-

The frequency of a free vibration.

a. Resonant frequency
b. Natural frequency
c. Center frequency
d. Normal frequency
ans: b
-
The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls,
floors or ceilings.
a. Flanking transmission
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Reverberation
ans: a
-
A measure of threshold of hearing, expressed in decibels relative to a specifi
ed standard of normal hearing.
a. Hearing loss
b. Sensation level
c. Hearing level
d. Sound pressure level
ans: c
-
A certain machine with a slightly out-of balance motor rotating at 1800/min is
fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calcul
ate the resonant frequency of mount.
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz
ans: a
-
Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120mm thick, 4m
by 2m in area with longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is su
pported at its edges.)
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz
ans: d
-
Velocity of sound in air.
a. 300 m/s
b. 330 m/s
c. 1130 m/s
d. 344 m/s
ans: b
-
What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume
a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound
in air is 330 m/s.
a. 114.5 Hz
b. 214.5 Hz
c. 314.5 Hz
d. 414.5 Hz
ans: b
-
The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160
dB (re10^-12W). Find the max. sound pressure level on the ground directly below
the flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directi
ons
a. 59.1 dB
b. 69.1 dB
c. 79.1 dB
d. 89.1 dB
ans: d
-
Speaker is a device that
a. converts sound waves into current and voltage
b. converts current variations into sound waves
c. converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. converts electrical energy into electromagnetic energy
ans: b
-
Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resista
nce of carbon granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary?
a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Carbon
d. Ribbon-type
ans: c
-
Bass response is
a. maximum high frequency response
b. emphasizing the high audio frequencies
c. bypassing high audio frequencies
d. bypassing low audio frequencies
ans: c
-
Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing.
a. 1 Hz
b. 10 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
ans: d
-
__________ is early reflection of sound.
a. Echo
b. Reverberation
c. Pure sound
d. Intelligible sound
ans: a
-
Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.
a. Dolby
b. dBa
c. dBx
d. dBk
ans: a
-
What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation dire
ction per unit time?
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound pressure
d. Sound intensity
ans: d
-
__________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound.
a. Sone
b. Decibel
c. Mel
d. Phon
ans: d
-
__________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given dire
ction through a cross-section area of 1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction.

a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
ans: c
-
What is the unit of pitch?
a. Sone
b. Phon
c. Decibel
d. Mel
ans: d
-
A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity.
a. Phon
b. Decibel
c. Pascal
d. Watts
ans: b
-
Sound wave has two main characteristics which are
a. highness and loudness
b. tone and loudness
c. pitch and loudness
d. rarefaction and compression
ans: c
-
Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates
an output signal voltage?
a. Carbon
b. Dynamic
c. Crystal
d. Condenser
ans: b
-
The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10
V. How much power in watts is this light bulb consuming
a. 10 watts
b. 20 watts
c. 40 watts
d. 50 watts
ans: d
-
Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of 1
foot, 1.5 inches?
a. 500 Hz
b. 1000 Hz
c. 1500 Hz
d. 2000 Hz
ans: b
-
The wire that must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely
carry what rms current?
a. 2 A
b. 4 A
c. 5 A
d. 6 A
ans: c
-
A church has an internal volume of 90,05 cubic ft (2,550 cubic m). When it con
tains 2,000 customary sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its
reverberation time in seconds.
a. 2.0
b. 2.2
c. 2.5
d. 3.0
ans: b
-
If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb/square ft, what is the sound pressure level?

a. 7.6 dB
b. 108 dB
c. 88 dB
d. 10 dB
ans: a
-
Speed that is faster than speed of sound.
a. Ultrasonic
b. Supersonic
c. Subsonic
d. Transonic
ans: b
-
Sound waves travel in water at a ___________ speed.
a. 12.4 miles/sec
b. 5,000 ft/sec
c. 186,000 ft/sec
d. 3,141 ft/sec
ans: b
-
What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 8
7dB assuming that it radiates sound uniformly?
a. 0.15 W
b. 0.21 W
c. 0.24 W
d. 0.18 W
ans: d
-
Crest-to-crest distance along the direction of wave travel.
a. Compression
b. Wavelength
c. Period
d. Sound wave
ans: b
-
Sound intensity level is ____________.
a. 10 log l/lref
b. 10 log p/pref
c. 20 log l/lref
d. 30 log p/pref
ans: a
-
Sound pressure level is ____________.
a. 20 log P/Pref
b. 30 log p/ref
c. 10 log p/pref
d. 20 log l/lref
ans: a
-
The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones.
a. Frequency response
b. Field strength
c. Power density
d. Gain
ans: a
-
Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument.
a. Midrange
b. Harmonic
c. Fundamental
d. Period
ans: c
-
Tendency of a sound energy to spread.
a. Diffraction
b. Rarefaction
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
ans: a
-
When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called ________.
a. reflection
b. defraction
c. rarefaction
d. refraction
ans: d
-
Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.
a. Echo time
b. Delay time
c. Reverberation time
d. Transient time
ans: c
-
The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________.
a. frequency
b. noise
c. amplitude
d. tone
ans: a
-
Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 k
Hz).
a. Subsonic
b. Transonic
c. Ultrasonic
d. Stereo
ans: c
-
Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to high temperature above 52 degre
es C?
a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Ribbon
d. Capacitor
ans: b
-
A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal that permits the voice coil in a dyn
amic loudspeaker to move back and forth along the core of its magnet.
a. Vibrator
b. Diaphragm
c. Hypex
d. Spider
ans: d
-
One hundred twenty ubars of pressure variation is equal to
a. 120 dBSPL
b. 57.78 dBSPL
c. 115.56 dBSPL
d. 41.58 dBSPL
ans: c
-
The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. F
ind the absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.
a. 35.3
b. 10.96
c. 379.8
d. 109.6
ans: a
-
What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in bass frequenc
ies for close microphone spacing?
a. Field effect
b. P.A. effect
c. Proximity effect
d. Reverberation
ans: c
-
What is the audio frequency range?
a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz
b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz
c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
ans: d
-
What is the bass frequency range?
a. 20 kHz to 40 MHz
b. 1 Hz to 20 kHz
c. 40 Hz to 160 kHz
d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz
ans: d
-
High frequency range of audio signals.
a. 2,500 Hz to 5,000 Hz
b. 5,000 Hz to 10 kHz
c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz
d. 20,000 Hz to 30 kHz
ans: b
-
What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office?
a. 90
b. 65
c. 55 - 60
d. 80 - 85
ans: b
-
What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music?
a. 80 - 95
b. 85 - 90
c. 95 - 100
d. 100 - 105
ans: c
-
What is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only?
a. 90
b. 80 - 85
c. 85 - 90
d. 90 - 95
ans: b
-
Intensity can also be called as
a. volume
b. loudness
c. sharpness
d. strength
ans: b
-
The loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of motion imparted to ________
__ molecules of the medium transmitting the sound.
a. transmitting
b. running
c. moving
d. vibrating
ans: d
-
_________ is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of t
he sound and its intensity varies inversely with the square of this distance.
a. volume
b. bass
c. treble
d. loudness
ans: d
-
If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, t
he intensity is reduced to
a. 1/2
b. 1/3
c. 2/3
d. 1/4
ans: d
-
If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased
to 1/2 the original amount, the intensity of the sound would be ___________.
a. 2 times as great
b. 3 times as great
c. 4 times as great
d. 5 times a great
ans: c
-
At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz tone is
a. 1000 mels
b. 500 mels
c. 2000 mels
d. 100 mels
ans: a
-
If the sound waves are converted to electrical waves by a microphone, what is
the frequency of the electric current?
a. 3 to 30 MHz
b. 25 to 8000 Hz
c. 4 to 40 Hz
d. 30 to 2000 Hz
ans: b
-
For a music lover concert "A" is 440 Hz. If a musical note one octave higher w
ere played, it would be ______________ that frequency.
a. one-half
b. one-fourth
c. double
d. triple
ans: c
-
In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one octave lower it would be ___________.
a. 22 Hz
b. 27.5 Hz
c. 440 Hz
d. 110 Hz
ans: d
-
Much of music generally referred to in
a. harmonics
b. good hearing
c. fidelity
d. octaves
ans: d
-
__________ is an undesired change in wave form as the signal passes through a
device.
a. Noise
b. Vibration
c. Distortion
d. Harmonics
ans: c
-
Distortion enhances intelligibility when an _______ is added.
a. equalizer
b. igniter
c. exciter
d. emulsifier
ans: c
-
A class of signal processors.
a. Amplifiers
b. Equalizers
c. Microprocessors
d. Exciters
ans: d
-
Hall construction and internal finishes affect the final sound quality _______
______.
a. poorly
b. mildly
c. significantly
d. badly
ans: c
-
Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter its frequency res
ponse in two distinct ways namely
a. gump and dump
b. hump and notch
c. fade and gone
d. bad and worst
ans: b
-
The acoustics of most auditoria are very ________ when the room is full compar
ed to the empty condition.
a. different
b. similar
c. good
d. bad
ans: a
-
A __________ converts acoustical energy.
a. electro-acoustic
b. microphone transducer
c. microphone
d. electric microphone
ans: b
-
All microphone have two basic components namely, _________.
a. wired and body
b. ceramic and crystal
c. diaphragm and generating element
d. coil and magnet
ans: c
-
The kinds of generating elements are _________.
a. expense and fidelity
b. complexity and ruggedness
c. longevity
d. all of these
ans: d
-
When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, __________ formula is used to
compute the actual reverberation time.
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
ans: c
-
At room temperature, what is the velocity of sound in meters/seconds?
a. 348.03 cm/s
b. 980 cm/s
c. 980 m/s
d. 341.8 m/s
ans: d
-
Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec. If the temperature is 149 degrees
C?
a. 1530.03 ft/sec
b. 1320 ft/sec
c. 1357.03 ft/sec
d. 1920.435 ft/sec
ans: c
-
The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz frequency is
a. 16.5 m
b. 16.5 cm
c. 16.5 mm
d. 16.5 um
ans: c
-
The ratio of frequencies is termed
a. octave
b. interval
c. harmonics
d. masking
ans: b
-
What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is doubled
?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 4 dB
ans: c
-
A term which is subjective but dependent mainly on frequency and also affected
by intensity,
a. Timbre
b. Quality
c. Frequency
d. Pitch
ans: d
-
An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop
the nerve voltage generated by a weaker sound.
a. Piezoelectric effect
b. Skin effect
c. Lasing
d. Masking
ans: d
-
For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is applicable?
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
ans: b
-
The ________ of sound is a subjective effect which is a function of the ear an
d brain.
a. pitch
b. frequency
c. timbre
d. loudness
ans: d
-
Defined as the time taken for the intensity of sound energy in the room to dro
p to one millionth of its initial value.
a. Reverberation time
b. Transmit time
c. Decaying time
d. Response time
ans: a
-
___________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles of the propagati
on direction, per unit time.
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound stress
d. Sound intensity
ans: d
-
One octave above 600 Hz is
a. 601 Hz
b. 800 Hz
c. 1400 Hz
d. 1200 Hz
ans: d
-
A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At
this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
a. 0.63
b. 1.26
c. 0.315
d. 0.56 x 10^ -6
ans: a
-
The unit of loudness level
a. Sone
b. dB
c. Mel
d. Phon
ans: d
-
Consists of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes.
a. Rarefaction
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Flutter echo
ans: d
-
Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of buildings.
a. Charles H. Townes
b. W.C. Sabine
c. A. Javin
d. Stephen and Bate
ans: b
-
The average absorption for a person is
a. 5.7 units
b. 4.7 units
c. 6.7 units
d. 3.7 units
ans: b
-
An aural sensation by pressure variations in the air which are always produced
by some source of vibrations.
a. Music
b. Sound
c. Disturbance
d. Speech
ans: b
-
Considered to be as the threshold of hearing.
a. 10^-12 W/square cm
b. 10^-16 W/square m
c. 10^-13 W/square m
d. 10^-12 W/square m
ans: d
-
The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per second.
a. Frequency
b. Timber
c. Quality
d. Pitch
ans: a
-
Defined as the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given directi
on through a cross-sectional area of 1 square m at right angles to the direction
.
a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
ans: c
-
What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having an RMS pressure of 20
0 N/square m?
a. 150 dB
b. 140 dB
c. 170 dB
d. 160 dB
ans: b
-
The minimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed
a. threshold of feeling
b. threshold of pain
c. threshold of sensation
d. threshold of hearing
ans: d
-
What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/square m?
a. 96.8 W/square m
b. 97.8 W/square m
c. 95.8 W/square m
d. 94.8 W/square m
ans: b
-
The unit of pitch.
a. Sone
b. Phon
c. dB
d. Mel
ans: d
-
What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is double
d?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 6 dB
ans: b
-
The velocity of sound is considered to be constant at ________ for the purpose
of building acoustics.
a. 330 m/s
b. 330 mm/s
c. 330 um/s
d. 330 cm/s
ans: a
-
An instrument designed to measure a frequency - weighted value of the sound pr
essure level.
a. Sound level meter
b. Transducer
c. Sound pressure meter
d. Sound analyzer
ans: a
-
A unit of nosiness related to the perceived noise level
a. Noy
b. Sone
c. dB
d. Phone
ans: a
-
An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound pressure level to
the center frequency of the octave bands.
a. C-message weighting curve
b. Psophometric weighting curve
c. Noise rating curves
d. F1A weighting curve
ans: c
-
Communication is the process of
a. Keeping in touch
b. Broadcasting
c. Exchanging information
d. Entertainment by electronics
ans: c
-
A key barrier in communications
a. Cost
b. PN Junction
c. Walls
d. Distance
ans: d
-
Electronics Communication was discovered in what century?
a. Sixteenth
b. Eighteenth
c. Nineteenth
d. Twentieth
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a major communications medium?
a. Free Space
b. Water
c. Wires
d. Fiber Optics Cable
ans: b
-
Random interference to transmitted signals is called
a. Adjacent channel overlap
b. Cross talk
c. Garbage - in - Garbage - out
d. Noise
ans: d
-
The communications medium causes the signal to be
a. Amplified
b. Modulated
c. Attenuated
d. Interfered with.
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a source of noise?
a. Another communications signal
b.Atmospheric effects
c. Manufactured electrical systems
d. Thermal agitation in electronic components
ans: a
-
One - way communications is called
a. Half Duplex
b. Full Duplex
c. Monocomm
d. Simplex
ans: d
-
Simultaneoues two-way communications is called
a. Half Duplex
b. Full Duplex
c. Monocomm
d. Simplex
ans: b
-
The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called
a. Modulating Signal
b. Carrier
c. Baseband Signal
d. Source Signal
ans: c
-
The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be t
ransmitted is called
a. Multiplexing
b. Telemetry
c. Detection
d. Modulation
ans: d
-
The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneously ove
r the same channel is called
a. Multiplexing
b. Telemetry
c. Detection
d. Modulation
ans: a
-
Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as being
a. Baseband
b. Analog
c. Digital
d. Continuous waves
ans: b
-
Recovering information from a carrier is known as
a. Demultiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Detection
d. Carrier Recovery
ans: c
-
Transmission of graphical information over the telephone network is accomplish
ed by
a. Television
b. CATV
c. Videotext
d. Facsimile
ans: d
-
Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this da
ta for analysis is the process of
a. Telemetry
b. Instrumentation
c. Modulation
d. Multiplexing
ans: a
-
Receiving electromagnetic emissions from stars is called
a. Astrology
b. Optical Astronomy
c. Radio Astronomy
d. Space Surveillance
ans: c
-
A personnal communication hobby for individual is
a. Ham radio
b. Electronic bulletin board
c. CB Radio
d. Cellular Radio
ans: a
-
Radar is based upon
a. Microwaves
b. A water medium
c. The directional nature of radio signals
d. Reflected Radio signals
ans: d
-
A frequency of 27 MHz has a wavelength of approximately
a. 11m
b. 27m
c. 30m
d. 81m
ans: a
-
The voice freqency range is
a. 30 to 300 Hz
b. 300 to 3000 Hz
c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
d. 0 Hz to 15 kHz
ans: b
-
Another name for signal in the HF range is
a. Microwaves
b. Kamehame Waves
c. Shortwaves
d. Millimeter waves
ans: c
-
Television broadcasting ocurs in which ranges?
a. HF
b. EHF
c. VHF
d. SHF
ans: c
-
Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called
a. Infrared rays
b. Microwaves
c. Shortwaves
d. X-rays
ans: a
-
A micron is
a. One - millionth of a foot
b. One - millionth of a meter
c. One - thousandth of a meter
d. One ten-thousandth of an inch
ans: b
-
The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately
a. 30 to 300 GHz
b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom
c. 100 to 10,000 A
d. 0.7 to 10 microns
ans: d
-
The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately
a. 1000 microns
b. 7000 Angstrom
c. 3500 A
d. 4000 A
ans: b
-
Which of the following is not used for communications?
a. X - rays
b. Millimeter waves
c. Infrared
d. Microwaves
ans: a
-
A signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The bandwidth is

a. 0.007 MHz
b. 7 MHz
c. 237 MHz
d. 700 MHz
ans: b
-
In the United States, the elecromagnetic spectrum is regulated and managed by
a. NBA
b. ITU
c. FCC
d. NTC
ans: c
-
For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available for signals in th
e range of
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. SHF
d. EHF
ans: d
-
Having an information change some characteristic of a carrier signal is called

a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Duplexing
d. Linear Mixing
ans: b
-
Which of the following is not true about AM?
a. The carrier output varies.
b. The carried frequency remains constant.
c. The carrier frequency changes.
d. The information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude.
ans: c
-
The opposite of modulation is
a. Reverse moduation
b. Downward Modulation
c. Unmodulation
d. Demodulation
ans: d
-
The circuit used to produce modulation is called a
a. Modulator
b. Demodulator
c. Variable Gain Amplifier
d. Multiplexer
ans: a
-
A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?
a. Addition
b. Square Root
c. Multiplication
d. Division
ans: c
-
The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is
referred to as
a. The voltage ratio
b. Decibels
c. The modulation index
d. The mix factor
ans: c
-
If m is greater than 1, what happens?
a. Normal Operation
b. Carrier drops to zero.
c. Carrier frequency shifts
d. Information signal is distorted
ans: d
-
For ideal AM, which of the following is true?
a. m = 0
b. m = 1
c. m < 1
d. m < 1
ans: b
-
The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal and is c
alled the
a. Trace
b. Waveshape
c. Envelope
d. Carrier variation
ans: c
-
Overmodulation occurs when
a. Vm > Vc
b. Vm < Vc
c. Vm = Vc
d. m = Vc = 0
ans: a
-
The new signals produced by modulation are called
a. Spurious emissions
b. Harmonics
c. Intermodulation products
d. Sidebands
ans: d
-
A display of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the
a. Time Domain
b. Frequency spectrum
c. Amplitude spectrum
d. Frequency domain
ans: d
-
Most of the power in an AM signal is in the
a. Carrier
b. Upper sideband
c. Lower sideband
d. Modulation signal
ans: a
-
The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8
and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is
a. 10.7 percent
b. 41.4 percent
c. 80.6 percent
d. 93.3 percent
ans: c
-
A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are,
respectively,
a. 873 and 887 kHz
b. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz
c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz
d. 887 and 873 kHz
ans: b
-
The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8
and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is
a. 10.7 percent
b. 41.4 percent
c. 80.6 percent
d. 93.3 percent
ans: c
-
An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation is 80 per
cent. The total sideband power is
a. 0.8 W
b. 1.6 W
c. 2.5 W
d. 4.0 W
ans: b
-
For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband?
a. 25 percent
b. 33.3 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 100 percent
ans: a
-
An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier power is 4
40W. The power in one sideband is
a. 85 W
b. 110 W
c. 170 W
d. 610 W
ans: a
-
An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to
be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The percen
tage of modulation is
a. 35 percent
b. 70 percent
c. 42 percent
d. 89 percent
ans: b
-
In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the
a. Modulating signal
b. Carrier
c. Envelope
d. Sidebands
ans: d
-
An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n)
a. Vestigial Sideband
b. FM Signal
c. SSB
d. Uncarried Signal
ans: c
-
What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information?
a. Carrier plus sidebands
b. Carrier only
c. One sideband
d. Both sidebands
ans: c
-
The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is
a. Less spectrum space is used
b. Simpler equipment is used
c. Less power is consumed
d. A higher modulation percentage
ans: a
-
In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?
a. Upper
b. Lower
c. Neither
d. Depends upon the use
ans: c
-
Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase
in the signal
a. Carrier Power
b. Bandwidth
c. Sideband Power
d. Envelope Voltage
ans: b
-
It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by electroni
c means.
a. Communications
b. Telemetry
c. Broadcasting
d. Telephony
ans: a
-
What services uses HF CW communications?
a. Police
b. Telephony
c. Broadcasting
d. Sattelite system
ans: a
-
The signal which is superimposed on a high frequency sinewave is called
a. Carrier
b. Information
c. Sideband
d. Squarewave
ans: b
-
What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO)
a. Aids in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
b. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the intermediate
frequency
c. Generates a 1kHz tone to Morse reception
d. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the intermidiate
frequency by 1kHz
ans: c
-
A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictable varia
tions in amplitude frequency.
a. Speech
b. Digital
c. Pulses
d. Bits
ans: a
-
He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex repetitive
waveform.
a. Carson
b. P.H. Smith
c. J. Fourier
d. Y. Uda
ans: c
-
The process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carrier is c
alled
a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Detection
d. Scrambling
ans: b
-
A diagram which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and maximum bun
ching of the electron beam in velocity-modulated devices.
a. Smith chart
b. Venn Diagram
c. S-parameter Diagram
d. Applegate Diagram
ans: d
-
It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the principal so
urce of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices.
a. Edison Effect
b. Miller Effect
c. Bunching
d. Secondary Effect
ans: a
-
It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoid
al components are displayed as a function of time
a. Wave Representation
b. TDR
c. Frequency Domain
d. Time Domain
ans: d
-
An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which undergoes some
power absorption at resonance.
a. Frequency Meter
b. Cavity resonator
c. Ferrite isolator
d. Auto Coupler
ans: a
-
What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in the path o
f energy flow?
a. Insertion loss
b. Gain
c. Wave attenuation
d. Phase shift
ans: a
-
It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitude is dis
played as a function of frequency.
a. Wave Shape
b. Frequency Domain
c. OTDR
d. Time Domain
ans: b
-
The big breakthrough in electronic communications came with the invention of t
he _____ in 1844.
a. Transistor
b. Phonograph
c. Telegraph
d.Telephone
ans: c
-
In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent record of sound with his i
nvention of the phonograph.
a. Edison
b. Marconi
c. Morse
d. Bell
ans: a
-
He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph.
a. Edison
b. Marconi
c. Morse
d. Bell
ans: b
-
Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of the phono
graph?
a. Telephone
b. Phonograph
c. Either
d. Neither
ans: a
-
What is a device such as the microphone and headset sometimes called?
a. Receiver
b. Transmission medium
c. Converter
d. Reproducer
ans: d
-
What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another?
a. Phase
b. Energy
c. Frequency
d. Amplitude
ans: c
-
The entire range of _____ of electromagnetic radiation is called the frequency
spectrum.
a. Frequencies
b. Phases
c. Energies
d. Amplitude
ans: a
-
When did the first transatlantic radio communications took place?
a. 1876
b. 1942
c. 1888
d. 1901
ans: d
-
What determines the station that will be selected by a tuner?
a. The selectivity of the IF.
b. The resonant frequency of the tuner.
c. The sensitivity of the tuner.
d. The bandwidth of the amplifier.
ans: b
-
Name a periodic waveform that consists of only odd harmonics.
a. Square wave
b. Sine wave
c. Cosine wave
d. Spikes
ans: a
-
Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony.
a. Magnifier
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class A
ans: c
-
The audio is reconstructed from the radiowave by:
a. The action of the headset
b. Having the audio removed from the carrier.
c. The action of a filter capacitor connected across the headset
d. none of the above
ans: c
-
Which of the following do not require a tuner?
a. TV receiver
b. CB receiver
c. Communications Sattelite Receiver
d. none of these
ans: d
-
What is the main difference between an AF amplifier and an RF amplifier?
a. The amplification factor
b. The stability
c. The selectivity
d. The range of frequencies that they amplify
ans: d
-
What is the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator?
a. To provide a conversion frequency
b. To produce the IF
c. To provide good selectivity
d. To increase stability
ans: a
-
What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission?
a. HPF
b. LPF
c. Duplexer
d. Diplexer
ans: d
-
What does AFC mean?
a. All Filipino Conference
b. Anti Firing Countermeasure
c. Audio Frequency Control
d. Automatic Frequency Control
ans: d
-
Amplitude Modulation is the same as
a. Linear Mixing
b. Analog Multiplication
c. Signal Summation
d. Mutliplexing
ans: b
-
In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n)
a. Tuned Circuit
b. Transformer
c. Capacitor
d. Inductor
ans: a
-
Amplitude modulation can be produced by
a. Having the carrier vary a resistance
b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
c. Varying the carrier frequency
d. Varying the gain of an amplifier
ans: a
-
Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signa
l by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of
a. Rectification
b. Resonance
c. Variable resistance
d. Absorption
ans: c
-
The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a
a. Varactor
b. Thermistor
c. Cavity Resonator
d. PIN diode
ans: a
-
Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known
as
a. High level modulation
b. Low Level Modulation
c. Collector Modulation
d. Minimum Modulation
ans: b
-
The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signa
l is known as a
a. Modulator
b. Demodulator
c. Mixer
d. Crystal Set
ans: b
-
The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the
a. Diode mixer
b. Balanced modulator
c. Envelope Detector
d. Crystal Filter
ans: c
-
A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is calle
d a(n)
a. Amplitude Modulator
b. Diode Detector
c. Class C Amplifier
d. Balanced Modulator
ans: d
-
A widely used balanced modulator is called the
a. Diode Bridge Circuit
b. Full Wave bridge rectifier
c. Lattice Modulator
d. Balanced bridge modulator
ans: c
-
In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like
a. Variable resistors
b. Switches
c. Rectifiers
d. Variable Capaitors
ans: b
-
The output of a balanced modulator is
a. AM
b. FM
c. SSB
d. DSB
ans: d
-
The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a
a. Differential Amplifier
b. Rectifier
c. Bridge
d. Constant Current Source
ans: a
-
The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses
a. LC Networks
b. Mechanical Resonators
c. Crystals
d. RC Networks and op amps
ans: c
-
The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a
a. Series Resonant circuit
b. Parallel Resonant Circuit
c. Neithar a and b
d. Both a and b
ans: d
-
Where is ISB primarily used?
a. Telephone and telegraph communications
b. Telemetry
c. FM broadcast
d. Radar
ans: a
-
What is a major problem with very high frequency oscillator?
a. low sensitivity
b. poor frequency stability
c. poor image rejection
d. no power stability
ans: b
-
What does ALC means?
a. All local Circuits
b. Automatic level control
c. Asynchronous Link Control
d. Automatic Link Circuit
ans: b
-
What is an ideal pulse?
a. a perfect square wave with zero rise time
b. a very short duration
c. a high amplitude
d. a low duty cycle
ans: a
-
What happens to the spectrum of repetitive pulse as the pulse width decreases?

a. more harmonics of the same phase
b. less harmonics of the same phase
c. remain constant
d. decreases
ans: a
-
A major advantage of the vacuum tube is its need for a _______ to give energy
to the electrons.
a. Voltage source
b. line equalizer
c. limiter
d. heater
ans: d
-
Keyed AGC is AGC that:
a. Works only on Morse code
b. Is activated when keyed by the transmitting signal
c. Is used is TV receivers so that transmitted picture brightness does not aff
ect the AGC
d. Is used in color TV receivers so that the transmitted color has no effect o
n the AGC
ans: c
-
What is the main disadvantage of a single-tube transmitter
a. Frequency instability
b. Low gain
c. High resistivity
d. High attenuation
ans: a
-
What is the name of the operation that uses an antenna changeover switch?
a. Duplex
b. Simplex
c. Crossover
d. Switching
ans: b
-
Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of the radio spectr
um?
a. 8.2345 MHz
b. 150.50 MHz
c. 2.4555 MHz
d. 35.535 MHz
ans: a
-
What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions?
a. Amplitude
b. Phase
c. Bandwidth
d. Energy
ans: c
-
What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the transmiss
ion frequency?
a. Frequency sensitivity
b. Frequency stability
c. High sensitivity
d. Good selectivity
ans: b
-
What type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission?
a. Capacitive
b. Direct
c. Transformer
d. Inductive
ans: d
-
What class of bias should produce least harmonics?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
ans: a
-
What type of field does a Faraday shield stop?
a. Common
b. Array
c. Electrostatic
d. Magnetostatic
ans: c
-
What type of circuit reduces even-order harmonics?
a. Push-pull
b. Class A
c. Armstrong circuit
d. Demodulator
ans: a
-
How many watts are represented by 40dBw?
a. 40,000w
b. 1,000w
c. 40w
d. 10,000w
ans: d
-
Term for transmission of printed picture by radio.
a. Facsimile
b. ACSSB
c. Xerography
d. Television
ans: a
-
What is another name for an AF volume control?
a. FC
b. Gain
c. ARC
d. AMC
ans: b
-
What device can be used to make a modulated envelope visible?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Synthesizer
c. Calibrator
d. Oscilloscope
ans: d
-
Which of the following is not an advantage of SSB over AM?
a. Power saving
b. Simple receiver circuit
c. Less spectrum
d. None of these
ans: b
-
What is the result if a balanced modulator is not perfectly balanced?
a. SB filtered
b. Carrier transmitted
c. Lower sideband transmitted
d. Both sideband transmitted
ans: b
-
If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 180
d. 90
ans: d
-
What method can be used to invert speech?
a. Frequency multiplier
b. Inverter
c. AGC
d. Frequency translation
ans: d
-
In SSB, voice compression is better in the AF or RF section?
a. AF
b. RF
c. Intermediate
d. SB
ans: b
-
What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF?
a. Demodulator
b. Modem
c. Synthesizer
d. Modulator
ans: a
-
What kind of crystal is used in oscillator?
a. Quartz
b. Galena
c. Carborundum
d. Salt
ans: a
-
Power is always _____
a. A definite amount of energy
b. All of these
c. The rate at which energy is used
d. Expressed in watts
ans: b
-
Which of the following services would use crystal local oscillators?
a. AM
b. FM
c. Aircraft
d. Shortwave listeners
ans: c
-
What does VOX mean?
a. Very Onward circuit
b. Voice-operated transmission
c. Voice Onward transmission
d. Very Oxford Transmitter
ans: b
-
What is an NO RY?
a. Non operational Relay
b. Normally Open Relay
c. Normally Ready
d. Non Organic Relay
ans: b
-
The Extremely hihg frequency(EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of _____
_.
a. 30 to 300 kHZ
b. 30 to 300 GHZ
c. 3 to 30 MHz
d. 3 to 30 GHz
ans: b
-
What kind of system relays has remote readings?
a. Broadcasting
b. Data gathering
c. Telecast
d. Telemetering
ans: d
-
What causes audio signals to be distorted in the receiver?
a. Interference
b. Gain
c. Harmonics
d. Amplitude
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not normally tested in a transmitter?
a. Power
b. Modulation
c. Frequency
d. Amplitude
ans: d
-
Which of the following items need not to be checked with receivers?
a. Sensitivity
b. Squelch
c. Distortion
d. Gain
ans: d
-
What is the source of wheel static?
a. Wheel
b. Brakes
c. Piston
d. Oscillations
ans: b
-
_______ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundamental frequency.
a. Distortion
b. Harmonic
c. Modulation
d. Radio
ans: b
-
Amplitude distortion results from _______ amplification.
a. Indirect
b. Linear
c. Direct
d. Nonlinear
ans: d
-
A _____ is a resonant circuit tuned to reject an undesired signal by reducing
the gain at the trap frequency
a. LC tank
b. LPF
c. Wave trap
d. HPF
ans: c
-
A subcarrier has a(n) _____ frequency than the main carrier.
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Equal
d. Good
ans: a
-
Amplitude limiting in the IF section eliminates ___ interference from the FM s
ignal.
a. AM
b. FM
c. PM
d. Broadband
ans: a
-
With which emission type is capture-effect most pronounced?
a. CW
b. FM
c. SSB
d. AM
ans: b
-
The parameter of a high frequency carrier that may be varied by a low frequenc
y intelligence signal is
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. All of the above
ans: d
-
A carrier signal has ____.
a. Constant peak amplitude
b. The information
c. Frequency range 20-20000Hz
d. A varying amplitude
ans: a
-
The type of emission for FM stereo(multiplex) broadcasting is
a. F3E
b. A3E
c. F8E
d. A8E
ans: c
-
The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is ______.
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Insertion
d. All of these
ans: b
-
In TV broadcasting in the Philippines, the aspect ratio of the picture frame i
s ____.
a. 4:3
b. 2:1
c. 4:1
d. 3:1
ans: a
-
Horizontal blanking time in TV.
a. 10.16 us
b. 16.67 us
c. 63.5 us
d. 1 us
ans: c
-
The standard coaxial impedance for CATV applications is_______.
a. 36 ohms
b. 72 ohms
c. 75 ohms
d. 300 ohms
ans: c
-
The service area in which the ground wave field of 1mV/m is not subject to obj
ectionable interference.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Intermittent
d. Tertiary
ans: a
-
Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?
a. MF
b. VHF
c. HF
d. UHF
ans: a
-
Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?
a. HF
b. UHF
c. MF
d. VHF
ans: c
-
The width of television broadcast channel
a. 200MHz
b. 10kHz
c. 100kHz
d. 6MHz
ans: d
-
CATV trunk and feeder system amplifier input voltage of _____.
a. 110 V
b. 220 V
c. 500 V
d. 1000 V
ans: b
-
Which antenna does not use the ground?
a. Marconi
b. Yagi
c. Hertz
d. Rhombic
ans: b
-
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use
of loading coils?
a. It is increased
b. It is decreased
c. No change occurs
d. It becomes fast
ans: a
-
What is the polarization of a discone antenna?
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Circular
d. Spiral
ans: a
-
If the antenna increases 3.3 times, how much does the radiated power increase?

a. 3.3 times
b. 10.89 times
c. 9.9 times
d. 6.6 times
ans: b
-
When speaking of antennas, ___________ is a section which would be a complete
antenna by itself.
a. image
b. top loading
c. bay
d. quarterwave
ans: c
-
In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized a
ntennas used?
a. VHF, UHF
b. VLF, LF
c. SH, EHF
d. MF, HF
ans: a
-
If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phas
e angle to 3 degrees, the antenna is called a
a. end fire array
b. critical phased array
c. broadband array
d. wideband array
ans: b
-
A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave.
a. Antenna
b. Loudspeaker
c. Microphone
d. Transducer
ans: a
-
Which is a non-resonant antenna?
a. Rhombic antenna
b. Folded dipole
c. End-fire array
d. Yagi-Uda antenna
ans: a
-
Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic.
a. 2.15 dB
b. 1.76 dB
c. 1 dB
d. 0 dB
ans: a
-
Very low signal strength in antenna.
a. Minor lobes
b. Null
c. Antenna patterns
d. Major lobes
ans: b
-
What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna?
a. 1.64 dB
b. 2.15 dB
c. 1.76 dB
d. 1.55 dB
ans: c
-
____________ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directiv
ity.
a. Phase angle
b. Antenna gain
c. Beamwidth
d. Bandwidth
ans: c
-
In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type
of antenna must be used?
a. Void antenna
b. Dummy antenna
c. Hertzian antenna
d. Isotropic antenna
ans: b
-
The best solution of fading is ____________.
a. space diversity
b. frequency diversity
c. polarization diversity
d. wavelength diversity
ans: a
-
_____________ is the amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols.
a. Bandwidth
b. Enthalpy
c. Entropy
d. Quantum
ans: c
-
If an antenna has a gain of 30 dB, it increases the output of the transmitter
by
a. 10,000 times
b. 1000 times
c. 100 times
d. 1 million times
ans: b
-
Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its _______________.
a. practical height
b. beamwidth
c. effective height
d. input capacitance
ans: c
-
A horizontal antenna is ______________.
a. vertically polarized
b. horizontally polarized
c. centrally polarized
d. circularly polarized
ans: b
-
All elements in a beam ____________ antennas are in line.
a. collinear
b. yagi
c. broadside array
d. log-periodic
ans: a
-
Which does not use vertical polarization antenna?
a. AM Broadcasting
b. FM Broadcasting
c. Mobile Communications
d. Satellite Communications
ans: b
-
Lightning rods must be mounted a top structure not less than ____________ abov
e the highest point.
a. 10 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 40 cm
ans: c
-
_________________ is the antenna with a number of half-wave antenna on it.
a. Antenna array
b. Tower
c. Omni-directional
d. Rhombic
ans: a
-
Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane with
vertical polarization?
a. Marconi antenna
b. Discone antenna
c. Horn antenna
d. Helical antenna
ans: a
-
An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth.
a. Helical antenna
b. Discone antenna
c. Horn antenna
d. Parabolic dish antenna
ans: d
-
What determines antenna polarization?
a. The frequency of the radiated wave
b. The direction of the radiated wave
c. The direction of the magnetic field vector
d. The direction of the electric field vector
ans: d
-
______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna.
a. Azimuth
b. Angle of elevation
c. Right angle
d. Beamwidth
ans: a
-
A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given sig
nal strength to a particular distant pt. If the addition of a reflector makes th
e same field strength available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the gain i
n dB, obtained by the use of the reflector. (Gain referred to this particular di
pole).
a. 4.75
b. 2.6
c. 1.81
d. 4.24
ans: b
-
What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower
design?
a. 300 kph
b. 100 kph
c. 200 kph
d. 250 kph
ans: c
-
Discone radiation pattern is _____________.
a. omnidirectional
b. unidirectional
c. bidirectional
d. figure of eight
ans: a
-
______________ is an open-ended slot antenna.
a. Helical antenna
b. Rhombic antenna
c. Notch antenna
d. Cassegrain antenna
ans: c
-
Which antenna is a properly terminated?
a. Marconi
b. Rhombic
c. Dipole
d. Yagi-Uda
ans: b
-
What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna?
a. Omnidirectional
b. Bidirectional
c. Unidirectional
d. Hemispherical
ans: b
-
What is the theoretical gain of a Hertzian dipole?
a. 1.76 dB
b. 2.15 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 0 dB
ans: a
-
An antenna with unity gain.
a. Rhombic
b. Half-wave dipole
c. Isotropic
d. Whip
ans: c
-
How will you increase the gain of an antenna?
a. By adding several antennas in parallel
b. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction
c. By making antenna rods thicker
d. By making the antenna size larger
ans: b
-
An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long.
a. Hertzian dipole
b. Loop antenna
c. Marconi antenna
d. Elementary doublet
ans: d
-
What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
ans: a
-
What is the gain of isotropic antenna?
a. 10
b. 1
c. 10
d. 100
ans: b
-
Which of the following improves antenna directivity?
a. Driven element
b. Reflector element
c. Director element
d. Parasitic element
ans: d
-
The antenna radiates __________ polarized waves when the transmitter antenna i
s horizontally installed.
a. Vertically
b. negatively
c. horizontally
d. circularly
ans: c
-
The length of a Marconi antenna to operate with 985 kHz is ___________.
a. 200 ft
b. 500 ft
c. 250 ft
d. 999 ft
ans: c
-
What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a no
rthernly direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction?
a. 25000 dB
b. 10 dB
c. 100 dB
d. 20 dB
ans: b
-
If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 uV/m in a receiving antenna, a 16 kW will produ
ce __________.
a. 200 uV/m
b. 10 uV/m
c. 100 uV/m
d. 20 uV/m
ans: c
-
If the radiated power increase 10.89 times, the antenna current increases by _
___________.
a. 3.3 times
b. 6.6 times
c. 1.82 times
d. 10.89 times
ans: a
-
The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m.
a. 88 MHz
b. 44 MHz
c. 22 MHz
d. 11 MHz
ans: b
-
Comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired
direction to the signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction
.
a. Directivity
b. Sensitivity
c. Beamwidth
d. Front-to-back ratio
ans: d
-
What is the capture area of a dipole operated at 75 MHz?
a. 44 mm^2
b. 2 m^2
c. 2.088 m^2
d. 4.088 m^2
ans: c
-
________________ of an antenna is a measure of how the antenna concentrates it
s radiated power in a given direction.
a. Efficiency
b. Power
c. Gain
d. Polarization
ans: c
-
Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5% longer.
a. End effect
b. Flywheel effect
c. Skin effect
d. Capture effect
ans: a
-
Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.
a. Low-pass filter
b. High-pass filter
c. M-derived filter
d. Constant-K
ans: a
-
A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal
a. at 45 degrees to its axis
b. parallel to its axis
c. at right angles to its axis
d. at 60 degrees to its axis
ans: c
-
The current maximum in a Marconi antenna is found at
a. the base of the antenna
b. the center of the antenna
c. some point between the base and the center of the antenna
d. the top of the antenna
ans: a
-
If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the effective length
can be increased by adding:
a. capacitance in series
b. inductance in series
c. resistance in parallel
d. resistance in series
ans: b
-
Which of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a transmitte
r for proper modulation, amplifier operation and frequency accuracy?
a. Elementary
b. Real
c. Isotropic
d. Dummy
ans: d
-
The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is 100 watts. If the antenna has
a 2dB power gain, what is the effective radiated power?
a. 317 watts
b. 158 watts
c. 200 watts
d. 400 watts
ans: b
-
What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of lambda/3, 10 tur
ns at pitch of lambda/4, used at 100 MHz?
a. 16
b. 41.1
c. 31.4
d. 1.25
ans: a
-
How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole antenna?
a. By reducing the frequency at the transmitter
b. By connecting a capacitor in series with the antenna
c. By connecting a resistor in series with the antenna
d. By connecting an inductor in series with the antenna
ans: d
-
Which of the following antennas receive signals in the horizontal plane equall
y well from all directions?
a. Horizontal Hertz antenna
b. Vertical loop antenna
c. Vertical Yagi antenna
d. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long
ans: d
-
If the length of a Hertz dipole is decreased
a. its resonant frequency will be lowered its distributed inductance will be i
ncreased.
b. its distributed inductance will be decreased
c. its resonant frequency will be increased
d. its distributed capacitance between the antenna and ground will be increase
d
ans: c
-
A final amplifier of a radio transmitter draws 250 mA of plate current when th
e plate supply voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit efficiency is 80% and
the transmitter is connected to an antenna having a feed impedance of 70 ohms,
what is the antenna current at the feed-point?
a. 4.0 A
b. 2.2 A
c. 1.25 A
d. 2.0 A
ans: d
-
A one-quarter wavelength shunt-fed vertical Marconi antenna
a. has maximum radiation in a vertical direction
b. must have a horizontal receiving antenna for the best reception
c. must use a receiving antenna for the best reception
d. must have a vertical receiving antenna for the best reception
ans: d
-
A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi antenna
a. has maximum RF impedance to ground at its feedpoint
b. has a current null at its feedpoint
c. has zero DC resistance to ground
d. has zero RF resistance to ground
ans: c
-
The parasitic element of an antenna system will
a. decrease its directivity
b. increase its directivity
c. give the antenna unidirectional properties
d. both B and C
ans: d
-
If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its reso
nant frequency will
a. increase
b. depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either be incre
ased or decreased
c. will be unchanged
d. decrease
ans: d
-
What is the effect of adding a capacitor in series with an antenna?
a. The antenna's resonant frequency will increase
b. The antenna's resonant frequency will decrease
c. The antenna will be physically 5% longer than its electrical length
d. A capacitor is never added in series with an antenna
ans: a
-
How does the electric field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with
the distance from the antenna?
a. The field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance f
rom the antenna
b. The field strength is directly proportional to the distance from the antenn
a
c. The field strength remains constant regardless of the distance from the ant
enna
d. The field strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna
ans: d
-
Stacking elements in a transmitting antenna system
a. increases the field strength at the receiving antenna
b. increases the directivity of the transmitter antenna
c. decrease the size of the lobe in the radiation pattern
d. both A and B
ans: d
-
A vertical loop antenna has a
a. unidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
b. unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane
c. omnidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
d. a bidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
ans: d
-
In order to get maximum radiation to all surrounding points in the horizontal
plane, the antenna used is a
a. vertical loop
b. vertical quarter-wavelength rod
c. array which includes parasitic elements
d. a horizontal Hertz dipole
ans: b
-
What is the electrical wavelength of a 500 MHz signal?
a. 60 centimeters
b. 6 meters
c. 0.06 meter
d. 60 meters
ans: a
-
If the antenna current is doubled, the field strength at a particular position
is
a. doubled
b. halved
c. multiplied by a factor of four
d. divided by a factor of four
ans: a
-
The rhombic antenna is primarily used for
a. ground wave propagation
b. space wave propagation
c. ionospheric scatter propagation
d. sky wave propagation
ans: d
-
What antenna radiates equally in all directions?
a. Vertical antenna
b. Isotropic antenna
c. Horizontal antenna
d. Dipole antenna
ans: b
-
Actual height of antenna should be at least
a. one wavelength
b. half wavelength
c. quarter wavelength
d. three-fourth wavelength
ans: c
-
Which antenna is not properly terminated?
a. Resonant
b. Non-resonant
c. Isotropic
d. Whip
ans: a
-
_______________ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angle
s to the plane of the array?
a. Broadside array
b. End-fire array
c. Turnstile array
d. Log-periodic array
ans: a
-
The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiator is
a. a figure-8
b. a sphere
c. a unidirectional cardioid
d. a parabola
ans: b
-
An isotropic radiator is
a. in the northern hemisphere
b. an antenna high enough in the air
c. an antenna whose directive pattern is substantially incredible
d. a hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
ans: d
-
The purpose of stacking elements on an antenna.
a. Sharper directional pattern
b. Increased gain
c. Improved bandpass
d. All of these
ans: d
-
The advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna is
a. lower quality factor
b. greater structural strength
c. higher losses
d. improved radiation efficiency
ans: d
-
Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave antenna?
a. At the ends
b. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
c. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
d. At the feed point
ans: d
-
A theoretical reference antenna that provides a comparison for antenna measure
ments.
a. Marconi antenna
b. Isotropic radiator
c. Yagi-Uda array
d. Whip antenna
ans: b
-
A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of a hori
zontal wire that is hanged between two towers. What is the frequency of its thir
d harmonic?
a. 727 kHz
b. 6546 kHz
c. 436 kHz
d. 6.546 kHz
ans: b
-
In horizontal-dipole antenna, the polarization is
a. in the vertical direction
b. in the horizontal direction
c. circular
d. measured at the center of the antenna
ans: b
-
Increasing the electrical length of an antenna means
a. add an inductor in parallel
b. add a capacitor in series
c. add an inductor in series
d. add a resistor in series
ans: c
-
Stacking antennas at various angles results in
a. a more omnidirectional reception
b. a more unidirectional reception
c. a less omnidirectional reception
d. an overall reception signal increase
ans: a
-
What is driven element?
a. Almost the rearmost element
b. Always the forward most element
c. The element fed by the transmission line
d. The element connected to the rotator
ans: c
-
What is antenna bandwidth?
a. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
b. The angle between the half-power radiation points
c. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through
d. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to operate satisf
actorily
ans: d
-
To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a
a. resistor
b. battery
c. conduit
d. coil
ans: d
-
What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB
gain over an isotropic radiator?
a. 6.0 dB
b. 8.1 dB
c. 3.9 dB
d. 10.0 dB
ans: c
-
What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna?

a. 1/4 wavelength
b. 3/4 wavelength
c. 1/2 wavelength
d. 1 wavelength
ans: c
-
To electrically decrease the length of an antenna,
a. add an inductor in the series
b. add an inductor in the parallel
c. add a resistor in the series
d. add a capacitor in the series
ans: d
-
Strong interference from one particular station can be eliminated by the use o
f
a. noise limiters
b. squelch circuits
c. negative feedback
d. wave traps in the antenna circuitry
ans: d
-
It is useful to refer to an isotropic radiator
a. when comparing the gains of directional antennas
b. when testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio
c. when (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission
d. when using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
ans: a
-
A disadvantage of using a trap antenna.
a. It will radiate harmonics
b. It can only be used for single-band operation
c. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
d. It must be neutralized
ans: a
-
The input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna is
a. 72 ohms(s)
b. 300 ohms(s)
c. 50 ohms(s)
d. 73 ohms(s)
ans: b
-
When a capacitor is connected in series with a Marconi antenna?
a. Antenna open circuit stops transmission
b. An inductor of equal value must be added
c. No change occurs to antenna
d. Antenna resonant frequency increases
ans: d
-
Where are the current nodes in a half-wave antenna?
a. At the ends
b. At the center
c. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
d. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
ans: a
-
For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to min
imize losses and produce the most effective performance?
a. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
b. Near the center of the vertical radiator
c. As close to the transmitter as possible
d. At a voltage node
ans: b
-
The effect of adding parasitic elements of a Hertz dipole is to
a. make the antenna more omnidirectional
b. reduce its resonant frequency
c. increase the antenna's power gain
d. all of these
ans: c
-
Stacking antenna elements
a. increases sensitivity to weak signals
b. will suppress odd harmonics
c. decrease signal to noise ratio
d. increase selectivity
ans: a
-
In the case of Marconi antenna, the actual length of the radiating element is
a. one-half wavelength
b. one-quarter wavelength
c. one wavelength
d. one-eight wavelength
ans: b
-
The antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna can be made comparab
le to that of a half-wave antenna.
a. By installing a good ground radial system
b. By isolating the coax shield from ground
c. By shortening the vertical
d. By lengthening the vertical
ans: a
-
An antenna "efficiency" is computed by using one of the following equations.
a. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / transmission resistance)
b. Efficiency = (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
c. Efficiency = (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%
d. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
ans: d
-
Increasing the resonant frequency of an end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by

a. adding a capacitor in series and reducing the physical length
b. adding an inductor in series
c. adding an inductor in parallel
d. all of these
ans: a
-
Factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna.
a. Transmission line length and height of antenna.
b. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects
c. It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical
d. Sunspot activity and the time of day
ans: b
-
______________ is the angle between the half-power radiation points.
a. Critical angle
b. Beamwidth
c. Angle of elevation
d. Azimuth
ans: b
-
What is the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation
intensity?
a. Aperture gain
b. Directivity gain
c. Transmission gain
d. Power gain
ans: b
-
Good grounding is important for
a. horizontal antennas
b. broadside array antennas
c. vertical antennas
d. Yagi-Uda antennas
ans: c
-
An ungrounded antenna near the ground
a. acts as a single antenna of twice the height
b. is unlikely to need an earth mat
c. acts as antenna array
d. must be horizontally polarized
ans: c
-
One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna.
a. Parabolic antenna
b. Elementary doublet
c. Log-periodic
d. Square loop
ans: c
-
Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide?
a. Biconical
b. Horn
c. Helical
d. Discone
ans: b
-
Indicate which of the following reasons for using metal counterpoise with ante
nnas is false.
a. Impossibility of a good ground connection
b. Protection of personnel working underneath
c. Provision of an earth for the antenna
d. Rockiness of the ground itself
ans: b
-
Not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler.
a. To make the antenna look resistive
b. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
c. To discriminate against harmonics
d. To prevent reradiation of the local oscillator
ans: d
-
Which antenna is not a wideband?
a. Discone
b. Folded dipole
c. Helical
d. Marconi
ans: d
-
One of the following is not a reason for the use of an earth mat.
a. impossibility of a good ground connection
b. provision of an earth for the antenna
c. protection of personnel working underneath
d. improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna
ans: c
-
One of the following makes an antenna physically long but electrically short.
a. Adding L in series
b. Adding C in series
c. Top loading
d. Both A and C
ans: b
-
When antennas are closed to the ground, ______________ polarization is ideal.
a. horizontally polarized
b. vertically polarized
c. circularly polarized
d. both A and B
ans: b
-
_____________ is an antenna made up of a number of full wavelengths.
a. Elementary doublet
b. Log-periodic
c. Long wire
d. Whip
ans: c
-
An energy which radiates in the form of radio waves, infrared waves, light wav
es, x-rays, etc.
a. Radiant energy
b. Electromagnetic
c. Heat
d. Ultraviolet
ans: b
-
Which one is an antenna coupling unit?
a. Coupler
b. Diplexer
c. Lecher wire
d. Duplexer
ans: b
-
_______________ polarization is employed in AM broadcasting.
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Circular
d. Omnidirectional
ans: b
-
_______________ polarization is employed in FM broadcasting.
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Circular
d. Bidirectional
ans: a
-
Which antenna is not grounded at one end?
a. Hertz
b. Marconi
c. Dipole
d. Whip
ans: c
-
Which of the class station below is a regional channel?
a. Class I-A
b. Class II-D
c. Class III-B
d. Class IV
ans: c
-
The permissible power in kW of stations II-A during nighttime is
a. 0.25 - 50
b. 10 - 50
c. 1 - 5
d. none of these
ans: a
-
The television frequency which are now allocated to the land mobile services.
a. 806 and 192 MHz
b. 800 and 806 MHz
c. 668 and 674 MHz
d. 776 and 782 MHz
ans: a
-
Numerical frequency band designation of Channel 9.
a. 488 - 494 MHz
b. 530 - 536 MHz
c. 632 - 638 MHz
d. 186 - 192 MHz
ans: d
-
Cable TV systems originates from
a. Germany
b. Dallas, Texas
c. Pennsylvania
d. Japan
ans: c
-
A term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade t
he performance of a system.
a. composite triple beat
b. single dual mode
c. field strength
d. noise
ans: a
-
A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service ar
ea, but is permitted to originate programming from virtually any source.
a. DME
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
ans: b
-
Three stations are licensed to eligible educational entities for the distribut
ion of program material to students enrolled in instructional curricula.
a. translator
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
ans: d
-
ITFS means
a. International Television Frequency Standard
b. Instructional Telephone Frequency Service
c. Instructional Television Fixed Service
d. International Telecommunications Frequency Standard
ans: c
-
MDS means
a. Multipoint Distribution Service
b. Multipoint Digital Service
c. Maritime Data Standards
d. Multipoint Drop Standards
ans: a
-
Direct broadcast satellite based allocation.
a. 12.2 - 12.7 GHz for downlink
b. 17.3 - 17.8 GHz for uplink
c. 3.7 - 4.2 GHz for downlink
d. 12.2 - 12.7 GHz for downlink and 17.3 - 17.8 GHz for uplink
ans: d
-
What is the channel number of an FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier?
a. 201
b. 202
c. 203
d. 204
ans: a
-
What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel number of 300?
a. 107.5 MHz
b. 101.1 MHz
c. 107.9 MHz
d. 99.5 MHz
ans: c
-
If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under wh
at class?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
ans: c
-
The video signal amplitude determines the quality of the picture otherwise kno
wn as
a. hue
b. luminance
c. chrominance
d. contrast
ans: d
-
_____ is defined as "to send out in all direction".
a. broadcast
b. announce
c. media
d. all of these
ans: a
-
The ultimate Dolby surround system is the
a. Dolby NR
b. Dolby Prologic
c. dBx
d. Hall Matrix
ans: b
-
A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in lateral and tilti
ng motion.
a. panning device
b. scanner
c. tilting
d. pan/tilt device
ans: d
-
Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system to receive br
oadcast signals?
a. filter
b. LNA
c. RF amplifier
d. antenna
ans: d
-
Is the most common technique where apartment houses, hotels, schools, condomin
iums, and multi-unit buildings distribute TV and FM signals to a number of recei
vers, using a single head-end.
a. CCTV
b. CATV
c. MATV
d. antenna
ans: a
-
TV channels 2, 4, and 5 belong to
a. low band UHF
b. high band VHF
c. mid band UHF
d. low band VHF
ans: d
-
Which of the following is a solid state imaging device?
a. VIDICON
b. ICONOSCOPE
c. charge couple device
d. CCTV
ans: c
-
What class of TV camera lens used to cover short distances?
a. normal
b. wide angle
c. telephoto
d. zoom
ans: b
-
What class of TV camera lens used to cover long distances?
a. normal
b. wide angle
c. telephoto
d. zoom
ans: c
-
What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial AM broadcast if it is equ
al to 455 kHz?
a. 0 to 1,500 kHz
b. 0 to 456 kHz
c. 540 to 1,600 kHz
d. 955 to 2055 kHz
ans: d
-
What is the allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast?
a. 20
b. 75
c. 5
d. 25
ans: c
-
The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro M
anila is
a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW
c. 15 kW
d. 20 kW
ans: d
-
KBP radio code mandates that station must provide a minimum of _____ minutes o
f news per day from 5:00 in the morning to 10:00 in the evening.
a. 30
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60
ans: b
-
What is the chroma subcarrier signal frequency for color television?
a. 3.8 MHz
b. 6.8 MHz
c. 7.8 MHz
d. 8.8 MHz
ans: a
-
What is the frequency tolerance of an FM radio broadcast station?
a. 20,000 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 200 Hz
d. 2,000 Hz
ans: d
-
The minimum frequency separation between frequency of AM broadcasting station.

a. 9 kHz
b. 18 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 72 kHz
ans: c
-
The aspect ratio of HDTV is
a. 4:3
b. 18:5
c. 14:8
d. 16:9
ans: d
-
A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news content of ____
_ minute(s) excluding intro, extro, headline, and commercial load.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ans: a
-
In accordance with existing provision of law and the KBP rules and regulations
, all stations shall actively promote the growth and the development of Filipino
music by playing _____ OPM every clock hour.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ans: d
-
Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for one hour program
in Metro Manila.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
ans: a
-
Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour progra
m outside Metro Manila.
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 20
ans: c
-
Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not ex
ceed _____ breaks in every program hour.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
ans: b
-
Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall n
ot exceed ____ breaks in every program hour.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
ans: b
-
For Metro Manila, the classification of prime time blocks for FM shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
ans: a
-
For provincial station, the classification of prime time blocks for FM radio s
hall be:
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
ans: a
-
All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subject for approval by
the
a. NTC
b. KBP-SA
c. DOTC
d. CCITT
ans: b
-
_____ is the time duration for one horizontal trace.
a. 52 s
b. 62 s
c. 48 s
d. 50 s
ans: a
-
Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipments, tests, malfuncti
ons, and corrections in communications system.
a. reporting
b. documentation
c. log
d. file
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a low-impedance microphone?
a. dynamic
b. velocity
c. condenser
d. crystal
ans: d
-
Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following items?
a. map
b. pictures
c. printed page
d. all of these
ans: d
-
Television has a lot of features in common with
a. FM stereo
b. telephone service
c. motion picture
d. magazine
ans: c
-
The major component of the TV signal waveform is the
a. video
b. radar
c. stereo
d. antenna
ans: a
-
For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from
a. top to bottom
b. left to right
c. right to left
d. choices A and B above
ans: d
-
One complete NTSC scanning cycle called field consist of how many lines?
a. 500
b. 525
c. 625
d. 60
ans: b
-
The field rate in the NTSC television system.
a. 30 Hz
b. 120 Hz
c. 60 Hz
d. 15.75 Hz
ans: c
-
What is the horizontal synchronous / blanking pulse rate?
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75 kHz
d. 120 Hz
ans: c
-
What is the vertical blanking pulse rate?
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75 kHz
d. 120 Hz
ans: b
-
The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse.
a. equalizing (sync) pulse
b. serrated vertical sync pulses
c. black level pulses
d. choices A and B above
ans: d
-
Television camera pickup tube is called
a. vidicon
b. image orthicon
c. plumbicon
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for
a. beam focusing
b. beam deflection
c. beam modulation
d. beam focusing and beam deflection
ans: d
-
What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube?
a. beam focusing
b. beam deflection
c. beam production
d. beam modulation
ans: c
-
Video modulation for television is
a. amplitude modulation
b. frequency modulation
c. vestigial sideband
d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband
ans: d
-
Audio modulation for television is
a. amplitude modulation
b. frequency modulation
c. vestigial sideband
d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband
ans: b
-
What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmissio
n?
a. 25 kHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 75 kHz
ans: a
-
The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by _____ MHz.
a. 4.5
b. 5.5
c. 6.5
d. 7.5
ans: a
-
In practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will include compone
nts clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz.
a. 15.75
b. 30
c. 12.25
d. 45.5
ans: a
-
Brightness of an image is known as
a. radiance
b. chrominance
c. reflectance
d. luminance
ans: d
-
The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as
a. primary
b. white
c. desaturated
d. all of the above
ans: a
-
A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television pick
up?
a. red
b. green
c. blue
d. all of these
ans: d
-
What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transm
itter?
a. Y, I and Q
b. P, D and Q
c. M, N and O
d. R, S and T
ans: a
-
Range of a VHF television transmitter.
a. 54 - 98 MHz
b. 54 - 216 MHz
c. 54 - 128 MHz
d. 54 - 166 MHz
ans: b
-
Range of a UHF television transmitter.
a. 470 - 670 MHz
b. 470 - 770 MHz
c. 470 - 890 MHz
d. 470 - 980 MHz
ans: c
-
What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for
color TV?
a. 0.8 MHz
b. 1.8 MHz
c. 8.1 MHz
d. 1.6 MHz
ans: b
-
The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be
a. saturated
b. dark
c. light
d. monochrome
ans: a
-
At what position of the color triangle will saturated yellow be located?
a. between red and blue
b. between red and green
c. between blue and green
d. at the center
ans: b
-
What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal carriers?
a. 0 deg
b. 45 deg
c. 60 deg
d. 90 deg
ans: d
-
_____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chrominance fr
equency components.
a. low pass
b. band pass
c. notch
d. comb
ans: d
-
The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when monochrome broadca
sts are received by the
a. color killer
b. SAW filter
c. NOT gate
d. all of the above
ans: a
-
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
a. 25 %
b. 0 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 75 %
ans: d
-
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 70 %
ans: d
-
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
a. 0 %
b. 12.5 %
c. 25 %
d. 70 %
ans: a
-
One should first perform _____ before a convergence setup is performed.
a. gray tracking
b. screen setting
c. alignment
d. degaussing
ans: d
-
If there are too many harmonics, one should check the
a. coupling
b. tuning of circuits
c. shielding
d. any of these
ans: d
-
In transmitter amplifier design, an even-order harmonics can be prevented or r
educed by
a. using a push-pull amplifier
b. operating class C
c. operating class AB
d. all of these
ans: a
-
The vertical and horizontal pulses are separated at the
a. sync separator
b. AFC
c. high voltage
d. AGC
ans: a
-
The reason why buffer stage is included in a transmitter is to
a. present a constant load to the oscillator stage
b. present a low input impedance to the oscillator stage
c. stop the oscillator from generating parasitic oscillations
d. all of these
ans: a
-
Where is the operating position of a radio station?
a. on the bridge
b. at the control point
c. at the location of the receiver
d. at the location of the transmitter
ans: b
-
The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known as
a. blooming
b. confetti
c. demodulation
d. convergence
ans: d
-
A _____ is equivalent to 525 scanning lines.
a. field
b. frame
c. cycle
d. interface set
ans: b
-
A _____ represents one set of 262 1/2 scanning lines.
a. field
b. frame
c. cycle
d. interface set
ans: a
-
The number of scanning lines is _____ per second.
a. 14,750
b. 15,570
c. 15,750
d. 16,550
ans: c
-
Picture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
ans: b
-
Lack of raster is an indication of no
a. AGC
b. high voltage
c. video signal
d. television signal
ans: b
-
The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV receiver.
a. IF stage
b. video amplifier
c. video detector
d. burst separator
ans: c
-
The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem in the ___
__ circuit.
a. horizontal
b. reactor
c. burst separator
d. chroma amplifier
ans: b
-
Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated
by a TV signal.
a. A3F
b. F3F
c. A3C
d. F3C
ans: b
-
What is emission A3F?
a. RTTY
b. SSB
c. TV
d. modulated CW
ans: c
-
What is emission F3F?
a. facsimile
b. modulated CW
c. television
d. RTTY
ans: c
-
Cause of slow rising white "hum bars" in the television.
a. bad filter
b. bad rectifier
c. bad picture tube
d. high voltage transformer
ans: a
-
Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti.
a. color chroma amplifier
b. color killer
c. color detector
d. color oscillator
ans: b
-
Video signal amplitude determine the picture quality called
a. chrominance
b. brightness
c. contrast
d. luminance
ans: c
-
Part of broadcast day from midnight to local sunshine.
a. daytime
b. experimental
c. nighttime
d. dawntime
ans: b
-
Part of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise.
a. dawntime
b. nighttime
c. daytime
d. experimental
ans: b
-
What causes snow in television?
a. high Q in a tuned circuit
b. excessive gain
c. random noise in a signal
d. insufficient wave traps
ans: c
-
Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission.
a. CF3
b. C3F
c. B8E
d. A3E
ans: b
-
Vestigial sideband modulation is commonly used in
a. TV broadcasting
b. monaural broadcasting
c. stereo broadcasting
d. HF point-to-point communications
ans: a
-
Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
a. high pass filter
b. low pass filter
c. band pass filter
d. band reject filter
ans: d
-
The FM broadcast band is from
a. 535 to 1,600 Hz
b. 30 to 300 kHz
c. 88 to 108 MHz
d. 300 to 2,000 MHz
ans: c
-
The type of emission used by standard AM radio broadcast.
a. A5C
b. A0
c. A3
d. F3
ans: c
-
The standard AM radio broadcast belongs to which frequency band?
a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. LF
ans: a
-
When were UHF channels (14-83) of television added?
a. 1902
b. 1945
c. 1947
d. 1952
ans: d
-
When was colored TV standards established in the United States?
a. 1904
b. 1945
c. 1953
d. 1960
ans: c
-
What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV picture tube?
a. HFC
b. HSC
c. HAFC
d. all of these
ans: c
-
A measure of how well the receiver can respond to very weak signals.
a. selectivity
b. sensitivity
c. fidelity
d. quality factor
ans: b
-
What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM broadcast band?
a. 15 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 100 kHz
ans: b
-
The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter is operated as
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
ans: c
-
Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient coverage.
a. circular polarized wave antenna
b. horizontal polarized wave antenna
c. both vertical and horizontal polarized wave antenna
d. vertical polarized wave antenna
ans: d
-
Receiver sensitivity means
a. the frequency allocation of the system
b. input impedance of the receiver
c. the ability of picking up weak signal
d. the power to deliver the information
ans: c
-
The main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to
a. provide improved tracking
b. permit better adjacent-channel rejection
c. improve the rejection of the image frequency
d. all of these
ans: c
-
Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency higher th
an the incoming frequency in order
a. to help the image frequency rejection
b. to allow easy tracking
c. to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
d. all of these
ans: c
-
Type of filter used in TV receivers that separates the chroma signal from the
colorplexed video signal but leaves intact the Y-component.
a. comb filter
b. bandpass filter
c. color filter
d. low pass filter
ans: a
-
What is the first letter-symbol for emission of unmodulated carrier?
a. A
b. N
c. H
d. F
ans: b
-
The channel for cable TV frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75 MHz.
a. T-1
b. T-8
c. 2
d. 3
ans: a
-
The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13.
a. 23.75 - 29.75 MHz
b. 60 - 66 MHz
c. 41.75 - 47.55 MHz
d. 5.75 - 11.75 MHz
ans: a
-
Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV.
a. 54 - 60 MHz
b. 66 - 72 MHz
c. 180 - 186 MHz
d. 204 - 210 MHz
ans: c
-
The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to delineate pict
ure detail.
a. constant
b. resolution
c. hue
d. pixels
ans: b
-
CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film for television
used.
a. Rec. 265 - 6
b. Rec. 407 - 4
c. Rec. 408 - 5
d. Rec. 450 - 1
ans: a
-
CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF.
a. Rec. 601.2
b. Rec. 501.2
c. Rec. 500.4
d. Rec. 450.1
ans: d
-
ISO Rec. 23 in 1976 is the standard for
a. recorded characteristics for magnetic sound records on full cost 16 mm moti
on picture film
b. projector usage of 16 mm motion picture films for direct front projector
c. camera usage of 35 mm motion picture film
d. camera usage of 16 mm motion picture film
ans: c
-
International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____ in accord
ance with international agreements.
a. 7012 and 26,100 kHz
b. 6409 and 26,100 kHz
c. 5950 and 26,100 kHz
d. 10,950 and 26,100 kHz
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not an advantage of digital transmission?
a. noise immunity
b. ease of multiplexing
c. bandwidth utilization
d. ease of encryption
ans: c
-
_____ is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible
magnitude that can be decoded by the DAC.
a. resolution
b. quantization
c. dynamic range
d. voltage ratio
ans: c
-
A process where the higher amplitude analog signals are compressed prior to tr
ansmission then expanded at the receiver.
a. compressing
b. expanding
c. encoding
d. companding
ans: d
-
For a resolution of 0.01 V and analog sample voltage of 0.05 V, the 12-bit lin
ear sign-magnitude code is
a. 000000000101
b. 100000000101
c. 100010010011
d. 000001010001
ans: b
-
_____ uses a single bit PCM code to achieve a digital transmission of analog s
ignal.
a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)
b. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
c. Delta Modulation (DM)
d. Phase Modulation (PM)
ans: c
-
The line speed of Bell System T1 carrier system is
a. 64 kbps
b. 3.152 Mbps
c. 1.544 Mbps
d. 6.312 Mbps
ans: c
-
How many channels does a T2 line carry?
a. 24
b. 48
c. 96
d. 672
ans: c
-
The capacity of the standard 4-kHz telephone channel with 30 dB S/N is
a. 455225 bps
b. 42525 bps
c. 39846 bps
d. 39840 bps
ans: c
-
How many channels does a super group have?
a. 60
b. 600
c. 1800
d. 10800
ans: a
-
The output frequency at the channel combiner of channel 7 is
a. 76-80 kHz
b. 80-84 kHz
c. 84-88 kHz
d. 88-92 kHz
ans: b
-
The carrier frequency of the supergroup D25 is
a. 2652 kHz
b. 2900 kHz
c. 2356 kHz
d. 2108 kHz
ans: a
-
Which of the following is not a hybrid data?
a. data in voice
b. data under voice
c. data above voice
d. data in video
ans: d
-
_____ was the first fixed-length 5-bit character code.
a. EBCDIC
b. ASCII
c. Morse code
d. baudot code
ans: d
-
CCITT V.26 modem has a modulation rate of _____.
a. 1200 Hz
b. 1200 bauds
c. 1560 cps
d. 9600 bauds
ans: b
-
What can a smart modem do?
a. detect transmission errors and correct them automatically
b. correct answer multiple choice quizzes
c. accepts commands from the terminal via RS232 interface
d. do a smart game
ans: c
-
One is an advantage of PTM over PAM.
a. much better noise immunity
b. low sampling rate required
c. simpler to generate
d. less costly
ans: a
-
When did ISO adapt the seven-layer OSI model?
a. 1983
b. 1973
c. 1963
d. 1953
ans: a
-
Amplitude shift keying is also known as _____.
a. up/down keying
b. on/off keying
c. front/back keying
d. I/O keying
ans: b
-
Which modulation system is used in telephony?
a. FSK
b. PCM
c. Two-tone modulation
d. single-tone modulation
ans: a
-
Modulation used by asynchronous data
a. QPSK
b. FSK
c. PSK
d. QAM
ans: b
-
PCM systems require _____.
a. analog signals
b. large bandwidth
c. digital signals
d. fiber optic cable
ans: b
-
Which theorem sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given
noise level?
a. Nyquist theorem
b. Hartley theorem
c. Shannon-Hartley theorem
d. Shannon theorem
ans: c
-
Quantizing noise is present in _____ system.
a. PCM
b. ATM
c. TDM
d. PAM
ans: a
-
_____ is the difference between the original and reconstructed signal
a. quantizing noise
b. fade margin
c. noise margin
d. noise figure
ans: a
-
What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM system?
a. to solve quantizing noise problem
b. to allow amplitude limits in the receivers
c. to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
d. to overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers
ans: c
-
Band of frequencies in a transmission medium allotted to each communication ch
annel on a continuous time basis.
a. TDM
b. FDM
c. CDMA
d. broadband
ans: b
-
Error control used in high frequency radio data transmission.
a. FEC
b. ARQ
c. Hamming
d. Parity
ans: b
-
What are the steps to follow to produce a PCM signal?
a. sampling, coding and quantizing
b. sampling, quantizing, and coding
c. quantizing, sampling, and coding
d. coding, quantizing, and sampling
ans: b
-
_____ identifies how the different stations in a multipoint system are interco
nnected.
a. network topology
b. star network
c. ring network
d. bus network
ans: a
-
A transmission where data are inputted directly on the cable.
a. broadband
b. baseband
c. digital
d. analog
ans: b
-
A transmission where data are inputted inside the carrier wave.
a. broadband
b. baseband
c. digital
d. analog
ans: a
-
A transmission system for a multidrop network.
a. token passing
b. CSMA/CD
c. polling
d. CSMA/CA
ans: c
-
Before attempting to transmit data, each station has to listen to the channel.

a. CSMA/CD
b. token passing
c. CSMA/CA
d. polling
ans: a
-
Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modems because
a. they are larger
b. they must contain clock recovery circuits
c. the production volume is larger
d. they must operate on a larger bandwidth
ans: b
-
When one station is designated as master and the rest of the stations are cons
idered slaves, message handling is _____.
a. store and forward
b. polling
c. CSMA/CD
d. token passing
ans: b
-
The computer that initiates information transfer.
a. master
b. slave
c. DCE
d. DTE
ans: a
-
A store and forward switching.
a. circuit switching
b. packet switching
c. message switching
d. PSTN
ans: c
-
It is used to connected computers in the same building or in same area.
a. LAN
b. WAN
c. MAN
d. PBX
ans: a
-
Two or more LAN linked together over a wide geographical area.
a. HAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. RAN
ans: c
-
Which system allows different types of networks to be linked together?
a. OSI
b. CCITT
c. Bell system
d. AT & T
ans: a
-
OSI consists of how many layers of interconnection?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
ans: c
-
Which network layer determines if the user can send or receive based on whethe
r they can send and receive simultaneously or alternatively?
a. physical layer
b. data link layer
c. transport layer
d. session layer
ans: d
-
A _____ that interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and
data link layers.
a. bridge
b. router
c. gateway
d. hub
ans: a
-
A _____ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical data link
and network layers.
a. bridge
b. router
c. gateway
d. node
ans: b
-
A _____ interconnects LAN that have totally different protocols and format.
a. bridge
b. router
c. gateway
d. WAN
ans: c
-
All bits in a character can be sent/received simultaneously.
a. serial data
b. parallel data
c. full duplex
d. duplex
ans: b
-
The bits in a character which are sent/received one at a time.
a. parallel data
b. serial data
c. simplex
d. half duplex
ans: b
-
A system that perform parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of
a data link.
a. DTE
b. DCE
c. modem
d. FEP
ans: a
-
EIA stands for
a. Electronic Institute Association
b. Electronic Industry Association
c. Electronic Improvement Ads
d. Electrical Industrial Association
ans: b
-
An acoustic modem converts a complex digital signal into
a. serial form
b. parallel form
c. radio tones
d. audio tones
ans: d
-
Which mode of transmission achieves less than full-duplex but more than half-d
uplex?
a. full\full duplex
b. echoplex
c. isochronous
d. synchronous
ans: b
-
Rules governing the transmission of digital information.
a. data communications standard
b. line protocol
c. isochronous
d. digital communication
ans: b
-
Codecs must be
a. eight bits per character
b. eight seven or eight bits per character
c. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver
d. the same in all modern computers
ans: c
-
The standard ASCII
a. is version II of ASC
b. has 132 characters including 32 control characters
c. is subset of a 8-bit EBCDIC code
d. is used only in US and Canada
ans: b
-
The Baudot code
a. was invented by the Baudot brothers
b. required the escape character to print numbers
c. requires shift characters to provide sufficient combinations
d. a descendant of Morse code
ans: c
-
The corrections and accuracy of the transmitted message control is
a. verified by the modem
b. determined by the sender and the receiver
c. ensured by the used of digital techniques
d. dependent on the communications system used
ans: b
-
Framing is
a. concerned with the boundaries between characters
b. referred to parallel-to-serial conversion
c. concerned with synchronous system
d. concerned with individual bits
ans: a
-
Asynchronous transmission is
a. is less efficient but simpler
b. is much faster than synchronous transmission
c. is another name for synchronous transmission
d. the most sought-after transmission
ans: a
-
Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog tra
nsmission because
a. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion
b. digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distor
ted
c. analog signals are continuous and are not easily distorted
d. digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals
ans: a
-
Digital to analog converter in synchronous modems send signals to the
a. modulator
b. transmission lines
c. terminal
d. equalizer
ans: d
-
Binary codes are transformed in modems into
a. hexadecimal
b. Hullman code
c. Gray code
d. octal
ans: c
-
Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because
a. they are larger
b. they must contain clock recover circuits
c. the production volume is larger
d. they must operate on a larger bandwidth
ans: b
-
What is the best type of data communications test equipment?
a. simulator
b. protocol analyzer
c. DTE
d. breakout box
ans: b
-
What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel?
a. 32 kbps
b. 64 kbps
c. 144 kbps
d. 192 kbps
ans: b
-
What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel?
a. 64 kbps
b. 16 kbps
c. 8 kbps
d. 144 kbps
ans: b
-
Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol?
a. 9
b. 7
c. 5
d. 8
ans: c
-
How many bits are there to present 8 combinations?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5
ans: a
-
How many number of equiprobable events are there for 8-bits of information?
a. 256
b. 132
c. 2400
d. 512
ans: a
-
Which computer terminal can be programmed to perform new functions?
a. dumb terminal
b. smart terminal
c. intelligent terminal
d. super terminal
ans: c
-
Which character code is used without parity bit?
a. CCITT number 2
b. ASCCII
c. CCITT number 5
d. EBCDIC
ans: d
-
Which hardware is used when the host computer and the terminal are in separate
locations?
a. LCU
b. FEP
c. Muldem
d. Modem
ans: d
-
_____ is a data communications hardware that assist the host computer in handl
ing input and output tasks.
a. hub
b. cluster controller
c. front end processor
d. concentrator
ans: c
-
ASCII means
a. terminals using synchronous transmission in EBCDIC
b. terminals using synchronous transmission in ASCII
c. terminals using asynchronous transmission in ASCII
d. any terminal having an American (dollar-sign) keyboard
ans: c
-
A unit of information used in data communications.
a. dit
b. bit
c. byte
d. baud
ans: b
-
Transmission of binary signals requires
a. less bandwidth than analog
b. more bandwidth than analog
c. the same bandwidth as analog
d. a license from the NTC
ans: b
-
What is the modulation rate of the CCITT V.26 modem?
a. 56 kbps
b. 1200 kbps
c. 1560 kbps
d. 9600 kbps
ans: b
-
The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signal to the ___
__.
a. modulator
b. transmission line
c. terminal
d. equalizer
ans: d
-
The number of bits that are zeros in each symbol when one is transmitting odd-
parity coded symbols.
a. even
b. odd
c. unknown
d. one
ans: c
-
A digital modulation technique that results in two difference frequencies repr
esenting binary 1 and -.
a. FSK
b. QPSK
c. ASK
d. DPSK
ans: a
-
What is the input to the Digital-to-Analog Converter of a PCM decoder circuit?

a. a series of sampled amplitudes
b. a parallel binary word
c. a series of bits
d. a reconstructed intelligence signal
ans: c
-
The output of the DAC at a PCM decoder circuit is a _____.
a. series of binary-coded digits
b. parallel output of binary-coded digits
c. fixed analog voltage
d. reconstructed intelligence signal
ans: b
-
Serial printer
a. are used to transmit grain prices
b. faster than CRT terminals, and offers more flexibility
c. prints one character at a time
d. usually uses serial interfaces
ans: c
-
Delta modulation is a/an
a. 5-bit modulation
b. integral PCM system
c. 1-bit differential PCM system
d. form of PDM
ans: c
-
Alternative way of digitizing analog signals.
a. PCM
b. Delta modulation
c. PPM
d. DPCM
ans: b
-
One dit is equal to _____ bits.
a. 3
b. 3.5
c. 3.32
d. 4
ans: c
-
Redundancy means the _____.
a. transmission rate of the system
b. symbols are to be repeated
c. time between failures
d. time between successes
ans: b
-
Which transmission media is not suitable to CSMA operation?
a. Radio
b. Optical fiber
c. Coaxial cable
d. Twisted pair
ans: b
-
_____ is a device used to convert a time varying electrical quantity to an app
ropriate form.
a. Codec
b. Transducer
c. ADC/DAC
d. Modem
ans: b
-
The bandwidth of U600 mastergroup is
a. 2250 kHz
b. 2728 kHz
c. 2520 kHz
d. 2278 kHz
ans: c
-
Refers to the combination of digitally encoded signals transmitted with FDM si
gnals as one composite baseband signal.
a. composite data
b. data under voice (DUV)
c. hybrid data
d. Data In Voice (DIV)
ans: c
-
Transmit frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial data
for distances up to 4000 miles.
a. T carrier systems
b. A carrier systems
c. L carrier systems
d. D carrier systems
ans: c
-
Level 5 of Japanese PCM multiplex hierarchy has channel capacity of
a. 7680 VB channels
b. 5760 VB channels
c. 8064 VB channels
d. 5670 VB channels
ans: b
-
The line data rate (in Mbps) for level 4 of CEPT 30 + 2 PCM multiplex hierarch
y
a. 97.728
b. 400.352
c. 274.176
d. 139.264
ans: d
-
The guardband between supergroup 18 and supergroup D25 is
a. 12 kHz
b. 56 kHz
c. 128 kHz
d. 8 kHz
ans: b
-
Supergroup 17 has a carrier frequency (in kHz) of
a. 2108
b. 2356
c. 1860
d. 1612
ans: a
-
A radio channel is composed of _____ VB channels.
a. 1800
b. 900
c. 10800
d. 8064
ans: a
-
What is the guardband between supergroup 1 and supergroup 2?
a. 12 kHz
b. 10 kHz
c. 8 kHz
d. 6 kHz
ans: a
-
CCITT's supermastergroup has how many voice band channels?
a. 600
b. 1800
c. 10800
d. 900
ans: d
-
The transparency mechanism used with SDLC is called
a. zero-bit insertion
b. modified link test
c. beacon test
d. invert-on-zero coding
ans: a
-
What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line?
a. 2B + D
b. B + D
c. B + 2D
d. 2B + 2D
ans: a
-
A digital network where voice, video, text and data are multiplexed into a sin
gle network for processing and are transmitted prior to use.
a. frame relay
b. asynchronous transfer mode (ATM)
c. ISDN
d. synchronous digital hierarchy (SDH)
ans: d
-
T-1 carrier service has _____ digital bit rate.
a. 1.544 Mbps
b. 2048 Mbps
c. 1.644 Mbps
d. 9600 Mbps
ans: a
-
Non-ISDN equivalent can be connected to ISDN line by the use of _____.
a. terminal equipment
b. terminal adapters
c. modem
d. network adaptors
ans: b
-
What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?
a. 312 to 552 kHz
b. 60 to 2540 kHz
c. 60 to 108 kHz
d. 300 to 600 kHz
ans: a
-
What is the transmission signal coding for T1 carrier?
a. binary
b. NRZ
c. bipolar
d. Manchester
ans: c
-
The primary purpose of the data modem.
a. interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel
b. interface digital terminal equipment to digital communications channel
c. interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel
d. interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel
ans: d
-
The line control unit (LCU) that operates on the data in digital form.
a. data terminal equipment (DTE)
b. data communications equipment (DCE)
c. modem
d. UART
ans: a
-
SYN character of EBCDIC code.
a. 32 H
b. 8 H
c. 16 H
d. 4 H
ans: a
-
_____ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on the prescribed time s
lot for the occurrence of a bit.
a. bit or clock synchronization
b. modem or carrier synchronization
c. character synchronization
d. message synchronization
ans: a
-
Equation used to determine the number of Hamming bits in the Hamming code.
a. 2^n = m + n + 1
b. 2^n >= m + n + 1
c. 2^n > m + n + 1
d. 2^n < m + n + 1
ans: b
-
Data means
a. digital information
b. both digital and analog
c. analog information
d. neither digital or analog
ans: a
-
What determines which network configuration is most appropriate?
a. application layer
b. presentation layer
c. network layer
d. data link layer
ans: c
-
Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at _____.
a. 10 Mbps
b. 20 Mbps
c. 30 Mbps
d. 40 Mbps
ans: a
-
Mechanism used by a station to gain access to local area network.
a. channel multiplexing
b. channel accessing
c. CSMA/CD
d. CSMA/CA
ans: b
-
What multiplexing scheme is used by baseband transmission?
a. TDM
b. space multiplexing
c. FDM
d. statistical multiplexing
ans: a
-
Use of coaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall len
gth of _____.
a. 1500 ft
b. 1500 m
c. 1500 km
d. 1500 kft
ans: b
-
What defines how the stations are interconnected in a network?
a. topology
b. architecture
c. topology or architecture
d. topology and architecture
ans: c
-
_____ is a data communications network designed to provide two-way communicati
ons between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment within a r
elatively small geographic area.
a. private area network
b. local area network
c. wide area network
d. Ethernet
ans: b
-
_____ is the mode of transmission in public data network in which data are tra
nsferred from source to the network then to the destination in an asynchronous d
ata format.
a. synchronous mode
b. start/stop mode
c. packet mode
d. circuit mode
ans: b
-
A seven-bit character represent one of _____ possibilities.
a. 7
b. 14
c. 64
d. 128
ans: d
-
_____ is defined to be the maximum rate at which information can be transmitte
d through a channel.
a. bit rate
b. baud rate
c. coding
d. channel capacity
ans: d
-
Circuit that performs the inverse mapping and delivers to the user destination
, a reproduction of the original data source output.
a. source coding
b. channel coding
c. inverse coding
d. demodulation
ans: a
-
Digital modulation technique used in modems.
a. ASK
b. FSK
c. PSK
d. MSK
ans: c
-
Who developed the fixed-length binary code for telegraphy?
a. Samuel Morse
b. Emile Baudot
c. Alexander Graham Bell
d. Guglielmo Marconi
ans: b
-
Inventor of pulse-code modulation for the digital encoding of speech signals.
a. R.V.L. Hartley
b. J.R. Carson
c. H. Nyquist
d. Alex Reeves
ans: d
-
In what year did computers and terminals start communicating with each other o
ver long distance?
a. 1950's
b. 1960's
c. 1970's
d. 1980's
ans: a
-
Store-and-forward multiple-access network.
a. ARPANET
b. ALOHA
c. PRNET
d. Packet switching
ans: c
-
A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set b
y the entropy of a discrete memoryless source.
a. prefix code
b. source code
c. entropy code
d. Huffman code
ans: d
-
Who promulgates communications-related military standards (MIL-STD)?
a. DOD
b. DCA
c. DOC-STD
d. ANSI-MIL
ans: b
-
What is the class of probability in error detection techniques that is known a
s residual error rate?
a. P1
b. P2
c. P3
d. P4
ans: b
-
RS 232 is normally an interface between DTE and DCE. What is its signal rate?
a. 20 kbps
b. 30 kbps
c. 40 kbps
d. 50 kbps
ans: a
-
Digital switching concepts that can handle more channels.
a. SDS
b. TSI
c. TDM
d. TMS
ans: d
-
What is the most significant advantage of modular switch than time-and-space s
witch?
a. flexible size
b. simplified control
c. simplified manufacturing, testing, and maintenance
d. the latter is more advantageous than the former
ans: a
-
Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of PCM systems?
a. inability to handle analog systems
b. high error rate as a result of quantizing noise
c. not compatible with TDM
d. the large bandwidth required
ans: d
-
The reason why companding is employed in PCM systems is
a. to solve quantizing noise problem
b. to allow amplitude limiting in the receiver
c. to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
d. to overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers
ans: c
-
The highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate (fs
) without aliasing.
a. folding frequency
b. resonant frequency
c. critical frequency
d. natural frequency
ans: a
-
The overlapping of the original spectrum and the first translated component is
known as
a. dc wandering
b. aliasing
c. droop
d. distortion
ans: b
-
Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.
a. full duplex
b. half duplex
c. simplex
d. echoplex
ans: a
-
Multiplexing in a time division multiplexing occurs based upon
a. the position of data within a frame
b. the position of a frame within a group of frames
c. the activity of connected device
d. the priority assigned to a connected device
ans: a
-
What is multiplexing?
a. the process of increasing bandwidth on a channel
b. a technique that enables more than one data source to share the use of a co
mmon line
c. mailing letter at the post office
d. the ability to share frequency by time
ans: b
-
One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM.
a. there is more time than frequency
b. it is difficult to place channels side by side
c. noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used
d. most available frequencies have been used
ans: c
-
In _____ modulation the carrier is periodic train of pulses.
a. amplitude
b. analog
c. digital
d. pulse
ans: d
-
The process that uses the orthogonality of sines and cosines that makes it pos
sible to transmit and receive two different signals simultaneously on the same c
arrier frequency is
a. TDM
b. FDM
c. quadrature multiplexing
d. duplexing
ans: c
-
Which of the following pulse modulation technique is a digital transmission sy
stem?
a. pulse duration modulation
b. pulse position modulation
c. pulse width modulation
d. pulse code modulation
ans: d
-
Information theory was developed by _____.
a. Shannon
b. Nyquist
c. Reeves
d. Hartley
ans: a
-
Disadvantage of digital transmission.
a. more bandwidth and precise timing are required
b. requires ADC and DAC device
c. incompatible with existing analog facilities
d. all of these
ans: d
-
A quadratic signaling has _____ possible states.
a. 16
b. 4
c. 8
d. 32
ans: b
-
What is the smallest unit of information in binary transmission system?
a. byte
b. digit
c. bit
d. nibble
ans: c
-
The lowest layer in the ISO protocol hierarchy.
a. network layer
b. physical layer
c. transport layer
d. data link layer
ans: b
-
Basic speed rate of digital system.
a. 1.44 kbps
b. 144 kbps
c. 64 kbps
d. 2,048 kbps
ans: c
-
A formal set of conventions governing the formatting and relative timing of me
ssage exchange between two communications system.
a. simplex
b. tail circuit
c. queuing
d. protocol
ans: d
-
A device that connects 2 data terminal equipment (DTE) directly by emulating t
he physical connections of data communications equipment (DCE).
a. short haul modem
b. null modem
c. X.25 modem
d. smart modem
ans: b
-
Impact printer
a. receives-only-printer with a keyboard
b. includes ink-jet and terminal devices
c. rapidly becoming obsolete
d. strikes a ribbon against the paper to produce character image
ans: d
-
Modem is referred to as
a. universal asynchronous receiver transmitter
b. universal synchronous receiver transmitter
c. data terminal equipment
d. data communications equipment
ans: d
-
A signaling method relating to a multiplicity of circuits is conveyed over a s
ingle channel by labeled messages.
a. code signaling
b. synchronous
c. common channel signaling
d. asynchronous
ans: c
-
A data highway in LAN, this type of topology allows workstations to be connect
ed to a common line where all messages pass stations on the way to their destina
tion.
a. CSMA/CD
b. bus
c. ring
d. star
ans: c
-
A packet format has an error detecting code at
a. the start of the packet framing sequence
b. the destination address
c. the packet number
d. the end of packet framing
ans: d
-
It is a protocol used to connect the other packet switching network.
a. X.75
b. X.25
c. X.50
d. X.10
ans: a
-
_____ is a network operating system within several buildings in compound.
a. internet
b. Novell Netware
c. 10BASE-T
d. intranet
ans: b
-
Used by Bell 103/113 series for full duplex, 2 transmission speeds of 0 to 300
bps.
a. FSK
b. PSK
c. BPSK
d. ASK
ans: a
-
What is the Nyquist sample rate for a voice input of 10kHz?
a. 10kHz
b. 20kHz
c. 30kHz
d. 40kHz
ans: b
-
What is the minimum number of bits required in PCM code for a range of 10,000?

a. 12
b. 9
c. 14
d. 8
ans: c
-
How many levels can be represented in PCM transmission system if the binary nu
mbers 00000000 to 11111111 are used to represent signal levels?
a. 256
b. 64
c. 128
d. 512
ans: a
-
Channel capacity is directly proportional to
a. bandwidth
b. noise
c. number of bits
d. power
ans: a
-
Which does not affect noise in a channel?
a. bandwidth
b. temperature
c. quantizing level
d. resistance
ans: c
-
_____ is a character oriented protocol.
a. BOP
b. Bisync
c. ETX
d. BCC
ans: b
-
______ character signifies the start of the test for Bisync
a. ETX
b. STX
c. SOH
d. BCC
ans: b
-
In _____ the clock pulse is used to time the sending and receiving of the char
acters.
a. asynchronous data
b. synchronous data
c. bisynchronous data
d. isochronous data
ans: b
-
All bits in a character are sent and received in _____ in serial port.
a. one at a time
b. simultaneously
c. in groups of 2 bits
d. in groups of 3 bits
ans: a
-
Bridge can only interconnect LANs having identical protocols at the _____ laye
rs.
a. session and presentation
b. network and transport
c. physical and data link
d. presentation and session
ans: c
-
OSI stands for
a. Out-of-band Signaling Interconnect
b. Organization for System Interconnection
c. Open System Interconnection
d. Organization System Interconnection
ans: c
-
ISO stands for
a. International System Organization
b. International Standardization Organization
c. Interconnection for System Organization
d. International Subscribers Organization
ans: b
-
Message switching is ______ network.
a. hold and forward
b. forward
c. hold
d. store and forward
ans: d
-
Packet switching is _____ network.
a. hold and forward
b. forward
c. hold
d. store and forward
ans: a
-
Polling is an invitation of the primary to a secondary equipment to _____ a me
ssage.
a. store
b. receive
c. transmit
d. read
ans: c
-
Bit rate is _____.
a. the rate of change at the output of the modulator.
b. the rate of change at the input of the modulator
c. the reciprocal of the time of one output signaling element
d. the reciprocal of the time of one input signaling element
ans: b
-
A code that uses three unequal length symbols, dot, dash, and space to encode
a character.
a. Gray code
b. Baudot code
c. Morse code
d. Hollerith cable
ans: c
-
A 5-bit character code
a. EBCDIC
b. BAUDOT
c. ASCII
d. HOLERITH
ans: b
-
An 8-bit character code.
a. EBCDIC
b. BAUDOT
c. ASCII
d. HOLERITH
ans: a
-
An equipment that interfaces the data terminal equipment to the analog transmi
ssion line.
a. modem
b. muldem
c. multiplexer
d. codec
ans: a
-
Set of rules governing the orderly exchange of data information.
a. CCIR recommendation
b. protocol
c. CCITT recommendation
d. standard
ans: b
-
A communication network designed for transferring data from one point to anoth
er.
a. Public Telephone Network (PTN)
b. Public Data Network (PDN)
c. Value Added Network (VAN)
d. Packet Switching Network (PSN)
ans: b
-
Radio communications between points using a single share frequency.
a. simplex
b. full duplex
c. half-duplex
d. full/full duplex
ans: c
-
The number of pins in the RS232C interface
a. 20
b. 25
c. 39
d. 30
ans: b
-
A modem is sometimes referred to as _____.
a. Data Terminal Equipment
b. Data Communication Equipment
c. Universal Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
d. Universal synchronous Receiver Transmitter
ans: b
-
Provide post equalization to the received analog signal.
a. line equalizers
b. graphic equalizers
c. adaptive equalizers
d. post equalizers
ans: c
-
The receive equalizer in a synchronous modem is called
a. a compromise equalizer
b. a statistical equalizer
c. an adaptive equalizer
d. an impairment equalizer
ans: c
-
Compromise equalizer settings typically affect
a. amplitude only
b. amplitude delay
c. delay only
d. neither amplitude nor delay
ans: b
-
Training sequence (a bit pattern used to synchronize the receive modem) accomp
lishes one of the following functions.
a. activate RLSD
b. enable any echo suppressors in the circuit
c. initialize the scrambler circuit
d. deactivate RLSD
ans: a
-
When asynchronous data are used with synchronous modems that is called
a. synchronous transmission
b. isochronous transmission
c. asynchronous transmission
d. bisynchronous transmission
ans: b
-
_____ is defined as a figure of merit used to express the degree of modulation
achieved in an FSK modulator.
a. modulation index
b. modulation ratio
c. deviation factor
d. h factor
ans: d
-
What channel in the 103 modem occupies a passband from 300 to 1650 Hz?
a. low-band channel
b. voice band channel
c. high-band channel
d. message channel
ans: a
-
Low speed modems generally have bit rates of
a. 9600 bps
b. 2400 bps
c. 4800 bps
d. up to 2000 bps
ans: b
-
Medium speed modems have bit rates of
a. 9600 bps
b. 2400 bps
c. 4800 bps
d. 2400 - 4800 bps
ans: d
-
High speed modems have bit rates of
a. 9600 bps
b. 2400 bps
c. 4800 bps
d. 2000 bps
ans: a
-
A means of improving the quality of a private-line circuit by adding amplifier
s and equalizers to it.
a. line equalizing
b. line amplifying
c. line conditioning
d. line encoding
ans: c
-
A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband from
a. 0 to 4 Hz
b. 0 to 4 MHz
c. 0 to 4 kHz
d. 0 to 4 GHz
ans: c
-
The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem is called
a. a post equalizer
b. a statistical equalizer
c. an adaptive equalizer
d. a line equalizer
ans: c
-
The minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN is called
a. basic voice grade (VG)
b. basic voice channel (VC)
c. basic voice band (VB)
d. basic telephone channel
ans: b
-
Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is commonly called
a. private-line network
b. PR network
c. dial-up network
d. trunk network
ans: c
-
The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data when it is in digital form an
d is therefore called
a. data terminal equipment (DTE)
b. data communications equipment (DCE)
c. modem
d. UART
ans: a
-
With _____, each character is framed between start and a stop bit.
a. synchronous data
b. isochronous data
c. asynchronous data
d. nonsynchronous data
ans: c
-
With _____, rather than frame each character independently with start and stop
bits, a unique synchronizing character called a SYN character is transmitted at
the beginning of each message.
a. asynchronous data
b. isochronous data
c. synchronous data
d. nonsynchronous data
ans: c
-
A logic _____ is used for the start bit.
a. 0
b. 0 or 1
c. 1
d. 0 and 1
ans: a
-
All stop bits are logic
a. 0
b. 0 or 1
c. 1
d. 0 and 1
ans: c
-
_____ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on a prescribed time slo
t for the occurrence of a bit.
a. bit or clock synchronization
b. modem or carrier synchronization
c. character synchronization
d. message synchronization
ans: a
-
Characters that must be transmitted other than the data are called
a. parity
b. error
c. overhead
d. hamming bits
ans: c
-
In the United States, the most common CRC code is
a. CRC - 16
b. CRC - 8
c. CRC - 7
d. CRC - 32
ans: a
-
The generating power polynomial x^7 + x^5 + x^4 + x^2 + x^1 + x^0 is equivalen
t to
a. 101101110
b. 101101111
c. 010010001
d. 10110111
ans: d
-
Parallel transmission is also called
a. parallel-by-bit
b. serial-by-bit
c. serial-by-character
d. A and C above
ans: d
-
Data means
a. digital information
b. both digital and analog
c. analog information
d. neither digital or analog
ans: a
-
Go-ahead sequence
a. 10111111
b. 00000010
c. 11111110
d. 01111111
ans: d
-
Used to achieve character synchronization in SDLC.
a. address field
b. control field
c. flag field
d. frame check field
ans: c
-
A command that places a secondary station in the normal disconnect mode.
a. RD
b. DM
c. DISC
d. SIM
ans: c
-
Character oriented protocol.
a. asynchronous
b. SDLC
c. ISO HDLC
d. synchronous
ans: a
-
Determines which network configuration is most appropriate.
a. applications
b. network layer
c. data link layer
d. presentation layer
ans: b
-
A standard that combines previous standards 6159 (E) (unbalanced) and 6256 (E)
(balanced) and outlines the class of operation necessary to establish the link-
level protocol
a. ISO 7809
b. ISO 3309
c. ISO 4335
d. ISO 2230
ans: a
-
Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at
a. 10 Mbps
b. 30 Mbps
c. 20 Mbps
d. 40 Mbps
ans: a
-
A type of digital encoding technique used to detect collision in CSMA/CD.
a. UPRZ
b. BPRZ
c. UPNRZ
d. Manchester
ans: d
-
With _____, a station monitors the line to determine if the line is busy.
a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. Token passing
d. FDDI
ans: a
-
Describes the mechanism used by a station to gain access to local area network
.
a. Channel multiplexing
b. CSMA/CD
c. Channel accessing
d. CSMA/CA
ans: c
-
Broadband uses
a. TDM
b. Space multiplexing
c. FDM
d. Statistical multiplexing
ans: c
-
A typical multiplexing scheme used by baseband transmission.
a. TDM
b. Space multiplexing
c. FDM
d. Statistical multiplexing
ans: a
-
_____ uses the connecting medium as a single-channel device.
a. broadband transmission
b. digital transmission
c. baseband transmission
d. analog transmission
ans: c
-
_____ uses the connecting medium as a multi-channel device.
a. broadband transmission
b. digital transmission
c. baseband transmission
d. analog transmission
ans: a
-
The use of coaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall
length of approximately.
a. 1500 ft
b. 1500 km
c. 1500 m
d. 1500 kft
ans: c
-
Identifies how the stations are interconnected in a network.
a. topology
b. topology or architecture
c. architecture
d. topology and architecture
ans: b
-
A data communications network that is designed to provide two-way communicatio
ns between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment within a re
latively small geographic area.
a. Private Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Local Area Network
d. Ethernet
ans: c
-
The type of encoding used in the transmission of data on an ISDN line between
a customer's premises and a carrier's central office.
a. quadrature amplitude
b. 2B1Q encoding
c. Manchester
d. UPRZ
ans: b
-
A mode of transmission in public data network in which data are transferred fr
om source to the network to the destination in an asynchronous data format.
a. synchronous mode
b. packet mode
c. start/stop mode
d. circuit mode
ans: c
-
IEEE 802.3 standard is
a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. token passing
d. FDDI
ans: a
-
IEEE 802.4 standard is
a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. token passing for bus topology
d. token passing for ring topology
ans: c
-
IEEE 802.5 standard is
a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. token passing for bus topology
d. token passing for ring topology
ans: d
-
What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access B channel?
a. 32 kbps
b. 64 kbps
c. 144 kbps
d. 192 kbps
ans: b
-
What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel?
a. 32 kbps
b. 64 kbps
c. 144 kbps
d. 192 kbps
ans: b
-
What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line?
a. 2B + D
b. B + D
c. B + 2D
d. 2B + 2D
ans: a
-
What is the number of channels on which different operations can occur simulta
neously on one ISDN basic access line?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 3
ans: d
-
Digital telephone and integrated voice-data workstations are examples of what
type of ISDN equipment?
a. TE
b. TA
c. NT2
d. TP
ans: a
-
How many OSI layers are covered under the X.25 standard?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 7
d. 2
ans: a
-
An Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer has the responsibility for the phys
ical transportation of the bits of data from one end of a point-to-point link to
the other.
a. data link layer
b. physical layer
c. network layer
d. session layer
ans: b
-
A technique involving signaling by both ends of a link to ensure correct data
transfer.
a. collision
b. burst
c. handshaking
d. stuffing
ans: c
-
XON/XOFF is
a. seldom used
b. always enabled
c. a method of flow control
d. a data compression function
ans: c
-
An example of outband signaling is
a. XON/XOFF
b. RTS
c. RS-232
d. CTS
ans: d
-
A recommendation which allows a synchronous modem to be used to transmit async
hronous characters, without error control.
a. V.14
b. V.13
c. V.22
d. V.23
ans: a
-
The scrambler in a synchronous modem is found in the
a. modular section
b. receiver section
c. transmitter section
d. demodulator section
ans: c
-
A CCITT recommendation which gives the definition for the interchange circuits
between DTE's and DCE's.
a. V.24
b. V.25
c. V.26
d. V.27
ans: a
-
Binary codes are sometimes transformed in modems into
a. octal codes
b. Huffman codes
c. Gray code
d. Hamming codes
ans: c
-
A Western Electric 2911 modem operates with a carrier frequency of
a. 1400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 1800 Hz
d. 800 Hz
ans: c
-
A special bit pattern used to denote the start and end of a data link layer fr
ame.
a. EBCDIC
b. gateway
c. fibre
d. flag
ans: d
-
A bipolar violation
a. represents a zero followed by one bit
b. occurs when two successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated
by a zero level
c. occurs when two successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated
by one level
d. represents as one bit followed by a zero bit
ans: b
-
What is a flow control?
a. refers to opening and closing of flood control gates
b. the process wherby the modem matches the rate of the receiver
c. the process of starting and stopping the terminal output to avoid loss of c
haracters by the receiving device
d. the process of switching "on" and "off".
ans: c
-
Buffering refers to
a. the storage of data within the transmitting modem until the receiver is rea
dy to receive
b. a method of reducing the severity of communications headaches
c. temporarily storing data to allow for small variations in device speeds
d. the process of isolating critical stages in a communications system
ans: c
-
What is the reason why many cables have RS-232 connectors with some wires cros
sed?
a. RS-232 is the prevalent standard
b. asynchronous modems reverse the direction of transmitted and received data
from the standard
c. many computers and peripherals use RS-232 serial interface, but not as DTE
or DCE
d. these connectors are readily available and cheaper
ans: b
-
RS-232, RS-530, RS-449, V.21 and V.24 are examples of
a. standards for end-to-end performance of data communications systems
b. standards for interfaces between modems and transmission facilities
c. standards for various types of transmission channels
d. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems
ans: d
-
Request To Send (RTS) / Clear To Send (CTS)
a. is the way the modem indicates ringing and the way the terminal indicates t
hat it is ready for the call to be answered
b. is the way the DTE indicates that it is ready to transmit data, or the way
the DCE indicates that it is ready to accept data
c. are the pins that represent received transmissions and carrier transmission
s
d. is always activated prior to actual transmission/reception
ans: b
-
Extended command sets supported by modern modems
a. are prefixed with the letter E
b. can be counted on to provide a high-speed data transfer capability without
requiring flow control
c. are standardized
d. use different commands to control many advanced modem features
ans: d
-
Which of the following can be done by a smart modem?
a. detection and correction of transmission errors
b. correct answers in multiple choice quizzes
c. accepts commands from the terminal via the RS-232 interface
d. converts digital signal to analog signal
ans: c
-
_____ always have a set of symbols.
a. communications protocol
b. headers
c. standards
d. codes
ans: a
-
The Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
ans: a
-
Which protocol adjusts its block size based on the line error rate?
a. XMODEM
b. YMODEM
c. ZMODEM
d. BOP
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a common DNA repeater?
a. DESPR
b. DEREP-AA
c. DEREP-RA
d. DEREP-RB
ans: d
-
What is the number of bits that are zeros when transmitting odd-parity coded s
ymbols?
a. odd
b. even
c. unknown
d. four
ans: c
-
Standard for the 7-layer model for Open Systems Interconnection
a. X.75
b. X.200
c. X.400
d. X.500
ans: b
-
One of the following options is a characteristic of a LAN.
a. parallel transmission
b. low cost access for low bandwidth channels
c. application-independent interfaces
d. serial transmission
ans: c
-
Not a common LAN medium.
a. twin lead
b. twisted pair
c. fiber optic cable
d. coax
ans: a
-
Not a local area network (LAN)?
a. PBX system
b. Hospital system
c. Office building system
d. cable TV system
ans: d
-
CCITT standard concentrating on data communications over the telephone network
.
a. V-series
b. X-series
c. I-series
d. T-series
ans: a
-
One of the following items cannot be provided in a broadband LAN.
a. voice circuits
b. fiber optic transmission
c. CCTV
d. frequency agile modems
ans: b
-
A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN./
a. ring
b. WAN
c. UART
d. PBX
ans: d
-
A LAN architecture that can be expanded to the greatest total system bandwidth
.
a. digital PBX
b. token passing network
c. broadband cable system
d. CSMA/CD baseband system
ans: a
-
Which is considered as the fastest LAN topology?
a. ring
b. bus
c. star
d. square
ans: b
-
Data communications refers to the transmission of
a. voice
b. video
c. computer data
d. facsimile signal
ans: c
-
______ is a procedure or rule that defines how data is to be transmitted.
a. standard
b. protocol
c. data specification
d. code
ans: b
-
Which of the following is a popular PC protocol?
a. parity
b. XMODEM
c. CRC
d. LRC
ans: b
-
What is the most widely used data communications code?
a. Gray
b. EBCDIC
c. Baudot
d. ASCII
ans: d
-
The ASCII code has how many bits?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
ans: d
-
What methods are used in data communications?
a. analog methods
b. digital methods
c. both analog and digital methods
d. neither analog nor digital methods
ans: c
-
One of the following is not primarily a type of data communications.
a. teletype
b. telephone
c. telegraph
d. CW
ans: b
-
Mark and space refer respectively to
a. binary 1 and binary 0
b. dot and dash
c. message and interval
d. on and off
ans: a
-
A modem converts
a. analog signals to digital
b. digital signals to analog
c. both of the above
d. none of the above
ans: c
-
An I-series recommendation which describe what an ISDN is.
a. I.112
b. I.210
c. I.120
d. I.130
ans: c
-
Slow speed modems use _____ digital modulation method.
a. BPSK
b. QPSK
c. QAM
d. FSK
ans: d
-
When the data signal is transmitted directly over the medium, this is called _
____ transmission.
a. baseband
b. broadband
c. analog
d. digital
ans: a
-
_____ is the technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data c
hannels of a common medium.
a. baseband
b. broadband
c. ring
d. bus
ans: b
-
The cause of bit errors in data transmission.
a. noise
b. equipment failure
c. Human encoder
d. Poor S/N ratio at the receiver
ans: a
-
What is the other name for parity?
a. BCC
b. LRC
c. VRC
d. CRC
ans: c
-
QAM is the combination of
a. ASK and FSK
b. ASK and QPSK
c. ASK and MSK
d. FSK and PSK
ans: b
-
A CCITT standard that refers to various aspects of Integrated Service Digital
Network (ISDN)
a. I-series
b. V-series
c. X-series
d. D-series
ans: a
-
Which of the following is not part of a QAM modulator?
a. XNOR
b. bit splitter
c. balanced modulator
d. 2-to-4 level converter
ans: a
-
Not a commonly used method of error detection.
a. parity
b. BCC
c. CRC
d. Redundancy
ans: d
-
What is produced by a longitudinal redundancy check (LRC)?
a. parity bit
b. block check character (BCC)
c. CRC
d. Hamming code
ans: b
-
What is the basic modulator/demodulator circuit in PSK?
a. PLLs
b. Balanced modulators
c. Linear summer
d. VCO
ans: b
-
What is the main reason why serial transmission is preferred over parallel tra
nsmission?
a. it is faster
b. it is cheaper
c. it requires multiple channels
d. it requires only a single channel
ans: d
-
Limitation of 10base-2 network.
a. 30 stations per segment
b. 20 bytes per data field
c. 50 feet of cable
d. 40 segments
ans: a
-
A transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation.
a. microwave radio
b. coaxial cable
c. twisted pair
d. optical fiber
ans: d
-
Which of the following refers to the measurement of an uncertainty?
a. probability
b. entropy
c. feasibility
d. all of these
ans: b
-
Not an important characteristic of the physical layer.
a. electrical
b. mechanical
c. logical
d. all of these
ans: c
-
The bit rate of B-channel is _____ kbps.
a. 16
b. 8
c. 64
d. 32
ans: c
-
Defines a 2400-bps, PSK, half-duplex modem operating at 1200 baud.
a. V.26bis
b. V.26terbo
c. V.27
d. V.28
ans: a
-
Which of the following ITU standards describe the interconnection techniques b
etween PDNs and PSTNs?
a. V.100
b. V.200
c. V.300
d. V.400
ans: a
-
Founded the wave theory of light
a. Francesco Grimaldi
b. Edward Appleton
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Christian Huygens
ans: d
-
Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as dielectric waveguide.
a. Karpon and Keck
b. Karpon and Bockham
c. Bockham and Kao
d. Kao and Keck
ans: c
-
Developed the first laser.
a. Charles Townes
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Gordon McKenzie
d. Albert Einstein
ans: b
-
The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye.
a. amber
b. visible
c. infrared
d. ultraviolet
ans: c
-
The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human eye.
a. amber
b. visible
c. infrared
d. ultraviolet
ans: d
-
Which color has the shortest wavelength of light?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green
ans: c
-
What generates a light beam at a specific visible frequency?
a. laser
b. maser
c. infrared
d. flashlight
ans: a
-
Which of the following materials is sensitive to light?
a. photoresist
b. photosensitive
c. light sensitive
d. maser
ans: a
-
The core of an optical fiber has a
a. lower refractive index than air
b. lower refractive index than the cladding
c. higher refractive index than the cladding
d. similar refractive index with the cladding
ans: c
-
Is the different angle of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diamet
er of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted.
a. acceptance angle
b. modes
c. sensors
d. aperture
ans: b
-
The loss in signal power as length travels down a fiber is called
a. dispersion
b. scattering
c. absorption
d. attenuation
ans: d
-
The bandwidth of optical fiber.
a. 900 MHz
b. 900 PHz
c. 900 THz
d. 900 EHz
ans: c
-
If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is _____ as th
e incident angle.
a. smaller
b. larger
c. the same
d. independent
ans: c
-
What is the specific path the light takes in an optical fiber, corresponding t
o a certain angle and number of reflection?
a. mode
b. grade
c. numerical aperture
d. dispersion
ans: a
-
Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source.
a. bandwidth
b. chromatic dispersion
c. spectral width
d. beamwidth
ans: c
-
Which theory states that light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny par
ticles?
a. Huygen's theory
b. Wave theory of light
c. Nyquist theory
d. Quantum theory
ans: d
-
Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near
a. 20 MHz
b. 200 MHz
c. 2 GHz
d. 800 THz
ans: d
-
When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity will not c
hange?
a. direction
b. speed
c. frequency
d. wavelength
ans: c
-
Dispersion is used to describe the
a. splitting of white light into its component colors
b. propagation of light in straight lines
c. bending of a beam when it goes from one medium to another
d. bending of beam light when it strikes a mirror
ans: a
-
Luminance efficiency is minimum for a
a. fluorescent tube
b. high wattage light bulb
c. mercury vapor lamp
d. low wattage light bulb
ans: d
-
An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an
_____ image.
a. inverted
b. the same in size
c. virtual
d. smaller size
ans: a
-
An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an ___
__ image.
a. inverted
b. the same in size
c. smaller
d. virtual
ans: d
-
The real image formed by a spherical mirror is _____ relative to its object.
a. erect
b. inverted
c. smaller
d. larger
ans: d
-
The wavelength of light has no role in
a. diffraction
b. interference
c. polarization
d. reflection
ans: c
-
Longitudinal waves do not exhibit
a. polarization
b. refraction
c. reflection
d. diffraction
ans: a
-
______ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of ligh
t rays that take different paths down a fiber.
a. material dispersion
b. wavelength dispersion
c. modal dispersion
d. delay dispersion
ans: c
-
What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics?
a. 0.09 dB
b. 0.9 dB
c. 0.19 dB
d. 0.009 dB
ans: a
-
What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode fiber o
ptics?
a. 0.51 dB
b. 0.31 dB
c. 0.49 dB
d. 0.38 dB
ans: d
-
What is the lifetime of LEDs?
a. 200,000 minutes
b. 200,000 hours
c. 150,000 minutes
d. 150,000 hours
ans: b
-
What is the lifetime of ILDs?
a. 50,000 hours
b. 75,000 hours
c. 100,000 hours
d. 125,000 hours
ans: a
-
Photodiodes used as fiber optic detectors are
a. unbiased to generate a voltage same as a solar cell
b. forward bias
c. reversed bias
d. thermoelectrically cooled
ans: c
-
What type of fiber has the highest modal dispersion?
a. step-index multimode
b. graded index multimode
c. step-index single mode
d. graded index mode
ans: a
-
Laser light is _____ emission.
a. coherent
b. stimulated
c. spontaneous
d. coherent and stimulated
ans: d
-
A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at light
frequencies.
a. stripline
b. microstrip
c. laser beam
d. fiber optics
ans: d
-
Is a non-coherent light source for optical communications system.
a. ILD
b. LED
c. APD
d. PIN diode
ans: b
-
Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excit
ation?
a. semiconductor
b. ruby
c. helium-neon
d. neodymium-YAG
ans: a
-
Which laser emits light in visible range, 400 to 700 nm?
a. argon-ion
b. nitrogen
c. carbon-dioxide
d. neodymium-YAG
ans: a
-
Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser?
a. energy x time
b. pulse energy x repetition rate
c. pulse energy / repetition rate
d. peak power x pulse length
ans: b
-
What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10^12 Hz?
a. 10.6 x 10^34 joules
b. 6.63 x 10^-34 joules
c. 6.63 x 10^-22 joules
d. 10.6 x 10^22 joules
ans: c
-
A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 2
0 cm away from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens?
a. 5 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 20 cm
ans: d
-
Which of the following does not harm laser efficiency?
a. atmospheric absorption
b. excitation energy not absorbed
c. problems in populating the lower laser level
d. inefficiency in populating the upper laser level
ans: a
-
Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission bandwid
th?
a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules
b. amplification within the laser medium
c. coherence of the laser light
d. optical pumping of the laser transition
ans: a
-
The first laser emitted
a. pulses of 694-nm red light
b. a continuous red beam
c. pulses of white light from a helical flashlamp
d. spontaneous emission
ans: a
-
What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?
a. liquid
b. gas
c. molten
d. hot
ans: c
-
Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter in the Fiber Optical
Communications?
a. APD
b. LSA diode
c. PIN diode
d. LED
ans: d
-
Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics communic
ations?
a. APD
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. LED
ans: a
-
The numerical aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is

a. 0.17
b. 0.26
c. 0.50
d. 0.75
ans: b
-
The inner portion of the fiber cable is called
a. cladding
b. coating
c. inner conductor
d. core
ans: d
-
Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excit
ation?
a. semiconductor
b. ruby
c. helium-neon
d. neodymium-YAG
ans: a
-
The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is
a. 375 x 10^12 Hz
b. 475 x 10^15 Hz
c. 375 x 10^9 Hz
d. 375 x 10^18 Hz
ans: a
-
Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?
a. computer networks
b. long-distance telephone systems
c. closed circuit TV
d. consumer TV
ans: d
-
Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface a
t an angle with what relationship to the crucial angle?
a. less than
b. greater than
c. equal to
d. zero
ans: b
-
The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of
a. refraction
b. reflection
c. dispersion
d. absorption
ans: b
-
Which of the following is not a common type of the fiber-optic cable?
a. single-mode step-index
b. multimode graded-index
c. single-mode graded-index
d. multimode step-index
ans: c
-
Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of
a. loss per foot
b. dB/km
c. intensity per mile
d. voltage drop per inch
ans: b
-
Which cable has the highest attenuation?
a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 95 ft
d. 5500 ft
ans: b
-
The upper pulse rate and information-carrying capacity of a cable is limited b
y
a. pulse shortening
b. attenuation
c. light leakage
d. modal dispersion
ans: d
-
The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of
a. air
b. glass
c. diamond
d. quartz
ans: b
-
The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by
a. wire braid shield
b. Kevlar
c. cladding
d. plastic insulation
ans: c
-
The speed of light in a plastic component to the speed of light in air is
a. slower
b. faster
c. the same
d. either lower or faster
ans: a
-
Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable?
a. immunity from interference
b. no electrical safety problems
c. excellent data security
d. lower cost
ans: b
-
The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwave or any other comm
unications media is
a. lower cost
b. better security
c. wider bandwidth
d. freedom from interference
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum?
a. infrared
b. ultraviolet
c. visible color
d. X-rays
ans: d
-
The wavelength of visible light extends from
a. 0.8 to 1.6 m
b. 400 to 750 nm
c. 200 to 660 nm
d. 700 to 1,200 nm
ans: b
-
The speed of light is
a. 186,000 mi/h
b. 300 mi/h
c. 300,000 m/s
d. 300,000,000 m/s
ans: d
-
Refraction is the
a. bending of light waves
b. reflection of light waves
c. distortion of light waves
d. diffusion of light waves
ans: a
-
The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substa
nce is called the
a. speed factor
b. index of reflection
c. index of refraction
d. dielectric constant
ans: c
-
A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is
a. 0.7 m
b. 1.3 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 1.8 m
ans: b
-
Which type of fiber optic cable is the most widely used?
a. single-mode step-index
b. multimode step-index
c. single-mode graded-index
d. multimode graded-index
ans: a
-
Which type of fiber-optic cable is best for very high speed data?
a. single-mode step-index
b. multimode step-index
c. single-mode graded-index
d. multimode graded-index
ans: a
-
Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?
a. single-mode step-index
b. multimode step-index
c. single-mode graded-index
d. multimode graded-index
ans: a
-
Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?
a. reflection
b. absorption
c. scattering
d. dispersion
ans: a
-
A distance of 8 km is the same as
a. 2.5 mi
b. 5 mi
c. 8 mi
d. 12.9 mi
ans: b
-
A fiber-optic has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a cable 1,000 ft long
is
a. 4.57 dB
b. 9.3 dB
c. 24 dB
d. 49.2 dB
ans: a
-
Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked to
gether. The total loss is
a. 7.5 dB
b. 19.8 dB
c. 29.1 dB
d. 650 dB
ans: c
-
Which light emitter is preferred for high-speed data in a fiber-optic system?
a. incandescent
b. LED
c. neon
d. laser
ans: d
-
Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?
a. visible
b. infrared
c. ultraviolet
d. X-ray
ans: b
-
Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with
a. forward bias
b. reverse bias
c. neither a or b
d. either a or b
ans: a
-
Single-frequency light is called
a. pure
b. intense
c. coherent
d. monochromatic
ans: d
-
Laser light is very bright because it is
a. pure
b. white
c. coherent
d. monochromatic
ans: c
-
Which of the following is NOT a common light detector?
a. PIN photodiode
b. photovoltaic diode
c. photodiode
d. avalanche photodiode
ans: b
-
Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?
a. PIN photodiode
b. photovoltaic diode
c. phototransistor
d. avalanche photodiode
ans: d
-
Photodiodes operate properly with
a. forward bias
b. reverse bias
c. neither A or B
d. either A or B
ans: b
-
The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km
/s. What is the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s
b. 200 Mbits/s
c. 400 Mbits/s
d. 1000 Mbits/s
ans: c
-
Which fiber-optic system is better?
a. 3 repeaters
b. 8 repeaters
c. 11 repeaters
d. 20 repeaters
ans: a
-
An important requirement for successful transmission system using light.
a. powerful, reliable light source
b. strong glass
c. reliable, high cost transmission medium
d. powerful regenerators
ans: a
-
What filter is used to block light from a laser and let other light through?
a. neutral density
b. color
c. interference
d. spatial
ans: c
-
______ is a light that can be coherent.
a. spontaneous emission
b. monochromatic and in-phase
c. narrow beam divergence
d. monochromatic
ans: b
-
Coherence of laser light is important for ______.
a. light propagation
b. getting laser light to pass through air
c. drilling holes
d. holography
ans: d
-
The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is approximately _____
pure.
a. 99.9 %
b. 99.99 %
c. 99.999 %
d. 99.9999 %
ans: d
-
In fiber optics, PCS stands for
a. plastic-clad-silica
b. polyethylene-clad-silica
c. personal carrier system
d. personal communication system
ans: a
-
How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser's gain bandwidth?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. no fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing
ans: d
-
_____ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the
glass core molecules.
a. Ion resonance absorption
b. Ultraviolet absorption
c. Infrared absorption
d. Absorption loss
ans: c
-
In fiber optics, SCS stands for
a. suppressed-clad-silicon
b. silicon base-class-silica
c. silica-clad-silica
d. serial-clad-silicon
ans: c
-
Helium laser was developed by A. Javen at Bell Labs in
a. 1960
b. 1962
c. 1963
d. 1964
ans: a
-
What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length that ca
n be achieved for a given wavelength?
a. transit time
b. spectral response
c. dark current
d. responsitivity
ans: b
-
Dark current in light detectors is caused by
a. thermally generated carriers in the diode
b. the absence of light input
c. small leakage current
d. its imperfection
ans: a
-
What is the unit of responsitivity?
a. ampere/volt
b. ampere/watt
c. watt/ampere
d. volt/ampere
ans: b
-
One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors?
a. responsitivity
b. spectral response
c. transit time
d. dispersion
ans: d
-
What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown LEDs?
a. 840 nm
b. 490 nm
c. 480 nm
d. 940 nm
ans: d
-
SONET stands for
a. System Optical Network
b. Synchronous Optical Network
c. Silica Optical Network
d. System Optical Fiber Net
ans: b
-
Bend loss is
a. a reduction in transmitter power caused by earth's surface curvature
b. a reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends
c. an attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the fibe
r
d. all of these
ans: c
-
Infrared range for fiber optics.
a. 400 - 700 nm
b. 700 - 1,200 nm
c. 300 - 2,000 nm
d. 400 - 7,000 nm
ans: b
-
Which of the following is a disadvantage for plastic fiber optics?
a. noise immunity
b. electric hazards
c. higher losses
d. all of these
ans: c
-
OTDR stands for
a. Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
b. Optical Transit Direction Return
c. Optical Time Domain Regeneration
d. Overtime Direct Reference
ans: a
-
Which of the following is determined by an OTDR?
a. distance to trouble
b. length of fiber
c. refractive index
d. all of these
ans: d
-
Under normal condition, a single fiber should not be used for a two-way commun
ication mainly because of
a. loss
b. fading
c. noise
d. attenuation
ans: c
-
A single mode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.2
d. 0.05
ans: b
-
A step-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.02
b. 0.2
c. 2
d. 0.002
ans: a
-
The graded-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.5
b. 0.05
c. 0.005
d. 5
ans: b
-
Which is not a possible cause of optical fiber loss?
a. impurities
b. glass attenuation
c. stepped index operation
d. microbending
ans: c
-
The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the mate
rial used.
a. S/N ratio
b. refractive index
c. intermodal dispersion
d. monomode ratio
ans: b
-
Splicing fibers means
a. fusion
b. butt
c. glue
d. both fusion and butt
ans: d
-
An IC that represents a short distance one-way optical communications system.
a. optoisolator
b. insulator
c. multivibrator
d. optical IC
ans: a
-
When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, it produces a loss of
a. 14 %
b. 4 %
c. 10 %
d. 1 %
ans: b
-
When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced can
be reduced by
a. splicing
b. antireflection coating
c. insulation jacket
d. all of these
ans: b
-
In fiber optics, higher-order mode refers to
a. cladding boundary at high angle
b. backscaterring electromagnetic materials
c. defracting signals
d. all of these
ans: a
-
The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except:
a. backscattering
b. absorption
c. refraction
d. microbends
ans: c
-
Why are visible-light LEDs not used for fiber optics?
a. it has high losses
b. it has short wave
c. it has low attenuation
d. it has weak signal
ans: a
-
Optical cable testers are used for
a. checking refractive index
b. light power out of a fiber
c. non-calibrated light into a fiber
d. checking maximum distance covered
ans: b
-
A function of an optic isolator.
a. cancels reflected waves
b. amplifies signal transmitted
c. filters unnecessary signals
d. all of these
ans: a
-
An increase in light intensity produces fast optic switching due to
a. increase in index of glass
b. amplification of optical signal
c. high gain
d. photoconductivity
ans: b
-
Light traveling in an optical fiber allows which of the following principles.
a. Huygen's principle
b. reflection theory
c. light theory
d. Snell's law
ans: d
-
Optical fibers for telecommunications are typically about _____ mils thick and
consist of a glass core, a glass cladding of lower index of refraction, and a p
rotective coating.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
ans: a
-
Material dispersion is caused by the
a. wavelength dependence of the index of refraction
b. wavelength independence of the index of refraction
c. dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number
d. independence of the propagation constant on the mode number
ans: a
-
Modal dispersion is caused by the
a. dependence of wavelength on index of refraction
b. dependence of propagation constant on index of refraction
c. dependence of the propagation constant on the wavelength
d. dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number
ans: d
-
The dominant loss mechanism in silica fiber are
a. absorption and radiation losses
b. absorption and Rayleigh scattering
c. coupling and radiation losses
d. radiation and modal dispersion
ans: b
-
The bandwidth of a fiber is limited by
a. mode
b. wavelength
c. dispersion
d. frequency
ans: c
-
Fiber bandwidth is generally specified as the
a. product of the bandwidth and distance
b. sum of the bandwidth and distance
c. difference of bandwidth and distance
d. quotient of bandwidth and distance
ans: a
-
The _____ of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce a pho
toelectron or electron-hole pair.
a. responsitivity
b. photon efficiency
c. aperture
d. quantum efficiency
ans: d
-
In solid-state optical detectors, the excited charge is transported in the sol
id by
a. holes and protons
b. holes and electrons
c. anion and cation
d. protons and photons
ans: b
-
One of the following is not a solid-state optical detector.
a. APD
b. PIN
c. PMT
d. phototransistors
ans: c
-
Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to _____ rather
than amplitude.
a. intensity
b. light
c. density
d. photon
ans: a
-
The _____ is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second times the ele
ctron charge.
a. intensity
b. optical power
c. photocurrent
d. responsitivity
ans: c
-
Which optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are require
d?
a. PMT
b. APD
c. PIN
d. phototransistor
ans: a
-
What is the average loss in fiber splice?
a. 0.10 dB
b. 0.15 dB
c. 0.20 dB
d. 0.25 dB
ans: b
-
Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave spectrum?

a. red
b. white
c. orange
d. yellow
ans: b
-
What is the frequency limit of an optical fiber?
a. 20 GHz
b. 30 GHz
c. 40 GHz
d. 50 GHz
ans: c
-
The mechanical splice attenuation loss is _____ dB or less.
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.001
d. 1
ans: a
-
_____ is applied to protect core and cladding of the fiber.
a. insulation
b. fiber insulation
c. silica
d. polymer jacket
ans: d
-
The energy of the photon is
a. directly proportional to its bandwidth
b. directly proportional to the Planck's constant
c. directly proportional to Boltzmann's constant
d. inversely proportional to the Planck's constant
ans: b
-
Refractive index of glass
a. 1.0
b. 1.2
c. 1.4
d. 1.5
ans: d
-
Refractive index of diamond.
a. 1.0
b. 1.4
c. 1.8
d. 2.0
ans: d
-
What is the unit of light wavelength?
a. micrometer
b. angstroms
c. mils
d. fathom
ans: b
-
How much is the power loss of the fusion splice?
a. 0.1 dB or less
b. 0.01 dB or less
c. 1 dB or less
d. 10 dB or less
ans: b
-
Used to test a fiber optics splice.
a. spectrum analyzer
b. oscilloscope
c. optical power meter
d. field strength meter
ans: c
-
A coupler which consists of a series of lenses and a partly reflective surface
.
a. beam-splitting coupler
b. reflective star coupler
c. fused coupler
d. none of these
ans: a
-
Reflections in many directions.
a. diffuse reflection
b. diffraction
c. scattering
d. dispersion
ans: a
-
Commonly used electro-optic crystal for polarization modulation.
a. lithium niobate
b. tourmaline
c. sodium chlorate
d. sphalerite
ans: a
-
Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical systems?
a. phase and frequency modulations
b. polarization modulation and phase modulation
c. intensity modulation and phase modulation
d. intensity modulation and polarization modulation
ans: d
-
Is the progressive decrease of signal strength with increasing distance.
a. radiation
b. attenuation
c. modulation
d. propagation
ans: b
-
Calculate the effective earth's radius if the surface refractivity is 301.
a. 8493 km
b. 8493 mmi
c. 6370 km
d. 6370 mi
ans: a
-
If K-factor is greater than 1, the array beam is bent
a. away from the earth
b. towards the ionosphere
c. towards the earth
d. towards the outer space
ans: c
-
The antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space
diversity system can be calculated from: (Where R = effective earth radius (m) a
nd L = path length (m))
a. S = (2xlambdaxR)/L
b. S = (3xlambdaxR)/L
c. S = (lambdaxR)/(3xL)
d. S = (lambda x R)/L
ans: b
-
Rainfall is important factor for fading of radio waves at frequencies above
a. 10 GHz
b. 100 GHz
c. 1 GHz
d. 100 MHz
ans: a
-
Theoretically electromagnetic radiation field strength varies in inverse propo
rtion to the square of the distance, but when atmospheric attenuation effects an
d the absorption of the terrain into account the attenuation can be as high as t
he inverse _____
a. third
b. fourth
c. fifth
d. sixth
ans: d
-
What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of
carrier?
a. Rayleigh fading
b. Rician fading
c. Wavelength fading
d. Slow fading
ans: d
-
Which of the reception problems below is not due to multipath?
a. delayed spreading
b. Rayleigh fading
c. Random Doppler Shift
d. Slow fading
ans: d
-
Which causes multipath or frequency-selective fading?
a. small reflector
b. nearer reflector
c. further reflector
d. large reflector
ans: d
-
In microwave transmission using digital radio, what causes most intersymbol in
terference?
a. delayed spreading
b. Rayleigh fading
c. Random Doppler Shift
d. Slow fading
ans: a
-
A shipboard equipment which measures the distance between the ship's bottom an
d the ocean floor.
a. fathometer
b. echosounder
c. LORAN
d. SONAR
ans: d
-
The cavity resonator
a. is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit
b. in a reflex klystron has its output taken from the reflector plate
c. produces a frequency which is independent of the cavity size
d. has a low Q factor for narrow operation
ans: a
-
At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube?
a. at the cathode end of the helix
b. at the collector
c. at the collector end of the helix
d. at the control grid of the electron gun
ans: a
-
Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be accompanied by a
a. waveguide match
b. cavity match
c. direct-helix match
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
A high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts can be generated by a
a. traveling-wave tube
b. magnetron
c. reflex klystron
d. Gunn diode
ans: b
-
A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of
a. the absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream
b. the effect of an external magnetic field
c. the energy contained in the cavity resonators
d. the energy liberated from the collector
ans: a
-
What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a traveling-w
ave tube?
a. to accelerate the electron
b. to velocity modulate the electron beam
c. to keep the electrons from spreading out
d. to slow down the signal on the helix
ans: c
-
Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band?
a. Thyratron tube
b. Tunnel diode
c. Klystron tube
d. Both B and C
ans: d
-
Microwave frequencies are normally regarded as those in the range of
a. 1 to 500 MHz
b. 1,000 to 10,000 GHz
c. 1 to 100 GHz
d. 10 to 1,000 GHz
ans: c
-
The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate
is not limited by the
a. electron transit time
b. distributed lead inductance
c. inter-electrode capacitance
d. degree of emission from the cathode
ans: d
-
As the electron beam moves through a klystron's interactivity drift space
a. frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
b. velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the o
utput cavity
c. density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the o
utput cavity
d. phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the out
put cavity
ans: b
-
The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determine
d by
a. the flux density of the external magnet
b. the ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density
c. the number of the cavity resonators
d. the dimension of each cavity resonator
ans: d
-
If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are
of opposite polarity, the operation is in the
a. pi mode
b. pi/2 mode
c. 2pi mode
d. pi/4 mode
ans: a
-
The Gunn diode oscillator
a. is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of kilowat
ts
b. generates frequencies which are below 100MHz
c. operates over a positive resistance characteristic
d. depends on the formation of charge domain
ans: d
-
What ferrite device can be used instead of duplexer to isolate a microwave tra
nsmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
a. isolator
b. magnetron
c. simplex
d. circulator
ans: d
-
To achieve good bearing resolution when using a pulsed-radar set, an important
requirement is
a. a narrow, antenna-beam width in the vertical plane
b. a narrow, antenna-beam width in the horizontal plane
c. a low repetition rate
d. a high duty cycle
ans: b
-
When used in conjunction with a radar set, the purpose of an echo box is to pr
ovide an artificial target,
a. which may be used to tune the receiver synchronizer
b. which may be used to tune the radar receiver
c. to the tone of the pulse repetition
d. tune the magnetron to the correct frequency
ans: b
-
In a radar-set receiver, the usual mixer stage is
a. an FET
b. a tunnel diode
c. a silicon crystal
d. a Rochelle salts crystal
ans: c
-
Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of
a. 300 to 3,000 MHz
b. 3,000 to 30,000 MHz
c. 30 to 30,000 MHz
d. 100 to 10,000 MHz
ans: b
-
Oscillations of a klystron tube are maintained
a. by bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids
b. by plate-to-cathode feedback
c. by feedback in the accelerating grid and the repeller
d. by circulating bunches of electrons within the cavities
ans: a
-
What allows microwave to pass in only one direction?
a. RF emitter
b. capacitor
c. Varactor-triac
d. Ferrite emitter
ans: d
-
In an SHF pulsed radar set, a reflex klystron can be used as a
a. single mixer stage
b. local oscillator
c. transmitter oscillator
d. duplexer stage
ans: b
-
A Class-S Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)
a. must be capable of floating or being secure to a survival
b. must have its battery replaced after emergency use
c. may be tested during the first five minutes of any hour
d. all of these
ans: d
-
A PPI cathode-ray tube as used on a radar set
a. is used to check the percentage of modulation
b. indicates both the range and azimuth of a target
c. indicates only the range of a target
d. is used for receiver alignment
ans: b
-
The resonant frequency of a cavity resonator depends upon
a. the mode of operation
b. the electrical dimensions
c. its physical dimensions
d. the capacitors which tunes it
ans: c
-
The maximum usable range of the usual radar set (on any particular range setti
ng) is determined by
a. the width of the transmitted pulse
b. the interval between transmitted pulses
c. the bandwidth of the receiver IF stages
d. the duty cycle
ans: b
-
A reflex klystron is oscillating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. If t
he reflector voltage is made slightly less negative, the
a. oscillation will cease
b. output power would increase
c. the frequency will decrease
d. bunching would occur earlier in time
ans: c
-
The coarse frequency adjustment of a reflex klystron is accomplished by
a. the AFC system
b. adjusting the flexible wall of the resonant cavity
c. an adjustment in the synchronizer
d. varying the repeller voltage
ans: b
-
In a pulsed radar set, the STC circuit is used to
a. improve the target bearing resolution
b. increases receiver sensitivity for echoes from targets
c. very the pulse frequency in order to control the maximum target
d. reduce interference from the effects of sea return
ans: d
-
In a pulse radar set, the function of the duplexer is to
a. aid in calibrating the display unit
b. prevent frequency drift in the klystron
c. allow the transmitter and the receiver to operate from a common antenna
d. all of the above
ans: c
-
A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle of 0.001. It has a peak power output o
f 100 kilowatts. Its average power is
a. 10,000 watts
b. 100 watts
c. 1,000 watts
d. 1,000,000 watts
ans: b
-
The aquadag coating on the inside of a PPI tube is used
a. to focus the beam of primary electrons
b. to shield the electron beam from unidirectional magnetic
c. as a second anode and to prevent the build-up of a secondary field
d. all of these
ans: c
-
If the duration of the radar transmitted pulse, on a particular range of opera
tion, is increased, the required bandwidth of the receiver's IF amplifiers
a. must remain as before
b. must be increased
c. must be decreased
d. must be doubled
ans: c
-
The main frequency determining element of a klystron is
a. the repeller voltage
b. the accelerating voltage
c. its resonant cavity
d. its mode of operation
ans: c
-
A thin layer of dirt and grime covers the reflecting surface of the parabolic
dish of a radar set. The practical effect on the performance of the radar will b
e
a. a decrease in range
b. a reduction in horizontal resolution
c. no noticeable effect
d. a decrease in gain
ans: c
-
Which of the following permits a microwave signal to travel in one direction w
ith virtually no loss, but severely attenuates any signal attempting to travel i
n the reverse direction?
a. isolator
b. wave trap
c. tunnel diode
d. circulator
ans: a
-
It is possible to increase the maximum range of a radar equipment by
a. lowering the pulse frequency
b. raising the peak power of the transmitter
c. narrowing the beam width and increasing the pulse direction
d. all of these
ans: d
-
When it is desired that short-range targets can be clearly seen on a pulsed-ra
dar set, it is important that the receiver and display system have
a. a long time constant
b. low-pass filters
c. the shortest possible time
d. the restricted high-frequency response
ans: c
-
Which of the following is used as a high-power microwave oscillator?
a. thyratron
b. magnetron
c. klystron
d. reflex-klystron
ans: b
-
Which of the following operating frequencies is used for the modern loran navi
gational system?
a. loran C:100 kHz
b. loran :10.2 kHz
c. loran A:1950 kHz
d. loran B:900 kHz
ans: a
-
What ferrite device can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a microwave t
ransmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
a. isolator
b. magnetron
c. simplex
d. circulator
ans: d
-
The pulse frequency is equal to
a. duty cycle/pulse width
b. the reciprocal of the pulse repetition rate
c. pulse width x peak power / average power
d. all of these
ans: a
-
In a radar set, a blocking oscillator can be used to
a. act as the local oscillator converter stage
b. provide the sweep voltage for the PPI tube
c. produce a trigger pulse for the transmitter
d. as a single local oscillator converter stage
ans: c
-
The intensity of the echoes (target definition) on a PPI display is determined
by the
a. radio frequency
b. pulse frequency and antenna rotation rate
c. duty cycle
d. average power
ans: b
-
A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter and receiver to operate from the same
antenna with virtually no interaction. This circuit may be replaced by a (an)
a. lossy waveguide
b. circulator
c. isolator
d. gyrator
ans: b
-
Which of the following frequencies are used by a class-C Emergency Position-In
dicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)?
a. 156.65 MHz
b. 121.5 MHz
c. 156.76 MHz and 156.8 MHz
d. all of these
ans: c
-
The repetition rate of a pulsed radar system indicates the
a. frequency of the range-marker oscillator
b. reciprocal of the duty cycle
c. number of target echoes received in one second
d. frequencies of the duty cycle
ans: d
-
The radar set, sensitivity-time control circuit
a. controls the width of the magnetron pulse
b. is used to increase sea return
c. can reduce sea-return response
d. discriminates between targets that are very close together
ans: c
-
Which of the following is the ferrite device that buffers a microwave source f
rom the effects of a varying load, and thereby prevents the formation of standin
g waves?
a. circulator
b. duplexer
c. isolator
d. diplexer
ans: c
-
Pulsed radar sets are primarily used to find the
a. target's range and bearing
b. size and speed of a target
c. speed and course of a target
d. target's range and speed
ans: a
-
Which of the following factors is mainly concerned in the design of an antenna
system for pulsed radar set?
a. duty cycle
b. radio frequency
c. pulse frequency
d. pulse length
ans: b
-
In a radar set receiver, an ac AFC system may be used to
a. automatically maintain the correct magnetron frequency
b. keep the IF stages on frequency
c. maintain the desired klystron frequency
d. provide automatic control of receiver gain
ans: c
-
The input signal is introduced into the traveling-wave tube at the
a. cathode
b. anode
c. cathode end of the helix
d. collector end of the helix
ans: c
-
The display on the PPI scope of a radar set will have greater stability under
the following conditions
a. higher antenna rotation speeds
b. lower pulse repetition rate
c. lower antenna rotation speeds
d. both lower antenna rotation speeds and higher pulse repetition
ans: d
-
The operating frequency of loran C lies within the
a. LF band
b. VLF band
c. MF band
d. HF band
ans: a
-
The PPI tubes have an aquadag coating on the inside of the tube. The purpose o
f this coating is
a. to act as the second anode
b. to shield the tube magnetically
c. to decelerate the electron beam
d. to deflect the electron beam
ans: a
-
A traveling-wave tube is used at frequencies in the order of
a. 30 MHz
b. 300 MHz
c. 8,000 MHz
d. 100 MHz
ans: c
-
The main benefit of using microwaves is
a. lower-cost equipment
b. simpler equipment
c. greater transmission distances
d. more spectrum for signals
ans: d
-
Radio communications are regulated in the Philippines by the
a. DOTC
b. KBP
c. NTC
d. Department of Defense
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwaves?
a. higher-cost equipment
b. line-of-sight transmission
c. conventional components are not usable
d. circuits are more difficult to analyze
ans: a
-
Which of the following is a microwave frequency?
a. 1.7 MHz
b. 750 MHz
c. 0.98 GHz
d. 22 GHz
ans: d
-
Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
a. radar
b. mobile radio
c. telephone
d. satellite communications
ans: b
-
Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because
of its
a. high loss
b. high cost
c. large size
d. excessive radiation
ans: a
-
Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with
a. coax
b. parallel wires
c. twisted pairs
d. PCBs
ans: d
-
The most common cross section of a waveguide is a
a. square
b. circle
c. triangle
d. rectangle
ans: d
-
A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0.6 in. Its cuto
ff frequency is
a. 2.54 GHz
b. 3.0 GHz
c. 5.9 GHz
d. 11.8 GHz
ans: c
-
A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the following signals w
ill not be passed by the waveguide?
a. 15 GHz
b. 18 GHz
c. 22 GHz
d. 255 GHz
ans: a
-
Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
a. electrons
b. holes
c. electric and magnetic fields
d. air pressure
ans: c
-
When the electric field in waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be
a. vertical polarization
b. horizontal polarization
c. transverse electric
d. transverse magnetic
ans: c
-
The dominant mode in most rectangular waveguides is
a. TE (0,1)
b. TE (1,2)
c. TM (0,1)
d. TM (1,1)
ans: b
-
A magnetic field is introduced in a waveguide by a
a. probe
b. dipole
c. stripline
d. capacitor
ans: a
-
A half-wavelength, close section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resona
nt circuit is known as a(n)
a. half-wave section
b. cavity resonator
c. LCR circuit
d. directional coupler
ans: b
-
Decreasing volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. drop to zero
ans: b
-
_____ is a popular microwave mixer diode.
a. Gunn
b. varactor
c. hot carrier
d. IMPATT
ans: c
-
Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit?
a. amplifier
b. oscillator
c. frequency multiplier
d. mixer
ans: c
-
Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator?
a. IMPATT
b. Gunn
c. varactor
d. Schottky
ans: b
-
Which type of diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias?
a. varactor
b. IMPATT
c. snap-off
d. tunnel
ans: d
-
Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing
a. reflex klystrons
b. TWT's
c. magnetrons
d. varactor diodes
ans: a
-
Which of the following is not a microwave tube?
a. traveling-wave tube
b. cathode-ray tube
c. klystron
d. magnetron
ans: b
-
In a klystron amplifier, the velocity modulation of the electron beam is produ
ced by the
a. collector
b. catcher cavity
c. cathode
d. buncher cavity
ans: d
-
A reflex klystron is used as a(n)
a. amplifier
b. oscillator
c. mixer
d. frequency multiplier
ans: b
-
For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied by a
a. cavity resonator
b. strong electric field
c. permanent magnet
d. high dc voltage
ans: c
-
The operating frequency of klystrons and magnetrons is set by the
a. cavity resonators
b. DC supply voltage
c. input signal frequency
d. number of cavities
ans: a
-
A magnetron is used only as a/an
a. amplifier
b. oscillator
c. mixer
d. frequency multiplier
ans: b
-
A common application for magnetron is in
a. radar
b. satellites
c. two-way radio
d. TV sets
ans: a
-
In a TWT, the electron beam is density-modulated by a
a. permanent magnet
b. modulation transformer
c. helix
d. cavity resonator
ans: c
-
The main advantage of a TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is
a. lower cost
b. smaller size
c. higher power
d. wider bandwidth
ans: d
-
High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers?
a. MESFETs
b. magnetrons
c. klystrons
d. IMPATT diodes
ans: c
-
The most widely used microwave antenna.
a. half-wave dipole
b. parabolic
c. hyperbolic
d. horn
ans: d
-
_____ is a measure of reliability expressed as the average number of hours bet
ween successive failures.
a. MTBF
b. MTTR
c. downtime
d. outage time
ans: a
-
The free space attenuation between two microwave antennas 40 km apart operatin
g at 8 GHz is
a. 146.7 dB
b. 142.55 dB
c. 82.5 dB
d. 86.7 dB
ans: b
-
An active microwave radio repeater that can provide drops and inserts.
a. broadband repeater
b. baseband repeater
c. IF repeater
d. RF repeater
ans: b
-
If the correction factor k equals 4/3 of the earth's curvature, the microwave
beam would have a curvature that is _____ than that of the earth.
a. more
b. less
c. equal
d. not related
ans: a
-
The optimum clearance from an obstacle in a microwave system is accepted as __
___ of the first fresnel zone radius.
a. 0.6
b. 0.5
c. 0.9
d. 1.5
ans: a
-
The microwave beam curves the same as that of the earth when the value of the
correction factor k equals
a. 0
b. 4/3
c. 2/3
d. infinity
ans: d
-
The time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12ms. Th
e distance to the target is how many nautical miles?
a. 4.85 nmi
b. 9.7 nmi
c. 11.12 nmi
d. 18.4 nmi
ans: b
-
The ability of a radar to determine the bearing to a target depends upon the
a. antenna directivity
b. speed of light
c. speed of the target
d. frequency of the signal
ans: a
-
The pulse duration of a radar signal is 699 ns. The PRF is 185 pulses per seco
nd. The duty cycle is
a. 0.216 %
b. 0.130 %
c. 0.013 %
d. 0.407 %
ans: c
-
The Doppler effect allows which characteristics of a target to be measured?
a. distance
b. azimuth
c. altitude
d. speed
ans: d
-
The Doppler effect is a change in what signal characteristics produced by rela
tive motion between the radar set and a target?
a. amplitude
b. phase
c. frequency
d. duty cycle
ans: c
-
The most widely used radar transmitter component is a
a. klystron
b. magnetron
c. TWT
d. power transistor
ans: b
-
Low-power radar transmitters and receivers use which component?
a. GaAs FET
b. Magnetron
c. Gunn diode
d. Klystron
ans: c
-
What component in a duplexer protects the receiver from the higher transmitter
output?
a. waveguide
b. bandpass filter
c. Notch filter
d. spark gap
ans: d
-
Most radar antennas use a
a. dipole
b. broadside array
c. horn and parabolic reflector
d. collinear array
ans: c
-
The most common radar display is the
a. A scan
b. Color CRT
c. LCD
d. PPI
ans: d
-
A radar antenna using multiple dipoles or slot antennas in a matrix with varia
ble phase shifters is called a/an
a. A scan
b. phased array
c. broadside
d. circulator polarized array
ans: b
-
Which of the following is a typical radar operating frequency?
a. 60 MHz
b. 450 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 10 GHz
ans: d
-
A microwave system requires the use of repeaters when
a. the intervening terrain favorable
b. the distances involved are greater
c. the required reliability is met
d. the radio fading is unacceptable
ans: b
-
Are transmission lines which convey electromagnetic waves in highest frequenci
es.
a. twisted pair of telephone lines
b. waveguides
c. power lines
d. coaxial cables
ans: b
-
A microwave band of 10.9 to 36 GHz is considered as
a. C-band
b. X-band
c. Q-band
d. K-band
ans: d
-
A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula.
a. 94.2 + 20log F + 20logD
b. 92.4 + 20log F + 20logD
c. 94.2 + 10log F + 20logD
d. 92.3 + 10log F + 20logD
ans: b
-
A waveguide is also known as
a. low pass filter
b. high pass filter
c. band pass filter
d. band stop filter
ans: b
-
A method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on two differe
nt frequencies over the same path.
a. space diversity
b. frequency diversity
c. polarization diversity
d. wavelength diversity
ans: b
-
A wire used to reduce the skin effect.
a. AWG # i4
b. AWG # 15
c. copper wire
d. Litz wire
ans: d
-
Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more
a. different frequencies
b. antennas operating on two different frequencies
c. antennas operating on the same frequencies
d. identical frequencies
ans: c
-
The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading in microwave system
over the water.
a. space diversity
b. frequency diversity
c. polarization diversity
d. wavelength diversity
ans: b
-
When the value of k increases, the effective result is _____ of the equivalent
curvature.
a. flattening
b. bulging
c. sharp curvature
d. all of these
ans: a
-
A traveling wave tube consists of
a. electron gun, helix and repeller
b. electron gun, helix and collector
c. electron gun, repeller and collector
d. buncher cavity and catcher cavity
ans: b
-
Advantage of periscope antenna in microwave.
a. reduce tower height
b. minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations
c. shorten waveguide length
d. easy to install
ans: c
-
What is the cut-off frequency of a waveguide?
a. the highest frequency the waveguide operates
b. the lowest frequency the waveguide operates
c. the same as the operating frequency
d. the only frequency the waveguide operates
ans: b
-
When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even fresnel
zones at the point of reflection, the RSL is
a. increased
b. decreased
c. constant
d. above the threshold
ans: b
-
What is the wavelength of a wave in a waveguide?
a. greater than in free space
b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength
c. inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d. inversely proportional to the group velocity
ans: a
-
The CCIR hypothetical reference circuit covering a distance of 2,500 km consis
ts of a total of how many hops?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 24
d. 54
ans: d
-
Water causes more attenuation particularly on what frequency?
a. 20 GHz
b. 63 GHz
c. 183 GHz
d. 202 GHz
ans: c
-
At what frequency does oxygen cause excessive attenuation?
a. 60 GHz
b. 50 GHz
c. 40 GHz
d. 30 GHz
ans: a
-
Which of the following is an atmospheric attenuation?
a. attenuation due to water vapor and oxygen
b. attenuation due to mist and fog
c. attenuation due to other gases
d. attenuation due to rain
ans: a
-
A microwave system operating at the 6 GHz band is carrying 600 voice channels.
What is the noise loading power in dBmO?
a. 12.78
b. 26.78
c. 27.78
d. 10.25
ans: a
-
_____ is a microwave link between the down-town and another out of town termin
al.
a. STL
b. uplink
c. downlink
d. terrestrial
ans: d
-
Attenuator used in the traveling wave tube to
a. prevent oscillation
b. increase gain
c. prevent saturation
d. all of these
ans: a
-
Is a method of diversity reception applied to reflective path to reduce fading
.
a. frequency diversity
b. space diversity
c. polarization diversity
d. wavelength diversity
ans: b
-
What is the effective earth's radius used in communications design?
a. 4000 miles
b. k x 4000 miles
c. 8000 miles
d. k x 5280 miles
ans: b
-
IF bandwidth of a radar system is inversely proportional to
a. pulse width
b. pulse interval
c. peak transmit power
d. all of these
ans: a
-
EADI stands for
a. Electronic Air Data Indicator
b. Electronic Altitude and Distance Indicator
c. Electronic Altitude and Director Indicator
d. Electronic Air and Distance Indicator
ans: c
-
Which aircraft navigational system determines the time to station (TTS) or tim
e to go (TTG)?
a. ADF
b. DME
c. Timer
d. ATC
ans: b
-
What frequency does a radio altimeter operate?
a. 33,500 kHz
b. 43,000 kHz
c. 33,500 MHz
d. 43,000 MHz
ans: d
-
What inflight system allow passengers to make telephone calls, send faxes, and
computer data shop and play computer games, etc.
a. Inflight Satellite System
b. Terrestrial Flight Telephone System
c. World Airline Entertainment System
d. Satellite Phone
ans: b
-
ADF stands for
a. Audio Direction Finding
b. Automatic Direction Finder
c. Alternate Direction Finder
d. Automatic Distance Finder
ans:
-
RF carrier of the middle marker is modulated at _____ Hz.
a. 1300
b. 1400
c. 1500
d. 1600
ans: a
-
Which of the following is considered as the major advantage of using a helix t
raveling wave tube?
a. cheaper
b. less noise
c. high power
d. wide bandwidth
ans: d
-
RADAR stands for
a. Radio Distance and Ranging
b. Radio Detection and Ranging
c. Radio Direction and Ranging
d. Radio Distance and Range
ans: b
-
____________ is the maximum sideband suppression value using filter system?
a. 50 dB
b. 60 dB
c. 40 dB
d. 30 dB
ans: a
-
____________ determines the number of sideband components in FM.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Modulation frequency
c. Modulation index
d. Deviation ratio
ans: c
-
One of the following transmits only sideband.
a. H3E
b. R3E
c. A3E
d. B8E
ans: a
-
What produces the sidebands on FM?
a. Signal amplitude
b. Carrier harmonics
c. Baseband frequency
d. Broadband frequency
ans: c
-
Which test instrument displays the carrier and the sidebands amplitude with fr
equency to frequency?
a. Oscilloscope
b. Spectrum analyzer
c. Frequency analyzer
d. Amplitude analyzer
ans: b
-
Mixer is also known as __________.
a. modulator
b. suppressor
c. converter
d. beater
ans: c
-
Which one of the following emission transmit the lower sideband and half of th
e upper sideband.
a. A5C
b. J3E
c. A3J
d. A3H
ans: d
-
An FM receive signal ___________.
a. vary in amplitude with modulation
b. vary in frequency with modulation
c. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband modulation
d. is not immune to noise
ans: b
-
The process of impressing intelligence on the carrier is called
a. modulation
b. detection
c. mixing
d. impression
ans: a
-
_________ is an electronic instrument used to show both the carrier and the si
debands of a modulated signal in the frequency domain.
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Oscilloscope
c. Digital counter
d. Frequency counter
ans: a
-
What part of the carrier is varied by the intelligence during modulation in an
AM system?
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Phase and amplitude
ans: c
-
The difference between the RF carrier and the modulating signal frequencies is
called the
a. USB
b. LSB
c. Sideband
d. Carrier frequency
ans: b
-
What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the oscillator from the load?
a. Oscillator
b. Buffer
c. Separator
d. Mixer
ans: b
-
The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system is
a. modulating frequency
b. center frequency
c. carrier frequency
d. deviation frequency
ans: b
-
The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum modulating frequency is called
a. carrier swing
b. deviation ratio
c. modulation factor
d. modulation index
ans: b
-
A carrier signal has
a. constant amplitude
b. a frequency of 20 kHz and above
c. a varying amplitude
d. the information content
ans: b
-
The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the unmodulated carrier valu
e is 85 V. What is the modulation index?
a. 0.47
b. 0.68
c. 0.32
d. 1.47
ans: d
-
An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio
signal having an amplitude of 45 V.. The modulation factor is
a. 0.56
b. 0.65
c. 1.78
d. 1.25
ans: a
-
What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz
when the modulating signal has frequency of 3 kHz?
a. 25
b. 12.5
c. 0.04
d. 0.08
ans: b
-
In a FM system, if modulation index is doubled by halving the modulating frequ
ency, what will be the effect on the maximum deviation?
a. No effect
b. Maximum deviation doubles
c. Decreases by 1/2
d. Increases by 1/4
ans: a
-
Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM?
a. Reactance modulator
b. Balanced modulator
c. Varactor diode modulator
d. Armstrong system
ans: d
-
To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a circuit known as
a. filter modulator
b. ring modulator
c. balanced modulator
d. reactance modulator
ans: c
-
Which is the first radio receiver?
a. TRF receiver
b. Superheterodyne receiver
c. Crystal radio receiver
d. Heterodyne receiver
ans: c
-
An interfering signal with a frequency equal to the received signal plus twice
the IF is called
a. image frequency
b. center frequency
c. rest frequency
d. interference frequency
ans: a
-
Double sideband full carrier emission type.
a. A3J
b. H3E
c. R3A
d. A3E
ans: d
-
Single sideband reduced carrier emission type.
a. H3E
b. R3E
c. J3E
d. B8E
ans: b
-
A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type.
a. H3E
b. R3E
c. J3E
d. B8E
ans: c
-
Independent sideband emission type.
a. H3E
b. R3E
c. J3E
d. B8E
ans: d
-
Vestigial sideband emission type
a. C3F
b. J3E
c. R3E
d. B8E
ans: a
-
Single sideband full carrier emission type.
a. R3E
b. H3E
c. J3E
d. B8E
ans: b
-
Phase modulation emission type.
a. F3E
b. F3C
c. F3F
d. G3E
ans: d
-
Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM?
a. Power saving
b. Requires half the bandwidth
c. Wider area of reception
d. Better fidelity
ans: d
-
The advantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter is
a. less audio power required
b. better fidelity
c. higher value of operating power
d. less distortion
ans: c
-
The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter is
a. less audio power required
b. better fidelity
c. higher value of operating power
d. less distortion
ans: a
-
_________ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in AM transmission.
a. Increase in noise
b. Deviation in the operating frequency
c. Interference to other radio services
d. Decrease in the output power
ans: c
-
Which characteristic of a radio receiver refers to its ability to reject an un
wanted signal?
a. Sensitivity
b. Selectivity
c. Fidelity
d. Quality
ans: b
-
What type of emission is frequency modulation?
a. F3E
b. G3E
c. A3E
d. B3E
ans: a
-
AM transmission power increases with ________.
a. frequency
b. source
c. load
d. modulation
ans: d
-
________ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal.
a. Hall effect
b. Capture effect
c. Image frequency
d. Homing
ans: b
-
What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM?
a. 50 %
b. 75 %
c. 100 %
d. 80 %
ans: c
-
In FM, the Carson's Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to twice the sum o
f the modulating frequency and _______.
a. carrier signal
b. modulating index
c. frequency deviation
d. image frequency
ans: c
-
What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when modulated by 75 %?
a. 53.2 kHz
b. 48 kHz
c. 56.25 kHz
d. 112.5 kHz
ans: d
-
The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise.
a. Single sideband suppressed carrier
b. Frequency modulation
c. Pulse-position modulation
d. Amplitude shift keying
ans: b
-
Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels occupying adjacent frequenc
y bands with some frequency space between them is known as
a. guard bands
b. AM bands
c. band gap
d. void band
ans: a
-
Modulation of an RF carrier results in
a. multiple channels
b. smaller antennas
c. directional propagation
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
A process which occurs in the transmitter.
a. Mixing
b. Modulation
c. Heterodyning
d. Demodulation
ans: b
-
A process which occurs in the receiver.
a. Beating
b. Modulation
c. Mixing
d. Demodulation
ans: d
-
One part of the transmitter that protects the crystal oscillator from "pulling
".
a. Buffer amplifier
b. Modulator
c. Power amplifier
d. Antenna coupler
ans: a
-
What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation?
a. Frequency
b. Phase
c. Amplitude
d. Depends on the type of modulation
ans: d
-
The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program will
a. be complex
b. contain fundamental frequencies
c. contain harmonic frequencies
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
What will be the result of the gain level being too high for signals entering
the modulator?
a. Receiver noise
b. Excessive volume of receiver output
c. Oscillator disturbance
d. Distortion and splatter
ans: d
-
Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter power to
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. double
ans: a
-
When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power increases by what percentage
over that of the carrier alone?
a. 25 %
b. 50 %
c. 75 %
d. 100 %
ans: b
-
When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is increased for AM, the antenna
current will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain constant
d. decrease exponentially
ans: a
-
An increase in transmitter power from 25 W to 30 W will cause the antenna curr
ent to increase from 700 mA to
a. 800 mA
b. 750 mA
c. 767 mA
d. 840 mA
ans: c
-
A second modulating tone having the same amplitude but a different frequency i
s added to the first at the input to the modulator. The modulation index will be
increased by a factor of
a. square root of 3
b. square root of 2
c. 2
d. 3
ans: b
-
A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500 Hz tone. One frequency component of
the modulated signal is
a. 1200 Hz
b. 5000 Hz
c. 1002.5 kHz
d. 2500 Hz
ans: c
-
A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. W
hich one is a frequency component of the modulated wave?
a. 1195 kHz
b. 1199.3 kHz
c. 1199.7 kHz
d. 1205 kHz
ans: b
-
Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a common-emitter configura
tion.
a. Base modulation
b. Emitter modulation
c. Collector modulation
d. Both A and C
ans: d
-
The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10 MHz and the modulating
frequency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or frequencies, will not appear in the outp
ut?
a. 9.999 MHz
b. 10 MHz
c. 10.0001 MHz
d. both A and B
ans: b
-
Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by one or more of the fo
llowing methods.
a. Phasing method
b. Filter method
c. Decoder method
d. Both A and B
ans: d
-
Envelope detection is concerned with the process of
a. mixing
b. heterodyning
c. modulation
d. rectification
ans: d
-
Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in
a. distortion
b. phase reversal
c. reduced sensitivity
d. amplitude damage
ans: a
-
Product detection requires the process of
a. rectification
b. heterodyning
c. decoding
d. phase shifting
ans: b
-
A sine wave which is coherent with carrier has identical
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. phase angle
d. both B and C
ans: d
-
Frequency modulation and phase modulation are collectively referred to as
a. stereo
b. angle modulation
c. high fidelity modulation
d. FCC modulation
ans: b
-
In FM the change in carrier frequency is proportional to what attribute of the
modulating signal?
a. angle
b. frequency
c. amplitude
d. tone
ans: c
-
A louder sound, when generating the modulating waveform for FM, will cause a g
reater
a. carrier amplitude
b. angle amplitude
c. distortion at the receiver
d. frequency deviation
ans: d
-
If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200 mV will cause a positiv
e frequency deviation of 10 kHz, what will be the frequency deviation for a nega
tive change of 100 mV in the level of the modulating signals?
a. 0
b. -5 kHz
c. +5 kHz
d. +0 kHz
ans: b
-
A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak frequency deviation of 7
5 kHz. What is the modulation index?
a. 5
b. 15
c. 75
d. 3
ans: a
-
A 15 kHz sine wave frequency-modulates an 88 MHz carrier. A sideband frequency
will be found at
a. 87.970 MHz
b. 87.985 MHz
c. 88.015 MHz
d. All of these
ans: d
-
A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be a function of the applie
d voltage.
a. Varactor diode
b. UJT
c. SAW
d. Variable capacitor
ans: a
-
A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining
a. indirect FM
b. direct FM
c. demodulation
d. low frequency filtering
ans: b
-
A device, now available in IC form, is useful for direct FM and as one element
in the phase-locked loop.
a. AFC
b. AGC
c. VCO
d. LPF
ans: c
-
________ is a frequency change process, whereby the phase deviation and freque
ncy deviation are multiplied by some fixed constant.
a. Translation
b. Multiplication
c. Division
d. Addition
ans: b
-
A circuit that has the function of demodulating the frequency-modulated signal
.
a. AFC
b. Envelope detector
c. Decoder
d. Foster-Seeley discriminator
ans: d
-
The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector because
a. it is less sensitive to phase modulation
b. it is less sensitive to noise spikes
c. it is less sensitive to interference causing AM
d. Both B and C
ans: d
-
One implementation of a pulse-averaging discriminator is
a. a free-running multivibrator
b. a crystal-controlled oscillator
c. a quartz crystal filter
d. a triggered multivibrator
ans: d
-
A 10% increase in the frequency of a constant-width pulse train should cause w
hat change in its average value?
a. -10%
b. -1%
c. +1%
d. +10%
ans: d
-
Two different signals can be coherent if they
a. have the same amplitude
b. are both sine waves of different frequencies
c. originate in the same physical equipment simultaneously
d. have the same frequency
ans: d
-
A quadrature detector requires that
a. four gates be provided
b. the inputs are coherent
c. the inputs are incoherent
d. the inputs are identical
ans: b
-
In a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the abbreviation for
a. Variable coherent output
b. VHF communication oscillator
c. Voltage-controlled oscillator
d. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized)
ans: c
-
Identify an advantage , or advantages, of a properly designed FM system.
a. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightning)
b. Reduced bandwidth required
c. No noise of any kind
d. The noise figure is inversely proportional to the modulation index.
ans: a
-
The output of a balanced modulator
a. LSB and USB
b. LSB
c. USB
d. Carrier
ans: a
-
If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted
power is
a. unchanged
b. halved
c. doubled
d. increased by 50%
ans: d
-
Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation?
a. Audio signal
b. Video signal
c. RF carrier
d. Binary coded pulses
ans: c
-
If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in and AM signal, t
he percent modulation is ___________.
a. 20
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200
ans: c
-
Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the equipment suppresses the _____
____.
a. carrier
b. upper sideband
c. lower sideband
d. baseband signal
ans: a
-
The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power sa
ving is _________.
a. 100 %
b. 50 %
c. 83 %
d. 66.66 %
ans: d
-
If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also
doubled, the AM system being used is
a. H3E
b. J3E
c. C3F
d. A3E
ans: b
-
100 % modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by ______
___.
a. 100 %
b. 50 %
c. 75 %
d. 25 %
ans: b
-
A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _________.
a. 2 components
b. 3 components
c. 4 components
d. 2n + 1 components
ans: b
-
A carrier signal has ____________.
a. constant peak amplitude
b. frequency range of 20-20,000 Hz
c. a varying amplitude
d. the information
ans: a
-
The modulating system is ___________ if the modulating frequency is doubled, t
he modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant.
a. amplitude modulation
b. phase modulation
c. frequency modulation
d. pulse modulation
ans: c
-
What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its modulating frequency is do
ubled?
a. No effect
b. Twice the original index
c. Four times the original index
d. One-half the original index
ans: d
-
An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100 % modulation. How much power required
for the carrier?
a. 1000 W
b. 666.6 W
c. 333.3 W
d. 866.6 W
ans: b
-
Standard way of designating AM.
a. A3E
b. B3E
c. AHE
d. C3F
ans: a
-
__________ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated signal.
a. Discriminator
b. Modulator
c. Modem
d. Detector
ans: a
-
__________ is an information signal that is sent directly without modulating a
ny carrier.
a. C-band
b. Q-band
c. Baseband
d. Broadband
ans: c
-
Both frequency and phase modulation utilize __________ modulation.
a. digital
b. phase
c. amplitude
d. angle
ans: d
-
It is the width of frequencies within the spectrum occupied by a signal and us
ed by the signal for conveying information.
a. Band
b. Bandwidth
c. Electronic spectrum
d. Frequency band
ans: b
-
Which transmit only one sideband?
a. H3E
b. C3F
c. A3E
d. B8E
ans: a
-
__________ is a kind of modulation in which the modulated wave is always prese
nt.
a. Carrier modulation
b. Continuous modulation
c. Log-periodic modulation
d. Square-wave modulation
ans: b
-
A type of modulation in which no signal is present between pulses.
a. Pulse modulation
b. FSK
c. QAM
d. PAM
ans: a
-
What describes the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform?
a. Percent modulation
b. Modulation constant
c. Envelope of modulation
d. Coefficient of modulation
ans: d
-
__________ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when the positive and
negative alternations in the AM modulated signals are not equal.
a. Envelope distortion
b. Spurious emission
c. Carrier shift
d. Johnson noise
ans: c
-
What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct FM frequency modulation?

a. Multipliers can be used
b. The deviation is smaller
c. Simplicity and practicality
d. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
ans: d
-
If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, this is known a
s
a. frequency multiplication
b. sideband movement
c. baseband reorientation
d. frequency translation
ans: d
-
A device which is capable of causing frequency translation
a. High-Q tank circuit
b. Balanced modulator
c. Low-Q tank circuit
d. 1F strip
ans: b
-
If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is increased by the sa
me fixed amount, this is known as
a. modulation
b. frequency translation
c. up conversion
d. both B and C
ans: d
-
A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler. If the input sig
nal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the output will be tuned to
a. 7.7 MHz
b. 15.4 MHz
c. 30.8 MHz
d. 61.6 MHz
ans: c
-
A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to achieve a maximum phase deviation
of 0.2 radian. After passing through a frequency tripler, the maximum phase dev
iation will be
a. 0.2 radian
b. 0.3 radian
c. 0.4 radian
d. 0.6 radian
ans: d
-
Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be
a. active
b. passive
c. linear
d. nonlinear
ans: d
-
A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency doubling.
a. Push-push
b. Push-pull
c. Pull-push
d. Pull-pull
ans: a
-
Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a
a. AM demodulator
b. frequency synthesizer
c. AGC circuit
d. FM demodulator
ans: b
-
Frequency division by 12 will require how many flip-flops in the counter?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 12
ans: b
-
Identify an electronic device, not specifically designed for the purpose, whic
h can be used as a phase detector.
a. Wien bridge
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Balanced modulator
d. Butterworth filter
ans: c
-
A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single crystal. What words
describe this synthesizer?
a. Crystal modulated
b. Inexact
c. Indirect
d. Deficient
ans: c
-
A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is
a. Keyed transmitter
b. Power amplification
c. Frequency generation
d. All of these
ans: d
-
The term "pulling" refers to
a. the change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
b. one half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier
c. loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna connection
d. reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the transmitter is keyed.

ans: a
-
When frequency modulation is achieved by initial phase modulation, this is cal
led
a. angular modulation
b. direct FM
c. indirect FM
d. indirect synthesis
ans: c
-
A disadvantage of direct FM is the need for
a. AGC
b. AFC
c. a frequency synthesizer
d. phase modulation
ans: b
-
Direct FM can be achieved by
a. a reactance tube modulator
b. a varactor diode
c. an AGC circuit
d. both A and B
ans: d
-
A receiver in which all RF amplifier stages require manual tuning to the desir
ed RF is called
a. superheterodyne
b. autodyne
c. TRF
d. AFC
ans: c
-
Why is it often necessary to precede the demodulator by amplifier stages in a
receiver?
a. To improve fidelity
b. To reduce receiver noise
c. To eliminate image response
d. To amplify weak antenna signals
ans: d
-
A serious disadvantage of the TRF receiver
a. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range
b. The weight and cost
c. The requirements for a closely regulated power supply
d. The requirements for a half-wave antenna
ans: a
-
Identify which is not a part of a superheterodyne receiver.
a. Local oscillator
b. Modulator
c. IF amplifier
d. Demodulator
ans: b
-
Which major element will not be found in every superheterodyne receiver?
a. R-F amplifier
b. Mixer
c. Local oscillator
d. IF amplifier
ans: a
-
Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver must be nonlinear?
a. R-F amplifier
b. Mixer
c. Local oscillator
d. IF amplifier
ans: b
-
The change of the modulated carrier frequency from the original RF to the I-F
of the superheterodyne receiver is known as
a. frequency multiplication
b. frequency allocation
c. frequency substitution
d. frequency translation
ans: d
-
The key to achieving receiver sensitivity is the reduction of
a. image response
b. mixer harmonic products
c. spurious frequency response
d. internal noise
ans: d
-
Which of the following receiver design objectives is not impossible?
a. Elimination of galactic noise
b. Elimination of atmospheric noise
c. Elimination of man-made noise
d. Reduction of receiver internal noise
ans: d
-
In comparing the S/N ratio for the input to the receiver with the S/N ratio fo
r the output, the latter is
a. smaller
b. the same
c. greater
d. infinite
ans: a
-
The characteristic of a receiver that specifies the self-generated noise.
a. Noise immunity
b. Noise factor
c. Noise figure
d. Noise margin
ans: c
-
An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz is tuned to 98.7 MHz. What is the numer
ical value of the image frequency?
a. 77.3 MHz
b. 88.0 MHz
c. 109.4 MHz
d. 120.1 MHz
ans: d
-
A source of RF interference exists at 109.9 MHz. For which frequency in the FM
broadcast band will this be the image frequency?
a. 21.4 MHz
b. 88.5 MHz
c. 99.2 MHz
d. 110.7 MHz
ans: b
-
The ratio of the superheterodyne receiver response at the desired carrier freq
uency to that at the image frequency is called
a. the sensitivity
b. the selectivity
c. the image frequency
d. the image rejection ratio
ans: d
-
The core of an IF transformer usually contains
a. teflon
b. computer nylon
c. powdered iron
d. laminated steel
ans: c
-
Shape factor is a measure of
a. bandwidth
b. skirt steepness
c. coupling coefficient
d. critical coupling
ans: b
-
__________ is the function which tends to maintain the sound volume level of a
voice receiver nearly constant for a large signal strength range.
a. Squelch
b. Muting
c. AGC
d. AFC
ans: c
-
The function which tends to silence the receiver in the absence of transmitted
carrier
a. Squelch
b. Muting
c. AGC
d. AFC
ans: a
-
What device is incorporated in a communications receiver to reduce impulse noi
se?
a. Front-end processor
b. Squelch circuit
c. AGC
d. Noise blanker
ans: d
-
What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the I-F circ
uitry is optimum?
a. FM voice
b. Double-sideband AM voice
c. FSK data
d. SSB voice
ans: d
-
If the input to a detector stage is an amplitude-modulated (A3E) IF signal the
n the output from the stage is
a. a lower frequency carrier
b. the audio voice information
c. a morse-code signal
d. the upper or lower set of sidebands
ans: b
-
In a capacitive type, reactance-tube modulator connected across in oscillator
tuned circuit, a more negative voltage on the grid of the reactance tube will ca
use
a. an increase of the oscillator frequency
b. a decrease of oscillator frequency
c. an increase of the reactance-tube capacitance
d. an increase of the reactance tube, ac plate current
ans: a
-
The limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver is
a. the noise floor of the receiver
b. the power-supply output ripple
c. the two-tone intermodulation distortion
d. the input impedance to the detector
ans: a
-
When a communications receiver is tuned to a strong signal, the AGC bias is me
asured and found to be zero. The fault cannot be caused by a/an
a. defective IF stage
b. defective local oscillator
c. defective RF stage
d. open circuit in the AGC's filter capacitor
ans: d
-
The term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong s
tation are superimposed on other signals being received.
a. Cross-modulation interference
b. Intermodulation interference
c. Receiver quieting
d. Capture effect
ans: a
-
The limiter stage of an FM receiver.
a. behaves as a low-pass filter
b. limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level
c. behaves as a high-pass filter
d. behaves as a bandstop filter
ans: b
-
Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations) in an amplifier can be stopped by
a. grounding the screen grid
b. connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground
c. by passing the screen grid resistor with a 0.1 uF capacitor
d. grounding the plate
ans: b
-
An effect in which, the modulation of an unwanted signal is transferred to the
desired carrier
a. Crossmodulation
b. intermodulation
c. Modulation mixing
d. Image-channel interference
ans: a
-
Leads should be kept as short as possible in radio circuit so that
a. skin effect is reduced
b. there is less hysteresis effect
c. there is less dielectric loss
d. stray coupling is minimized
ans: d
-
The number of voice transmissions that can be packed into a given frequency ba
nd for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over conventional FM-phone
systems.
a. 2
b. 8
c. 16
d. 4
ans: d
-
Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage can be necessary in order to
a. increase the amplifier's gain
b. prevent the generation of spurious oscillations
c. reduce the amplifier's gain
d. reduce the level of the output harmonics
ans: b
-
The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of st
rong signals outside the band of interest is indicated by what parameter?
a. Blocking dynamic range
b. Noise figure
c. Signal-to-noise ratio
d. Audio output
ans: a
-
Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers.
a. tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF amplifier
b. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier
c. local oscillator, RF amplifier, frequency discriminator, detector
d. tuner, IF amp, detector, AF amp
ans: b
-
Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF
stage of a receiver
a. Filter ringing
b. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
c. Output-offset overshoot
d. Cross-modulation distortion
ans: a
-
What stage mainly determines a communication receiver's sensitivity?
a. IF amplifier
b. Mixer stage
c. Detector stage
d. RF amplifier
ans: a
-
What is the main advantage of FM over AM?
a. Better signal-to-noise ratio
b. Narrower bandwidth
c. Greater propagation range
d. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference
ans: a
-
An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before the final RF stage.
a. Low-level modulation
b. High-level modulation
c. Direct modulation
d. Indirect modulation
ans: a
-
Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by
a. increasing the transmitter audio gain
b. decreasing the receiver squelch gain
c. increasing the receiver bandwidth
d. ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter
ans: d
-
In a narrow-band FM system, the deviation ratio is commonly one and the highes
t audio frequency is generally limited to
a. 300 Hz
b. 10,000 Hz
c. 3,000 Hz
d. 7,500 Hz
ans: c
-
A type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modu
lated by a facsimile signal.
a. A3F
b. F3F
c. A3C
d. F3C
ans: c
-
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal to noise ra
tio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver?
a. In the detector
b. In the atmosphere
c. In the ionosphere
d. In the receiver front end
ans: d
-
Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by
a. installing a filter at the receiver
b. using a filter at the receiver
c. increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF
d. adjusting the pass-band tuning
ans: a
-
What is the emission designation for FM telephony?
a. F3E
b. G3E
c. J3E
d. H3E
ans: a
-
What is the cause of receiver desensitizing?
a. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
b. Audio gain adjusted too low
c. Squelch gain adjusted too high
d. Squelch gain adjusted too low
ans: a
-
In a phase-modulated signal (indirect FM), the frequency deviation is directly
proportional to the
a. carrier amplitude only
b. amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the carrier
c. carrier frequency only
d. modulating signal amplitude only
ans: b
-
An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a superhet receiver. One advantage of
including this RF stage is
a. better selectivity
b. better rejection ratio
c. greater sensitivity
d. improved signal-to-noise ratio
ans: b
-
Two factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver.
a. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
b. Cost and availability
c. Bandwidth and noise figure
d. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
ans: c
-
What is an undesirable effect of using too-wide a filter bandwidth in the IF s
ection of a receiver?
a. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
b. Output-offset overshoot
c. Thermal-noise distortion
d. Filter ringing
ans: a
-
A system containing a limiter stage, a discriminator, and a de-emphasis circui
t?
a. Direct FM transmitter
b. Indirect FM transmitter
c. Single sideband AM receiver
d. FM receiver
ans: d
-
The limiter stage of an FM receiver
a. prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal
b. limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal
c. limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages
d. corrects any deviation in carrier frequency
ans: a
-
High selectivity occurs when the degree of coupling between a receiver's RF st
ages is
a. tight
b. loose
c. critical
d. adjusted for maximum power transfer
ans: b
-
A carrier is phase modulated by a test tone. If the amplitude and the frequenc
y of the tone are both doubled, the amount of the deviation is
a. doubled
b. unchanged
c. halved
d. multiplied by four
ans: d
-
The degree of selectivity desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband r
eceiver.
a. 1 kHz
b. 2.4 kHz
c. 4.2 kHz
d. 4.8 kHz
ans: b
-
The base in an RF amplifier is grounded in order to
a. avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage
b. raise the input impedance
c. lower the output impedance
d. obtain maximum power output
ans: a
-
The AM detector performs two basic functions in the receiver.
a. Rectifies and filters
b. Amplifiers and filters
c. Buffer and amplifier
d. Buffer and detector
ans: a
-
A varactor diode can be used in a/an
a. direct FM modulator circuit
b. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter
c. phase-modulator circuit
d. all of these
ans: d
-
Receiver interference is not reduced by including a/an
a. crystal filter
b. insulating enclosures around the receiver
c. wave trap
d. RF stage
ans: b
-
What is the emission C3F?
a. RTTY
b. SSB
c. Television
d. Modulated CW
ans: c
-
What is the approximate dc input power to a class AB RF power amplifier stage
in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output is 500 W?
a. Approximately 1000 W
b. Approximately 800 W
c. Approximately 250 W
d. Approximately 600 W
ans: a
-
Which of the following stages in an FM receiver is responsible for drastically
reducing the effect of static noise during the reception of a signal?
a. De-emphasis circuit
b. Mixer stage
c. Squelch circuit
d. Limiter stage
ans: d
-
The letters "SSSC" stand for
a. single sideband, single carrier
b. suppressed sideband, single channel
c. suppressed sideband, single carrier
d. single sideband, suppressed carrier
ans: d
-
For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP-to-average power during a m
odulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal?
a. Approximately 1.0 to 1
b. Approximately 25 to 1
c. Approximately 100 to 1
d. Approximately 2.5 to 1
ans: d
-
In most mixers, the oscillator frequency is ______ than the carrier frequency
of he input signal.
a. higher
b. lower
c. the same
d. 10 kHz above
ans: a
-
Features of a transmitter's buffer stage include
a. high gain
b. harmonic generation
c. improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator
d. low input impedance
ans: c
-
Type of emission produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated
by a television signal.
a. F3F
b. A3C
c. F3C
d. A3F
ans: d
-
A pi-network is
a. a network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors
b. a power incidence network
c. an antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
d. a network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors
ans: d
-
How is a G3E FM-phone signals produced?
a. A network consisting modulator on the audio amplifier
b. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
c. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
d. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator
ans: c
-
A way of eliminating auto interference to radio reception
a. Installing resistive spark plugs
b. Installing capacitive spark plugs
c. Installing resistors in series with the spark plugs
d. Installing two copper-braid ground strips
ans: a
-
The carrier in an AM transmitter is the
a. transmitter's output signal when the modulation is zero
b. transmitter's output signal when the modulation is present
c. output signal from the crystal oscillator
d. RMS value of the AM signal
ans: a
-
What stage feeds the discriminator of an FM receiver?
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer stage
c. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a limiter stage
d. Buffer
ans: c
-
In an FM receiver, the stage that has the IF signal as input and the audio sig
nal as output.
a. Limiter
b. Audio amplifier
c. IF amplifier
d. Discriminator
ans: d
-
What is capture effect?
a. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
b. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
c. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
d. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
ans: b
-
A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by
a. feeding a phase-modulated signal into a low-pass filter
b. modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier
c. using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
d. detuning a Hartley oscillator
ans: b
-
Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve the signal-to-noise ratio o
f
a. high modulating frequencies
b. low modulating frequencies
c. all modulating frequencies
d. frequency carrier
ans: a
-
The result of cross-modulation is that
a. the modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal
b. a decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
c. a receiver quieting
d. of inverting sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
ans: a
-
Which of the following contains de-emphasis circuit?
a. FM transmitter
b. FM receiver
c. VHF transmitter
d. VHF receiver
ans: b
-
What is emission F3F?
a. AM
b. Facsimile
c. Television
d. RTTY
ans: c
-
What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is mo
dulated by a facsimile signal?
a. F3C
b. A3C
c. F3F
d. A3F
ans: a
-
Two AM transmitting antennas are close together. As a result the two modulated
signals are mixed in the final RF stage of both transmitters. What is the resul
tant effect on the other station?
a. Harmonic interference
b. Intermodulation interference
c. Spurious interference
d. Crossmodulation interference
ans: b
-
The term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signal
or a nearby station transmitter in the same frequency band?
a. Quieting
b. Cross-modulation interference
c. Squelch gain rollback
d. Desensitizing
ans: d
-
What is the bandwidth occupied by the carrier, both sidebands and harmonics?
a. Authorized bandwidth
b. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth
c. Operating bandwidth
d. All of these
ans: b
-
A class-C RF amplifier is collector amplitude modulated and its average dc lev
el collector current does not change. This means
a. a normal condition
b. excessive drive to the base
c. insufficient drive to the base
d. insufficient audio modulation
ans: a
-
What determines the percentage modulation of an FM transmitter?
a. Amplitude of the carrier
b. Modulating frequency
c. Carrier frequency
d. Amplitude of the modulating signal
ans: d
-
Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the
a. maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating frequency
b. operating frequency of the assigned frequency
c. frequency swing to the modulating frequency
d. highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency
ans: a
-
The main purpose of the beat frequency oscillator (BFO) is to generate
a. a 1 kHz not for morse reception
b. aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
c. an output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz
d. a signal, whose frequency is the same as the intermediate frequency
ans: c
-
Normally, a linear class B RF power amplifier operates with a bias approximate
ly equal to
a. twice cut-off
b. ten times cut-off value
c. 50 % of cut-off value
d. projected cut-off
ans: d
-
The purpose why an RF amplifier is operated under linear class-B conditions (a
s opposed to class-C) is to
a. generate only even harmonics
b. generate only odd harmonics
c. increase the efficiency
d. amplify an AM signal
ans: d
-
The term used to refer to the condition where the signal from a very strong st
ation are superimposed on other signal being received.
a. Cross-modulation interference
b. Intermodulation distortion
c. Receiver quieting
d. Capture effect
ans: a
-
__________ is the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of a signal as v
iewed on an oscilloscope.
a. Peak-to-peak voltage
b. Inverse peak positive voltage
c. RMS voltage
d. Peak negative voltage
ans: d
-
The type of emission that suffer most from selective fading.
a. CW and SSB
b. SSB and TV
c. FM and double sideband AM
d. SSTV and CW
ans: c
-
In an FM-phone signal, _______ is the ratio between the actual frequency devia
tion to the maximum frequency deviation.
a. FM compressibility
b. modulation index
c. percentage of modulation
d. quieting index
ans: c
-
__________ is used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal b
y another FM-phone signal.
a. Capture effect
b. Desensitization
c. Cross-modulation interference
d. Frequency discrimination
ans: a
-
A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type
of signals?
a. SSB voice
b. Facsimile
c. FM
d. Double-sideband AM
ans: d
-
If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude this means
a. zero beat
b. under-modulation
c. zero-modulation
d. over-modulation
ans: c
-
What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a modulation factor of 12.5 an
d a modulating frequency of 10 kHz?
a. 20 kHz
b. 270 kHz
c. 250 kHz
d. 45 kHz
ans: b
-
Amplitude modulation is the same as
a. linear mixing
b. analog multiplication
c. signal summation
d. multiplexing
ans: a
-
The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an _________ in a diode modu
lator.
a. the tuned circuit
b. transformer
c. capacitor
d. inductor
ans: a
-
One of the following can produce AM.
a. Having the carrier vary a resistance
b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
c. Varying the carrier frequency
d. Varying the gain of an amplifier
ans: a
-
Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signa
l by passing it through an attenuator network is the principle of
a. rectification
b. amplification
c. variable resistance
d. absorption
ans: c
-
Which component is used to produce AM at very high frequencies?
a. Varactor diode
b. Thermistor
c. Cavity resonator
d. PIN diode
ans: d
-
A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak a
mplitude of the modulating signal for 100 percent modulation?
a. 24 V
b. 48 V
c. 96 V
d. 120 V
ans: c
-
What circuit recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal?
a. Modulator
b. Demodulator
c. Mixer
d. Crystal set
ans: b
-
What is most commonly used amplitude demodulator?
a. Envelope detector
b. Balanced modulator
c. Mixer
d. Crystal set
ans: a
-
What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands and suppresses the carrie
r?
a. Amplitude moderator
b. Diode detector
c. Class C amplifier
d. Balanced modulator
ans: d
-
_________ is a widely used balanced modulator.
a. Diode bridge circuit
b. Full-wave bridge rectifier
c. Lattice modulator
d. Balanced bridge modulator
ans: c
-
In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like
a. variable resistors
b. switches
c. rectifiers
d. variable capacitors
ans: b
-
The output of a balanced modulator is
a. AM
b. FM
c. SSB
d. DSB
ans: d
-
The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a
a. Differential amplifier
b. Rectifier
c. Bridge
d. Constant current source
ans: a
-
The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses
a. LC networks
b. Mechanical resonators
c. Crystals
d. RC networks and op amps
ans: c
-
In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due to
a. phase shifting
b. sharp selectivity
c. carrier suppression
d. phase inversion
ans: a
-
A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is called a/an
a. transponder
b. product detector
c. converter
d. remodulator
ans: b
-
Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a
a. summer
b. multiplier
c. divider
d. mixer
ans: d
-
Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as
a. Rectification
b. AM
c. linear summing
d. filtering
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM over AM?
a. Greater efficiency
b. Noise immunity
c. Capture effect
d. Lower complexity and cost
ans: d
-
The primary disadvantage of FM is its
a. higher cost and complexity
b. excessive use of spectrum space
c. noise susceptibility
d. lower efficiency
ans: b
-
Noise is primarily
a. high-frequency spikes
b. low-frequency variations
c. random level shifts
d. random frequency variations
ans: a
-
The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the
a. modulator
b. demodulator
c. limiter
d. low-pass filter
ans: c
-
The AM signals generated at a low level may only be amplified by what type of
amplifier?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. All of these
ans: c
-
SSB means
a. Single sideband with suppressed carrier
b. Single sideband with carrier
c. Double sideband with no carrier
d. Single sideband with reduced carrier
ans: a
-
A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer
a. Transformer
b. Resonant circuit
c. Filter
d. Phase-shift circuit
ans: c
-
What is the output of a balanced modulator?
a. AM
b. DSB
c. SSB
d. ISB
ans: b
-
The acronym SSSC refer to
a. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
b. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier
c. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
d. Single sideband, single carrier
ans: c
-
Which process occurs in the receiver?
a. Demodulation
b. Reception
c. Modulation
d. Recreation
ans: a
-
What is usually used to demodulate SSB or CW signal?
a. PLL
b. BFO
c. Ratio detector
d. All of these
ans: b
-
Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude modulator?
a. Diode detector
b. PLL circuit
c. VCO
d. All of these
ans: a
-
Which of the following is the most widely used balanced modulator?
a. Full-wave bridge circuit
b. Balanced bridge modulator
c. Lattice modulator
d. None of these
ans: c
-
The component most apt to break down in the radio circuit is the
a. Crystal
b. resistor
c. transformer
d. diode
ans: b
-
What is a non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of short duration
with high amplitudes?
a. Wander
b. Jitter
c. Hits
d. Singing
ans: b
-
What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given no
ise level?
a. Nyquist theorem
b. Hartley law
c. Shannon-Hartley theorem
d. Shannon theorem
ans: c
-
Quantizing noise occurs in
a. PCM
b. PLM
c. PDM
d. PAM
ans: a
-
Noise always affect the signal in a communications systems at the ____________
__.
a. transmitter
b. channel
c. information source
d. destination
ans: b
-
________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes,
both internal and external to the system.
a. Interference
b. Attenuation
c. Distortion
d. Noise
ans: d
-
Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle o
ver a specified total frequency band.
a. Gaussian noise
b. White noise
c. Thermal noise
d. All of the above
ans: d
-
Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system?
a. Serial transmission errors
b. The approximation of the quantized signal
c. The synchronization between encoder and decoder
d. Binary coding techniques
ans: b
-
A particular circuit that rids FM of noise.
a. Detector
b. Discriminator
c. Phase shifter
d. Limiter
ans: d
-
What is the reference noise temperature?
a. 290 K
b. 30 degrees C
c. 70 degrees F
d. 25 degrees C
ans: a
-
Unwanted radio signal on assigned frequency.
a. Splatter
b. RFI
c. Noise
d. EMI
ans: c
-
What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics
?
a. Thermal agitation noise
b. Noise factor
c. Noise margin
d. Signal-to-noise
ans: b
-
________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not
have any traffic.
a. White noise
b. Galactic noise
c. Impulse noise
d. Atmospheric noise
ans: a
-
Which standard recommends crosstalk limits?
a. CCITT G. 152
b. CCITT G. 150
c. CCITT G. 151
d. CCITT G. 161
ans: c
-
Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio channel
s?
a. CCITT Rec. G. 151
b. CCITT Rec. G. 172
c. CCITT Rec. G. 190
d. CCITT Rec. G. 190
ans: b
-
What is the reference frequency of CCITT phosphometric noise measurement?
a. 800 Hz
b. 1000 Hz
c. 1500 Hz
d. 3400 Hz
ans: a
-
Reference temperature used in noise analysis.
a. 75 K
b. 250 K
c. 290 K
d. 300 K
ans: c
-
Which noise is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms?
a. White noise
b. Extraterrestrial noise
c. Industrial noise
d. Atmospheric noise
ans: d
-
Man-made noise is usually from ___________.
a. transmission over power lines and by ground wave
b. sky-wave
c. space-wave
d. troposphere
ans: a
-
nif stands for
a. Non-intrinsic figure
b. Noise improvement factor
c. Narrow intermediate frequency
d. Noise interference figure
ans: b
-
Industrial noise frequency is between ________________.
a. 0 to 10 kHz
b. 160 MHz to 200 MHz
c. 15 to 160 MHz
d. 200 to 3000 MHz
ans: c
-
External noise fields are measured in terms of ____________.
a. rms values
b. dc values
c. average values
d. peak values
ans: d
-
Form of interference caused by rain or dust storms.
a. Precipitation static
b. Shot-noise
c. Galactic noise
d. Impulse noise
ans: a
-
At 17 degrees C, the noise voltage generated by 5 k ohms resistor, operating o
ver a bandwidth of 20 kHz is
a. 1.3 nV
b. 1.3 uV
c. 1.3 pV
d. 1.3 mV
ans: b
-
________ is an electric noise produced by thermal agitation of electrons in co
nductor and semiconductor
a. External noise
b. Internal noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Flicker
ans: c
-
Three identical circuits having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are con
nected in tandem with each other, what is the overall S/N?
a. 5.23 dB
b. 14.77 dB
c. 30 dB
d. 40 dB
ans: a
-
The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10.5 dB while it
s power gain is 15, what is the over all noise figure if the second circuit has
a noise figure of 11 dB?
a. 11.59 dB
b. 11.23 dB
c. 10.79 dB
d. 10.5 dB
ans: c
-
Is the interference coming from other communications channels.
a. Jitter
b. Crosstalk
c. RFI
d. EMI
ans: b
-
What is the reference noise level?
a. 10 pW
b. 0 dBm
c. 1 mW
d. -90 dBm
ans: d
-
What is the unit of noise power of psophometer?
a. pWp
b. dBa
c. dBm
d. dBrn
ans: a
-
A large emission of hydrogen from the sun that affects communications.
a. Solar flare
b. Cosmic disturbance
c. Ballistic disturbance
d. Solar noise
ans: a
-
Atmospheric noise is known as ___________ noise.
a. static
b. cosmic
c. solar
d. lunar
ans: a
-
Standard design reference for environmental noise temperature.
a. 300 degrees K
b. 290 degrees K
c. 32 degrees F
d. 212 degrees F
ans: b
-
Absolute temperature in Kelvin.
a. degrees C + 273
b. degrees C + 75
c. degrees C + 19
d. degrees C + 290
ans: a
-
If bandwidth is doubled, the signal power is ___________.
a. not changed
b. quadrupled
c. tripled
d. doubled
ans: a
-
Name one or more sources of noise bearing on electronic communications.
a. Steam boiler
b. Galaxies
c. Internal combustion engine
d. Both B and C
ans: d
-
The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the effect of noise is called
a. noise masking
b. antinoise
c. noise killing
d. preemphasis
ans: d
-
Deemphasis in the receiver in effect attenuates modulating signal components a
nd noise in what frequency range?
a. dc
b. low
c. intermediate
d. high
ans: d
-
Atmospheric noise or static is not a great problem
a. at frequencies below 20 MHz
b. at frequencies below 5 MHz
c. at frequencies above 30 MHz
d. at frequencies above 1 MHz
ans: c
-
What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile stat
ion?
a. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
b. Insulate all plain sheet metal surfaces from each other
c. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all nonmetallic
d. Install filter capacitors in series with all dc wiring
ans: a
-
Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise rat
ion in a VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver?
a. Man-made noise
b. in the atmosphere
c. in the receiver front end
d. in the ionosphere
ans: c
-
The difference between signal strength at a given point and a reference level
is __________.
a. power
b. dBm
c. level
d. ratio
ans: c
-
Interfering effect of noise, C message weighted, is ________.
a. dBa
b. dBm
c. dBrnc
d. dB
ans: c
-
F1A weighting refers to _________.
a. -90 dBm
b. dBrnc0
c. dBrnc
d. F1A handset
ans: d
-
Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western electric 3A test set at a + 7 test point is
equal to ____________ dBrnc0.
a. 58
b. 51
c. 65
d. 27
ans: b
-
Reading a 58 dBrn, at a + 7 test point is equal to ___________ dBa0.
a. 26
b. 65
c. 51
d. 46
ans: d
-
A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing pair, and -80 on the disturbed pair equ
als ________________ dB of crosstalk coupling.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 60
d. 25
ans: b
-
Power is _________.
a. actual amount of power reference to 1 mW
b. logarithmic ratio of two powers
c. definite amount of energy per time period
d. current flow per time period
ans: c
-
15 dBa F1A weighted, equals __________.
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -85 dBm
d. -70 dBm
ans: d
-
You are measuring noise in a voice channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network and a flat meter. Your meter reads -47 dBm. What is this reading in dBa?

a. 77 dBa
b. 35 dBa
c. 38 dBa
d. 32 dBa
ans: c
-
You are measuring noise at a +3 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A we
ighting network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -57 dBm. This is _______
__ dBa0
a. 20
b. 15
c. 25
d. 17
ans: c
-
You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A we
ighting network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -59 dBm. This is _______
___ dBa0.
a. 24
b. 12
c. 23
d. 32
ans: d
-
A measurement of -75 dBm, C-message weighted, would be ____________ dBrnc.
a. 8
b. 7
c. 9
d. 15
ans: d
-
Your Western Electric 3A test set meter reading is -23 dBm at a test point lev
el of -8 dB. This is _____________ dBrnc0.
a. 75
b. 29
c. 30
d. 31
ans: a
-
At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
a. 90 dB
b. 90 dBm
c. -90 dB
d. -90 dBm
ans: d
-
Reference noise is ___________.
a. a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone
b. a noise that creates the same interfering effect as a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone

c. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a voice channel
d. B and C above
ans: d
-
A practical dBrn measurement will almost always in a ____________ number.
a. positive
b. negative
c. imaginary
d. fractional
ans: a
-
What is the reference level for noise measurement, F1A weighted?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
ans: d
-
What is the reference tone level for dBrn?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
ans: a
-
What is the reference tone level for dBa?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
ans: d
-
Atmospheric noise becomes less severe at frequencies
a. above 30 MHz
b. below 30 MHz
c. above 3000 kHz
d. below 3000 kHz
ans: a
-
Indicate the noise whose sources are in category different from that of the ot
her three?
a. Solar noise
b. Cosmic noise
c. Atmospheric noise
d. Galactic noise
ans: c
-
Indicate the false statement.
a. Industrial noise is usually of the impulsive type
b. Static is caused by lightning discharges in thunderstorms and other natural
electric disturbances occurring in the atmosphere
c. Distant stars are another source of man-made noise
d. Fluorescent lights are another source of man-made noise
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a source of industrial noise?
a. Automobile ignition
b. Sun
c. Electric motors
d. Leakage from high voltage line
ans: b
-
Indicate the false statement.
a. The noise generated in a resistance or the resistive component of any imped
ance is random
b. Random noise power is proportional to the bandwidth over which it is measur
ed
c. A random voltage across the resistor does not exist
d. All formula referring to a random noise are applicable only to the value of
such noise
ans: c
-
The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power g
enerated is therefore
a. halved
b. quadrupled
c. doubled
d. unchanged
ans: d
-
Indicate the false statement.
a. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifiers
b. Impulse noise voltage is dependent on bandwidth
c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which is measured
d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type
ans: b
-
An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 k
ohms input resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this amplifie
r if the ambient temperature is 17 degrees C?
a. 40 uV
b. 4.0 uV
c. 400 uV
d. 4.0 mV
ans: b
-
The 1st stage of a 2-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a 600 ohms inpu
t resistor, a 1600 ohms equivalent noise resistance & a 27 k ohms output resisto
r. For the 2nd stage, these values are 25, 81 k ohms, 10 k ohms, & a 1 M ohm, re
spectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise resistance of this two stage am
plifier.
a. 2,518 K ohms
b. 2,518 ohms
c. 251.8 ohms
d. 12.518 K ohms
ans: b
-
The noise output of a resistor is amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a
gain of 60 and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. A meter connected at the output of the amp
lifier reads 1 mV RMS. If the bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to 5 kHz, it
s gain remaining constant, what does the meter read now?
a. 0.5 mV
b. 0.5 uV
c. 5.0 mV
d. 5.0 u
ans: a
-
The front-end of a television receiver, having a bandwidth of 7 MHz, and opera
ting at a temperature of 27 degrees C, consists of an amplifier having a gain of
15, followed by a mixer whose gain is 20. The amplifier has a 300 ohms input re
sistor and a shot noise equivalent resistance of 500 ohms; for the mixer, these
values are 2.2 kohms and 13.5 kohms, respectively, and the load resistance of th
e mixer is 470 kohms. Calculate the equivalent noise resistance for this televis
ion receiver.
a. 8760 ohms
b. 875 ohms
c. 8.76 ohms
d. 0.876 ohm
ans: b
-
One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performa
nce of receivers.
a. Input noise voltage
b. Equivalent noise resistance
c. Noise temperature
d. Noise figure
ans: a
-
Indicate the false statement. Noise figure is defined as
a. the ratio of the S/N power supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or
amplifier to the S/N power supplied to the output or load resistor
b. noise factor expressed in decibels
c. an unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy re
ception and reproduction of wanted signals
d. S/N of an ideal system divided by S/N at the output of the receiver or ampl
ifier under test, both working at the same temperature over the same bandwidth a
nd fed from the same source
ans: c
-
Calculate the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518 ohms (R sub
T = 600 ohms) if it's driven by a generator whose output impedance is 50 ohms.
a. 39.4
b. 3.94
c. 394
d. 0.394
ans: a
-
Calculate the noise figure of the receiver whose RF amplifier has an input res
istance of 1000 ohms & an equivalent shot-noise resistance of 2000 ohms, a gain
of 25 and a load resistance of 125 k ohms. Given that the bandwidth is 1.0 MHz &
the temperature is 20 degrees C, and that the receiver is connected to an anten
na with an impedance of 75 ohms.
a. 30.3
b. 3.03
c. 303
d. 0.303
ans: a
-
A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivale
nt noise resistance of 30 ohms. Calculate its equivalent noise temperature if th
e noise figure is equal to 1.6.
a. 17.4 K
b. 174 K
c. 1.74 K
d. 17 K
ans: b
-
Most internal noise comes from
a. shot noise
b. transit-time noise
c. thermal agitation
d. skin effect
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a source of external noise?
a. Thermal agitation
b. Auto ignition
c. The sun
d. Fluorescent lights
ans: a
-
Noise can be reduced by
a. widening the bandwidth
b. narrowing the bandwidth
c. increasing temperature
d. increasing transistor current levels
ans: b
-
Noise at the input to a receiver can be as high as several
a. microvolts
b. millivolts
c. volts
d. kilovolts
ans: a
-
Which circuit contributes most of the noise in a receiver?
a. IF amplifier
b. Demodulator
c. AF amplifier
d. Mixer
ans: d
-
Which noise figure represents the lowest noise?
a. 1.6 dB
b. 2.1 dB
c. 2.7 dB
d. 3.4 dB
ans: a
-
The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a
a. MOSFET
b. Dual-gate MOSFET
c. JFET
d. MESFET
ans: d
-
What is the noise voltage across a 300 ohms input resistance to a TV set with
a 6 MHz bandwidth and the temperature of 30 degrees C?
a. 2.3 uV
b. 3.8 uV
c. 5.5 uV
d. 6.4 uV
ans: c
-
Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high freq
uencies?
a. Shot noise
b. Random noise
c. Impulse noise
d. Transit-time noise
ans: d
-
The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbance approximate
ly every
a. 11 years
b. 10 years
c. 9 years
d. 8 years
ans: a
-
The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportiona
l to
a. its resistance
b. its temperature
c. the bandwidth over which it is measured
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
Noise occurring in the presence of signal resulting from a mismatch between th
e exact value of an analog signal and the closest available quantizing step in a
digital coder.
a. Quantizing noise
b. Thermal noise
c. Impulse noise
d. Crosstalk
ans: a
-
Noise consisting of irregular pulses of short duration and relatively high amp
litude.
a. Quantizing noise
b. Tone interference
c. Impulse noise
d. Crosstalk
ans: c
-
Noise that occurs via capacitive or inductive coupling in a cable
a. Crosstalk
b. Quantizing noise
c. Reference noise
d. Tone interference
ans: a
-
Sources of impulse noise induced in communication channels.
a. Erroneous digital coding bit caused by an error on a transmission facility
b. Transients due to relay operation
c. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems
d. All of these
ans: d
-
Crosstalks due to incomplete suppression of sidebands or to intermodulation of
two or more frequency-multiplexed channels which are unintelligible is classifi
ed as
a. impulse noise
b. thermal noise
c. quantizing noise
d. miscellaneous noise
ans: d
-
__________ is a device that measures the internal open circuit voltage of an e
quivalent noise generator having an impedance of 600 ohms and delivering noise p
ower to a 600 ohms load.
a. Psophometer
b. Barometer
c. Reflectometer
d. Voltmeter
ans: a
-
External noise originating outside the solar system.
a. Cosmic noise
b. Solar noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Lunar noise
ans: a
-
A noise whose source is within the solar system.
a. Solar noise
b. Thermal noise
c. Cosmic noise
d. Johnson noise
ans: a
-
The total noise power present in a 1-Hz bandwidth.
a. Noise density
b. Noise figure
c. Noise limit
d. Noise intensity
ans: a
-
Which of the following is not a way of minimizing if not eliminating noise?
a. Use redundancy
b. Increase transmitted power
c. Reduce signaling rate
d. Increase channel bandwidth
ans: d
-
What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise?
a. Thunderstorm
b. Lightning
c. Thunderstorm and lightning
d. Weather condition
ans: b
-
What do you call the noise coming from the sun and stars?
a. Black-body noise
b. Space noise
c. Galactic noise
d. All of these
ans: b
-
The major cause of atmospheric or static noise are
a. thunderstorms
b. airplanes
c. meteor showers
d. all of these
ans: a
-
Which of the following low noise transistors is commonly used at microwave fre
quencies?
a. MOSFET
b. GASFET
c. MESFET
d. JFET
ans: c
-
Which of the following is most affected by knife-edge refraction?
a. Very high and ultra high frequencies
b. High frequency
c. Medium frequency
d. Low frequency
ans: a
-
Which ionosphere layer has an average height of 225 km at night?
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
ans: d
-
__________ is the amount of voltage induced in a wave by an electromagnetic wa
ve.
a. Receive voltage
b. Magnetic induction
c. Field strength
d. Power density
ans: c
-
An electromagnetic wave consists of _________.
a. both electric and magnetic fields
b. an electric field only
c. a magnetic field only
d. non-magnetic field only
ans: a
-
What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere?
a. F1
b. F2
c. E
d. D
ans: d
-
Who profounded electromagnetic radiation theory?
a. Sir Edward Appleton
b. James Clerk Maxwell
c. Christian Huygens
d. Sir Isaac Newton
ans: b
-
The D, E and F layers are known as ________.
a. Mark-Space layers
b. Davinson-Miller layers
c. Kennely-Heaviside layers
d. Appleton layers
ans: c
-
Different grouping of the electromagnetic spectrum.
a. Band
b. Bandwidth
c. Channel
d. Group
ans: a
-
What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields in an elec
tromagnetic wave?
a. 180 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 270 degrees
d. 45 degrees
ans: b
-
A changing electric field gives rise to ________.
a. a magnetic field
b. sound field
c. electromagnetic waves
d. near and far fields
ans: a
-
Frequencies in UHF range propagate by means of
a. ground waves
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
ans: d
-
In electromagnetic waves, polarization _________.
a. is caused by reflection
b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves
c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium
ans: b
-
Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they _________.
a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants
b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface
d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane
ans: a
-
What is the highest layer of the atmosphere?
a. Ionosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Troposphere
d. Ozone layer
ans: a
-
What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?
a. F sub 2
b. F sub 1
c. D
d. E
ans: a
-
Effective earth radius to true earth radius ratio.
a. Index of refraction
b. K factor
c. Fresnel zone
d. Path profile
ans: b
-
Fading due to interference between direct and reflected rays.
a. Atmospheric-multipath
b. Fresnel zone
c. Reflection-multipath
d. Rayleigh fading
ans: c
-
The layer that reflects very low frequency waves and absorbs medium frequency
waves.
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
ans: a
-
What layer is used for high-frequency daytime propagation?
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
ans: b
-
What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned
to earth?
a. MUF
b. Skip frequency
c. Critical frequency
d. Gyro frequency
ans: c
-
High frequency range is from
a. 0.3 to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. 3 to 30 MHz
ans: b
-
Medium frequency range is from
a. 0.01 to 0.03 MHz
b. 0.03 to 0.3 MHz
c. 0.3 to 3 MHz
d. 3 to 30 MHz
ans: c
-
In tropospheric scatter propagation, the attenuation is dependent on
a. scatter angle
b. take-off angle
c. antenna size
d. the troposphere
ans: a
-
If the transmitter power remains constant, an increase in the frequency of the
sky wave will
a. lengthen the skip distance
b. increase the range of the ground wave
c. reduce the length of the skip distance
d. have no effect on the ground wave range
ans: a
-
What is the unit of electric field strength?
a. Volts per square meter
b. Volt per square cm
c. Volts per meter
d. Millivolt per watt
ans: c
-
Velocity of a radio wave in free space.
a. 186,000 miles per sec
b. 300 x 10^ 6 meters per sec
c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
Refers to the direction of the electric field vector in space.
a. Polarization
b. Directivity
c. Radiation
d. ERP
ans: a
-
An TEM wave whose polarization rotates.
a. Vertically polarized
b. Omnidirectional
c. Horizontally polarized
d. Circularly polarized
ans: d
-
Velocity of light in free space.
a. 300 x 10 raised to 6 m/s
b. 300 x 10 raised to 6 km/s
c. 186,000 km/s
d. 186,000 m/s
ans: a
-
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200 W transmitter powe
r output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circular loss, and 10 dB feedlin
e antenna gain?
a. 2000 W
b. 126 W
c. 317 W
d. 260 W
ans: c
-
Radiowave that is far from its sources is called
a. plane wave
b. isotropic wave
c. vertical wave
d. horizontal wave
ans: a
-
Light goes from medium A to medium B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees. The
angle of refraction is 30 degrees. The speed of light in B
a. is the same as that in A
b. is greater than that in A
c. may be any of these, depending on the specific medium
d. is less than that in A
ans: d
-
In a vacuum the speed of an electromagnetic wave
a. depends on its constant
b. depends on its wavelength
c. depends on its electric and magnetic fields
d. is a universal constant
ans: d
-
The depth of an object submerged in a transparent liquid
a. always seems more than its actual depth
b. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the object
c. always seems less than its actual depth
d. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the transparent l
iquid
ans: c
-
What is a wavefront?
a. A voltage pulse in a conductor
b. A current in a conductor
c. A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave
d. A voltage pulse across a resistor
ans: c
-
VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier pow
er to
a. 1 W
b. 10 W
c. 25 W
d. 50 W
ans: a
-
Most of the effects an electromagnetic wave produces when it interacts with ma
tter are due to its
a. magnetic field
b. speed
c. frequency
d. electric field
ans: d
-
A mobile receiver experiences "dead" areas of reception as a result of
a. atmospheric absorption
b. tropospheric scatter
c. sporadic E
d. shading of the RF signal by hills and trees
ans: d
-
When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is
the polarization of the TEM wave?
a. Elliptical
b. Vertical
c. Horizontal
d. Circular
ans: b
-
When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is
the polarization of the TEM wave?
a. Circular
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
d. Elliptical
ans: b
-
When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the p
olarization of the TEM wave?
a. Elliptical
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
d. Circular
ans: c
-
What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic
wave?
a. An electric field and a current field
b. An electric field and a voltage field
c. An electric field and a magnetic field
d. A voltage and current fields
ans: c
-
How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?
a. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
b. It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths
c. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
d. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading
ans: c
-
A wide-bandwidth communications systems in which the RF carrier varies accordi
ng to some predetermined sequence.
a. Amplitude compandored single sideband
b. SITOR
c. Spread spectrum communication
d. Time-domain frequency modulation
ans: c
-
A changing magnetic field gives rise to
a. sound field
b. magnetic field
c. electric field
d. nothing in particular
ans: c
-
When a space-wave signal passes over a mountain ridge, a small part of the sig
nal is diffracted down the far side of the mountain. The phenomenon is called
a. discontinuity scattering
b. tropospheric ducting
c. knife-edge diffraction
d. space-wave refraction
ans: c
-
The index of refraction of a material medium
a. is greater than 1
b. is less than 1
c. is equal to 1
d. may be any of the above
ans: a
-
At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space?
a. Approximately 468 million meters per second
b. Approximately 186300 feet per second
c. Approximately 300 million meters per second
d. Approximately 300 million miles per second
ans: c
-
What is the effective earth radius when surface refractivity, Ns equals 300?
a. 6370 km
b. 7270 km
c. 7950 km
d. 8500 km
ans: d
-
If Ns = 250, what is the earth radius k-factor?
a. 1.23
b. 1.29
c. 1.33
d. 1.32
ans: a
-
Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earth's surface.
a. Vertical polarization
b. Horizontal polarization
c. Circular polarization
d. Elliptical polarization
ans: a
-
Electric field that lies in a plane parallel to the earth's surface.
a. Vertical polarization
b. Horizontal polarization
c. Circular polarization
d. Elliptical polarization
ans: b
-
Indicate which one of the following terms applies to troposcatter propagation.

a. SIDs
b. Fading
c. Atmospheric storms
d. Faraday rotation
ans: b
-
VLF waves are used for some types of services because
a. of the low power required
b. the transmitting antennas are of convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. they penetrate the ionosphere easily
ans: c
-
Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond
-the-horizon terrestrial communications without repeaters.
a. 20 kHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 12 GHz
ans: d
-
High-frequency waves are
a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D layer
c. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
d. affected by the solar cycle
ans: d
-
Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference
c. to avoid the Faraday effect
d. so as not to exceed the critical frequency
ans: b
-
A ship-to-ship communications system is plagued by fading. The best solution s
eems to be the use of
a. a more directional antenna
b. a broadband antenna
c. frequency diversity
d. space diversity
ans: c
-
A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than are
the others is called a
a. window
b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere
ans: a
-
Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of
a. ground waves
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
ans: d
-
Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
ans: c
-
The ground wave eventually disappears as one moves away from the transmitter,
because of
a. interference from the sky wave
b. loss of line-of-sight conditions
c. maximum single-hop distance limitation
d. tilting
ans: d
-
In electromagnetic waves, polarization means
a. the physical orientation of magnetic field in space
b. the physical orientation of electric field in space
c. ionization
d. the presence of positive and negative ions
ans: b
-
As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can h
appen to them.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
ans: b
-
The absorption of a radio waves by the atmosphere depends on
a. their frequency
b. their distance from the transmitter
c. the polarization of the waves
d. the polarization of the atmosphere
ans: a
-
Diffraction of electromagnetic waves
a. is caused by reflections from the ground
b. arises only with spherical wavefronts
c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle
ans: d
-
In an electromagnetic wave the electric field is
a. parallel to both magnetic field and the wave direction
b. perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the wave direction
c. parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the wave direction
d. perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the wave direction
ans: b
-
The highest frequencies are found in
a. X-rays
b. radio waves
c. ultraviolet rays
d. radar waves
ans: a
-
Electromagnetic waves transport
a. wavelength
b. charge
c. frequency
d. energy
ans: d
-
The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas in the upper atmosphere. The ionosph
ere is responsible for
a. the blue color of the sky
b. rainbows
c. long-distance radio communications
d. the ability of satellites to orbit the earth
ans: c
-
Light of which the following colors has the shortest wavelength?
a. red
b. yellow
c. blue
d. green
ans: c
-
The quality in sound that corresponds to color in light is
a. amplitude
b. resonance
c. waveform
d. pitch
ans: d
-
All real images
a. are erect
b. can appear on a screen
c. are invalid
d. cannot appear on a screen
ans: b
-
When a beam of light enters one medium from another, a quality that never chan
ges is its
a. direction
b. frequency
c. speed
d. wavelength
ans: b
-
Relative to the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction
a. is smaller
b. is larger
c. is the same
d. either A or B above
ans: d
-
A light ray enters one medium from another along the normal. The angle of refr
action is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. equal the critical angle
d. dependent on the indexes of refraction of the two media
ans: d
-
What layer aids MF surface-wave propagation a little and reflects some HF wave
s in daytime?
a. E layer
b. D layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
ans: a
-
Dispersion is the term used to describe
a. the splitting of white light into its component colors in refraction
b. the propagation of light in straight lines
c. the bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another
d. the bending of a beam of light when it strikes a mirror
ans: a
-
The depth of an objects submerged in a transparent liquid
a. always seems less than its actual depth
b. always seems more than its actual depth
c. may seem more than its actual depth, depending on the index of refraction o
f the liquid
d. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the angle of view

ans: a
-
Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from one medium to anoth
er
a. that has a lower index of refraction
b. that has a higher index of refraction
c. that has the same index of refraction
d. at less than the critical angle
ans: a
-
When a light ray approaches a glass-air interface from the glass side at the c
ritical angle, the angle of refraction is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. equal the angle of incidence
ans: b
-
The brightness of light source is called its luminous intensity, whose unit is

a. candela
b. lux
c. lumen
d. footcandle
ans: a
-
Luminous efficiency is least for a
a. low-wattage light bulb
b. mercury vapor lamp
c. high-wattage light bulb
d. fluorescent tube
ans: a
-
The minimum illumination recommendation for reading is
a. 8000 cd
b. 8000 lx
c. 8000 lm
d. 800 W
ans: b
-
Light enters a glass plate whose index of refraction is 1.6 at an angle of inc
idence of 30 degrees. The angle of refraction is
a. 18 degrees
b. 48 degrees
c. 19 degrees
d. 53 degrees
ans: a
-
Light leaves a slab of transparent material whose index of refraction is 2.0 a
t an angle of refraction of 0 degree. The angle of incidence is
a. 0 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 90 degrees
ans: a
-
Light enters a glass plate at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees and is refra
cted at an angle refraction of 25 degrees. The index refraction of the glass is
a. 0.625
b. 1.52
c. 0.66
d. 1.6
ans: b
-
An underwater swimmer shines a flashlight beam upward at an angle of incidence
of 40 degrees. The angle of refraction is 60 degrees. The index of refraction o
f water is
a. 0.67
b. 1.3
c. 0.74
d. 1.5
ans: b
-
The critical angle of incidence for light going from crown glass (n = 1.5) to
ice (n = 1.3) is
a. 12 degrees
b. 50 degrees
c. 42 degrees
d. 60 degrees
ans: d
-
The solid angle subtended by a hemisphere about its center is
a. pi/2 sr
b. 2pi sr
c. pi sr
d. depends on the radius of the hemisphere
ans: b
-
The luminous flux emitted by a 60-cd isotropic light source is concentrated on
an area of 0.5 m^2. The illumination of the area is
a. 9.6 lx
b. 377 lx
c. 120 lx
d. 1508 lx
ans: d
-
Microwave signals propagate by way of the
a. direct wave
b. sky wave
c. surface wave
d. standing wave
ans: a
-
The ionosphere causes radio signals to be
a. diffused
b. absorbed
c. refracted
d. reflected
ans: c
-
Groundwave communications is most effective in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz
ans: a
-
The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz
ans: b
-
The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communication by multiple
skips is the
a. ground wave
b. direct wave
c. surface wave
d. sky wave
ans: d
-
Line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave
ans: c
-
A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft. high. The receiving antenna is 200
ft. high. The minimum transmission distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi
ans: d
-
To increase the transmission distance of UHF signal, which of the following sh
ould be done?
a. increase antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
c. increase transmitter power
d. increase receiver sensitivity
ans: b
-
States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance from its s
ource.
a. Principle of Reciprocity
b. Inverse Square Law
c. Huygen's Principle
d. Faraday's Law
ans: b
-
_________ gets in contact with the ionosphere and reflected by it.
a. Space wave
b. Sky wave
c. Surface wave
d. Satellite wave
ans: b
-
Highest layer in the ionosphere.
a. F1
b. D
c. F2
d. E
ans: c
-
Next lowest layer in the ionosphere.
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
ans: b
-
What is the primary cause of ionization in the atmosphere?
a. Sun spot
b. Cosmic rays
c. Galactic disturbance
d. Ultraviolet radiation
ans: d
-
Which layer does not disappear at night?
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
ans: d
-
Which of the following uses surface wave propagation?
a. ELF
b. VLF
c. MF
d. All of these
ans: d
-
The ability of the ionosphere to reflect a radio wave back to the earth is det
ermined by
a. operating frequency
b. ion density
c. angle of incidence
d. all of these
ans: d
-
Highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation between two given p
oints on earth.
a. Critical frequency
b. MUF
c. Cut-off frequency
d. UHF
ans: b
-
The shortest distance measured along the earth's surface that a skywave is ret
urned to earth.
a. MUF
b. Quarter-wavelength
c. Skip distance
d. Skip zone
ans: c
-
Fluctuations in the signal strength at the receiver.
a. Interference
b. Fading
c. Tracking
d. Variable frequency
ans: b
-
Two or more antennas are used separated by several wavelengths.
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity
d. Polarization diversity
ans: a
-
Two or more receivers are used using a single antenna.
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity
d. Polarization diversity
ans: b
-
One of the following is not a cause of fading.
a. Interference between upper and lower rays of a sky wave.
b. Skywaves arriving at different number of hops
c. Interference due to ground reflected wave and skywave.
d. Diversity
ans: d
-
What do you call the gigantic emissions of hydrogen from the sun?
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Kennely-Heaviside
d. Sun spots
ans: a
-
Sudden ionospheric disturbance.
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Sun spots
d. Intertropical convergence
ans: b
-
A means of beyond the line of sight propagation of UHF signals.
a. Microwave propagation
b. Space wave propagation
c. Troposcatter propagation
d. Surface wave propagation
ans: c
-
Two directional antennas are pointed so that their beams intersect in the trop
osphere.
a. Skywave
b. Surface wave
c. Microwave
d. Troposcatter
ans: d
-
Super refraction.
a. Ducting
b. Troposcatter
c. Skywave
d. Space wave
ans: a
-
A layer of warm air trapped above cooler air.
a. Troposphere
b. SID
c. Duct
d. Huygen's principle
ans: c
-
Corresponds to voltage.
a. electric field
b. magnetic field
c. gyro
d. direction of propagation
ans: a
-
Absence of reception.
a. Skip distance
b. Maximum usable
c. Shadow zone
d. Twilight zone
ans: c
-
Each point on a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secondary spherical wav
efront.
a. Snell's law
b. Huygen's principle
c. Rayleigh's principle
d. De Morgan's theorem
ans: b
-
Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?
a. Stratosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Ozone layer
ans: b
-
When is the E region most ionized?
a. At midday
b. At midnight
c. At dusk
d. At dawn
ans: a
-
Transequatorial propagation is best during
a. night time
b. afternoon or early evening
c. noontime
d. morning
ans: b
-
Which of the following is the first active satellite?
a. Echo 1
b. Telstar 1
c. Early Bird
d. Sputnik 1
ans: d
-
Which of the following is the first commercial satellite?
a. Early Bird
b. Telstar
c. Explorer
d. Courier
ans: a
-
What is the first passive satellite transponder?
a. Sun
b. Early Bird
c. Score
d. Moon
ans: d
-
The first satellite to receive and transmit simultaneously.
a. Intelsat 1
b. Agila II
c. Syncom 1
d. Telstar 1
ans: d
-
A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of
a. circular polarization
b. maneuverability
c. beamwidth
d. gain
ans: a
-
Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as
a. transceivers
b. transponders
c. transducers
d. TWT
ans: b
-
Considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system.
a. Coverage
b. Cost
c. Access
d. Privacy
ans: d
-
_____ is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptica
l or circular pattern.
a. Geosynchronous satellite
b. Nonsynchronous satellite
c. Prograde satellite
d. Retrograde satellite
ans: b
-
Is the geographical representation of a satellite antenna radiation pattern.
a. footprint
b. spot
c. earth
d. region
ans: a
-
The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation pattern.
a. zone beam
b. hemispheric beam
c. Spot beam
d. Global beam
ans: c
-
A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth's surface.
a. zone beam
b. hemispheric beam
c. Spot beam
d. Global beam
ans: d
-
What is the frequency range of C-band?
a. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz
b. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
c. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz
d. 27.5 to 31 GHz
ans: b
-
A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station
.
a. uplink
b. downlink
c. terrestrial
d. earthbound
ans: b
-
Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite.
a. helical antenna
b. satellite dish
c. LNA
d. TWT
ans: b
-
What is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signa
ls simultaneously?
a. orthomode transducer
b. crystal detector
c. optoisolator
d. isomode detector
ans: a
-
_____ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an
electric current, amplifies, and lowers its frequency.
a. horn antenna
b. LNA
c. satellite receiver
d. satellite dish
ans: b
-
Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth's atmosphere.
a. atmospheric loss
b. path loss
c. radiation loss
d. RFI
ans: b
-
What height must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order
for its rotation to be equal to earth's rotation?
a. 26,426.4 miles
b. 27,426.4 miles
c. 23,426.4 miles
d. 22,426.4 miles
ans: d
-
Point on the satellite orbit closest to the earth.
a. apogee
b. perigee
c. prograde
d. zenith
ans: b
-
The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam.
a. beamwidth
b. bandwidth
c. footprint
d. zone
ans: c
-
What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink
frequency in GHz band?
a. 3500 MHz
b. 4500 MHz
c. 2225 MHz
d. 2555 MHz
ans: c
-
What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites?
a. Germanium based panels
b. Silicon based panels
c. Gallium Phosphate solar panel array
d. Gallium Arsenide solar panel array
ans: d
-
Satellite engine uses
a. jet propulsion
b. ion propulsion system
c. liquid fuel
d. solar jet
ans: b
-
A satellite battery that has more power but lighter.
a. lithium
b. leclanche
c. hydrogen
d. magnesium
ans: a
-
What kind of battery is used by older satellites?
a. lithium
b. leclanche
c. hydrogen
d. magnesium
ans: c
-
VSAT was made available in
a. 1979
b. 1981
c. 1983
d. 1977
ans: a
-
What band does VSAT first operate?
a. L-band
b. X-band
c. C-band
d. Ku-band
ans: c
-
The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite have how many channels?
a. 30
b. 24
c. 48
d. 50
ans: a
-
The first Philippine Agila I will have how many transponders?
a. 36
b. 48
c. 24
d. 12
ans: a
-
How many satellite orbital satellites are requested by the Philippine Governme
nt form ITU?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
ans: c
-
The location of AsiaSat I.
a. 105.5 degrees East
b. 151.5 degrees East
c. 115.5 degrees East
d. 170.5 degrees East
ans: a
-
AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia?
a. 38
b. 10
c. 28
d. 15
ans: a
-
The owner of AsiaSat 2 is
a. Asia Satellite Telecommunication Company (ASTC)
b. Japan Satellite System (JSAT)
c. China Great Wall Industry Corporation
d. Singapore Satellite Commission
ans: c
-
What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-earth station?
a. 100 dB
b. 150 dB
c. 175 dB
d. 200 dB
ans: d
-
INTELSAT stands for
a. Intel Satellite
b. International Telephone Satellite
c. International Telecommunications Satellite
d. International Satellite
ans: c
-
The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications.
a. 6/4 GHz
b. 14/11 GHz
c. 12/14 GHz
d. 4/8 GHz
ans: b
-
A satellite cross-link means
a. Earth-to-satellite link
b. Satellite-to-earth link
c. Satellite-to-satellite link
d. None of these
ans: c
-
Earth station uses what type of antenna?
a. Despun antenna
b. Helical Antenna
c. Toroidal Antenna
d. Cassegrain antenna
ans: d
-
What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to e
arth receiver?
a. 0.5 s
b. 1.0 s
c. 5 ms
d. 0.25 ms
ans: a
-
The bandwidth of C-band satellite frequency band in U.S.
a. 500 GHz
b. 1000 GHz
c. 1000 MHz
d. 500 MHz
ans: d
-
The most common device used as an LNA is
a. zener diode
b. tunnel diode
c. IMPATT
d. Shockley diode
ans: b
-
The radiation patterns of earth coverage antennas have a beamwidth of approxim
ately
a. 21 deg
b. 5 deg
c. 17 deg
d. 35 deg
ans: c
-
A mobile satellite array has usually how many elements?
a. 6
b. 88
c. 12
d. 14
ans: d
-
In a typical mobile satellite array antenna of three elements are activated, h
ow many elements are deactivated?
a. 3
b. 11
c. 5
d. 9
ans: b
-
What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna el
ements in a mobile satellite array?
a. Radial divider
b. Divider/combiner
c. Radial combiner
d. Radial multiplexer
ans: a
-
Most mobile satellite array uses _____ in transforming 50 to 150 ohms impedanc
e.
a. stub
b. balun
c. quarter-wavelength transformer
d. microstrip tapers
ans: c
-
The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satell
ite array.
a. series
b. radial
c. matrix
d. shunt
ans: d
-
A method of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided i
nto smaller frequency band.
a. CDMA
b. ANIK-D
c. TDMA
d. FDMA
ans: d
-
What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to e
arth receiver?
a. 0.5 s
b. 1 s
c. 5 ms
d. 0.25 s
ans: a
-
As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above
ans: a
-
The main function of a communications satellite is a/an
a. repeater
b. reflector
c. beacon
d. observation platform
ans: a
-
The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the
a. Telemetry equipment
b. on-board computer
c. command and control system
d. transponder
ans: d
-
A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is called a/an
a. elliptical orbit
b. geostationary orbit
c. polar orbit
d. transfer orbit
ans: b
-
A satellite stays in orbit because the following two factors are balanced.
a. satellite weight and speed
b. gravitational force and centrifugal force
c. centripetal force and speed
d. satellite weight and the pull of the moon and the sun
ans: b
-
What is the height of a satellite system in a synchronous equatorial orbit?
a. 42,000 mi
b. 6,800 mi
c. 22,300 mi
d. 35,860 mi
ans: c
-
Most satellites operate in which frequency band?
a. 30 to 300 MHz
b. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
c. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
d. Above 300 GHz
ans: c
-
The main power sources of a satellite are
a. batteries
b. solar cells
c. fuel cells
d. thermoelectric generators
ans: b
-
The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the
a. perigee
b. apex
c. zenith
d. apogee
ans: d
-
Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems
a. at all times
b. only during emergencies
c. during eclipse periods
d. to give the solar arrays a rest
ans: c
-
The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the
a. propulsion subsystem
b. power subsystem
c. communications subsystem
d. telemetry, tracking, and command subsystem
ans: d
-
What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite?
a. gravity-forward motion balance
b. spin
c. thruster control
d. solar panel orientation
ans: b
-
The jet thrusters are fired to
a. maintain altitude
b. put the satellite into the transfer orbit
c. inject the satellite into the geosynchronous orbit
d. bring the satellite back to earth
ans: a
-
Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which bands (2)?
a. L
b. C and Ku
c. X
d. S and P
ans: b
-
How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?
a. frequency reuse
b. multiplexing
c. mixing
d. frequency hopping
ans: a
-
What is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band?
a. 36 MHz
b. 40 MHz
c. 70 MHz
d. 500 MHz
ans: d
-
Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder?
a. LNA
b. Mixer
c. Modulator
d. HPA
ans: c
-
The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the
a. LNA
b. bandpass filter
c. mixer
d. input signals
ans: b
-
The HPAs in most satellite are
a. TWTs
b. Klystrons
c. Vacuum tubes
d. Magnetrons
ans: a
-
The physical location of a satellite is determined by its
a. distance from the earth
b. latitude and longitude
c. reference to the stars
d. position relative to the sun
ans: b
-
The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function/s?
a. modulation and multiplexing
b. up conversion
c. demodulation and demultiplexing
d. down conversion
ans: c
-
Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations?
a. TWT
b. transistor
c. klystron
d. magnetron
ans: d
-
What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF?
a. 36 MHz
b. 40 MHz
c. 70 MHz
d. 500 MHz
ans: c
-
What type of modulation is used on voice and video signals?
a. AM
b. FM
c. SSB
d. QPSK
ans: b
-
What modulation is normally used with digital data?
a. AM
b. FM
c. SSB
d. QPSK
ans: d
-
Which of the following is not a typical output form a GPS receiver?
a. latitude
b. speed
c. altitude
d. longitude
ans: b
-
The total space loss of transmission and reception for two ground stations wit
h uplink frequency of 8 GHz and a downlink of 6 GHz with angle of elevations of
3 deg and 7 deg A respectively is
a. 403 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 215 dB
ans: a
-
The maximum propagation delay of a geostationary satellite is
a. 278 ms
b. 239 ms
c. 300 ms
d. 250 ms
ans: a
-
The total propagation delay time from transmission to reception of signals fro
m a ground transmitter to ground receiver with angle of elevation at 10 deg resp
ectively is
a. 273 ms
b. 239 ms
c. 275 ms
d. 260 ms
ans: a
-
A satellite which simply reflects the signal without further amplification
a. passive satellite
b. active satellite
c. geostationary satellite
d. domestic satellite
ans: a
-
Essentially a satellite ______ is a radio repeater in the sky
a. transponder
b. comparator
c. duplexer
d. billboard
ans: a
-
Satellite that orbits in a circular pattern with an angular velocity equal to
that of the earth.
a. geostationary
b. Early Bird I
c. Syncom I
d. Stationary satellite
ans: a
-
Satellite that provide services within a single country
a. domsat
b. comsat
c. regional
d. global
ans: a
-
The round-trip propagation delay between two earth stations through a geosynch
ronous satellite is
a. 500 to 600 ms
b. 300 to 400 ms
c. 600 to 700 ms
d. 400 to 500 ms
ans: a
-
The signal path from earth station satellite
a. uplink signal
b. reflected signal
c. incident signal
d. downlink signal
ans: a
-
Designed to receive a signal from a transmitting station on the ground and ret
ransmit it to a receiving station located elsewhere
a. communications satellite
b. repeater
c. relay station
d. transponder
ans: a
-
The signal path from satellite to earth based receiver.
a. downlink signal
b. uplink signal
c. incident signal
d. reflected signal
ans: a
-
A satellite position is measured by its _____ angle with respect to the horizo
n.
a. elevation
b. depression
c. azimuth
d. critical
ans: a
-
The _____ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the direction o
f true north.
a. azimuth
b. elevation
c. depression
d. critical
ans: a
-
Incidentally propose the geostationary scheme or orbit of the satellite in 194
0s.
a. Arthur Clarke
b. Carl Friedrich Gauss
c. Samuel Morse
d. Stephen Gray
ans: a
-
When the satellites are spaced 4 deg of the 360 deg complete circle, how many
parking spaces or orbit slots are available.
a. 90
b. 85
c. 95
d. 80
ans: a
-
The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to
as
a. station keeping
b. station tracking
c. station monitoring
d. station maintaining
ans: a
-
Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth
a. satellite altitude
b. satellite position
c. satellite location
d. satellite orbit
ans: a
-
The first Intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was named
a. Early Bird I
b. Echo
c. Telstar I
d. Courier
ans: a
-
The first satellite launched for a geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately lost
during orbit injection.
a. Syncom I
b. Telstar I
c. Sputnik I
d. Early Bird I
ans: a
-
When the elevation angle of a geostationary satellite is 23 degrees and the tr
ansmitting frequency is 3840 MHz, what is the free space loss in dB?
a. 196 dB
b. 200 dB
c. 150 dB
d. 100 dB
ans: a
-
What is the propagation delay when a signal is transmitted by an earth station
to a geosynchronous satellite about 38,500 km above the earth's equator and the
n received by the same earth station?
a. 256 msec
b. 128 msec
c. 300 msec
d. 400 msec
ans: a
-
What is the free space attenuation of a satellite communications system operat
ing at 36,000 km above the earth at 5.0 GHz?
a. 198 dB
b. 202 dB
c. 142 dB
d. 138 dB
ans: a
-
Which of the following is the most common application of satellite?
a. surveillance
b. military application
c. communications
d. newscasting
ans: c
-
Descending pass for a satellite means a pass from
a. North to South
b. South to North
c. East to West
d. West to East
ans: a
-
Geostationary stationary satellites are located _____ with respect to the equa
tor.
a. 0 deg longitude
b. 0 deg latitude
c. 90 deg latitude
d. 45 deg latitude
ans: b
-
Known as The Philippine Public Telecommunications Policy Act.
a. D.O. No. 88
b. D.O. No. 211
c. R.A. 5734
d. R.A. 7925
ans: d
-
Effectivity of the Philippine Telecommunications Policy Act.
a. March 22, 1995
b. April 21, 1995
c. May 21, 1995
d. June 21, 1995
ans: a
-
An act to promote and govern development of the Philippine Telecommunications
and the delivery of public telecommunications services.
a. R.A 467
b. R.A 7925
c. R.A.546
d. R.A. 5734
ans: b
-
E.O. no. 59, prescribing the guidelines of compulsory interconnection of autho
rized public telecommunications carrier took effect on
a. Feb 24, 1993
b. April 23, 1993
c. March 24, 1993
d. May 24, 1993
ans: a
-
Effectivity of Executive Order 59.
a. Feb 14, 1993
b. Feb 24, 1993
c. June 21, 1993
d. June 24, 1993
ans: b
-
The Electronics and Communications Engineering Act of the Philippines.
a. E.O. 59
b. R.A. 7453
c. R.A. 5743
d. R.A. 5734
ans: d
-
When was the effectivity of the ECE Act of the Philippines?
a. June 21, 1964
b. June 21, 1965
c. June 21, 1966
d. June 21, 1969
ans: d
-
Decree created the Professional Regulations Commission (PRC).
a. P.D. 322
b. P.D. 232
c. P.D. 223
d. P.D. 323
ans: c
-
Effectivity of the Presidential Decree creating PRC
a. July 21, 1973
b. June 22, 1973
c. June 28, 1973
d. June 12, 1973
ans: b
-
A law prescribing the functions of the National Telecommunications Commission.

a. E.O. 543
b. E.O. 544
c. E.O. 545
d. E.O. 546
ans: d
-
When was E.O. 546 promulgated?
a. July 23, 1978
b. July 23, 1979
c. July 23, 1980
d. July 23, 1981
ans: b
-
Rules and regulations requiring the services of a duly registered ECE in the p
lanning and designing, installation or construction, operation and maintenance o
f radio stations, and in the manufacture and/or modification of radio communicat
ions equipment.
a. D.O. No. 88
b. D.O. No. 11
c. D.O. No. 68
d. R.A. No. 3864
ans: a
-
What law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the P
hilippines and other purposes?
a. D.O. No. 88
b. P.D. 223
c. R.A. 5734
d. R.A. 3846
ans: d
-
The institutionalization of the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) progra
ms of the various regulated professions under the supervision of the Professiona
l Regulations Commission.
a. E.O. 266
b. E.O. 286
c. E.O. 622
d. E.O. 626
ans: a
-
The CPE program was institutionalized through an executive order dated
a. July 25, 1994
b. July 25, 1997
c. July 25, 1996
d. July 25, 1995
ans: d
-
Otherwise known as the Municipal Telephone Act.
a. R.A. 6984
b. R.A. 6849
c. R.A. 8694
d. R.A. 6984
ans: b
-
Municipal Telephone Act was approved on
a. Feb. 8, 1990
b. Feb. 8, 1992
c. Feb. 8, 1991
d. Feb. 8, 1993
ans: a
-
An order providing for a national policy on the operation and use of internati
onal satellite communications in the country.
a. E.O. 486
b. E.O. 467
c. E.O. 576
d. E.O. 567
ans: b
-
When was the effectivity of the national policy on the operation and use of in
ternational satellite communications in the Philippines?
a. February 17, 1998
b. March 17, 1998
c. April 17, 1998
d. June 17, 1998
ans: b
-
Policy to improve the provision of local exchange carrier service.
a. E.O. 59
b. E.O. 69
c. E.O. 88
d. E.O. 109
ans: d
-
Effectivity of the Executive Order 109
a. June 15, 1993
b. July 15, 1993
c. August 15, 1993
d. September 15, 1993
ans: b
-
The implementing rules and regulations governing the practice of ECE in the Ph
ilippines on MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging and Background Music System, Telephone and
Computer installations are embodied in
a. BECE Resolution No. 3
b. BECE Resolution No. 2
c. BECE Resolution No. 4
d. BECE Resolution No. 5
ans: a
-
Under R.A. 5734, the minimum age of a registered ECE to become a member of the
ECE Board is _____ years old.
a. 21
b. 31
c. 35
d. 40
ans: b
-
Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after ___
__ days.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60
ans: c
-
According to Act 3846, the maximum penalty for a person who commits two offens
es are
a. P 2,000 fine and 2 years imprisonment
b. P 1,000 fine and 1 years imprisonment
c. P 4,000 fine and 4 years imprisonment
d. P 3,000 fine and 3 years imprisonment
ans: c
-
Ground for refusal of the Board to issue a Board Certificate.
a. conviction of crime involving moral turpitude
b. immorality and dishonorable conduct
c. unsound mind
d. all of these
ans: d
-
What is the keystone of professional conduct?
a. honesty
b. courtesy
c. justice
d. integrity
ans: d
-
The foundation of moral philosophy.
a. integrity, honesty, and justice
b. justice, honesty, and courtesy
c. justice, courtesy, and integrity
d. sincerity, honesty, and justice
ans: b
-
Refers to inculcation, assimilation, and acquisition of knowledge, skills, pro
ficiency and ethical and moral values, to raise and enhance the professional's l
evel of competence.
a. Continuing Professional Education
b. Professional License
c. Continuing Program Education
d. Continuing Professional Lessons
ans: a
-
The CPE program aims to
a. ensure the continuous education of a registered professional on latest tren
d of his profession
b. promote and protect the general welfare of the public
c. raise and maintain the professional's capability for delivering quality pro
fessional service
d. all of these
ans: d
-
A professional license must be renewed
a. every 3 years
b. on the birthdate of the professional
c. on or before the 20th day of the month following his/her birthdate
d. all of these
ans: d
-
CPE credit units required to renew a professional license.
a. 60
b. 90
c. 105
d. 75
ans: a
-
Who are exempted from complying with CPE requirements?
a. professional who reached the age of 65 years
b. professionals working abroad or practicing his profession abroad
c. professionals studying abroad
d. all of these
ans: d
-
Participants of a convention / seminar earns how many credit units.
a. 1 credit unit per hour
b. 2 credit unit per hour
c. 3 credit unit per hour
d. 5 credit unit per hour
ans: a
-
An international organization concerned with revising and preparing/proposing
recommendations for international telecommunications.
a. NTC
b. IEC
c. JIS
d. CCITT
ans: d
-
Which agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended practi
ces for all civil aviation?
a. FAA
b. ICAO
c. IATA
d. ATO
ans: b
-
A United Nations body for telecommunications.
a. ANSI
b. AT&T
c. ITT
d. ITU
ans: d
-
What does ITU mean?
a. International Telecommunications Unit
b. International Telecommunications Union
c. International Telephone and Telegraph Union
d. International Telecom Unit
ans: b
-
For the allocation of frequencies in the world, ITU divides the world into how
many regions?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 4
ans: a
-
Philippines is under what region of frequency allocation?
a. Region 1
b. Region 2
c. Region 3
d. Region 4
ans: c
-
What does NTC stand for?
a. National Telecommunications Commission
b. National Telephone and Telegraph Commission
c. National Telecommunications Council
d. National Telecommunications Corporation
ans: a
-
A private radio communications system in the Land Mobile Service limited to po
rtable transceiver for short range communications.
a. Short Range Land Service
b. Short Range Mobile Service
c. Short Range Radio Service
d. all of these
ans: c
-
An authority issued by the NTC to individuals and/or entities for the possessi
on and operation of radio station under the SRRS.
a. SRRS Type Approval
b. SRRS Special Permit
c. SRRS Operating Permit
d. SRRS Acceptance Approval
ans: b
-
SRRS means
a. Short Range Radio Service
b. Short Range Receiving Service
c. Short Radio Receiving Service
d. none of the above
ans: a
-
A certification issued by the NTC for SSRS radio equipment complying to the SS
RS technical standards and specifications, where equipment has already been type
approved by the administration whose certification is acceptable and whose proc
ess does not require laboratory testing.
a. type acceptance
b. type certification
c. type approval
d. all of the above
ans: a
-
A certification issued by the commission for SRRS equipment complying to the t
echnical standards and specifications whose process requires laboratory testing.

a. type acceptance
b. type certification
c. type approval
d. all of the above
ans: c
-
The radio transceiver in the SRRS in the Philippines is of what type emission.

a. FM only (12KOF3E)
b. FM only (10KOF3E)
c. FM only (11KOF3E)
d. FM only (13KOF3E)
ans: c
-
The radio transceiver in the SRRS in the Philippines has a maximum transmitted
output power of
a. 3 W
b. 4 W
c. 5 W
d. 6 W
ans: a
-
What is the international color used to paint broadcast antenna towers?
a. white and orange
b. white and yellow
c. white and red
d. orange and yellow
ans: a
-
Broadcast transmitters are designed to have an operating life of _____ years.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
ans: b
-
_____ of a frequency band is the entry in the table of frequency allocation of
a given frequency for the given purpose of its use by one or more terrestrial o
r space radiocommunication services or the radio astronomy service under specifi
ed conditions.
a. assignment
b. allocation
c. allotment
d. regulation
ans: b
-
The power of any conducted spurious emission shall be attenuated below the max
imum level of carrier frequency in accordance with the following formula with P
= carrier power output in watts.
a. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10logP
b. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + logP
c. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + logP / 10
d. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20logP
ans: a
-
Cordless telephones or telephone line extenders with coverage area beyond 300
feet shall have a maximum transmitting power of
a. 1 W
b. 20 W
c. 50 W
d. 10 W
ans: d
-
Cordless telephone line extends with coverage area beyond 300 feet shall have
a frequency range of
a. Tx : 326.250 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 - 218.475 MHz
b. Tx : 300.000 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 - 218.475 MHz
c. Tx : 326.250 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 210.000 - 218.475 MHz
d. Tx : 326.250 - 327.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 - 218.475 MHz
ans: a
-
The frequency band allocated for SRRS shall be _____ MHz using 12.5 kHz channe
ling plan _____ MHz using 12.5 kHz channeling plan.
a. 325 - 325.4875
b. 325 - 352.4875
c. 325 - 325.25
d. 325 - 342.25
ans: a
-
Satellite communications services provided by a satellite carrier to a carrier
, usually a terrestrial-based carrier.
a. Satellite Carrier's Carrier Services
b. Satellite Carrier Services
c. Terrestrial Satellite Services
d. Satellite Services
ans: a
-
Any entity authorized by NTC to lease space segment capacity.
a. space segment occupant
b. space segment lessee
c. space occupant
d. space segment player
ans: b
-
A data network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is
authorized to provide data and other related telecommunications services to the
public.
a. Public Switched Telephone Network
b. Public Switched Communications Network
c. Public Switched Data Network
d. none of these
ans: c
-
A telephone network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier tha
t is authorized to provide telephony and other related telecommunications servic
es to the public.
a. Public Switched Telephone Network
b. Public Switched Communications Network
c. Public Switched Data Network
d. none of these
ans: a
-
A non-exclusive facility at which the public may, by the payment of appropriat
e fees, place as well as receive telephone calls or a telegram or other messages
.
a. Public Toll Service Station
b. Public Toll Calling Station
c. Public Toll Carrier Station
d. Public Toll Bus Station
ans: b
-
An entity which, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution
facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas car
riers, offer enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers
.
a. Value-added exchange
b. Value-added carrier
c. Value-added tax
d. Value-added service provider (VAS)
ans: d
-
A wider area mobile radio telephone system with its own switch base stations a
nd transmissions by utilizing radio frequencies.
a. Mobile Telephone System
b. Cellular Radio System
c. Cellular Telephone System
d. Mobile Radio Telephone System
ans: d
-
The linkage, by wire, radio, satellite, or other means, of two or more existin
g telecommunications carriers or operators with one another for the purpose of a
llowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or operator to access or reac
h the subscriber of the other carriers or operators.
a. tie-up
b. cross-connection
c. interconnection
d. all of these
ans: c
-
A facility consisting of international transmission, switching and network man
agement facilities which serves as point of entry and exit in the Philippines of
international traffic between the national network and points outside the Phili
ppines.
a. International Gateway Network (IGN)
b. International Gateway Carrier (IGC)
c. International Gateway Facility (IGF)
d. all of these
ans: c
-
A specific point as defined on the network where point of interconnection shal
l occur in such a way that interconnection between and among local exchange carr
iers, inter-exchange carriers and international gateway facilities operations ca
n be made efficient and effective.
a. point of presence
b. point of interference
c. point of interconnection
d. carrier point
ans: a
-
The duly enfranchised and NTC certified telecommunications carrier and/or any
entity duly authorized by law including the government to provide public telecom
munications services.
a. Public Communications Carrier
b. Public Telecommunications Entity
c. Public Telecommunications Carrier
d. all of these
ans: c
-
Composed of orbiting satellite and the associated equipment used to track, mon
itor and control the operation of the satellite.
a. space segment
b. satellite segment
c. space device
d. tracking segment
ans: a
-
An owner or operator of in-orbit communication satellite system, which leases
or sells communications capacity to duly authorized space segment lessees.
a. space segment franchise
b. space segment authority
c. space segment provider
d. all of these
ans: c
-
Any entity authorized by the NTC to provide satellite communications services,
either as a carrier's carrier and/or common carrier.
a. Satellite Communications Service Provider
b. Satellite Communications Franchisers
c. Satellite Communications Authority
d. none of these
ans: a
-
A satellite earth station designed to receive satellite signals. Such stations
may be used to receive data, such as stock market prices or newswire service or
television programs.
a. Receive-only satellite earth station
b. Receive-only earth station
c. transmit-receive earth station
d. transmit-only earth station
ans: a
-
The act of receiving satellite TV programs and retransmitting same through any
mode, i.e. tape, wire or wireless for public viewing.
a. distribution of satellite TV programs
b. transmission of satellite TV programs
c. redistribution of satellite TV programs
d. receiving of satellite TV programs
ans: c
-
Transmission, emission and/or reception of radio signals involving one or more
space and earth stations.
a. satellite communications
b. microwave communications
c. wire communications
d. wireless communications
ans: a
-
Any process which enables a telecommunications entity to relay and receive voi
ce, data, electronic message, written or printed matter, fixed or moving picture
s, words, music or audible or visible signals or any control signals of any desi
gn and for any purpose by wire, radio, and other electromagnetic, spectral, opti
cal or technological means.
a. communications
b. telecommunications
c. broadcasting
d. wireless communications
ans: b
-
Any entity primarily engaged in the business providing transmission and switch
ing of any telecommunications service between the Philippines and any other poin
t of the world to which it has an existing corresponding or prospective intercon
nection agreement.
a. international carrier
b. load carrier
c. inter-exchange carrier
d. national carrier
ans: a
-
An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network oper
ator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exch
anges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange nat
ional long distance services.
a. international carrier
b. inter-exchange carrier
c. local exchange carrier
d. national carrier
ans: b
-
Any entity providing transmission and switching of telecommunications services
, primarily but limited to voice-to-voice service in geographical area in the Ph
ilippines.
a. local exchange franchise
b. local exchange operator
c. local exchange provider
d. local exchange entity
ans: b
-
Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, government or private, engaged i
n the provision of telecommunications services to the public for compensation.
a. Public Telecommunications Facility
b. Public Telecommunications Provider
c. Public Telecommunications Franchise
d. all of these
ans: a
-
Refers to facilities consisting of but not limited to equipment, devices, mate
rials, required to make two telecommunications systems or networks interwork wit
h each other.
a. interface
b. exchange
c. interconnection
d. none of these
ans: a
-
Refers to the defined area as determined by the NTC within a municipality or c
ity or combination of two or more cities and/or municipalities under a common lo
cal exchange rate schedule.
a. Local Exchange Service Area
b. Local Network Area
c. Local Exchange Area
d. Local Exchange Network Area
ans: a
-
Refers to the local exchange service area where the telephone density is 1 per
100 inhabitants and shall be based on the telephone density target from the app
roved National Telephone Development Plan (NTDP), expressed as main station per
100 persons.
a. provincial
b. metro
c. rural
d. urban
ans: d
-
Refers to local exchange service area where the telephone density is less than
1 per 100.
a. provincial
b. metro
c. rural
d. urban
ans: c
-
Refers to the local exchange service area within the Philippines where there i
s no existing telephone exchange service.
a. undeserved area
b. dead area
c. unserved area
d. serve area
ans: c
-
Refers to the local exchange residence and business telephone service and tele
graph service without additional features.
a. Basic Communications Service
b. Basic Telecommunications Service
c. Basic Telephone Service
d. Basic Service
ans: b
-
Refers to the local exchange telephone service area within the Philippines whe
re the local exchange service is available but the number of existing telephone
connections and available lines than the established telephone density as define
d under Urban or when the LEC cannot provide the service to 90% of the applicant
s within 10 working days from the date of application.
a. undeserved area
b. unserved area
c. deficit area
d. backlog area
ans: a
-
Refers to the enhancements made over the plain telephone/telegraph service for
which the subscribers are made to pay additional charges.
a. additional features
b. additional services
c. additional facilities
d. additional lines
ans: a
-
Refers to the port in the switching international gateways system equivalent t
o 4 kHz or 64 kbps (analog or digital) where international circuit terminates.
a. International Gateway Termination
b. International Carrier Termination
c. International Switch Termination
d. Inter-exchange Termination
ans: c
-
Any government department or service responsible for discharging the obligatio
ns of the ITU regulations.
a. NTC
b. commission
c. administration
d. committee
ans: c
-
Any one of a number of measures permitting direct dealings between authorized
entities and international satellite system providers at specified levels as def
ined by the NTC.
a. direct order
b. direct measure
c. direct contact
d. direct access
ans: d
-
Satellite newsgathering refers to the use of satellite service to provide temp
orary communications services for news media organizations covering news events
such as summit, conferences or disasters. This requires the use of transportable
earth stations such as
a. GMPSC
b. Fixed Satellite Service and Mobile Satellite Service
c. Mobile Satellite Service Only
d. Fixed Satellite Service Only
ans: b
-
Foreign news media organizations wanting to bring SNG earth stations to the Ph
ilippines shall secure a special NTC permit. What does SNG mean?
a. Satellite Newscasters Group
b. Satellite News Group
c. Satellite Newsgathering
d. Satellite Network Group
ans: c
-
CDMA means
a. Code Division Mobile Access
b. Cellular Division Mobile Access
c. Cellular Device Mobile Access
d. Code Division Multiple Access
ans: d
-
CMTS means
a. Cellular Motion Telecommunications System
b. Cellular Mobile Telephone System
c. Cellular Mobile Telecommunications System
d. Cellular Mobile Telephone and Telegraph System
ans: b
-
CPE means
a. Continuous Professional Education
b. Continuous Program of Education
c. Continuing Program of Education
d. Continuing Professional Education
ans: d
-
CPCN means
a. Certificate of Private Comfort and Necessity
b. Certificate of Public Communications Network
c. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
d. Certified Public Communications Network
ans: c
-
IXC means
a. International Exchange Carriers
b. Inter-Exchange Carrier
c. International Exchange Center
d. none of these
ans: b
-
The first symbol of emission is
a. the type of information to be transmitted
b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier
c. the type of modulation of the main carrier
d. none of these
ans: c
-
The second symbol of emission is
a. the type of information to be transmitted
b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier
c. the type of modulation of the main carrier
d. none of these
ans: b
-
The third symbol of emission is
a. the type of information to be transmitted
b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier
c. the type of modulation of the main carrier
d. none of these
ans: a
-
The maximum ground resistance in an equipment installation is required by Volu
me 1 of the Philippine Electronic Code (Safety Code) is
a. 10 ohms
b. 25 ohms
c. 5 ohms
d. 1 ohm
ans: c
-
A certificate issued to an ECE who passed the licensure examinations provided
upon payment of the required fees.
a. Certificate to Practice
b. Certificate of Registration
c. Certificate of Public Convenience
d. Certificate of Oath
ans: b
-
In order to be admitted to the ECE licensure examinations, an applicant must,
at the time of filing of his application, be at least _____ years old.
a. 18
b. 19
c. 20
d. 21
ans: d
-
A foreigner can take the ECE licensure examinations after following all requir
ements based on the policy of _____ law.
a. immigration
b. nationality
c. foreign reciprocity
d. international
ans: c
-
To pass the ECE licensure examinations, a candidate must obtain an average of
_____ % with no rating below _____ % in any of the board subjects.
a. 70, 50
b. 70, 70
c. 70, 60
d. 75, 50
ans: a
-
The Chairman and members of the ECE Board are appointed by the
a. IECEP international chapter
b. PRC Commissioner
c. head of schools
d. President of the Philippines
ans: d
-
Which of the following is not one of the powers and duties of the ECE board?
a. issue, suspend, or revoke licenses for ECE practice
b. conduct hearing especially homicide cases of ECE
c. administer professional oath for new ECEs
d. study, examine and prescribe in cooperation with CHED with regards to curri
cula development and facilities of schools offering ECE course.
ans: b
-
The following are the grounds for refusal for the ECE board to issue a certifi
cate of registration of an ECE except.
a. unsound mind
b. conviction of court of competent jurisdiction
c. immorality
d. unstable job and designation
ans: d
-
Which of the following is a valid ground for revocation of a professional lice
nse?
a. competence
b. ethical conduct
c. honesty
d. fraud and deceit
ans: d
-
To qualify as a member of the ECE board, one must be a
a. registered ECE
b. 31 years of age
c. in active practice in the ECE profession for at least 10 years
d. all of these
ans: d
-
Any violations of the ECE act shall be punished by
a. a fine of one thousand pesos
b. an imprisonment of not less than six months nor more than six years
c. a fine of no less than two thousand pesos but not more than 5 thousand peso
s
d. choices b and/or c
ans: d
-
Which of the choices below is not covered in the penal provision of the ECE Ac
t of the Philippines?
a. any person who advertise himself as an ECE where in fact he is not only reg
istered with the board
b. any person holding a license who shall not engage in wire-tapping
c. any person who passed the exams but had not taken his oath
d. any person who is using a revoked or suspended license.
ans: c
-
What government agency is responsible for the formulation of the Rules and Reg
ulations governing the examination regulation and practice of an ECE in the Phil
ippines?
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. National Telecommunications Commission
c. Civil Service Commission
d. Institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a nature or scope of work of an ECE?
a. investigating
b. planning
c. designing
d. directing
ans: d
-
The official seal of an ECE which is circular in shape has a maximum outside d
iameter of
a. 1 7/8 inches
b. 1 2/3 inches
c. 1 1/4 inches
d. 1 1/2 inches
ans: a
-
Symbols signifying radio and wireless communications, positioned one each at t
he four cardinal points of the compass in the official ECE dry seal.
a. alternate dot and dashes
b. an atom
c. four lightnings
d. three lightnings
ans: c
-
In the official dry seal of a registered ECE, the alternate dots and dashes ar
e placed
a. below the atom
b. above the license number
c. between the lightning symbols
d. along the band of the license number
ans: c
-
The sole professional organization of ECEs which was founded in 1950.
a. IECEP
b. ECES
c. IEEE
d. IIECE
ans: a
-
An applicant for a new CATV station shall file a petition for _____ with the N
TC.
a. Certificate of Public Convenience
b. Certificate of Authority
c. Franchise certificate
d. License
ans: b
-
A type of gov't resolution needed for new CATV station.
a. Sangguniang Bayan Resolution
b. Congress Resolution
c. ECE board resolution
d. Senate resolution
ans: a
-
According to E.O. 59, for junction exchange point of intersection, short haul
connection should not exceed
a. 150 km
b. 100 km
c. 30 km
d. 200 km
ans: a
-
According to E.O. 59, for junction exchange point of intersection, long haul c
onnection should not exceed
a. 100 km
b. 150 km
c. 175 km
d. 200 km
ans: b
-
One of the requirement for a new broadcast radio station is the filing of peti
tion for certificate of _____ with NTC.
a. franchise
b. public convenience
c. permit
d. authority
ans: b
-
Authorized international gateway operators shall be required to provide local
exchange service in unserved and underserved areas within _____ years from the g
rant of authority from NTC.
a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ans: c
-
Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of _____ local exchange l
ines per international switch termination.
a. 150
b. 300
c. 600
d. 500
ans: b
-
At least one rural exchange line shall be provided for every _____ urban local
exchange lines installed.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
ans: b
-
No permit for international gateway facility shall be granted to an applicant
for local exchange carrier service unless there is a clear showing that it can e
stablish the necessary _____.
a. foreign correspondenceship
b. franchise
c. international agreement
d. treaty
ans: a
-
Which of the following stations does not require a franchise from the Congress
of the Philippines?
a. an experimental station
b. a training station
c. a station on board a mobile vessel
d. all of these
ans: d
-
_________ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, plu
s a satellite dish operating on channel 3.
a. Adjacent channel interference
b. Ghost
c. Co-channel interference
d. Crosstalk
ans: a
-
Dithering (in TVRO communications) is a process for
a. reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal
b. centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels
c. moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle
d. moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam
ans: a
-
A network that has an input of 75 dB and an output of 35dB. The loss of the ne
twork is ______________.
a. -40 dB
b. 40 dB
c. 40 dBm
d. -40 dBm
ans: b
-
Important useful quantities describing waveforms.
a. Time and frequency
b. Voltage and current
c. Frequency and voltage
d. Power and frequency
ans: c
-
Halving the power means
a. 6-dB gain
b. 3-dB loss
c. 3-dB gain
d. 6-dB loss
ans: b
-
One neper (Np) is how many decibels?
a. 8.866
b. 8.686
c. 8.688
d. 8.868
ans: b
-
A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is
a. 20 dB
b. 119 dB
c. 15 dB
d. 25 dB
ans: a
-
Which of the following is used to measure SWR?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Reflectometer
c. Oscilloscope
d. Multimeter
ans: b
-
214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristics
impedance of
a. 52 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 300 ohms
ans: d
-
What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which is to act as
a quarterwave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600
ohms load?
a. 300.04 ohms
b. 324.04 ohms
c. 310.04 ohms
d. 320.04 ohms
ans: b
-
What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB antenna connected to transmitter with an ou
tput of 10 kW through a transmission line with a loss of 5 dB?
a. 85 dBW
b. 955 dBW
c. 90 dBW
d. 80 dBW
ans: a
-
A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an
a. unbounded medium
b. transmission channel
c. non-metallic medium
d. bounded medium
ans: d
-
If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180ohms load to a transmis
sion line w/ an impedance of 300ohms, what should be the char. impedance of the
matching transformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected di
rectly to the load
a. 180 ohms
b. 232 ohms
c. 300 ohms
d. 480 ohms
ans: b
-
A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a frequ
ency of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cab
le 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. Determi
ne the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conductor has a thic
kness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1).
a. 1.0 in
b. 0.9 in
c. 0.7 in
d. 0.5 in
ans: d
-
A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a frequ
ency of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cab
le 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. The out
er conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). In the problem, calculat
e the line current.
a. 1.7 A
b. 1.3 A
c. 1.5 A
d. 1.0 A
ans: a
-
A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a frequ
ency of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cab
le 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. The out
er conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). Determine the total atte
nuation of the line in the problem.
a. 2.0 dB
b. 1.5 dB
c. 2.5 dB
d. 1.0 dB
ans: b
-
What is the max. subscriber loop length, in ft., of a telephone system if the
signaling resistance is 1800 ohms using a tel. cable pair of gauge # 26 with a l
oop resistance of 83.5 ohms per 1000 ft. Assume the telephone set resistance is
equal to 200 ohms.
a. 15,161.7 feet
b. 19,161 feet
c. 15,300 feet
d. 20,000 feet
ans: b
-
If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of
6 dB, what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the
same gauge # 26 telephone wire? Assume a 2.7 dB loss per mile.
a. 20,000 ft
b. 13,900 ft
c. 15,280 ft
d. 11,733 ft
ans: d
-
The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is
a. 2.0 W
b. 2.5 W
c. 1.5 W
d. 1.8 W
ans: a
-
Known as one-tenth of a neper.
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBp
d. dNp
ans: d
-
The input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its
resonant frequency is
a. 0 ohms
b. infinite or an open circuit
c. ohms
d. 70 ohms
ans: b
-
The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in
the line is called
a. SWR
b. ISWR
c. VSWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
ans: c
-
An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenn
a through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the le
ngth of the dipole
a. 20 m
b. 7.5 m
c. 15 m
d. 25 m
ans: c
-
An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenn
a through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the le
ngth of the quarterwave stub.
a. 15 m
b. 7.5 m
c. 20 m
d. 25 m
ans: b
-
To find the char. Impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with (a)
the far end open circuited & (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding rea
dings being a) Ro=3ohms & Xc=55ohms, capacitive b) Rs=10ohms & Xl=90ohms, induct
ive What is the characteristic impedance, Zo, of the line?
a. 75.7 - j2.0 ohms
b. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms
c. 87.5 - j5 ohms
d. 70.7 - j1.97 ohms
ans: d
-
A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200 V and is immediately amplified b
y a pre-amplifier with a 15 dB gain. This amplified signal then passes through a
coaxial cable with 3 dB loss, what is the resulting input to the TV set, in dBm
V?
a. 1.98
b. 13.98
c. -1.98
d. -13.98
ans: c
-
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its _
_________.
a. conductor spacing
b. conductor diameter
c. length
d. conductor radius
ans: c
-
What does a power difference of -3 dB mean?
a. a loss of one third of the power
b. a loss of one half of the power
c. a loss of three watts of the power
d. no significant change
ans: b
-
Which of the following is an advantage of the balance transmission line?
a. Easy installation
b. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses
c. Low attenuation
d. None of these
ans: c
-
Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because
a. they are bulky at lower frequencies
b. losses are heavy at lower frequencies
c. they depend on straight line propagation
d. no generators are powerful enough to excite them
ans: d
-
The input is 1 W and the network loss is 27 dB, the output is
a. 1 mW
b. 3 mW
c. 2 mW
d. 4 mW
ans: c
-
A combiner has two inputs + 30 dBm and + 30 dBm, what is the resultant output?

a. + 36 dBm
b. + 30 dBm
c. + 60 dBm
d. + 33 dBm
ans: d
-
The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. ISWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
ans: c
-
If the ratio of the maximum current to the minimum current in a transmission l
ine is 2:1 then the ratio of maximum voltage to minimum voltage is
a. 4:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 2:1
ans: d
-
Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a n
umber 12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6 GHz per 100 fee
t length.
a. 0.05 dB
b. 0.55 dB
c. 0.44 dB
d. 0.35 dB
ans: c
-
Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a n
umber 12 wire (81 mils). Determine the spacing between wires from center to cent
er.
a. 6 in
b. 4 in
c. 5 in
d. 3 in
ans: a
-
A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series
inductance of 4 mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance?
a. 500 ohms
b. 400 ohms
c. 300 ohms
d. 200 ohms
ans: d
-
A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to
a. 10 dBm
b. 10 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 100 dB
ans: b
-
A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required.
a. Balun
b. Parallel-wire line
c. Coaxial line
d. Quarterwave line
ans: b
-
What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capaci
tance of 40 nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft
a. 111.8 ohms
b. 110.8 ohms
c. 112.8 ohms
d. 109.8 ohms
ans: a
-
The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected power is 7 dB dow
n on the incident power, the output power to the load is
a. 4 W
b. 5 W
c. 6 W
d. 7 W
ans: a
-
To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission lin
e should be equal to
a. 1
b. 10
c. 50
d. 2
ans: a
-
A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic imp
edance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60, calculate the inne
r diameter.
a. 2.09 cm
b. 2.09 in
c. 2.09 mm
d. 2.09 mm
ans: c
-
If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage ratio does
the gain of 50 dB represent?
a. 316.2
b. 325.2
c. 320.1
d. 315.0
ans: a
-
What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF/ft
and a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms?
a. 0.167 H/ft
b. 0.178 H/ft
c. 0.19 H/ft
d. 0.18 H/ft
ans: d
-
The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy receive
d by the surface.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Absorption coefficient
c. Linear coefficient
d. Thermal coefficient
ans: b
-
When the diameter of the conductors of a 2 wire transmission line is held cons
tant, the effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is
a. increase the surge impedance
b. increase the radiation resistance
c. decrease the SWR
d. decrease the impedance
ans: d
-
The higher the gauge number of a conductor
a. the bigger the diameter
b. the higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter
c. the higher the resistance
d. none of these
ans: b
-
A short length of transmission line used to reduce/eliminate standing waves in
the main transmission line.
a. Stub
b. Balun
c. lambda/4 transformer
d. Slot
ans: c
-
Ratio of reflected power to incident power?
a. Incidence
b. Reflectance
c. Reflection index
d. None of these
ans: b
-
A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a line
of 52 ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer i
s
a. 200 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 176 ohms
d. 300 ohms
ans: d
-
What is the capacitance of 55 miles # 44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wi
re tables, # 44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in.
a. 0.476 F
b. 0.476 nF
c. 0.476 pF
d. 0.476 fF
ans: a
-
A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distan
ce between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of th
e line?
a. 650 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 660 ohms
ans: d
-
A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distan
ce between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the attenuation in dB per 100 ft.
of the line for a frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 0.05
b. 0.03
c. 0.04
d. 0.06
ans: b
-
What is the SWR when a transmission line is terminated in a short circuit?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinite
d. Indeterminate
ans: c
-
What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the domin
ant characteristics of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical struct
ure?
a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Reactance
d. Impedance
ans: d
-
When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the load _________
_ all the power.
a. reflects
b. absorbs
c. attenuates
d. radiates
ans: b
-
Impedance matching ratio of a coax balun.
a. 1:4
b. 4:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:2
ans: b
-
Which stands for dB relative level?
a. dBm
b. dBa
c. dBr
d. dBx
ans: c
-
Standard test tone used for audio measurement.
a. 800 Hz
b. 300 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
ans: d
-
When VSWR is equal to zero, this means
a. that no power is applied
b. that the load is purely resistive
c. that the load is a pure reactance
d. that the load is opened
ans: a
-
___________ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward traveling voltage
.
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. ISWR
ans: c
-
Transmission line must be matched to the load to __________.
a. transfer maximum voltage to the load
b. transfer maximum power to the load
c. reduce the load current
d. transfer maximum current to the load
ans: b
-
Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor?
a. Quality factor
b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor
d. Power factor
ans: c
-
What is the standard test tone?
a. 0 dB
b. 0 dBW
c. 0 dBm
d. 0 dBrn
ans: c
-
The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
a. Reflective waves
b. Captured waves
c. Incident waves
d. Standing waves
ans: d
-
Micron is equal to _____________ meter.
a. 10^ -10
b. 10^ -9
c. 10^ -6
d. 10^ -3
ans: c
-
1 Angstrom (A^ 0) is equal to ___________.
a. 10^ -3 micron
b. 10^ -10 m
c. 10^ -6 micron
d. 10^ -6 m
ans: b
-
Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?
a. Because of the size of the waveguide
b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation
d. All of these
ans: a
-
__________ is the transmission and reception of information.
a. Modulation
b. Communications
c. Radiation
d. Emission
ans: b
-
What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ratio of output to input is
0.01?
a. 20
b. -20
c. 40
d. -40
ans: a
-
Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to
a. negative terminal
b. reference
c. ground
d. positive terminal
ans: c
-
The standing wave ratio is equal to ____________ if the load is properly match
ed with the transmission line.
a. infinity
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1
ans: d
-
__________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unba
lanced line.
a. Low attenuation
b. Easy installation
c. Low radiation loss
d. Tensile strength
ans: a
-
__________ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system
.
a. Fourier series
b. Spectral analysis
c. Frequency analysis
d. Bandwidth analysis
ans: b
-
What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide?
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The coating of silver inside
c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide
d. Radiation loss
ans: c
-
A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission
line.
a. Hybrid
b. Stub
c. Directional coupler
d. Balun
ans: d
-
What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm ap
art with the length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms
b. 15 ohms
c. 18 ohms
d. 23 ohms
ans: a
-
What is the average power rating of RG-58 C/u?
a. 25 W
b. 50 W
c. 75 W
d. 200 W
ans: b
-
A coaxial cable used for high temperatures.
a. RG-58C
b. RG-11A
c. RG-213
d. RG-211A
ans: d
-
If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how
many such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
ans: b
-
You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the me
ter reads -73 dBm, convert the reading into dBmCO.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 22
ans: d
-
The velocity factor of a transmission line
a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
c. is governed by the skin effect
d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
ans: a
-
Impedance inversion can be obtained by
a. a short-circuit stub
b. an open-circuited stub
c. a quarter-wave line
d. a half-wave line
ans: c
-
Transmission lines when connected to antennas have
a. capacitive load
b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedanc
e of the line
c. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristic impedance of th
e line
d. resistive load at the resonant frequency
ans: d
-
One of the following is not a bounded media
a. Coaxial line
b. Two-wire line
c. Waveguide
d. Ocean
ans: d
-
The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length i
s infinite.
a. Input impedance
b. Open circuit impedance
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Short circuit impedance
ans: c
-
The following are considered primary line constants except
a. conductance
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. complex propagation constant
ans: d
-
The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines rang
e from about
a. 1.2 to 2.8
b. 2.8 to 3.5
c. 3.5 to 5.2
d. 1.0 to 1.2
ans: a
-
Typically, the velocity factor, V(F) of the materials commonly used in transmi
ssion lines range from
a. 0.6 to 0.9
b. 0.1 to 0.5
c. 1.0 to 0.9
d. 0.6 to 0.8
ans: a
-
For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance valu
e is
a. 85 ohms
b. 83 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 88 ohms
ans: b
-
When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by a short circuit
and is connected to an RF source at the other end, its input impedance is
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
ans: d
-
A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-
8A/u cable to an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the refl
ection coefficient
a. 0.71
b. 0.77
c. 0.97
d. 0.76
ans: a
-
A quarterwave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to mat
ch the line to a load of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a char. Impedance of 316
.23 ohms. The dist. Bet. Centers is 4 inches. What is the % reduction in the dia
meter of the line?
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 86%
d. 90%
ans: b
-
The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called
a. ionization
b. normalization
c. rationalization
d. termination
ans: b
-
What are the basic elements of communications system?
a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
c. Information, transmission channel, receiver
d. Sender and receiver
ans: b
-
___________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines.
a. Internet
b. Data communication
c. Telegraphy
d. Facsimile
ans: d
-
___________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequenci
es of 350 Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone sets.
a. DC tone
b. Ringing tone
c. Dial tone
d. Call waiting tone
ans: d
-
___________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are p
laced about 75 km apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line.
a. VF repeaters
b. Loading coils
c. Loop extenders
d. Echo suppressors
ans: a
-
___________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function
of interfacing the handset to the local loop.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Varistor
d. Induction coil
ans: d
-
Pulse dialing has __________ rate
a. 20 pulses/min
b. 10 pulses/min
c. 10 pulses/sec
d. 80 pulses/sec
ans: c
-
___________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices.
a. 2-wire circuit
b. Trunk line
c. Leased line
d. Private line
ans: b
-
The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has
cellular processor and cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zon
e offices, control call processing and handle billing activities.
a. MTSO
b. Cell Site
c. PTSN
d. Trunk line
ans: a
-
___________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular
site.
a. Switching system
b. Base station
c. Operation and support system
d. Mobile station
ans: b
-
A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system.
a. Frequency re-use
b. Cell splitting
c. TDM
d. FDM
ans: a
-
If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it
mean?
a. Completed calls of 5%
b. Lost calls of 5%
c. Lost calls of 95%
d. Lost calls of 105%
ans: b
-
___________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central Offices (Bell Sy
stem Standard)
a. 3,825 Hz
b. 3700 Hz
c. 2,600 Hz
d. 800 Hz
ans: b
-
In a telephone system, the customer's telephone directory numbering is from 00
0 to 999, what is the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 999?
a. 100 lines
b. 1000 lines
c. 10,000 lines
d. 100,000 lines
ans: b
-
If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?
a. Purely reactive
b. Purely resistive
c. Purely capacitive
d. Purely inductive
ans: a
-
Not more than _________ digits make up an international telephone number as re
commended by CCITT REC. E. 161.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
ans: d
-
One (1) Erlang is equal to _________.
a. 360 CCS
b. 36 CCS
c. 3.6 CCS
d. 100 CCS
ans: b
-
Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in
that area.
a. WATS
b. OTLP
c. TIP
d. DTWX
ans: a
-
The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth
a. 300-3400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 200-3200 Hz
d. 300-3000 Hz
ans: a
-
Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in
a jack and the switch is supervised by an operator.
a. Crossbar switching
b. Manual switching
c. Electronic switching
d. Step-by-step switching
ans: b
-
Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the ___________ state
.
a. on-hook
b. off-hook
c. busy
d. spare
ans: a
-
___________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function
of compensating for the local loop length
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
ans: b
-
What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?
a. Carbon
b. Electromagnetic
c. Ceramic
d. Capacitor
ans: b
-
A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of
a. 0 to 4 Hz
b. 0 to 4 MHz
c. 0 to 4 kHz
d. 0 to 4 GHz
ans: c
-
___________ is the minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN.
a. Basic voice grade (VG)
b. Basic voice channel (VC)
c. Basic voice band (VB)
d. Basic telephone channel
ans: a
-
Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is called
a. Private-line network
b. PT network
c. Dial-up network
d. Trunk network
ans: c
-
What is the advantage of sidetone?
a. Transmission efficiency is increased
b. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
d. Assure the customer that the telephone is working
ans: d
-
___________ is a special service circuit connecting two private branch exchang
es (PBX).
a. Phatom line
b. Tie trunk
c. Tandem trunk
d. Private line
ans: b
-
The published rates, regulations, and descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use.
a. Toll rate
b. Tariff
c. Bulk billing
d. Detailed billing
ans: b
-
What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
a. 1 dB
b. 2 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 6 dB
ans: c
-
Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range
of ___________.
a. 300-400 Hz
b. 300-3400 Hz
c. 300-3000 Hz
d. 300-2700 Hz
ans: b
-
The first strowger step-by-step switch was used in ____________.
a. 1875
b. 1890
c. 1897
d. 1913
ans: c
-
What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 deg
rees?
a. 52 sec
b. 1.25 sec
c. 83.33 sec
d. 26 sec
ans: a
-
What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable lo
ss plans and a fixed loss plan?
a. G.133
b. G.141
c. G.132
d. G.122
ans: d
-
What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loo
p resistance of 100 ohms/km?
a. 0.838 mm
b. 0.465 mm
c. 1.626 mm
d. 2.159 mm
ans: b
-
What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and
low-usage areas?
a. Pico cells
b. Micro cells
c. Nano cells
d. Umbrella cells
ans: d
-
In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are replaced by _________
___.
a. adaptive array
b. flat plate antenna
c. dipole array
d. focused antenna
ans: a
-
What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop?
a. Digital cellular technology
b. Analogue cellular technology
c. PSTN
d. AMPS technology
ans: b
-
When the calling party hears a "busy" tone on his telephone, the call is consi
dered
a. lost
b. disconnected
c. completed
d. incomplete
ans: c
-
Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited because the latter are
a. more difficult to make and connect
b. made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
c. liable to radiate
d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances
ans: c
-
What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage?
a. VSWR
b. ISWR
c. SWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
ans: d
-
One method of determining antenna impedance.
a. Stub matching
b. Trial and error
c. Smith chart
d. Quarter-wave matching
ans: d
-
___________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.

a. Single-wire line
b. Microstrip
c. Twin-lead
d. Coaxial line
ans: a
-
Coaxial cable impedance is typically ________________.
a. 150 to 300 ohms
b. 50 to 75 ohms
c. 30 to 45 ohms
d. 300 to 600 ohms
ans: b
-
Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequencies?
a. Above 3 GHz
b. Above 10 kHz
c. At 300 MHz
d. Above 10 GHz
ans: a
-
Nominal voice channel bandwidth is ___________.
a. 20 to 30 kHz
b. 0 to 3 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 55 kHz above
ans: c
-
Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when the round trip pro
pagation time exceeds _____________.
a. 50 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 1 ms
ans: a
-
A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an anten
na having an input impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wav
e matching line?
a. 212 ohms
b. 250 ohms
c. 200 ohms
d. 150 ohms
ans: a
-
Quarter-wavelength line is used as ___________.
a. impedance transformer
b. lecher line
c. transmission line
d. harmonic suppressor
ans: a
-
The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher m
odes is usually called
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. power lines
d. twisted wire of telephone line
ans: b
-
Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguide?
a. To increase the distributed capacitance
b. To keep the waveguide dry
c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide
d. To raise the guide's wave impedance
ans: b
-
Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?
a. High dielectric loss
b. Severe attenuation
c. Excessive radiation
d. The size of the waveguide
ans: d
-
How do you couple in and out of a waveguide?
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end of the waveguide
b. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide
c. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide
d. Both B and C
ans: d
-
A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE(10) mode. The associat
ed flux lines are established
a. transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide
b. transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide
c. in the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation
d. in the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation
ans: a
-
For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between two instant
aneous consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a direction parallel
to the walls of the waveguide) is referred to as half of the
a. free-space wavelength
b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension
c. guide wavelength
d. group wavelength
ans: c
-
The guide wavelength, lambda g, in a rectangular waveguide is
a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency
b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency
c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency
d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency
ans: d
-
Using the TE(10) mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectang
ular guide provided
a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space
b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free spa
ce
c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength
d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space

ans: d
-
If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the do
minant mode is employed
a. the free space wavelength, lambda, is increased
b. the phase velocity, Vphi, increased
c. the guide wavelength is increased
d. the group velocity, Vg is increased
ans: d
-
If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the reflection ang
le, theta, is 20 degrees, what is the value of the guide wavelength, lambda g?
a. 6.10 cm
b. 5.32 cm
c. 4.78 cm
d. 5.00 cm
ans: b
-
The inner dimensions of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cut
off wavelength for the dominant mode is
a. 1.75 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7.0 cm
d. 0.4375 cm
ans: c
-
A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose in
ner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength, lamb
da g?
a. 3.12 cm
b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm
d. 6.30 cm
ans: b
-
The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the domin
ant mode is limited to
a. the difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle, theta,
is 90 degrees and the frequency for which theta is zero.
b. the difference between the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is
equal to the cutoff value and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength
is equal to the guide wavelength
c. the difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twic
e the narrow dimension.
d. none of these
ans: c
-
If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the E-probe
should be inserted
a. at the sealed end
b. at a distance of one quarter-wavelength from the sealed end
c. at a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end
d. at a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end
ans: b
-
A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the
far end. What is the input impedance to the line generator?
a. a low value of resistance
b. a high value of resistance
c. a capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the line's surge imp
edance
d. an inductive resistance which is equal to the value to the line's surge imp
edance
ans: b
-
If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be
a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load.
b. that the line is nonresonant
c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load
d. that the load is matched to the line
ans: a
-
If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end
a. there is minimum current at the shorted end
b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
c. the line behaves as a series-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
d. there is a minimum voltage at the shorted end.
ans: b
-
A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50 ohms re
sistive load. To shorten the line, the length must be
a. any convenient value
b. an odd multiple of three-quarters of a wavelength
c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength
d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength
ans: a
-
The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded
a. at the beginning and at the end of the cable
b. only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable
c. only at the end of the cable
d. at the middle of the cable
ans: b
-
A feature of an infinite transmission line is that
a. its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line's surge impedance

b. its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
c. no RF current will be drawn from the generator
d. the impedance varies at different positions on the line
ans: a
-
When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will
a. transfer maximum current to the load
b. transfer maximum voltage to the load
c. transfer maximum power to the load
d. have a VSWR equal to zero
ans: c
-
A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the su
rge impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 15
ans: b
-
Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power.
a. Standing wave pattern
b. Reflection coefficient
c. SWR
d. Index of refraction
ans: c
-
Emission designation for a facsimile
a. H3E and A4E
b. R3E and A4E
c. F4E and J3E
d. F3C and A3E
ans: d
-
Commonly used telephone wire.
a. AWG #19
b. AWG #18
c. AWG #30
d. AWG #33
ans: a
-
What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle?
a. Frequency
b. Hop
c. Wavelength
d. Crest
ans: c
-
The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the _________.
a. square of the dielectric constant
b. square root of the dielectric constant
c. dielectric constant
d. square root of refractive index
ans: b
-
What circuit connects a balanced line to an unbalanced line?
a. Stub
b. Hybrid
c. Balun
d. Directional coupler
ans: c
-
To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _________ is used.
a. hybrid circuit
b. balun
c. directional coupler
d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit
ans: b
-
What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line
with an attenuation of 6 dB/km?
a. 1.5 km
b. 0.5 km
c. 63 km
d. 2 km
ans: b
-
What is the wavelength in the waveguide with 4.5 GHz cut-off frequency excited
by 6.7 GHz?
a. 0.196 m
b. 0.336 m
c. 0.136 m
d. 0.136 cm
ans: a
-
A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the dominant mo
de cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
b. 3 GHz
c. 2.5 GHz
d. 3.5 GHz
ans: b
-
__________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only
in higher order modes?
a. Coaxial cables
b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
c. Power cables
d. Waveguides
ans: d
-
The amount of uncertainly in a system of symbols is also called
a. bandwidth
b. loss
c. entropy
d. quantum
ans: c
-
The twists in twisted wire pairs
a. reduced electromagnetic interference
b. occur at a 30-degree angle
c. eliminate loading
d. were removed due to cost
ans: a
-
An example of bounded medium is
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. fiber-optic cable
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
Loading means to the addition of
a. resistors
b. capacitors
c. bullets
d. inductance
ans: d
-
What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency applicatio
n?
a. Two-wire balance line
b. Single wire
c. Three-wire line
d. Coaxial
ans: d
-
The characteristic impedance of a transmission does not depend upon its
a. length
b. conductor diameter
c. conductor spacing
d. dielectric material
ans: a
-
One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance.
a. 50 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 120 ohms
d. 300 ohms
ans: c
-
For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the c
haracteristic impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance Zl should be
a. Zo = Zl
b. Zo > Zl
c. Zo < Zl
d. Zo = 0
ans: a
-
The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be correct
ed for by
a. using LC matching network
b. adjusting antenna length
c. using a balun
d. adjusting the length of transmission line
ans: d
-
____________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmissi
on line not terminated in its characteristic impedance.
a. an electric field
b. radio waves
c. standing waves
d. a magnetic field
ans: c
-
Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. infinity
ans: b
-
A 50 ohms coax is connected to a 73-ohms antenna. What is the SWR?
a. 0.685
b. 1
c. 1.46
d. 2.92
ans: c
-
What is the most desirable reflection coefficient?
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. infinity
ans: a
-
What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a
transmission line?
a. Velocity factor
b. Standing-wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Line efficiency
ans: c
-
The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is 3
90 V sub 1. The SWR is
a. 0.67
b. 1.0
c. 1.2
d. 1.5
ans: d
-
One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of
a. 150 MHz
b. 164 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 328 MHz
ans: c
-
At very high frequencies. Transmission lines act as
a. tuned circuits
b. antennas
c. insulators
d. resistors
ans: b
-
A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. capacitor
b. inductor
c. series resonant circuit
d. parallel resonant circuit
ans: d
-
A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. capacitor
b. inductor
c. series resonant circuit
d. parallel resonant circuit
ans: c
-
A medium least susceptible to noise?
a. Shielded pair
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
ans: d
-
A medium most widely used in LANs?
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
ans: b
-
The most commonly used transmission line in television system.
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Open-wire with ceramic supports
ans: b
-
The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is n
ot one of those factors?
a. Diameter
b. Length of the wire
c. Dielectric material
d. Separation between conductors
ans: b
-
DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of
a. passing DC while blocking AC
b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC
c. preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier
d. preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band sp
litter
ans: d
-
Typical speech power
a. 10 to 1000 W
b. 100 to 1000 mW
c. 10 to 1000 nW
d. 100 to 1000 pW
ans: a
-
The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between
a. 250 and 500 Hz
b. 1000 and 3000 Hz
c. 500 and 1000 Hz
d. 3000 and 5000 Hz
ans: b
-
The maximum voice energy is located between
a. 250 and 500 Hz
b. 1000 and 3000 Hz
c. 500 and 1000 Hz
d. 3000 and 5000 Hz
ans: a
-
A device used to measure speech volume.
a. speech meter
b. volume meter
c. volume unit meter
d. speedometer
ans: c
-
By definition, for a sine wave
a. 0 dBm = 0 V.U.
b. 0 dBW = 0 V.U.
c. 0 dBa = 0 V.U.
d. 0 dBf = 0 V.U.
ans: a
-
Presently, this is the "standard" frequency bandwidth for voice transmission
a. 0 to 4000 Hz
b. 100 to 3400 Hz
c. 300 to 3400 Hz
d. 300 to 3000 Hz
ans: c
-
Which of the following is commonly used wire for subscriber loop design?
a. AWG # 19
b. AWG # 18
c. AWG # 30
d. AWG # 33
ans: a
-
The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is
a. 1300 ohm(s)
b. 2000 ohm(s)
c. 1250 ohm(s)
d. 1200 ohm(s)
ans: a
-
AWG # 26 has a typical loss of
a. 0.21 dB/1000 ft.
b. 0.32 dB/1000 ft.
c. 0.41 dB/1000 ft.
d. 0.51 dB/1000 ft.
ans:
-
What is the standard voice channel spacing?
a. 44 MHz
b. 40 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 40 MHz
ans:
-
Which tester is used to measure SWR?
a. Multimeter
b. Oscilloscope
c. Spectrum analyzer
d. Reflectometer
ans: d
-
What is singing?
a. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies
to produce a tone having a frequency equal to the sum of the frequencies of the
signals intermodulated.
b. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies
to produce a tone having a frequency higher than that of the signal having the h
ighest frequency.
c. An undesired self-sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by ex
cessive positive feedback.
d. An art or a form of entertainment that can make one rich.
ans: c
-
Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver?
a. Detector
b. IF stage
c. Modulator
d. Mixer
ans: b
-
The __________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable i
ntelligence at the output speaker.
a. sensitivity
b. selectivity
c. reliability
d. fidelity
ans: a
-
Full-duplex transmission means
a. one-way transmission
b. 24-hour transmission
c. broadcast transmission
d. two-way simultaneous transmission
ans: d
-
What is a multidrop line?
a. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serves to protect the
conductive materials from damage in the event the wire is dropped.
b. A line designed to withstand high pressure.
c. A line or circuit interconnecting several stations
d. A bus line.
ans: c
-
A passive _________ is an electronic device which reduce signal strength by a
specified amount in dB.
a. splitter
b. filter
c. trimmer
d. attenuator
ans: d
-
The signal quality of the calls is constantly monitored by the base station, w
hen the quality of the calls drops below a certain specified level, the base req
uest the MTSO to try and find a better cell site.
a. Hand-off
b. Cell splitting
c. Roaming
d. Frequency reuse
ans: c
-
A digital identification associated with a cellular system.
a. SAT
b. SID
c. ESN
d. MIN
ans: d
-
How many seconds does facsimile transmit a standard page?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25
ans: d
-
A kind of recording is used in facsimile.
a. Electrolytic recording
b. Electrothermal recording
c. Electropercussive recording
d. Electrostatic recording
ans: a
-
A type of distortion a facsimile produces when it becomes out of synchronizati
on.
a. Pincushion
b. Barrel
c. Skewing
d. Fattening
ans: c
-
What is an acoustic coupler?
a. A device that radiates audible signals via a transmitting antenna
b. A device that converts electric signal signals into audio signals, enabling
data to be transmitted over the public telephone network via a conventional tel
ephone handset
c. A device that receives audible signals and retransmits them at VHF frequenc
ies
d. A transducer
ans: b
-
Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile.
a. Single-frequency interference
b. Crosstalk
c. Phase jitter
d. Noise
ans: b
-
The _________ in an FM receiver causes a stronger signal to dominate over a we
aker signal on the same frequency.
a. capture effect
b. flywheel effect
c. hall effect
d. skin effect
ans: a
-
A device that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit.
a. RS-232 interface
b. Hybrid circuit
c. Balun
d. Stub
ans: b
-
__________ theory is deciding between a set of hypotheses when given a collect
ion of imperfect measurements.
a. Estimation
b. Traffic
c. Decision
d. Nyquist
ans: c
-
__________ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set of data into the
form of an underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect t
o missing data.
a. Jaynes maximum entropy principle
b. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination
c. Minimum discrimination
d. Maximum entropy
ans: a
-
__________ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a continuum of poss
ible values when given a collection of imperfect measurements.
a. Estimation
b. Traffic
c. Decision
d. Nyquist
ans: a
-
Combination of modulator, channel, and detector.
a. Transceiver
b. Transponder
c. T/R channel
d. Discrete channel
ans: d
-
What is the frequency band of DECT?
a. 1.88 - 1.90 GHz
b. 1.68 - 1.70 GHz
c. 1.48 - 1.50 GHz
d. 1.28 - 1.30 GHz
ans: a
-
How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support?
a. 96
b. 12
c. 24
d. 49
ans: b
-
How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio transceiver can assess at any gi
ven time?
a. 120
b. 240
c. 480
d. 960
ans: a
-
The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always ________.
a. present before adjustments can me made
b. DC, but may have either polarity
c. positive DC
d. negative
ans: b
-
What is a concentrator?
a. A system that improves the signal-to-noise ratio by compressing the volume
range of a signal.
b. A device that varies the characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance
with the waveform of a modulating signal which contains useful information.
c. A switching system that lets a large number of telephone or data processing
subscribers use a lesser number of transmission lines or a narrower bandwidth.
d. An equipment in the central office.
ans: c
-
If you find that an SAW filter output is 6 dB down from the input of a receive
r during test, ______________
a. this is normal
b. the device is faulty
c. the filter is improperly terminated
d. the filter is not resonating
ans: a
-
A triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are
a. operated in the linear region
b. operated in the nonlinear region
c. operated as Class-A amplifiers
d. operated as Class-B amplifiers
ans: b
-
What is a leased line?
a. A piece of wire used in a local area network in one building
b. A piece of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX
c. A temporary connection of one computer to a mainframe via a modem and a tel
ephone line
d. A permanent circuit for private use within a communication network
ans: d
-
If two FM signals of different strengths are received on the same frequency
a. one steady heterodyne will appear in the AF output
b. both will appear in the AF output
c. only the stronger will appear in the AF output
d. neither signal will be intelligence unless the weaker signal is at least 10
times
ans: c
-
Cellular mobile system was first operated in
a. 1979
b. 1981
c. 1983
d. 1985
ans: c
-
TACS is a cellular system with ____________ channels.
a. 666
b. 1000
c. 832
d. 200
ans: b
-
Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has _______ frequency.
a. 5960 Hz
b. 6000 Hz
c. 6040 Hz
d. 1004 Hz
ans: b
-
What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum
of 25 MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth?
a. 833
b. 240
c. 1000
d. 666
ans: a
-
GSM uses what digital modulation technique?
a. QAM
b. GFSK
c. BPSK
d. GMSK
ans: d
-
What is the power output of Personal Communications System (PCS)?
a. 10 mW
b. 75 mW
c. 150 mW
d. 10 W
ans: a
-
RG-58 cable has a loss of about ___________ dB at cellular frequencies up to 1
5 feet length.
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3
ans: d
-
The signals designed to keep the receivers and transmitters aligned.
a. Carrier frequencies
b. Pilot carrier signals
c. Synchronizing signals
d. Reference signals
ans: b
-
If the spacing of a two-wire open air transmission line is 12 inches and the c
onductor diameter is 0.25 inch, the characteristic impedance is
a. 547 ohm(s)
b. 357 ohm(s)
c. 273 ohm(s)
d. 300 ohm(s)
ans: a
-
The impedance of the quarterwave transformer used to match a 600 ohm(s) line t
o a 300 ohm(s) load is
a. 382 ohm(s)
b. 424 ohm(s)
c. 565 ohm(s)
d. 712 ohm(s)
ans: b
-
When a line and a load are match the reflection coefficient is
a. unity
b. zero
c. positive infinity
d. negative infinity
ans: b
-
When line is terminated in an open circuit load, the reflection coefficient is

a. unity
b. zero
c. infinity
d. negative unity
ans: a
-
A 300 ohms line is terminated in a resistive load of 200 ohms, the VSWR is
a. 0.66
b. 1.5
c. unity
d. zero
ans: b
-
If the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the standing wave ratio is
a. 0.33
b. unity
c. 3
d. zero
ans: c
-
To test the fault of a given line, a signal is fed to the line, 30 s later the
signal returned. What is the distance of the fault?
a. 9000 m
b. 300 m
c. 100 m
d. 4500 m
ans: d
-
The telephone set is powered by the central office on the ring side at
a. 42 to 52 Vdc
b. -42 to -52 Vdc
c. 24 to 64 Vdc
d. -24 to -64 Vdc
ans: b
-
The telephone voice band frequency is from
a. 300 to 4 kHz
b. 400 to 3400 Hz
c. 300 to 3400 Hz
d. 400 to 4 kHz
ans: c
-
Which of the following wire is used to transmit the signal?
a. Black
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Green
ans: d
-
The corresponding frequencies for digit 7 in the touch tone telephone is
a. 770 and 1477 Hz
b. 852 and 1209 Hz
c. 852 and 1336 Hz
d. 770 and 1336 Hz
ans: b
-
The physical connection between the telephone set and the switching equipment
is called the
a. trunk line
b. link
c. subscriber loop
d. leased line
ans: c
-
What is the local loop of a telephone system?
a. It is a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer's
premise and the central office.
b. It is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem.
c. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer.
d. It is a single piece of wire connecting the subscriber's telephone set to a
nother set in an adjacent room.
ans: d
-
Which of the following equipment is used in long loop design?
a. Dial long lines
b. Voice repeater
c. Loop range extender
d. All of the above
ans: d
-
What is a two-wire circuit?
a. A circuit usually in the subscriber loop, between the telephone set and the
local central office.
b. A circuit having only two terminals, both terminals having the same instant
aneous voltage.
c. A circuit with one input terminal, one output terminal, and a common ground
.
d. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines.
ans: a
-
1 mW is equal to
a. 90 dBrn
b. 0 dBrn
c. -30 dBrn
d. 120 dBrn
ans: a
-
Which of the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a di
al tone?
a. Line finder
b. First selector
c. Connector
d. Line equipment
ans: b
-
The other name of Class 2 office in the North American Switching Plan.
a. Primary center
b. Section
c. Regional center
d. Toll points
ans: b
-
A cell in the cellular telephone system means
a. a power source
b. small area
c. large area
d. service area
ans: b
-
What is the linking point between cell phone and regular telephone?
a. Base station
b. Control office
c. C.O.
d. MTSO
ans: d
-
What is the typical power output of a cellular phone?
a. 5 W
b. 10 W
c. 1 W
d. 3 W
ans: d
-
When a single cell is subdivided into smaller cells the process is called
a. cell splitting
b. cell division
c. reuse
d. cell sharing
ans: a
-
The first cell shape is a
a. square
b. circle
c. rectangle
d. triangle
ans: b
-
In order to provide 100% coverage without overlap, cellular telephone system c
an use
a. hexagon cell shape
b. triangle
c. rectangular
d. all of the above
ans: d
-
What is the beamwidth of the reflector of the receiving antenna in the base st
ation?
a. 20 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 50 degrees
d. 60 degrees
ans: d
-
A cellular phone operates on
a. half duplex
b. full duplex
c. echoplex
d. lincomplex
ans: b
-
Cellular phones transmit in the band from
a. 825 to 845 MHz
b. 835 to 855 MHz
c. 825 to 855 MHz
d. 825 to 865 MHz
ans: a
-
Cell phone receives in the band from
a. 860 to 880 MHz
b. 870 to 890 MHz
c. 870 to 880 MHz
d. 860 to 890 MHz
ans: b
-
What is the frequency separation between the transmit and the receive channels
?
a. 30 MHz
b. 45 MHz
c. 55 MHz
d. 40 MHz
ans: b
-
For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is
a. 825.030/870.030 MHz
b. 835.03/880.03 MHz
c. 825.015/870.015 MHz
d. 825.15/870.15 MHz
ans: c
-
The number of transmit/receive channels in the cellular system is
a. 625
b. 645
c. 655
d. 666
ans: d
-
The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about
a. 80 km
b. 65 km
c. 160 km
d. 16 km
ans: a
-
When the message is transferred from one cell site transmitter to another cell
site transmitter as the caller crosses a boundary _________ process takes place.

a. shifting
b. hand off
c. give off
d. turn over
ans: b
-
What is the sensitivity of a cellular receiver?
a. 20 dB
b. 40 dB
c. 50 dB
d. 60 dB
ans: c
-
What is the frequency deviation of the cellular telephone system?
a. 15 kHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 12 kHz
d. 75 kHz
ans: c
-
Hailing channel is otherwise known as
a. conversation channel
b. calling channel
c. signaling channel
d. remote channel
ans: b
-
What is an Erlang?
a. It is a unit of magnetic field intensity measured around a conductor
b. It is the number of erroneous bits received per unit of time
c. It is a unit of electrical energy radiated in space
d. It is equal to the number of simultaneous calls originated during a specifi
c hourly period
ans: d
-
All of the cell base stations are linked together by ______ which serves as th
e central office and management node for the group.
a. MTS
b. IMTS
c. MSTO
d. MTSO
ans: d
-
Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobil
e units.
a. Database
b. Cell site
c. Terrestrial link
d. Radio transmitter
ans: b
-
A phone call over the cellular network requires
a. simplex channels
b. half duplex channels
c. full duplex channels
d. full/full duplex
ans: c
-
A method of expressing the amplitudes of complex non-periodic signals such as
speech.
a. Volume
b. Pitch
c. Frequency
d. Wavelength
ans: a
-
_________ is a signal returned to the talker after making one or more round tr
ips between the talker and the listener.
a. Singing
b. Echo
c. Jitter
d. Crosstalk
ans: b
-
_________ is a voice operated device that insert a high loss in the opposite d
irection of transmission of the talking party.
a. Hybrid
b. 2-wire circuit
c. Echo suppressor
d. VNL
ans: c
-
_________ is picking up of the same station at two nearby points on the receiv
er dial.
a. Double spotting
b. Hot shot
c. Image frequency
d. Bail shot
ans: a
-
When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel.
a. Echo
b. Crosstalk
c. Party line
d. Crosslink
ans: b
-
What type of connector arrangement wherein a customer may move to another loca
tion and still retain the same telephone number.
a. TPL
b. Bridge
c. TPS
d. Party line
ans: c
-
It is an advantage of sidetone.
a. Transmission efficiency is increased
b. Speaker increase his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
d. Assures the customer that the telephone is working
ans: d
-
Radio communications between points using a single share frequency.
a. Simplex
b. Full duplex
c. Half-duplex
d. Full/full duplex
ans: c
-
The transmission of information from multiple sources occurring on the same fa
cility but not at the same time.
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. WDM
d. CDM
ans: b
-
When human voice and music are transmitted, the type of communication employed
is known as
a. radiotelegraphy
b. audio frequency
c. wired radio
d. radiotelephony
ans: d
-
Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into a baseband elect
ric signal by the process of
a. copying
b. scanning
c. modulation
d. light variation
ans: b
-
What is the most commonly used light sensor in a modem fax machine?
a. Phototube
b. Phototransistor
c. Liquid-crystal display
d. Charge couple device
ans: d
-
In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are ____________ respectively.
a. 1500 and 2300 Hz
b. 2300 and 1500 Hz
c. 1300 and 2400 Hz
d. 1070 and 1270 Hz
ans: a
-
Which resolution produces the best quality fax?
a. 96 lines per inch
b. 150 lines per inch
c. 200 lines per inch
d. 400 lines per inch
ans: d
-
Group 2 fax uses which modulation?
a. SSB
b. FSK
c. Vestigial sideband AM
d. PSK
ans: c
-
The most widely used fax standard is
a. Group 1
b. Group 2
c. Group 3
d. Group 4
ans: c
-
Group 3 fax uses which modulation?
a. QAM
b. FSK
c. Vestigial sideband AM
d. FM
ans: a
-
Most fax printers are of which type?
a. Impact
b. Thermal
c. Electrosensitive
d. Laser xerographic
ans: b
-
Facsimile standards are set by the
a. FCC
b. DOD
c. CCITT
d. IEEE
ans: c
-
What type of graphics are commonly transmitted by radio fax?
a. Newspaper text
b. Architectural drawings
c. Cable movies
d. Satellite weather photos
ans: d
-
What is the transmission speed of group 4 fax?
a. 4800 baud
b. 9600 baud
c. 56 kbits/s
d. 192 kbits/s
ans: c
-
What is the cause of insertion loss?
a. Thermal noise that intermodulate with signal traveling on the same medium.
b. A momentary disruption of signal due to power interruption
c. A low level high frequency signal inserted into the original signal caused
by thermal noise
d. none of these
ans: d
-
__________ is the master control center for cellular telephone system.
a. Cell site
b. Mobile telephone switching office
c. Central office
d. Branch office
ans: b
-
Each cell site contains a
a. repeater
b. control computer
c. direct link to a branch exchange
d. touch-tone processor
ans: a
-
What is a trunk?
a. The base of a communications tower.
b. A telephone line connecting two central offices.
c. A line connecting one telephone set to a PABX.
d. Refers to the body of a tree.
ans: b
-
Cellular telephones use which type of operation?
a. Simplex
b. Half-duplex
c. Full-duplex
d. Triplex
ans: c
-
What is the maximum frequency deviation of an FM cellular transmitter?
a. 6 kHz
b. 12 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 45 kHz
ans: b
-
Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz. Receive channel 23 is
a. 870.36 MHz
b. 870.63 MHz
c. 870.96 MHz
d. 870.69 MHz
ans: d
-
A transmit channel has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The received channel frequenc
y is
a. 729.6 MHz
b. 837.6 MHz
c. 867.6 MHz
d. 882.6 MHz
ans: d
-
A receive channel frequency is 872.4 MHz. To develop an 82.2 MHz IF, the frequ
ency synthesizer must supply an LO signal of
a. 790.2 MHz
b. 827.4 MHz
c. 954.6 MHz
d. 967.44 MHz
ans: c
-
The output power of a cellular radio is controlled by the
a. user or caller
b. cell site
c. called party
d. MTSO
ans: d
-
When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what
action occurs?
a. The unit is "handed off" to a closer cell
b. The call is terminated
c. The MTSO increases power level
d. The cell site switches antenna
ans: a
-
In a cellular radio, the duplexer is a
a. ferrite isolator
b. waveguide assembly
c. part of TR/ATR tubes
d. pair of sharp bandpass filters
ans: d
-
On a telephone system, the loop is open during
a. on-hook condition
b. off-hook condition
c. both A and B
d. none of these
ans: a
-
For every button pressed on a touch-tone telephone, how many signals are trans
mitted to the C.O.?
a. Two VHF signals
b. One VHF signal and one audio-frequency tone
c. Two audio-frequency tones
d. Three audible tones
ans: c
-
What is the traffic model about blocked calls clear condition specified blocki
ng probability?
a. Erlang B
b. Erlang C
c. Erlang D
d. Poisson
ans: a
-
A touch-tone telephone generates how many different tones.
a. 10 audio-frequency tones
b. 8 audible tone frequencies
c. 4 VHF signals
d. 16 audio-frequency tones
ans: b
-
The base-to-mobile frequency assignment of a GSM system.
a. 890 - 915 MHz
b. 825 - 845 MHz
c. 870 - 890 MHz
d. 935 - 960 MHz
ans: d
-
A voice-grade channel is suitable for transmission of
a. VHF signals
b. UHF signals
c. VHF and UHF signals
d. signals with a frequency ranging from 300 to 3400 Hz
ans: d
-
What is the bandwidth of cellular CDMA system?
a. 1.23 MHz
b. 1.23 GHz
c. 1.23 kHz
d. 1.23 THz
ans: a
-
What is a communication link?
a. It is a piece of wire that is connected to ground terminals of all communic
ations equipment in one establishment.
b. It is a channel or circuit intended to connect other channels or circuits.
c. It is a cable connecting a transmitter to the antenna
d. It refers to a radio link.
ans: b
-
Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equ
al to an average holding time.
a. Erlang B
b. Erlang C
c. Erlang D
d. Poisson
ans: d
-
What is an echo?
a. A signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the origin
al signal and mixed with the original signal at the transmitter to produce a mor
e intelligible output signal.
b. A wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with sufficient magni
tude and delay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct from t
hat directly transmitted.
c. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back
to earth by a passive satellite.
d. A reflected signal.
ans: b
-
What is the system used by Personal Communication Network (PCN)
a. TACS
b. Modified GSM
c. AMPS
d. CDMA
ans: b
-
Termination refers to
a. cutting both ends of a conductor
b. disconnecting a line from a transmitter
c. looking back impedance of a line with no load
d. load connected to the output end of a transmission line
ans: d
-
The multiple access used by Digital European Cordless Telephone (DECT).
a. CDMA
b. FDMA
c. TDMA
d. CDMA/FDMA
ans: c
-
Blocked calls delay condition specified delay probability.
a. Erlang B
b. Erlang C
c. Erlang D
d. Poisson
ans: b
-
Status information provided by telephone signaling.
a. Busy tone, dial tone and ringing
b. Congestion and call charge data
c. All of the above
d. none of the above
ans: c
-
The modulation technique used by DECT.
a. GFSK
b. ASK
c. QAM
d. PSK
ans: a
-
What is a four-wire circuit?
a. is used between serving central offices for long-distance connections, with
one pair being used for each direction of transmission.
b. Is a circuit with three output terminals and one input terminal
c. Is an oscillator that produces four different frequencies simultaneously
d. A circuit consisting of four transmission lines.
ans: a
-
Cellular CDMA system uses what modulation method?
a. GFSK
b. ASK
c. QAM
d. BPSK
ans: d
-
PABX means
a. Private All-purpose Broadcasting Exchange
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
c. Public Access Bi-directional Exchange
d. Public Automatic Branch Exchange
ans: b
-
What is the voted cellular digital standard at TIA?
a. Digital AMPS
b. GSM
c. CDMA
d. TACS
ans: a
-
What is the number of channels for Band A and for Band B in Digital AMPS?
a. 832
b. 416
c. 666
d. 888
ans: b
-
The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is
a. 890 - 915 MHz
b. 935 - 960 MHz
c. 870 - 890 MHz
d. 825 - 845 MHz
ans: a
-
The range (in miles) of a cellular CDMA system.
a. 13
b. 30
c. 45
d. 20
ans: a
-
In a cellular system, ____________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency.

a. radio efficiency
b. diversity
c. frequency reuse
d. radio capacity
ans: d
-
Which of the following echo is completely out of control?
a. Worst echo
b. Reverberation
c. Singing
d. Feedback
ans: c
-
Which of the following devices increase the battery voltage on a loop and exte
nds its signaling range?
a. Loop extender
b. VF repeater
c. VF amplifier
d. All of these
ans: a
-
Under ordinary circumstances, the CCITT recommends that the number of circuits
in tandem must not exceed
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
ans: d
-
What is the system capacity of AMPS?
a. 30,000
b. 60,000
c. 100,000
d. 120,000
ans: c
-
NAM means
a. Non Alternable Memory
b. Number Allocation Module
c. Numeric Assignment Module
d. Numeric Access Module
ans: c
-
One of the following is not an advantage of a cellular telephone system.
a. privacy
b. large service area
c. no interference
d. mobility
ans: b
-
Communication is the process of
a. Keeping in touch
b. Broadcasting
c. Exchanging information
d. Entertainment by electronics
ans: c
-
A key barrier in communications
a. Cost
b. PN Junction
c. Walls
d. Distance
ans: d
-
Electronics Communication was discovered in what century?
a. Sixteenth
b. Eighteenth
c. Nineteenth
d. Twentieth
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a major communications medium?
a. Free Space
b. Water
c. Wires
d. Fiber Optics Cable
ans: b
-
Random interference to transmitted signals is called
a. Adjacent channel overlap
b. Cross talk
c. Garbage - in - Garbage - out
d. Noise
ans: d
-
The communications medium causes the signal to be
a. Amplified
b. Modulated
c. Attenuated
d. Interfered with.
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not a source of noise?
a. Another communications signal
b.Atmospheric effects
c. Manufactured electrical systems
d. Thermal agitation in electronic components
ans: a
-
One - way communications is called
a. Half Duplex
b. Full Duplex
c. Monocomm
d. Simplex
ans: d
-
Simultaneoues two-way communications is called
a. Half Duplex
b. Full Duplex
c. Monocomm
d. Simplex
ans: b
-
The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called
a. Modulating Signal
b. Carrier
c. Baseband Signal
d. Source Signal
ans: c
-
The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be t
ransmitted is called
a. Multiplexing
b. Telemetry
c. Detection
d. Modulation
ans: d
-
The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneously ove
r the same channel is called
a. Multiplexing
b. Telemetry
c. Detection
d. Modulation
ans: a
-
Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as being
a. Baseband
b. Analog
c. Digital
d. Continuous waves
ans: b
-
Recovering information from a carrier is known as
a. Demultiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Detection
d. Carrier Recovery
ans: c
-
Transmission of graphical information over the telephone network is accomplish
ed by
a. Television
b. CATV
c. Videotext
d. Facsimile
ans: d
-
Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this da
ta for analysis is the process of
a. Telemetry
b. Instrumentation
c. Modulation
d. Multiplexing
ans: a
-
Receiving electromagnetic emissions from stars is called
a. Astrology
b. Optical Astronomy
c. Radio Astronomy
d. Space Surveillance
ans: c
-
A personnal communication hobby for individual is
a. Ham radio
b. Electronic bulletin board
c. CB Radio
d. Cellular Radio
ans: a
-
Radar is based upon
a. Microwaves
b. A water medium
c. The directional nature of radio signals
d. Reflected Radio signals
ans: d
-
A frequency of 27 MHz has a wavelength of approximately
a. 11m
b. 27m
c. 30m
d. 81m
ans: a
-
The voice freqency range is
a. 30 to 300 Hz
b. 300 to 3000 Hz
c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
d. 0 Hz to 15 kHz
ans: b
-
Another name for signal in the HF range is
a. Microwaves
b. Kamehame Waves
c. Shortwaves
d. Millimeter waves
ans: c
-
Television broadcasting ocurs in which ranges?
a. HF
b. EHF
c. VHF
d. SHF
ans: c
-
Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called
a. Infrared rays
b. Microwaves
c. Shortwaves
d. X-rays
ans: a
-
A micron is
a. One - millionth of a foot
b. One - millionth of a meter
c. One - thousandth of a meter
d. One ten-thousandth of an inch
ans: b
-
The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately
a. 30 to 300 GHz
b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom
c. 100 to 10,000 A
d. 0.7 to 10 microns
ans: d
-
The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately
a. 1000 microns
b. 7000 Angstrom
c. 3500 A
d. 4000 A
ans: b
-
Which of the following is not used for communications?
a. X - rays
b. Millimeter waves
c. Infrared
d. Microwaves
ans: a
-
A signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The bandwidth is

a. 0.007 MHz
b. 7 MHz
c. 237 MHz
d. 700 MHz
ans: b
-
In the United States, the elecromagnetic spectrum is regulated and managed by
a. NBA
b. ITU
c. FCC
d. NTC
ans: c
-
For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available for signals in th
e range of
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. SHF
d. EHF
ans: d
-
Having an information change some characteristic of a carrier signal is called

a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Duplexing
d. Linear Mixing
ans: b
-
Which of the following is not true about AM?
a. The carrier output varies.
b. The carried frequency remains constant.
c. The carrier frequency changes.
d. The information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude.
ans: c
-
The opposite of modulation is
a. Reverse moduation
b. Downward Modulation
c. Unmodulation
d. Demodulation
ans: d
-
The circuit used to produce modulation is called a
a. Modulator
b. Demodulator
c. Variable Gain Amplifier
d. Multiplexer
ans: a
-
A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?
a. Addition
b. Square Root
c. Multiplication
d. Division
ans: c
-
The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is
referred to as
a. The voltage ratio
b. Decibels
c. The modulation index
d. The mix factor
ans: c
-
If m is greater than 1, what happens?
a. Normal Operation
b. Carrier drops to zero.
c. Carrier frequency shifts
d. Information signal is distorted
ans: d
-
For ideal AM, which of the following is true?
a. m = 0
b. m = 1
c. m < 1
d. m < 1
ans: b
-
The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal and is c
alled the
a. Trace
b. Waveshape
c. Envelope
d. Carrier variation
ans: c
-
Overmodulation occurs when
a. Vm > Vc
b. Vm < Vc
c. Vm = Vc
d. m = Vc = 0
ans: a
-
The new signals produced by modulation are called
a. Spurious emissions
b. Harmonics
c. Intermodulation products
d. Sidebands
ans: d
-
A display of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the
a. Time Domain
b. Frequency spectrum
c. Amplitude spectrum
d. Frequency domain
ans: d
-
Most of the power in an AM signal is in the
a. Carrier
b. Upper sideband
c. Lower sideband
d. Modulation signal
ans: a
-
The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8
and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is
a. 10.7 percent
b. 41.4 percent
c. 80.6 percent
d. 93.3 percent
ans: c
-
A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are,
respectively,
a. 873 and 887 kHz
b. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz
c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz
d. 887 and 873 kHz
ans: b
-
The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8
and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is
a. 10.7 percent
b. 41.4 percent
c. 80.6 percent
d. 93.3 percent
ans: c
-
An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation is 80 per
cent. The total sideband power is
a. 0.8 W
b. 1.6 W
c. 2.5 W
d. 4.0 W
ans: b
-
For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband?
a. 25 percent
b. 33.3 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 100 percent
ans: a
-
An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier power is 4
40W. The power in one sideband is
a. 85 W
b. 110 W
c. 170 W
d. 610 W
ans: a
-
An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to
be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The percen
tage of modulation is
a. 35 percent
b. 70 percent
c. 42 percent
d. 89 percent
ans: b
-
In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the
a. Modulating signal
b. Carrier
c. Envelope
d. Sidebands
ans: d
-
An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n)
a. Vestigial Sideband
b. FM Signal
c. SSB
d. Uncarried Signal
ans: c
-
What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information?
a. Carrier plus sidebands
b. Carrier only
c. One sideband
d. Both sidebands
ans: c
-
The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is
a. Less spectrum space is used
b. Simpler equipment is used
c. Less power is consumed
d. A higher modulation percentage
ans: a
-
In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?
a. Upper
b. Lower
c. Neither
d. Depends upon the use
ans: c
-
Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase
in the signal
a. Carrier Power
b. Bandwidth
c. Sideband Power
d. Envelope Voltage
ans: b
-
It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by electroni
c means.
a. Communications
b. Telemetry
c. Broadcasting
d. Telephony
ans: a
-
What services uses HF CW communications?
a. Police
b. Telephony
c. Broadcasting
d. Sattelite system
ans: a
-
The signal which is superimposed on a high frequency sinewave is called
a. Carrier
b. Information
c. Sideband
d. Squarewave
ans: b
-
What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO)
a. Aids in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
b. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the intermediate
frequency
c. Generates a 1kHz tone to Morse reception
d. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the intermidiate
frequency by 1kHz
ans: c
-
A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictable varia
tions in amplitude frequency.
a. Speech
b. Digital
c. Pulses
d. Bits
ans: a
-
He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex repetitive
waveform.
a. Carson
b. P.H. Smith
c. J. Fourier
d. Y. Uda
ans: c
-
The process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carrier is c
alled
a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Detection
d. Scrambling
ans: b
-
A diagram which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and maximum bun
ching of the electron beam in velocity-modulated devices.
a. Smith chart
b. Venn Diagram
c. S-parameter Diagram
d. Applegate Diagram
ans: d
-
It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the principal so
urce of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices.
a. Edison Effect
b. Miller Effect
c. Bunching
d. Secondary Effect
ans: a
-
It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoid
al components are displayed as a function of time
a. Wave Representation
b. TDR
c. Frequency Domain
d. Time Domain
ans: d
-
An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which undergoes some
power absorption at resonance.
a. Frequency Meter
b. Cavity resonator
c. Ferrite isolator
d. Auto Coupler
ans: a
-
What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in the path o
f energy flow?
a. Insertion loss
b. Gain
c. Wave attenuation
d. Phase shift
ans: a
-
It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitude is dis
played as a function of frequency.
a. Wave Shape
b. Frequency Domain
c. OTDR
d. Time Domain
ans: b
-
The big breakthrough in electronic communications came with the invention of t
he _____ in 1844.
a. Transistor
b. Phonograph
c. Telegraph
d.Telephone
ans: c
-
In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent record of sound with his i
nvention of the phonograph.
a. Edison
b. Marconi
c. Morse
d. Bell
ans: a
-
He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph.
a. Edison
b. Marconi
c. Morse
d. Bell
ans: b
-
Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of the phono
graph?
a. Telephone
b. Phonograph
c. Either
d. Neither
ans: a
-
What is a device such as the microphone and headset sometimes called?
a. Receiver
b. Transmission medium
c. Converter
d. Reproducer
ans: d
-
What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another?
a. Phase
b. Energy
c. Frequency
d. Amplitude
ans: c
-
The entire range of _____ of electromagnetic radiation is called the frequency
spectrum.
a. Frequencies
b. Phases
c. Energies
d. Amplitude
ans: a
-
When did the first transatlantic radio communications took place?
a. 1876
b. 1942
c. 1888
d. 1901
ans: d
-
What determines the station that will be selected by a tuner?
a. The selectivity of the IF.
b. The resonant frequency of the tuner.
c. The sensitivity of the tuner.
d. The bandwidth of the amplifier.
ans: b
-
Name a periodic waveform that consists of only odd harmonics.
a. Square wave
b. Sine wave
c. Cosine wave
d. Spikes
ans: a
-
Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony.
a. Magnifier
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class A
ans: c
-
The audio is reconstructed from the radiowave by:
a. The action of the headset
b. Having the audio removed from the carrier.
c. The action of a filter capacitor connected across the headset
d. none of the above
ans: c
-
Which of the following do not require a tuner?
a. TV receiver
b. CB receiver
c. Communications Sattelite Receiver
d. none of these
ans: d
-
What is the main difference between an AF amplifier and an RF amplifier?
a. The amplification factor
b. The stability
c. The selectivity
d. The range of frequencies that they amplify
ans: d
-
What is the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator?
a. To provide a conversion frequency
b. To produce the IF
c. To provide good selectivity
d. To increase stability
ans: a
-
What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission?
a. HPF
b. LPF
c. Duplexer
d. Diplexer
ans: d
-
What does AFC mean?
a. All Filipino Conference
b. Anti Firing Countermeasure
c. Audio Frequency Control
d. Automatic Frequency Control
ans: d
-
Amplitude Modulation is the same as
a. Linear Mixing
b. Analog Multiplication
c. Signal Summation
d. Mutliplexing
ans: b
-
In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n)
a. Tuned Circuit
b. Transformer
c. Capacitor
d. Inductor
ans: a
-
Amplitude modulation can be produced by
a. Having the carrier vary a resistance
b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
c. Varying the carrier frequency
d. Varying the gain of an amplifier
ans: a
-
Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signa
l by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of
a. Rectification
b. Resonance
c. Variable resistance
d. Absorption
ans: c
-
The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a
a. Varactor
b. Thermistor
c. Cavity Resonator
d. PIN diode
ans: a
-
Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known
as
a. High level modulation
b. Low Level Modulation
c. Collector Modulation
d. Minimum Modulation
ans: b
-
The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signa
l is known as a
a. Modulator
b. Demodulator
c. Mixer
d. Crystal Set
ans: b
-
The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the
a. Diode mixer
b. Balanced modulator
c. Envelope Detector
d. Crystal Filter
ans: c
-
A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is calle
d a(n)
a. Amplitude Modulator
b. Diode Detector
c. Class C Amplifier
d. Balanced Modulator
ans: d
-
A widely used balanced modulator is called the
a. Diode Bridge Circuit
b. Full Wave bridge rectifier
c. Lattice Modulator
d. Balanced bridge modulator
ans: c
-
In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like
a. Variable resistors
b. Switches
c. Rectifiers
d. Variable Capaitors
ans: b
-
The output of a balanced modulator is
a. AM
b. FM
c. SSB
d. DSB
ans: d
-
The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a
a. Differential Amplifier
b. Rectifier
c. Bridge
d. Constant Current Source
ans: a
-
The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses
a. LC Networks
b. Mechanical Resonators
c. Crystals
d. RC Networks and op amps
ans: c
-
The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a
a. Series Resonant circuit
b. Parallel Resonant Circuit
c. Neithar a and b
d. Both a and b
ans: d
-
Where is ISB primarily used?
a. Telephone and telegraph communications
b. Telemetry
c. FM broadcast
d. Radar
ans: a
-
What is a major problem with very high frequency oscillator?
a. low sensitivity
b. poor frequency stability
c. poor image rejection
d. no power stability
ans: b
-
What does ALC means?
a. All local Circuits
b. Automatic level control
c. Asynchronous Link Control
d. Automatic Link Circuit
ans: b
-
What is an ideal pulse?
a. a perfect square wave with zero rise time
b. a very short duration
c. a high amplitude
d. a low duty cycle
ans: a
-
What happens to the spectrum of repetitive pulse as the pulse width decreases?

a. more harmonics of the same phase
b. less harmonics of the same phase
c. remain constant
d. decreases
ans: a
-
A major advantage of the vacuum tube is its need for a _______ to give energy
to the electrons.
a. Voltage source
b. line equalizer
c. limiter
d. heater
ans: d
-
Keyed AGC is AGC that:
a. Works only on Morse code
b. Is activated when keyed by the transmitting signal
c. Is used is TV receivers so that transmitted picture brightness does not aff
ect the AGC
d. Is used in color TV receivers so that the transmitted color has no effect o
n the AGC
ans: c
-
What is the main disadvantage of a single-tube transmitter
a. Frequency instability
b. Low gain
c. High resistivity
d. High attenuation
ans: a
-
What is the name of the operation that uses an antenna changeover switch?
a. Duplex
b. Simplex
c. Crossover
d. Switching
ans: b
-
Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of the radio spectr
um?
a. 8.2345 MHz
b. 150.50 MHz
c. 2.4555 MHz
d. 35.535 MHz
ans: a
-
What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions?
a. Amplitude
b. Phase
c. Bandwidth
d. Energy
ans: c
-
What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the transmiss
ion frequency?
a. Frequency sensitivity
b. Frequency stability
c. High sensitivity
d. Good selectivity
ans: b
-
What type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission?
a. Capacitive
b. Direct
c. Transformer
d. Inductive
ans: d
-
What class of bias should produce least harmonics?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
ans: a
-
What type of field does a Faraday shield stop?
a. Common
b. Array
c. Electrostatic
d. Magnetostatic
ans: c
-
What type of circuit reduces even-order harmonics?
a. Push-pull
b. Class A
c. Armstrong circuit
d. Demodulator
ans: a
-
How many watts are represented by 40dBw?
a. 40,000w
b. 1,000w
c. 40w
d. 10,000w
ans: d
-
Term for transmission of printed picture by radio.
a. Facsimile
b. ACSSB
c. Xerography
d. Television
ans: a
-
What is another name for an AF volume control?
a. FC
b. Gain
c. ARC
d. AMC
ans: b
-
What device can be used to make a modulated envelope visible?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Synthesizer
c. Calibrator
d. Oscilloscope
ans: d
-
Which of the following is not an advantage of SSB over AM?
a. Power saving
b. Simple receiver circuit
c. Less spectrum
d. None of these
ans: b
-
What is the result if a balanced modulator is not perfectly balanced?
a. SB filtered
b. Carrier transmitted
c. Lower sideband transmitted
d. Both sideband transmitted
ans: b
-
If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 180
d. 90
ans: d
-
What method can be used to invert speech?
a. Frequency multiplier
b. Inverter
c. AGC
d. Frequency translation
ans: d
-
In SSB, voice compression is better in the AF or RF section?
a. AF
b. RF
c. Intermediate
d. SB
ans: b
-
What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF?
a. Demodulator
b. Modem
c. Synthesizer
d. Modulator
ans: a
-
What kind of crystal is used in oscillator?
a. Quartz
b. Galena
c. Carborundum
d. Salt
ans: a
-
Power is always _____
a. A definite amount of energy
b. All of these
c. The rate at which energy is used
d. Expressed in watts
ans: b
-
Which of the following services would use crystal local oscillators?
a. AM
b. FM
c. Aircraft
d. Shortwave listeners
ans: c
-
What does VOX mean?
a. Very Onward circuit
b. Voice-operated transmission
c. Voice Onward transmission
d. Very Oxford Transmitter
ans: b
-
What is an NO RY?
a. Non operational Relay
b. Normally Open Relay
c. Normally Ready
d. Non Organic Relay
ans: b
-
The Extremely hihg frequency(EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of _____
_.
a. 30 to 300 kHZ
b. 30 to 300 GHZ
c. 3 to 30 MHz
d. 3 to 30 GHz
ans: b
-
What kind of system relays has remote readings?
a. Broadcasting
b. Data gathering
c. Telecast
d. Telemetering
ans: d
-
What causes audio signals to be distorted in the receiver?
a. Interference
b. Gain
c. Harmonics
d. Amplitude
ans: c
-
Which of the following is not normally tested in a transmitter?
a. Power
b. Modulation
c. Frequency
d. Amplitude
ans: d
-
Which of the following items need not to be checked with receivers?
a. Sensitivity
b. Squelch
c. Distortion
d. Gain
ans: d
-
What is the source of wheel static?
a. Wheel
b. Brakes
c. Piston
d. Oscillations
ans: b
-
_______ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundamental frequency.
a. Distortion
b. Harmonic
c. Modulation
d. Radio
ans: b
-
Amplitude distortion results from _______ amplification.
a. Indirect
b. Linear
c. Direct
d. Nonlinear
ans: d
-
A _____ is a resonant circuit tuned to reject an undesired signal by reducing
the gain at the trap frequency
a. LC tank
b. LPF
c. Wave trap
d. HPF
ans: c
-
A subcarrier has a(n) _____ frequency than the main carrier.
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Equal
d. Good
ans: a
-
Amplitude limiting in the IF section eliminates ___ interference from the FM s
ignal.
a. AM
b. FM
c. PM
d. Broadband
ans: a
-
With which emission type is capture-effect most pronounced?
a. CW
b. FM
c. SSB
d. AM
ans: b
-
The parameter of a high frequency carrier that may be varied by a low frequenc
y intelligence signal is
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. All of the above
ans: d
-
A carrier signal has ____.
a. Constant peak amplitude
b. The information
c. Frequency range 20-20000Hz
d. A varying amplitude
ans: a
-
The type of emission for FM stereo(multiplex) broadcasting is
a. F3E
b. A3E
c. F8E
d. A8E
ans: c
-
The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is ______.
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Insertion
d. All of these
ans: b
-
In TV broadcasting in the Philippines, the aspect ratio of the picture frame i
s ____.
a. 4:3
b. 2:1
c. 4:1
d. 3:1
ans: a
-
Horizontal blanking time in TV.
a. 10.16 us
b. 16.67 us
c. 63.5 us
d. 1 us
ans: c
-
The standard coaxial impedance for CATV applications is_______.
a. 36 ohms
b. 72 ohms
c. 75 ohms
d. 300 ohms
ans: c
-
The service area in which the ground wave field of 1mV/m is not subject to obj
ectionable interference.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Intermittent
d. Tertiary
ans: a
-
Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?
a. MF
b. VHF
c. HF
d. UHF
ans: a
-
Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?
a. HF
b. UHF
c. MF
d. VHF
ans: c
-
The width of television broadcast channel
a. 200MHz
b. 10kHz
c. 100kHz
d. 6MHz
ans: d
-
CATV trunk and feeder system amplifier input voltage of _____.
a. 110 V
b. 220 V
c. 500 V
d. 1000 V
ans: b
-
it is the maximum swing of the sound carrier in tv system.
a. 5 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 35 kHz
ans: c
-
The pre-emphasis and de-emphasis networks have a time constant of__
a. 65 s
b. 70 s
c. 75 s
d. 80 s
ans: c
-
which of the following is not a product of overmodulation?
a. splatter
b. image
c. buck shot
d. spurious signal
ans: b
-
it is the range of short-wave frequency.
a. 30 - 300 kHz
b. 300 - 3000 kHz
c. 3 - 30 MHz
d. 30 - 300 MHz
ans: c
-
One angstrom is equivalent to___
a. 10
b. 10
c. 10
d. 10
ans: b
-
An FM signal has a deviation of 10 KHz and a modulating frequency of 2 KHz. Ca
lculate the modulation index.
a. 20
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
ans: b
-
A modulation technique wherein the modulations index is directly proportional
only to the intelligence amplitude.
a. AM
b. FM
c. PM
d. CM
ans: c
-
How many RF amplifiers are there in a tuned radio frequency receiver?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ans: b
-
Noise due to random motion of the free alectrons in a conductor.
a. thermal noise
b. shot noise
c. harmonic distortion
d. intermodulation distortion
ans: a
-
determine the shot noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1mA over a
100 Khz Bandwidth.
a. 0.00566 A
b. 0.00400 A
c. 0.00455 A
d. 0.00500 A
ans: a
-
indicate the false staement: Bandwidth
a. ia a portion of electromagnetism spectrum occupied by a system
b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propagate the source informat
ion through the system.
c. must be sufficiently large to pass all significant information frequenies
d. is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limit
ans: b
-
what is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network?
a. 2122 GHZ
b. 2122 KHZ
c. 2122 HZ
d. 2122 MHZ
ans: c
-
Band limiting a signal
a. is independent of its frequency content
b. is independent of itswaveform shape
c. may remove necessary in its information capacity
d. is independent of its information capacity
ans: c
-
desired harmonics are referred to as:
a. frequency distortion
b. frequency multiplication
c. modulation cross products
d. intermodulation distortion
ans: b
-
indicate the false staement: Flickers
a. were commonly found in transistors
b. are inversely proportional to frequency
c. are very serious at frequencies above 500 HZ
d. are also referred to as modulation noise.
ans: c
-
having a temperature of 17 C at MHZ BW the noise voltage at the input of a TV R
F amplifier, using a device has a 200 O equivalent noise resistance and a 300 O
input resistor will be
a. 3.692 V
b. 6.932 V
c. 6.902 V
d. 6.293 V
ans: b
-
the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power gen
erated is therfore
a. Halved
b. quadrupled
c. doubled
d. none of the above
ans: d
-
_____________ transmissionare employed for low or medium density traffic
a. SSBSC
b. DSBCS
c. SSBRC
d. ISB
ans: d
-
An Fm signal with a deviation ratio 8 is passed through a mixer, and has its f
requency reduced 5 fold. The deviation in the output of the mixer is
a. 5 d
b. d / 5
c. d
d. none of the above
ans: c
-
a typical squelch circuit cut off
a. an audio amplifier when carrier is absent
b. R interference when the signal is weak
c. An IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum
d. all of the above
ans: a
-
a 68 KHz carrier wave is amplitude modulated by the band of frequencies 300-34
00 Hz. Determine the Bandwidth.
a. 38.3 KHz
b. 71.4 KHz
c. 6.8 KHz
d. 3.1 KHz
ans: c
-
A 400W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75%. Calculate the total power in th
e C3F with 10% of 1SB transmission.
a. 56.25 W
b. 461.86W
c. 512.5W
d. 112.5W
ans: b
-
which of the following has the best sensitivity?
a. -60 dBm
b. 0 dBm
c. 30 dBm
d. -30 dBm
ans: a
-
which of the following has the best sensitivity?
a. 10 KHz
b. 10 MHz
c. 100 MHz
d. 20 KHz
ans: a
-
a modulation frequency range from 30-15000 Hz is permitted in an Fm system tog
ether with a maximum deviation of 50KHz. What will be the maximum index in this
system?
a. 1.11
b. 1.66
c. 3.33
d. 0.3
ans: b
-
calculate the image rejecytion of the receiver having an RF amplifier and If o
f 450 KHz if the Q of the relevant coil is 65 at anincoming frequency of 1200 KH
z.
a. 75.28
b. 76.6
c. 890.78
d. 90
ans: b
-
calculate the S/N in ratio and dB form of a receiver which output is 40V and 0
.48V noise.
a. 6944.4 , 38.5 dB
b. 6499.4 , 38.42 dB
c. 83.33 , 19.21 dB
d. 6944.4 , 38.42 dB
ans: d
-
which of the following is NOT a major benefit of FM over Am?
a. greater efficiency
b. noise immunity
c. capture effect
d. lower complexity and cost
ans: d
-
most internal noise comes from
a. shot noise
b. transit-time noise
c. thermal agitation
d. skin effect
ans: c
-
noise can be reduced by
a. widening the BW
b. narrowing the BW
c. increasing the temperature
d. increasing transistor current level
ans: b
-
the heart of all methods of single sideband modulation and demodulation
a. modulator
b. balanced modulator
c. modulation
d. demodulation
ans: b
-
"front end" is also called _____
a. IF stage
b. AF stage
c. RF stage
d. none of these
ans: c
-
this is the system so far referred to as "SSB" in which the carrier is supress
ed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. J3E
d. B8E
ans: c
-
a micron is
a. one-millionth of a foot
b. one-millionth of a meter
c. one-thousandth of a meter
d. one-thousandth of an inch
ans: b
-
the frequency range of infrared rays is approx.
a. 30-300 GHz
b. 4000-8000 A
c. 1000-10000 A
d. 0.7-100 m
ans: d
-
an AM signal has a carrier power of 5w. The percentage of modulation is 80%. T
he total sideband power is
a. 0.8 W
b. 1.6 W
c. 2.5W
d. 4.0W
ans: b
-
as SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 KW.the average output is in range of
a. 150-450 W
b. 100-300 W
c. 250-333 W
d. 3 - 4 kW
ans: c
-
if the unmodulated carrier current is 4A and the percentage modulation is 70%.
The total output current is
a. 4.64 A
b. 0.5 A
c. 2.8 A
d. 4.46 A
ans: d
-
the process of translating a signal, w/ or w/o modulation, to a higher or lowe
r frequency for processing is called_____
a. frequency multiplication
b. frequency division
c. frequency shift
d. frequency conversion
ans: d
-
if the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the modulation inde
x?
a. 50A%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%
ans: d
-
which of the following is he most correct?
a. Vm should be greater then Vc
b. Vc should be greater than Vm
c. Vm should be equal to or less than Vc
d. Vc should be equal to or less than Vm
ans: c
-
the output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 KHz sine wa
ve modulating tone is
a. 3.8485 MHZ sine wave
b. 3.85 MHz sine wave
c. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine wave
d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine wave
ans: a
-
the maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 KHz. The actu
al % modulation is 18 KHz, the % modulation is
a. 43%
b. 72%
c. 96%
d. 139%
ans: b
-
the phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a common fr
equency is reffered to as the ______
a. capture effect
b. biot out
c. quieting factor
d. denomination syndrome
ans: a
-
both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation?
a. amplitude
b. phase
c. angle
d. duty cycle
ans: c
-
in SSB, w/c sideband is the best to use?
a. upper
b. lower
c. neither
d. depends upon the use
ans: c
-
Which of the following is NOT another name for modulation index?
a. modulation reciprocal
b. modulation factor
c. degree of modulation
d. modulation coefficient
ans: a
-
receiving electromagnetic emissions from the stars is called_____
a. astrology
b. optical astronomy
c. radio astronomy'
d. space surveillance
ans: c
-
a widely used balanced modulator is called _____
a. diode bridge circuit
b. full-wave bridge amplifier
c. lattice modulator
d. balanced bridge modulator
ans: c
-
a display of signal amplitude vs. frequency is called the ____
a. time domain
b. frequency spectrum
c. amplitude spectrum
d. frequency domain
ans: d
-
indicate the false staement: BW
a. is a portion of electromagnetic spectrum occupied by a system
b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propagate the source informat
ion through the system
c. must be sufficiently large / wide to pass all significant information frequ
encies
d. is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limit
ans: b
-
indicate the false statement: attenuators
a. are passive network used to reduce the power level w/o introducing apprecia
ble distortion
b. consist of numerous resistors arranged in various configurations that act a
s voltage divides while maintaining a constant input and output impedances
c. introduces a fixed loss
d. usually used over wide frequency range
ans: c
-
what is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network
a. 2122 GHz
b. 2122 KHz
c. 2122 Hz
d. 2122 MHz
ans: c
-
which of the following waveform responses produce the fastest transition
a. chebysher
b. elliptic
c. bessel filter
d. butterworth
ans: b
-
which of the following waveform responses produce the slowest transition
a. bessel filter
b. elliptic
c. chebysher
d. maximally flat filter
ans: d
-
bandlimiting a signal :
a. is independent fo its frequency content
b. is independent of its waveform shape
c. is independent in its information capacity
d. may remove necessary informations in the signal
ans: c
-
indicate the false statement: roll-off rate
a. can be expressed in dB/octave
b. can be expressed in dB/decade
c. is a change in frequency by a factor of 2
d. is a rate of transition from passband to stopband and vice versa
ans: c
-
desired harmonics are reffered to as:
a. frequency distortion
b. frequency multiplication
c. modulation cross products
d. intermodulation distortion
ans: b
-
______was the first fixed-length charactered code
a. morse code
b. telex code
c. ASCII code
d. EBCDIC code
ans: b
-
indicate the false statement: flicker
a. were commomnlyfound in transistors
b. are inversely proportional to frequency
c. are very serious at frequency above 500Hz
d. are also known as modulation noise
ans: c
-
having an amplifier BW of 6 MHz at temperature 17c, the noise voltage at the in
put of a TV RF amplifier, using a device that has a 200O equivalent noise resist
ance and a 300O input resistor will be ___
a. 6.392 MV
b. 6.932 MV
c. 6.902 MV
d. 6.293 MV
ans: b
-
the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power gen
erated is therefore
a. halved
b. quadrupled
c. doubled
d. none of the above
ans: d
-
_____ transmissions are employed for low or medium density traffic
a. SSBSC
b. DSBSC
c. SSBRC
d. ISB
ans: d
-
an FM signal w/ a deviation d is passed through a mixer , and has its frequenc
y reduced fivefolds. The deviation in the output of the mixer is
a. 5d
b. d/5
c. d
d. none of the above
ans: c
-
a typical squelch circuit cuts off
a. an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent
b. RF interference when the signal is weak
c. an IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum
d. an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum
ans: a
-
if the color signals are mixed in the correct proportion, the result is ____
a. red
b. frame rate
c. standard luminance
d. sync pulse
ans: c
-
selectivity is usually obtained with a special filter known as _____
a. surface acoustic wave filter
b. bandpass filter
c. chebysher filter
d. active filter
ans: a
-
the _________ is a coil assembly that fits aroiund the picture tube's neck.
a. aquadag
b. triads
c. shadow mask
d. yoke
ans: d
-
for cable TV companies, the main building or facility is called the ______
a. main station
b. headend
c. monitoring station
d. transmitter and receiver station
ans: b
-
which has the lowest luminance?
a. cyan
b. green
c. blue
d. magenta
ans: c
-
determine the net receiver gain for an AM receiver with a RF input power of -8
7dBnm
a. 97dB
b. 77dB
c. 87dB
d. -97dB
ans: a
-
it is the safe operating power for the receiver.
a. dynamic range
b. output power
c. threshold
d. breakdown
ans: a
-
for an AM band with range of 535 - 1605 kHz and Q = 53.5, find the bandwidth w
hen fc = 535kHz.
a. 15 kHz
b. 10 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 5 kHz
ans: b
-
what is the type of emission for monophonic FM?
a. A3E
b. F3E
c. F8E
d. none of these
ans: b
-
find the maximum number of channels for FM transmission FM BC band: 88.108MHz
FM BC channel width: 200kHz
a. 25 channels
b. 100 channels
c. 150 channels
d. none of the above
ans: b
-
for an I=0.4 and Q=0.7, find the value of the chrominace signal voltage.
a. 1.1 V
b. 0.6 V
c. 0.3 V
d. 0.8 V
ans: d
-
what percent is the reference black level of a horizontal sync pulse?
a. 12.50%
b. 70%
c. 75%
d. 50%
ans: b
-
numerical frequency band designation of channel 9.
a. 488-494 MHz
b. 530-536 MHz
c. 632-638 MHz
d. 186-192 MHz
ans: d
-
part of broadcast day from local sunset to sunrise.
a. dawntime
b. nighttime
c. daytime
d. experimental period
ans: b
-
which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2-13)?
a. high pass filter
b. low pass filter
c. band stop filter
d. band pass filter
ans: c
-
the number of scanning times is _______ per second.
a. 15570
b. 15750
c. 15575
d. 17570
ans: b
-
what is the intermediate frequency used for the picture on a television receiv
er?
a. 3.58 MHz
b. 1.25 MHz
c. 45.75 MHz
d. 41.25 MHz
ans: c
-
how long is the toatl vertical time in a standard television transmission?
a. 16.66 ms
b. 63.5 ms
c. 53.3 ms
d. 15.32 ms
ans: a
-
what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver?
a. 1 KHz
b. 10 KHz
c. 10 Hz
d. 1 Hz
ans: c
-
a band of frequencies 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center frequenc
y.
a. AM broadcast band
b. FM broadcast channel
c. FM broadcast band
d. AM broadcast channel
ans: b
-
frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class AB
ans: c
-
it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequency unrelat
ed to the tuned frequency.
a. parasitic frequency
b. parallel oscilaation
c. resonant frequency
d. parasitic oscillation
ans: d
-
Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________.
a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the str
ength of incoming signals varies.
b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF gain
as the strength of incoming signals varies.
c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the str
ength of incoming signals varies.
d. none of the above.
ans: c
-
ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives a step-up/stepdo
wn transfomer called______.
a. flywheel
b. AFC
c. Director
d. Flyback
ans: d
-
Aspect ratio is the _________
a. ratio of the output IF signal to the IF input signal.
b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the speed of light.
c. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture.
d. ratio of the luminance of the received signal from the output signal
ans: c
-
_________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in between the
first field.
a. progressived
b. dual
c. interlaced
d. Bi-directional
ans: c
-
the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation is _____
_
a. high gain
b. input and output impedances are equal.
c. high selectivity
d. high sensitivity
ans: c
-
frequency conversion si produced by a circuit called a _____.
a. mixer
b. modulator
c. multiplexer
d. filter
ans: a
-
what is the instantaneous voltage produced by an AM signal 10 sec from when it
was transmitted if the modulating signal voltage is equal to the RMS value of t
he carrier voltage signal is 16V? The carrier frequency is 777kHz and the modula
ting frequency is 60Hz respectively.
a. 1 eV8.947 V
b. 27.314 V
c. 0.182 mV
d. 1.43 mV
ans: c
-
how long does ot take to horizontally scan 40 pixels?
a. 5 s
b. 0.125 s
c. 53.5 s
d. 2.140 ms
ans: a
-
the signal from color camera has R=0.75, G=0.5, and B=0.15, where 1 represents
the maximum signal possible. Find the chrominance voltage?
a. 0.5365
b. 0.262
c. -0.056
d. 0.2679
ans: d
-
the purpose of a final amplifier in a radio frequency transmitter is to ______
___.
a. isolate the carrier oscillator from its load.
b. generate an accurate and stable carrier frequency
c. apply the generated signal to the antenna.
d. increase RF power level of transmitter
ans: d
-
how far Is the visual carrier from the aural carrier in a monochrome televisio
n broadcast channel?
a. 5.75 MHz
b. 3.58 MHz
c. 4.5 MHz
d. 1.25 MHz
ans: c
-
determine the percentage of the primary colors used in colored TV needed to pr
oduce the brigthest white.
a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue
b. 60% red, 28% green, 32% blue
c. 21% red, 52% green, 31% blue
d. 30% red, 52% green, 22% blue
ans: a
-
what is the maximum number of medium frequency broadcast stations?
a. 131
b. 32
c. 100
d. 25
ans: b
-
ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission?
a. 14% of horizontal scanning time
b. 10% of horizontal scanning time
c. 8% of horizontal scanning time
d. 92% of horizontal scanning time
ans: b
-
the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is determined
by ______ zone.
a. line-of-sight
b. diffraction
c. tropospheric
d. regional tropospheric
ans: a
-
additive primary colors are
a. red , white, blue,
b. red , yellow, blue
c. blue, red, green
d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y
ans: c
-
the station with an authorized effective radiated power of 125 KW
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class D
ans: a
-
short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation?
a. ground wave
b. sky waves
c. space waves
d. direct waves
ans: b
-
the ratio of the effective free space field intensity produced at 1.61 km in t
he horizontal plane expressed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna input pow
er to 137.6 in V/m.
a. injection ratio
b. RF protection ratio
c. Antenna field gain
d. Antenna power gain
ans: c
-
a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which frequency mo
dulates the main carrier.
a. subchannel signal
b. main channel signal
c. SCA subcarrier
d. composite baseband signal
ans: d
-
as applied to facsimile broadcasting is the product of the number of lines per
inch, the available length in inches.
a. Line-use ratio
b. index of cooperation
c. available line
d. scanning line
ans: b
-
in Tv broadcasting, the pilot of the free space radiated field intensity versu
s azimuth at a specified vertical angle with respect to vertical plane passing t
hrough the center of the antenna.
a. Azimuthal pattern
b. spherical pattern
c. vertical pattern
d. polar pattern
ans: a
-
the median field strenght for which protection against interference of channel
2-6.
a. 15 dBu
b. 25 dBu
c. 48 dBu
d. 65 dBu
ans: c
-
in metro manila and metro cebu, the maximum effective radiated power for chann
el 7-13
a. 350 kW
b. 800 kW
c. 1000 kW
d. 1500 kW
ans: c
-
the maximum transmitter power of a television broadcast translator station ope
rated by televisionbroadcast licenses.
a. 1000 W
b. 100 W
c. 1000 kW
d. 100 kW
ans: a
-
during day time, medium waves are propagated through______?
a. ground
b. troposphere
c. ionosphere
d. atmosphere
ans: a
-
who invented frequency modulation?
a. samuel morse
b. guglielmo marconi
c. edwin howard armstrong
d. lee deforest
ans: c
-
what are the most significant limitations on the performance of a communicatio
n system?
a. BW and time
b. carrier and sidebands
c. distance and locations
d. noise and BW
ans: d
-
______ is a noise which is caused by the random arrival of the carriers at the
output element of the electronic device?
a. thermal noise
b. transit time noise
c. shot noise
d. man made noise
ans: c
-
it usually occurs when oscillating mechanical stresses applied across a crysta
l lattice structure generale electrical oscillations and vice versa
a. skin effect
b. flywheel effect
c. doppler effect
d. piezoelectric effect
ans: d
-
________ is the ability of an oscillator to remain at a fixed frequency and is
of primary importance in communication system?
a. sensitivity
b. frequency stability
c. selectivity
d. addictus effect
ans: b
-
what do you call the noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the bandwidths
?
a. BW improvement
b. S/N ratio
c. noise figure
d. differential reduction
ans: a
-
how many phons are there in 8 sons?
a. 70
b. 107.88
c. 95.56
d. 40
ans: a
-
what is the carrier power for an AM with an unmodulated voltage of 10V and a l
oad resistance of 10ohms?
a. 5W
b. 10W
c. 15W
d. 20W
ans: a
-
or an AM DSBFC transmitter with an unmodulated carrier power, 100W, that is mo
dulated simultaneously by three modulating signal with coeffecients of modulatio
n of 0.2, 0.4, 0.5. calculate for the total transmitted power?
a. 0.67
b. 22.445 W
c. 122.445 W
d. can not be solved
ans: c
-
a source radiates 5W of power uniformly. What is the intensity and the intensi
ty level 6m from the source?
a. 0.01,100
b. 0.02,200
c. 0.03,300
d. can not be solved
ans: a
-
__________occurs when information signals from one source produce frequencies
that fall outside their allocated bandwidth and interfere with information signa
ls from another source.
a. interference
b. distortion
c. electrical interference
d. adjacency interference
ans: a
-
_________ Is used to calculate the total noise factor of several cascaded ampl
ifiers.
a. Sabine's formula
b. Norris-Eyring's formula
c. Friiss' formula
d. none of the above
ans: c
-
which is not a requirement for a feedback oscillator to word.
a. power source
b. amplification
c. negative feedback
d. frequency determining components
ans: c
-
invented frequency modulation.
a. Thomas Watson
b. Edison Armstrong
c. Edward Howard Armstrong
d. none of the above
ans: d
-
transmiittal of digitally modulatd analog carrier between two or more points i
n communication system.
a. Analog network
b. digital network
c. digital radio
d. analog radio
ans: c
-
eliminated the effect of imbalances in impedances which causes a portion of th
e receives signal to be returned to the sender on a portion of a hybrid ciruit.
a. signal suppressors
b. interference suppressor
c. echo suppressors
d. circuit suppressors
ans: c
-
in odd symmetry what coefficient(s) are valued to be zero?
a. A
b. B
c. B and A
d. none of the above
ans: a
-
________ is the ratio of active time of the pulse to the period of the wavefor
m.
a. dynamic range
b. deviation ratio
c. duty cycle
d. deflection ratio
ans: a
-
phenomenon in which a displaced molecules tends to pull back to its original p
osition after its initial momentum has caused it to displace nearby molecules.
a. malleability
b. ductility
c. elasticity
d. lifetime
ans: c
-
a 4x4 announceer booth is 4m high, its walls are covered with curtains having
an absorption coefficient of 0.500 while the ceiling and flooring have an absorp
tion coefficient of 0.050 and 0.30, respectively. Determine reverberation time.
a. 1.334
b. 0.274
c. 0.2159
d. 0.256
ans: c
-
what is the resonant air cavity absorber in hertz of a loudspeaker enclosure w
ith an internal volume of 84950cm a thickness of 19mm with a small opening of 323
cm?
a. approx. 235
b. approx. 520
c. approx. 665
d. approx. 110
ans: a
-
refers to the microphone's variaation in sensitivity at various angles of inci
dence with respect to the on-axis of the microphone.
a. directional response
b. sensitivity factor
c. angular reaction
d. perception aspect
ans: a
-
part of broadcast day from local sunset to sunrise.
a. dawntime
b. nighttime
c. daytime
d. experimental period
ans: b
-
which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2-13)?
a. high pass filter
b. low pass filter
c. band stop filter
d. band pass filter
ans: c
-
the number of scanning times is _______ per second.
a. 15570
b. 15750
c. 15575
d. 17570
ans: b
-
what is the intermediate frequency used for the picture on a television receiv
er?
a. 3.58 MHz
b. 1.25 MHz
c. 45.75 MHz
d. 41.25 MHz
ans: d
-
how long is the total vertical time in a standard teelvision transmission?
a. 16.66 ms
b. 63.5 ms
c. 53.3 ms
d. 15.32 ms
ans: a
-
what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver?
a. 1 KHz
b. 10 KHz
c. 10 Hz
d. 1 Hz
ans: c
-
a band of frequencies 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center frequenc
y.
a. AM broadcast band
b. FM broadcast channel
c. FM broadcast band
d. AM broadcast channel
ans: b
-
frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class AB
ans: c
-
it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequency unrelat
ed to the tuned frequency.
a. parasitic frequency
b. parallel oscilaation
c. resonant frequency
d. parasitic oscillation
ans: d
-
Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________.
a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the str
ength of incoming signals varies.
b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF gain
as the strength of incoming signals varies.
c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the str
ength of incoming signals varies.
d. none of the above.
ans: c
-
ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives a step-up/stepdo
wn transfomer called______.
a. flywheel
b. AFC
c. Director
d. Flyback
ans: d
-
Aspect ratio is the _________
a. ratio of the output IF signal to the IF input signal.
b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the speed of light.
c. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture.
d. ratio of the luminance of the received signal from the output signal
ans: c
-
_________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in between the
first field.
a. progressived
b. dual
c. interlaced
d. Bi-directional
ans: c
-
the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation is _____
_
a. high gain
b. input and output impedances are equal.
c. high selectivity
d. high sensitivity
ans: c
-
frequency conversion si produced by a circuit called a _____.
a. mixer
b. modulator
c. multiplexer
d. filter
ans: a
-
how long does ot take to horizontally scan 40 pixels?
a. 5 s
b. 0.125 s
c. 53.5 s
d. 2.140 ms
ans: a
-
the signal from color camera has R=0.75, G=0.5, and B=0.15, where 1 represents
the maximum signal possible. Find the chrominance voltage?
a. 0.5365
b. 0.262
c. -0.056
d. 0.2679
ans: d
-
the purpose of a final amplifier in a radio frequency transmitter is to ______
___.
a. isolate the carrier oscillator from its load.
b. generate an accurate and stable carrier frequency
c. apply the generated signal to the antenna.
d. increase RF power level of transmitter
ans: d
-
how far Is the visual carrier from the aural carrier in a monochrome televisio
n broadcast channel?
a. 5.75 MHz
b. 3.58 MHz
c. 4.5 MHz
d. 1.25 MHz
ans: c
-
determine the percentage of the primary colors used in colored TV needed to pr
oduce the brigthest white.
a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue
b. 60% red, 28% green, 32% blue
c. 21% red, 52% green, 31% blue
d. 30% red, 52% green, 22% blue
ans: a
-
what is the maximum number of medium frequency broadcast stations?
a. 131
b. 32
c. 100
d. 25
ans: b
-
ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission?
a. 14% of horizontal scanning time
b. 10% of horizontal scanning time
c. 8% of horizontal scanning time
d. 92% of horizontal scanning time
ans: b
-
the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is determined
by ______ zone.
a. line-of-sight
b. diffraction
c. tropospheric
d. regional tropospheric
ans: a
-
additive primary colors are
a. red , white, blue,
b. red , yellow, blue
c. blue, red, green
d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y
ans: c
-
the station with an authorized effective radiated power of 125 KW
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class D
ans: a
-
short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation?
a. ground wave
b. sky waves
c. space waves
d. direct waves
ans: b
-
the ratio of the effective free space field intensity produced at 1.61 km in t
he horizontal plane expressed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna input pow
er to 137.6 in V/m.
a. injection ratio
b. RF protection ratio
c. Antenna field gain
d. Antenna power gain
ans: c
-
a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which frequency mo
dulates the main carrier.
a. subchannel signal
b. main channel signal
c. SCA subcarrier
d. composite baseband signal
ans: d
-
as applied to facsimile broadcasting is the product of the number of lines per
inch, the available length in inches.
a. Line-use ratio
b. index of cooperation
c. available line
d. scanning line
ans: b
-
in Tv broadcasting, the pilot of the free space radiated field intensity versu
s azimuth at a specified vertical angle with respect to vertical plane passing t
hrough the center of the antenna.
a. Azimuthal pattern
b. spherical pattern
c. vertical pattern
d. polar pattern
ans: a
-
the median field strenght for which protection against interference of channel
2-6.
a. 15 dBu
b. 25 dBu
c. 48 dBu
d. 65 dBu
ans: c
-
in metro manila and metro cebu, the maximum effective radiated power for chann
el 7-13
a. 350 kW
b. 800 kW
c. 1000 kW
d. 1500 kW
ans: c
-
the maximum transmitter power of a television broadcast translator station ope
rated by televisionbroadcast licenses.
a. 1000 W
b. 100 W
c. 1000 kW
d. 100 kW
ans: a
-
during day time, medium waves are propagated through______?
a. ground
b. troposphere
c. ionosphere
d. atmosphere
ans: a
-
who invented frequency modulation?
a. samuel morse
b. guglielmo marconi
c. edwin howard armstrong
d. lee deforest
ans: c
-
what are the most significant limitations on the performance of a communicatio
n system?
a. BW and time
b. carrier and sidebands
c. distance and locations
d. noise and BW
ans: d
---end---