuit is ? 25C 125ms current

125ms

of 125ms, then the current in the circuit is ? 25C 125ms current ? a. 25

current

then the current in the circuit is ? 25C 125ms current ? a. 25 A b.

?

a.

25 A

b.

125 A

c.

200 A

d.

250 A

17 (Elec.-A)

116. A heater takes a current of 8A from a 240V source for 12hours. The energy consumed is

of 8A from a 240V source for 12hours. The energy consumed is hours V A current

hours

V
V

A current

source for 12hours. The energy consumed is hours V A current ? ? a. 23 kW-h

?

?

a.

23 kW-h

b.

25 kW-h

c.

24kW-h

d.

96kW-h

117. A coil of Cu wire has a resistance of 200ohm when its mean temperature is zero degree. The value of resistance

at its mean temperature is ohm

The value of resistance at its mean temperature is ohm ? ? a. 200 ohm b.

?

The value of resistance at its mean temperature is ohm ? ? a. 200 ohm b.

?

a.

200 ohm

b.

260 ohm

c.

268. 5 ohm

d.

274 ohm

118. An inductor coil is connected to a supply of 250V at 50Hz and takes a current of 5A the coil dissipates 750W, the

power factor is

?

250v
250v

50Hz

5A
5A

750W

dissipates 750W, the power factor is ? 250v 50Hz 5A 750W a. 0.6 lag b. 0.8

a.

0.6 lag

b.

0.8 lag

c.

0.9 lag

d.

Unity

119. A coil of 1kohm resistance and 0.15 h inductance is connected in parallel with a variable capacitor across a 2V,

?

10 KHz ac supply. Then the capacitance of a capacitor when the supplied current is minimum is

1kohm 0.15h 2v
1kohm
0.15h
2v

10khz ac

the supplied current is minimum is 1kohm 0.15h 2v 10khz ac a. 1.69nF b. 1.7nF c.

a.

1.69nF

b.

1.7nF

c.

2nF

d.

2.5nF

120. A parallel network consists of branches A, B and C. If Ia = 10/-600A , Ib = 5/-300A and

angles being relative to supply voltage,then the total supply current is

Ic = 10/900A. All phase ?

a.

9.0 A

b.

9.4A

c.

9.5 A

d.

None of the above

A,B,C
A,B,C

IA=10/-600A. IB=5/-300A

A d. None of the above A,B,C IA=10/-600A. IB=5/-300A IC=10/900A a. 9.0 A b. 9.4A c.
A d. None of the above A,B,C IA=10/-600A. IB=5/-300A IC=10/900A a. 9.0 A b. 9.4A c.

IC=10/900A

None of the above A,B,C IA=10/-600A. IB=5/-300A IC=10/900A a. 9.0 A b. 9.4A c. 9.5 A

a.

9.0 A

b.

9.4A

c.

9.5 A

d.

c. 9.5 A d.

18 (Elec.-A)

Part-C General Awareness (Descriptive)

121. In the context of the recent fight against corruption, by Anna Hazare and team, answer the following questions.

i. Write in 4 -5 lines about Anna Hazare especially his real name, birthplace, year of birth and then about his profession (during his early 20's) and finally about the awards that he received from the Government of India.

ii. Mention the other team members' names of Anna Hazare and mention in one line about their current (or past) professions.

iii. What is the other name for Jan Lokpal Bill and what is its main purpose?

iv. What are the 3 demands (as on 25th August 2011) set aside by Anna Hazare and team that it urges the govern- ment must approve as part of the Jan Lokpal Bill?

i
i

ii

ment must approve as part of the Jan Lokpal Bill? i ii iii iv 122. In
ment must approve as part of the Jan Lokpal Bill? i ii iii iv 122. In

iii

iv

must approve as part of the Jan Lokpal Bill? i ii iii iv 122. In the
must approve as part of the Jan Lokpal Bill? i ii iii iv 122. In the

122. In the background of one of the biggest terrorist attacks on India, in particular the one that happened on Mumbai in the year 2008, answer the following questions.

i. Mention the date on which this attack was made by the terrorists and which was the terrorist group that was behind it.

ii. Mention any five places that were attacked on this day.

iii. Mention atleast 3 (of the 4) police personnel's name and their designation who were killed during the fight against these terrorists.

who were killed during the fight against these terrorists. i ii iii Part-D Electrical Engineering (Descriptive)
who were killed during the fight against these terrorists. i ii iii Part-D Electrical Engineering (Descriptive)
i ii
i
ii

iii

killed during the fight against these terrorists. i ii iii Part-D Electrical Engineering (Descriptive) 123. A

Part-D Electrical Engineering (Descriptive)

123. A 110 V shunt generator has a full-load current of 100 A, shunt field resistance of 55 ohms and constant losses of 500 W. If F.L. efficiency is 88%, find the armature resistance. Assuming the voltage to be constant at 100 V, calculate the efficiency at half F.L. and at 50% overload. Find the load current corresponding to maximum efficiency.

V A W 88% V
V
A
W
88%
V

124. A 4 pole, 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor has rotor resistance of 0.03 ohm and reactance of 0.15 ohm respectively per phase. Calculate the speed at maximum torque. What resistance is to be added to give ¾ maximum torque at starting?

Hz
Hz

0.03 ohm

at maximum torque. What resistance is to be added to give ¾ maximum torque at starting?

0.15 ohm

at maximum torque. What resistance is to be added to give ¾ maximum torque at starting?
at maximum torque. What resistance is to be added to give ¾ maximum torque at starting?
at maximum torque. What resistance is to be added to give ¾ maximum torque at starting?

19 (Elec.-A)