MEDICINE GERIATRIC 12. Enzyme marker of malignant Hypothermi a) SenuinCPK —b)LDH._(A/MS 80,PGI81) 1, Thetheorey behind the aging process is- ©) SGOT SGPT 4} Abiotrophy (GIPMER 91) 13. The charactelstic ECG change in hypothemia ') Hormonal theory is- (AIIMS 81, PGI 98) ¢) Free radical theory a) T wave inversion by Jwave 6) Dyspenetic theory ¢) PR prolonged 4) ST segment 2 ries deals with people older than - 14. Indiurnal variation of body temperature, highest a) 60 yrs b)70,yrs, (GIPMER 92) temperture isat- (IPMER 79, PGI 80) ©) 15 ys 6) 85 yrs 2) 6pmlOpm b} Noon, 3. Inold age the following are seen except - ©) Zaman 4) Midnight 2) Slow wave in ECG (Kerala 94) 15. The sequeale related to heat stroke includes - ») Psychomotor dysfunction a) Cerebeliar degeneration (PGI79, AMU 88) ©) Osteoporosis b) Cerebral abscess ‘IHD ©) Asending myelitis 4, All areinereased inold ageexcept- (MP 2K) 4) Guillain-Barre syndrome a) Hematocrit 16, Fevers caused by ~ (Karata 95) b) GER 4} Lenkottienes ) Histamine €) Impaired glucose tolerance «) Interleukein @) Prostaglandins 4) Blood pressure 17, Profound hypothermic signs include all 5. Which tends to decrease with Increasing except- (PGE 8}, AUMS 83) age (AIMS 85) ) Slow breathing byBradycardia 2) Vital capacity b) Systolic BP. ©) Hypotension 4) Hyperactivity ©) Pulse pressure ¢) Residual volume 18, Falseabout body temperature— (Orissa R) Which ofthe following does not change with age 8) Mean temp. 98.2" 0.7°F 4) Glucose tolerance REVEL (AL93) b) PM. Temp. >99.9°F GR 4) Hematocrit ©) AM, Temp.> 98.4°F 7. All of following tend to increase in old age 4) Rectal Temp. 0.6° F> oral effect except- (Delhi 96) © None a) Residual volume ») Systolic BP 19, Drug induced hypothermia is caused by all the €) Pulse pressure 4) Vital capacity durgs, expect (Orissa 98) 4) Phenothiazines ‘by Barbiturates ALTERATION OF BODY ©) MAO- inhibitors ) Bthanol TEMPERATUR' 20. A patient is said to hage ‘severe hypothermia’ requiring intensive care management, if his core 8. Hypothermia ischaracterised by - (PGI87) body temperatureis- W&k 05) Common in ald age a) <39°C b)<32°C ») External rewarming treatment of choice ©) <28C a< 25°C ©) Warm dialysate has no role 21, Hypertpyrexia is defined as temperature- 4) Alcohol protects, a) > 105.7 b)106.6°F (NIMHANS 06) 9. The following are characteristic of central fyer ©) 106-7 1078 except (A138) 22, “Active core rewarming” refers to (NIMHANS 06) a) No diural vatlation ) Heated humidified ©, b) Heated crystalioids b)No sweating ©) Peritoneal dialysis all ©) Decreased response to External cooling ) Resistant to antipyretics EYE 10. Inheatstrokeaall areseenexcept-_ (AIIMS 89) : 30K ') Shack 23. Thecomponents of Horners syndrome are all exeept- 6) Hypercaleemi 4) Hypokalemia @) Anhydrosi b) Miosis_ (PGT 89) 11, Prolonged fever is usually seen in (4192) ©) Proptosis 4) Enophthalmos a) Neurofibromatosis —_b) Liposarcoma ©):Btosis ©) Atrial myxorna 6) Exostosis 24, ‘The normal AV ratioin fundoscopy is - (/PMER 79, a3 32 PGI 80) ow O13 Ye None Ze 4) Sle Md 7)d_—:Bab Ye Wed Me 1a 13K Ma 1a 16}¢ 17)d_18)eIe_—-W)e--Ye-22)d_—3)C- Wa12 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIT 25. Commonest cause of papilloedema is-(Delhi 81,83) 36. Sinusitis in children is commonest in....sinus - a) Rige in intracranial tension 2) Fortal t) Maxillary —(7N/89) 'b) Optic neuritis c) Ethmoid d) Sphenoidal ©) Optic atrophy 37. Most common sinusitis in children is- (AP 96) @) Chronic nephrttis a) Frontal b) Ethmoidal 26. _Alltare causes of Argyll-Robertson pupil except - ) Maxillary ) Sphenoid a) Syringomyelia (PGI 79, DNB 90) DDimed cles ELECTROLYTE ©) Chronic aleoholism . : @)Acphyna and deep anaesthesia 38, Respiratory acldosisisseen with-_(PGI90) 27. Horner syndromes characterized by all except - 2) DKA ) Pneumonia 2) Miosis (4196) ¢) Emphysema 4) Barbiturates 150m eq/L (PG103) ) Hyponatremic b) Hypematremic »b) Signs of dehydration are minimal ©) Isonatremic _ d) Noa-diarrhocal cause ©) ECF volume Jed 97, pH is7.2; PCO,; PO,85 most likely cause is - 4) Rapid correction is required ‘) Metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis €) Shift of water from ECF to ICF ») Metabolic alkalosis (PGI98) 108. Water-fluid balance is characterized by - (PC/04) ¢) Respiratory acidosis 2) Maintained by endogenous water loss 4) Respiratory alkalosis ') Maintained by exogenous water loss 98. Primary increase in CO, in body is seen in-(PGI.99) ©) Daily fecal loss is 500 mi a) Respiratory acidosis" b) Respiratory alkalosis 4) Daily respiratory loss is 500 ml. ) Metabolic acidosis __d) Metabolic alkalosis. 109, Normal anionic gap is seen in one ofthe following - 99, PH7.2,PO, $4 mmHg PCO, 550 mmHg, HCO, 13, 8) Diarrhoea b)Uremia (ipmer 03) the values goes in favour of - (PGI 99) ¢) Lactic acidosis d) Ketosis a) Respiratory acidosis 110. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by - ') Metabolic alkalosis a) Cholera (4103) ©) Respiratory alkalosis, ) Starvation @) Both resp and metabolic acidosis ©) Ethylene glycol poisoning 100. Features seen in a patient with chronic vomiting @) Lactic acidosis include- (PGIO1) 111. A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in a) Hyponatremia ) Hypochloremia {finding out base deficit / excess for blood in given ©) Metabolic alkalosis d) Hypokalemia patient. An experienced senior resident gave him €) Metabolic acidosis advice to find out quick method to determine acid 101. Metabolic akalosisis associated with (PGI 01) = base composition of blood based on PCO,. ) Fanconi’s anemia ») Acetazolamide Which ofthefollowing mathod- (All India 04) ©) Spironoloactone 4) Triamterene a) Redford nomogram ©) Hypocalcemia ) DuBio's nomograrn 102, A patient with diarrhea who developed altered ©) Goldman constant field equation sensorium is likely to have~ (PGI01) 4) Siggaard - Anderson nomogram a) Hyponatremia 112, A2year old child is being evaluated for persistent ) Hypokalemia metabolic acidosis. Blood tests show Na* £40 mEq/l, ©) Caverous sinus thrombosis K+3mBql, Ca™ Smg/@L, mg” 2mg/dL, phosphate 4) Dehydration 3 mg/dl, pH 7.22, bicarbonate 16 mEq/land chloride ¢) Enterovirus 112 mEq/l. The plasma anion gapis- (4/145 04) 103:- In hyperkalamia- @PGr02) a9 bs 2) Serum fevel> 5.5meqv/l, 92 25 b) Serum level> 6.5 meqv/L 113, Increased “Anion gap" is a characteristic feature ¢) T. wave inversuion of (UPSC 05) 4) Peaking of T. wave ) Hyperosmolar non-ketotic diabetic coma 6) Ventricular fibrillation b) Hypoglycaemic coma 104, Increased anion gap acidosis is seen in- (PGI 02) ©) Phenformin toxicity with coma ) DKA b)RTA 4) Renal tubulae acidosis ©) ARF 4) Organic aciduria 114. The most appropriate route for administration of ¢) Diarrhoea nutrition to a patient who is comatose for a long 105. Hypokalemia is seen with - (PG102) period after and automobile accident is - (UPSC 05) a) Frusemide Det a) Nasogastric tube feeding ©) Metabolic acidosis) Amiloride b) Gastrotomy tube feeding ©) Addison's disease ©) Jejunostomy feeding 106, True about hyperkalemia - (PG103) 4) Central venous hyperatimentation a) Stop heart in systole 115. Chloride responsive alkalosis eauses (PGI une 05) b) Insulin - Glucose is given 4) Recurrent vomiting ©) ECG is diagnostic b) Bartter’s syndrome 95)b 96)b 97a 98a 99)d 10O)abyed_ IWI)e 12abed 103)ade 104)ace 105)ab 106)bd 1O7abe 108)b 109)a 10a 111d 112) 113)¢ 114)e 115)acd16 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT ©) Milkalkali syndrome 4) Diabetes metiitus 6) Over dose of diuretics ©) Megaloblastic anaemia ; ©) Cushing syndrome 126. Pruvitusisseen inallexcept. (NIMHANS 88) 116, All of the following are used for treatment of ‘) Hodgkins lymphoma hyperkalaemia except- (AIMS 06) b) Obstructive jaundice 2) Calcium gluconate ©) Primary biliary citshosis ») Sodium bicarbonate 4d} Lead poisoning ©) Intravenous infusion of ghicose with insulin 127. Atopic eczema is associated with all except- ) Beta blockers a) Asthma b)Hay fever (PG?90) 117. Chloride responsive alkalosis, eauses are~ ©) Allergic ehinitis 4) Insect bite a) Severe vomiting (PGI une 06) 128, Vesicobullous eruption is characteristic of - ») Bartter’s syndrome a) Pemphigus b)Molluscum (BHU 80, 86) ©) Milkalkali syndrome ©) Psoriasis 4d) Lichen planus 4) Frusemide therapy ' 6) Scabies 118. , Following conditions ean themselves cause metabolic 129, Acne vulgaris is rarein- _(PGI80, AIIMS 84) acidosis - (PGI June 06) a) Face Back a) Diarrhea b) Diuretic ©) Leg 4) Sealp ©) Bthylene glycol @RTA 130, Purpura featuresare allexcept- (MAHE2001) 119. Which one ofthe following isthe major determinant 8) Size>3mmm ofplasma osmolality ? (UPSC06) b) Its blanchable 8) Serum sodium ») Serum potassium £) Caused by extravasation of RBCs into dermis ©) Blood glucose @) Blood urea nitrogen 4) Sometimes it may be palpable 120. Whick of the following is not associated with 131, Basalcell carcinoma of theskin- —— (Jjpmer 79, hyponaternia and normal osmolality- (APG 06) a) Accounts for the majority of cancers on the 8) Hyperlipedemia exposed skin Dethi 93) 'b) Hyperprotienemia ») Is almost unknown in blacks ¢) Inrgation of bladder after TURP ¢) Is an important hazard of radiotherapy &) CHF 8) May be caused by prolonged exposure to arsenic 121. Hyperkalemia is dueto all of the following except- 132. Eethyma is a~ (GIPMER 98) a) Alkalosis (Manipal 06) a) Deep viral infection ») Acute renal failure ») Superficial bacteria! infection ©) Addison’s disease ©) Deep bacterial infection & Excess hemolysis, 4) Noninfectious inflammation 133. Permethrin can be used for- (UP 2K) SKIN 2) Scabies ) Body louse : «) Taenia Capitis @) Leprosy 122. Bullous lesions occur in~ (UPSC 95) 134. Achildis brought to the PHC with scabies which a) Diabetes meltitus ») Porphyria of the following is not advised — (A189) ©) Haemochromatosis _d) Uraemia 123. Palpable purpura are seen in allexcept- (PGI 97) b) Treat other members of family a TP ©) Child given bath and 3 applications of Benzyt byte Benzoate ©) Henoch scholein purpura 4) Bed line to be boiled 4) Leucocytoclastic angitis 135, “Strawberry tongue” followed by “Raspberry to” 424. Erythema Nodosum can becaused by- (4/91) is characteristic of - (ALIMS 81, AP 87) a) Sarcoidosis a) Mumps by Measles ») Post primary tuberculosis ¢) Scarlet fever 4) Small pox ©) Sulfonaraide therapy ©) Chicken pox 4) Streptococcal pharyingitis 136, Fifth disease s— (aus 97) 125, Generalised pruritus may be associated with all a)+Exythema infectiosum b) Rubeolla infantum the following conditions, exept (AIIMS78, ) Measles 4) Dukes disease a) Oldage BHUSO) 137. Permethrin can be used for- (A199) b) Hodgkins ymphoma 2) Scabies 'b) Motlucum contagiosm ©) Obstructive jaundice ©) Malaria @) Kala azar M6)d 1Iacd 118)acd 19a 120d 121)a_122)ab 123)ab 124)All 12S)de 125d 127d 128a 129}¢ 130) 131)a 132)b 133)ab 14a 135)e 136A 137)a7 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 138. Erysipelasis- (JIPMER 90) 182, Migratory necrolytic ery¢tema is seen in- a) Lymphangitis due to staphyococcus 4) Gtucaganoma syndrome (PGI May 05) ') Lymphangitis due to streptococcus ») Peutz.- Jezhers syndrome «) Subcutaneous inflammation due to streptococcus ©) Sarcoidosis @) Anezobic infection 4) Amyloidosis 139, Following clinical states predispose to carbuncle 153. A 10-year old school git has recurrent episodes of formation - (AIMS 84) boils on the scalp, The boils subside with antibiotic ) Diabetes ) Uraemia therapy but recur after some time. The most likely c) Jaundice <) Steroid therapy cause ofthe recurrences is- (AIMS May 2005) 140. Diagnostic . procedure for basal cell 4) Primary immunodeficiency syndrome melanoma (PG198) ») Juvenile diabetes mellitus a) Exicsional biopsy 'b) Incissional biopsy €) Pediculosis capitis ©) FNAC 4) Sector biopsy 4) HIV infection 141, Drugofchoice in isolated limb perfusion in mialignant 154, A25-year old male had pigmented macules over the melanoma (MAHE 2001) plim, sole and oral mucosa. He also had anemis and 1) Melphalan 'b) Methotrexate pain in abdomen. The mast probable diagnosis is - ©) Cisplatin 4) Vincristine 3) Albright’s syndrome (AIMS May 2005) 142, Isolated limb perfusion in melanoma is done with - ) Cushing's syndrome a) Decarbazine b) Methotresate (Manipal 01) ©) Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome ©) Melphstan 4) Procarbazone 4) Incontinentia pigment 143, _Acanthosis nigricans is commonly seen in - 155, Migratory necrolytic erytitema is seen in- a)CaBreast —b)Cathyroid (Kerala 91) 3) Ghucagonoma syndrome (AIMS May 2005) ) Casstomach )Cacervix b) Peutz-leghers syndrome 144. Fordycespotsare- (Al India 95) ©) Sarcoidosis a) Ectopic sebaceous glands 4) Amyloidosis 'b) Ectopic eccrine ©) Ectopic apocrine SPLEEN 4) Ectopic mucossal glands 145. Photosensitivity ismaximumin- (PGI 2000) 156, Overwhelming post splenectomy infection (OPSD) a) Prophyriacutanea tarda is most commonly due to- (PGI93) +) Congenital Erythropoietic purpura a) Anaerobes ‘ ©) Erythrogenic porphyria b) Gram positive Capsulated cocci 4) Hereditary coproporphyria ©) Gram Negative bacilli 146, Acanthosis nigricans is caused by which 4) Mycobacteria “ drug (PGI 2000) 187. Which is not criteria of hypersplenism (AIMS 78. a) Amphotericin-B b) Ketoconazole 2) Splenomegaly PGI 80) ©) Nicotinic acid )Nalidixil acid b) Cocmb's test+ve 147, Purpuraisa feature of (PG12000) ©) Splenectomy is curative 2) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation 4) Hyperplastic bone marrow ) Henoch Schonlein Purpura 158, Allare indications for splenectomy except- oe 4) Hereditary spherocytosis, (Kerala 97) F ’) Hairy cell eukeria 148. Purpuric rashes are seen - (Por02) 2) Dengue b)Borrelia eae ©) Secondary syphilis d) Measles & Chediak higeshi syndrome ©) Typhoid 159, Splenectoney isthe best treatment for-(PGI96) 149. Lupus perniois seen in - (pmer 03) a) Hereditory spherocytosis a) Tuberculosis of skin _b) Malignancy of skin ») Thalassemia ¢) Sarcoidosis @HIV ©) Sickle cell 150, Bullous lesions occur in- (SGPGI 05) &) Bliptocytosis a) Diabetes mellitus b) Porphyria 160. Splenomegaly seen in AJE late stages of-(MAHE 0)) c) Haemochromatosis ) Uraemia 8) Kalaazar ) Sickle cel! anaemi 151. Permethrin can be used for- (Jipmer 05) ¢) Malaria 4) Tropical splenomegaly. a) Scabies ) Body louse ©) Taenia Capitis &) Leprosy : 138}be 1392 140) 4l)a 142) 143)ae 144)a_145)a_146)e“1Tabe “148)ad 149}¢ 150)ab 151ab 152)a 153)c 154)e 155)a_156)b 157)b 158)d 159)ad 1608 x18 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIL 161. Peripheral blood smear in asplenectomised patient ‘172. DNA analysiscan be done from ll except Willshow= (AIIMS86) a) Monocyte) Lymphocyte (A/IMS 98) 2) Neutrophiltia 'b) Howell joly bodies ¢) Fibroblast d) Amnion cell ¢) Target cells @)Thromobocyiopenia «173, Disease where gene therapy has been attempted 162. Mosteommon infections after splenectomy are- or considered include- (Kerala 2K) 2) Capsulated Bacteria (IPMER 95) 4) Adenosine deaminase deficiency ») Uncapsulated Bacteria b) hemophilia A ©) Gram positive sepsis ©) Cystic fibrosis @) Gram Negative Bacteria &) Hypercholesterolemia ¢) All ofthe above GENETICS 174, Null mutation (AU India 2K) 8) Mutation which produces no functional gene 163, ‘The part of RNA which does not code for proteins product bs. (ALIMS 80, PGI 81) b) A mutation which leads to termination of proteins a) Exon 'b) Introns ¢) A mutation which will not produce an alteration ©) Codon . 4) Meson Product 164. The chromosomal anomaly in klinefelters syndrome 4) A mutation which occurs in the non coding is. (Al 88) sequence a) 4TXXY b)45XO 175, Which one of the following isfalse about molecular ©) 4TXXX 47 XXXX diagnosis - (AIMS 2K) 165, All ofthe following are chromosomal anomalies 2) Strain variation can be diagnosed except (Kerala 89) ) PCR is a technique based essentially on DNA, 2) Down syndrome 0 RNA cannot be detected by it ») Edwards syndrome ©) It.can be used to detect antibiotic resistance ) Turners syndrome 4) None of the above 4) Hypoplasic left heart syndrome 176, 13 Years old hoy short stature, with web beck ) hemophilia antimogoloid slant, ptosis & pulmonary stenosis 166. One ofthe following is nota chromosomal breakage most probable diagnosis (al 97) syndrome- (AIMS 79, PGT81) a) Tumer’s syndrome) Noonan’s syndrome 2) Bloom's syndrome _b) Frederich’s ataxia ) Multiple pterugium —_)Klineelter syndrom ©) Xeroderma pigmentosa d) Fanconi’s anemia 177. Single gene autosomal recessive disease is-(PGI 99) 167, A stable heritable alteration of DNA is known as ) Wilson's ds ') Tuberous sclerasis, Bs (IPMER 80, PCI 81) ) Huntigton's ds 4) Schizophrenia 2) Translocation ) Mutation 17%, Supe mani boat site chroma epratin ) Syngamy 4) Gene fixation are. 168. Dominant trait expressesin- (Kerala 94) 2) Prphag > Metaphae Apis 8) Homozygous state nee seis » Prophase > Teophase —rAnaphase 2 Bot homo ad beterongosse 6) Telephase -> Anaphase ~> Prophase 169. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency 5) fees ee eee ata (UPSC 93) > Telophase 2) Autosomal recessive b) Autosomal dominant 479, Tye about polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is/are- ©)Sexlinked recessive d) Sex-linked dominant 2) Polymerases need not tbe active (PGI 2000) 170. Commonest chromosomalanomaly-_(A1IMS'94) during cycles a) Fragile b) Trisomy 21 ») Carried out by using thermostable polymerase ©) Trisomy 13 6) Trisomy 18 6) Single-standed DNA is required 171. Shortstature with widely spread nipples and webbing ) Primers prepared are complementary to opposite of neck is Seen in- (N95) stand of DNA a) Down's syndrome 180, 100% recurrence of disease in Down's syndrome ') Tumer’s syndrome 4) Translocation of 15 +21 chromsome (PG/2000) 6) Klinefelter's syndrome b) Mosaic pattern 4) Edward's infarction 6) Trisomy -(21, 21 translocation) 4) Non Dysjunetion IGI)b 162)a 163) 164) 165)d 166) 167) 168) 169)e 170)b 1716172) 173)e TA)a 175)b 176)b 177)a_ 178)a_179)be 180)e113 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 274, 278, 216, 277. 278, 279. 280. 281, 282, 283, 284, 285, 286. Decreased level of serum Vit BG is seen in- a) CRF b)CHF — (PGI04) ©) INH therapy 4) Alcohol In a patient of total parenteral nutrition daily monitoring is done with - (PGI04) ) Body weight by Plasma protein 9) CBC 6) Plasma osmolality ©) Coagulation profile A patient on enteral nutrition develops diarrhea. ‘Which ofthe following statements is/are true- ) Diarrhea seen in > 30% cases (PGI 04) ) More in duodenal nutrition than jejunal nutrition ©) MC cause is contamination of food 4) Inpersistent diarrhea clostridium difficile should beexcluded . 6) Itisseltimiting. Copper deficiency is characterized by- (PGI04) ) Cardiomyopathy ) Anaemia ©) Osteopenia 4) Growth retardation ‘True about Ringer's Lactate- (PGI 04) 1) Isotonic ) Colloidal solution ©) Potassium level is same as that of serum potassium. 4) Helps in acidosis by acid neutralization. ©) Automatic fluid of choice in hypotension, ‘Angular oral fissuresiis treated with- (SGPGI 05) a) Riboflavin by Pyridoxine ©) Cynocobalamine Vitaminc Keshan disease is due to deficiency of - (PSC 05) a) Selenium b) Chromium «) Copper 4) Manganese Cu deficieney manifest as- (PGI June 05) a) Anemia b) Cardiomyopathy ©)-Hepatomegaly 4) Growth retardation ‘An individual is said to be ‘overweight? ifhis BML is in the range of - (J&R 0S) 8) 240-269 b)240-279 ©) 250-289 )25.0-299 Allof he following are true about manifestations of ‘vitamin E deficiency, except- (Al 05) a) Hemolytic anemia ») Posterior column abnormalities ©) Cerebellar ataxia 4) Autonomic dysfunction ‘Natural elements having anticancer properties ~ 8) Nitrosoamines b)VitC (PGT 06) o)VitD @) Carotene 6) Selenium Zine deficiency causes - (PGI June 06) ) Cardiomyopathy by Reduced growth ©) Mental Retardation __d) Gonadal atrophy A.35year old alcoholic presents with diarrhoea and scaly rash on his neck, hands and feet. He will prove if he is treated with which one of the following ? (UPSC 06) a) Vitamin A ) Thiamine ©) Folic acid 4) Nicotinic acid 287. Cancer can be prevented by ingestion of (Karn 06) 2) Beta carotene ) ViaminC&E ¢) Selenium d) All the above ONCOLOGY GENERAL 288. All are implicated in causation of GIT CANCER except - (AIMS 2001) 2) HV ) Hepatitis B ©) Epstein B virs d) H.pylori 289, 290. 291. 292. 293. 294. 298, 296. 297, ‘Commonest cancer in which metastasis is seen in the brain is— (IPMER 88) 8) Breast b) Lang ©) Kidney 4) Intestines The following are carcinogens— (G18) a) Asbestos +) Alkylating agents ©) Benzene epds 4) Caffine Locally malignant tumour is— (AIMS 92) 1) Chordoma b)Chondroma ©) Osteoma 4) Hamartoma ‘The most usual mode of death in cancer patient is- ) Infections b)Organ failure. (PGI 86) ©) Infarction ©) Hemorthage 4) Carcinomatosis Commonest site of metastases is— (Assam 95) a) Lung » Brain 6) Liver 4) Kidney Lymphnode metastasis is seen with- — (A//MS.97) 2) Liposareoma ’b) Neurofibrosarcoma ¢) Histioeytoma 4) Angiosarcoma ‘True about genetics of cancer- (PG12002) a) Topoisomerase Il is useful for breaking double stranded DNA by Increased telomerase activity énhances anti tumour effect ©) Maximum synthesis of DNA occurs during G2 phase : 4) Transition from G2 to M phase is important in bolckage of cancer spread ©) P53 is the most common mutation Rai 4) Non Hodgkin lymphoma by Hodgkins lymphoma ©) Acute lewkemia 4) Papillary carcinoma thyroid (PGI 88) (Al 98) Wed 275)a 276)abd 2Z7bed 278)ac 279)a 280)a 281)abd 282)d 283d 28A)bde 285)bd 286)d 287)d 288)b 289)b .290)abc 291)a 292)a 293)¢ 294)d 295)a 296)¢ 297)Lia MEDICINE QUES. OL-LIL 298. Kaposi'ssarcoma iscaused by- (J&K 2001) 310. Commonest presenting feature of bladder carcinoma a) HHVS b)HAHV-S is- (PG185) ©) HHY-7 OHHVS 8) Painless profuse intermittent hematuria 299, Commonest type of bronchogenic carcinoma is~ b) Clotcotie a) Adenocarcinoma (A188) ©) Dysuria ') Oat cell carcinoma 9) Sterile acid pyruia } Squamous cell carcinoma 311, Tumour marker from medullary carcinoma 4) Large cell carcinoma thyroid is - (PGI 88) 300, Which colonic polyps have the least Maligant aT byT4 potential - (AIMS 92) ©) TSH 4) Calcitonin a) Turcots syndrome _b) Gardeners syndrome 312. Which is not an endocrine manifestation of rena) ©) Juvenile polyp 4) Familial polyposis Cell carcinoma (AIMS 92) 301. Which isnot beniga - (A189) a) Renin induced hypertension a) Chondroma ) Chordoma, ») Cushing syndrome ©) Hemangioma )Myxoma ©) Gynaecomastia 302. The carcinogenic agents are-(A/IMS 78,79, PGI87) 4) Peptic uleer a) Alkylating agents by Benzene. 313, All secondaries produce a “Hot spot” on bone «) Phenylbutaxone @BCG sean except= (AuMS 81, PGIB1) 303. On post mortem, metastasis are usvalty found in ) Myeloma which organ - (CUPGEE 96) b) Renal cel} carcinoma a) Liver b) Kidney ©) Lymphoma ©) Brain 4) Bones 4) Small cell lung carcinoma 304, Beta 1- microglobilin is a tumour marker 314, Wilms tumour is characterized by which for- (Kerala 88, AIIMS 86) chromosomal abberation- (AIMS 80, PGI82) 2) Multiple myeloma ) Lung cancer a Tip byl Iq- ©) Colonic neoptasm 4)Choriocarcinoma ©) 3p 13g 305. Which does not predispose to'malignaney - 315. Deletion of chromosome 22 occurs in 90% of - a) Tumers syndrome Gipmer 91) a) Menigioma (AIIMS 79,JIPMER80) b) Cri-du chat syndrom ») Neurofibrometosis Type 2 ©) Downs syndrome ©) Retinoblastoma 4) Klinefelters syndrome 4) Small cell carcinoma 306. All of the following are endocrine manifestation 316, Theusual course of pancreatic carcinomais- of renal cell carcinoma exeept-(PGI 79, AIMS 92) a) Goodcorrelation with (AIIMS81, DNB 89) a) Cushing’s syndrome serum amylase b) Gynaccomastia 'b) Prognosis is better when metastases are not ©) Peptic uleer present atthe time of diagnosis 4) Renin induced hypertension 6) Five years cures after radical surgery 307, A.58 year old diabetic, hypertensive was found 4) Greaily improved by palliative surgery to have stagein BPH - ) Fatal outcome despite all therapeutic measures ‘As he was waiting for TURP , he developed an 317. Chemotherapy may beusedin- (KERALA 96) acute MI. What isthe treatment of choice for BPH 8) Osteosarcoma ) Ewings sarco during his cardiac convalescence period- (4/99) ) Wilms tumour 4d) Neuroblastoma a) Terazosin ») Finasteride ©) Chrigcarcinoma ©) Finasteride and Terazosin _d)Stilbesterol 318. AVarepremalignantexcept- (MP 98) 308. Allof the following are earciaogenic except- a) Arsenic poisoning a) H. pylori ) Hepatitis B virus (Orissa R) ) Zn deficiency ©) EB.virus _-d) Campylobacter 6) Utraviolent radiation exposure 309, Chronic inflammation in which matignant 4) Bowens disease transformation isnot seen is- (All India 99) 319, Radiotherapy is not used in - (KERALA 98) a) Cholectystitis ) Ca oesophagus b)Cacerix ») Bronchiectasis ©) Ca stomach 4) Braintumour ©) Bilharziasis d) Pagets disese of bone 298) 299)a 300) 301)b 302) 303)a_304)a_305)b 306)c 307)a 308d 309) 3102 Id 312) 313)a 314)a_ 315)b 316)e 317)ALl 318) 319)c320. 3a. 322, 323, 324. 325, 326. 327. 328, Lalloo 50 yrs, a chronic smoker presents with history of hemoptysis. He was having truncal obesity and hypertension, He had an elevated ACTH level which was not suppressible with high does dexamethasone. What would be the most probable diagnosis - (AIMS 2) 2) Bilateral aderal hyperplasi ) Ademal adenoma 6) Pictuitary tumor 4) EctopicACTH producing tung cancer ‘The most common hormone other than gastrin, contained in the gastrin-secreting islet cel! camor is (Kerala 2K) a) ACTH 5 ) Glucagon ©) Melanoeyte stimulating hormone «) Growth hormone releasing factor ©) Insulin Para neoplastic syndrome are all except -(A/IMS 2K) a) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy ») Amyotropic lateral scerosis ©) Cerebellar degeneration 4) Opsoclonus - myoclonus Long arm chromosome 5 deletion is seen in (MANE 2001) 8) Crohn's disease b) Uleerative colotis ¢) Polyposis eoli 9) Pheochroraocytama ‘Which of the following carcinoma is associated with Nickel - (PG178, ALIMS 88, 92) @) Lung b)Laryax ©) Ethmoid Nasopharynx In carcinoma prostate with metastasis whieh is raised - (IN 89) a) ESR 6) Alkaline phosphatase 6) Acid phosphatase © Bilirubin Arsenicis assocaited with increased risk of - 8) Mesothelioma (UP 2) 'b) Melanoma, 6) Basal cell carcinoma 4) Squamous cell carcinoma ‘Thrombophilebitisisseen in - (PGI 88) 4) Carcinoma ovary ) Carcinoma breast ) Carcinoma testes 4) Carcinoma stomach Carcinomas of all of follawing sites metastasize tovertebralcolumnexcept-_ (DELHIPG 96) a) Breast ») Bronchus ©) Prostate 4) Esophagus Galactorrhoea due to ectopic prolactin isseen in 2) Malignant thymoma (MP 2K) 330. 331. 332. 333. 334, 338. 336. 337. 338, 339. 340. 341. 342. 343. MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT Least common cause of clubbing is- (AIMIMS 97) a) Adeno ca. )Sq. cell ca c) Small cellea 4) Mesothelioma AMlof the following is used in pleurodesis except ~ @) C. parvum ) Clotrimazole (TN 95) ©) Mustine Hel 4) Tetracycline Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is used in - 4) Carcinoma breast ») Carcinomathyroid ©) Bronchogenic carcinoma 4) Osteosarcoma ‘Neoadjuvant cheatherapy is used in all except- anon) a) Esophageal Ca (AIIMS 97) b) Breast Ca ©) Thyroid Ca 4) Longnon - Small cell Ca Alpha feto protein levels are raised in- (PGI88) a) Embryonic cell carcinoma b) Endoderma) sinus tarmour ©) Hepatomal 4) Fetus ‘Which of the following gas isa radiosensltiser - 4) 0, ®)N, (PGI 88) 90, aco ‘Tylosisis associated with - (CUPGEE 96) 1) Oesophageal Ca b) Uterine Cal ¢) Gastric Ca 4) Prostatic Ca Currently all of the following malignancies are curable except- (Karnatak 96) 8) Chriocarcinoma ») Wilm’s tumour «) Acute Myeloid leukemia 4) Hairy cell leukemia All of the following are potentiaily cured by ‘chemotherapy except (AP 96) a) Hodgkins by ALL ©) Wilm’s tumour 4) Chondrosarcoma All of the foliowing are recognised tumor-markers except (up 97) 8) BetaHCG ) Beta2 microglabin ©) Acid phosphatase _—_d) Alpha foeto protein ‘BZ macroglobulin is a prognostic factor in - (A197) 8) Ca breast b) Ca lung ©) Caovary 4) Multiplemyeloma Ca-125isatumourmarkerfor- — /AI/MS.97) a) Cervix b) Ovary 9) Colon @) Breast Chemosensitive tumours are all except (A1IMS 97) a) Carcinoma cervix b) Ewings sarcoma ©) Osteosarcoma 4d) Ca breast Hyperkeratosis of palms and soles is seen ') Bronchogenic carcinoma ~ (AIMS 97) ©) Medullary carcinoma thyroid 2) Oesophageal Ca 8) CotonieCa Hypernephroma ©) GastrieCa @) Lung Ca 320)d 321)a_322)ab 323) 324)a>c 325)b 326)ed 327 abd —328)d 329)b,d 330) 331)b 332)acd 333)¢ 334) ll 335)¢ 336)a 337)None 338)d 339) 340jd 34i)b 342)a 343)a116 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 344. Hormone dependent tumours areal exeept-(A/99) history ofa large, fungating, soft papillary lesions 8) Ca prostate 6) Ca breast. in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into ©) Caendometrium 4) Ca ovary the mandible lymphnodes are not palpable. Two 345, Intra op radiation is given to- (AIIMS 98) biopsies taken from the lesion proper show ber &) Pancreas ) Breast appearing papillomatosis with hyperkeratosis and ©) Cervix a) Tayroid acanthosis infiltrating the subjacent tissues. The 346. The commonest malignancy in man over the age ‘most likely diagnosis is - (All India 04) of sinty-five is- (UPSC 88) a) Squamous cell papilloma 3) Multiple myeloma +) Squamous cell carcinoma ) Oropharyngeal carcinoma 6) Verricous carcinoma ©) Prostatic carcinoma 6) Malignant mixed tumour 4) Carcinoma rectum 357, In the mitogen activated protein kinase pathway, 347, - Mycosis fungoides syndrome, treatmentis-(PGI98) the activation of Ras is counteracted by - a) 5-FU byAdiamytin a) Protein Kinase C (AIMS 04) ©) Blectron beim therapy 4) Interferon ») GTP ase activating protein 348. Cancer eaused by chronic parasitic infection- ©) Phosphatidly inositol 4) Cholangiocarcinoma (PGI98) 4) Inositol triphosphate ) Hepatic cell Ca 358. Chemo prevention trials shown effective in ©) CaGB redueing of - (PGI04) 4) Ca pancreas a) Lymphoma by Breast Ca 349, True about Gartner'ssyndromeis except-(PG2000) ©) Pancreatic Ca 4) Caurinary bladder a) CNS tumor ') Osteoma 2) Aero digestive tract ©) Dermoid tumour 4) Colonic polups 359, Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is 360, Followingsare the symptoms of carcinoid symptoms- ‘most often mediated by - (A105) a) Wheezing by Flushing (PGI 02) 8) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) ©) Cyanosis 4) Clubbing, ') Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHtP) 2) Ditertoes 6) Interieukin -6 (IL-6) 351. Radio resistant tumours are- (Paro4y 4) Calcitonin a) Melanoma b)HD 360, Haemipoietic malignancy is seen in - (PG! June 05) ©) Seminoma 4) Ewing's sarcoma ) HTLV-1 EBV ©) Chondrosarcoma ©) Parvo B 19 @HNV-18 352. Whole body radiations indicatedin- (GIO) 2) CMV a) Advanced head & neck tumours 361. Commonest cancer in which metastasis is seen in b) BM transplantation ‘the brain is~ (NIMHANS 05) ©) Meduloblastoma a) Breast b) Lung 4) Mycosis fungoides ©) Kidney @) Intestines €) Histiocytosis-x 362. Radiation can causes (GIPMER 05) 353, Natural prevention of caneersare/is- — (PGI04) 2) Non Hodgkin lymphoma a) Nitrosamines ) Ascorbic acid 6) Hodgkins lymphoma ©) Beta carotene 4) a-Tocopherol ©) Acute leukemia 354, Which of the following maliganat diseases of ¢) Papillary carcinoma thyroid children’has the best prognosis ?- 363. Commonest type of bronchogenic carcinoma is- ) Wilms tumour ) Adenocarcinoma (MAHE 05) ) Neuroblastoma ) Oat cell carcinoma €) Khabdomyosarcoma ©) Squamous cell carcinoma 4) Primitive neuroectodermal tumour 4) Large cell carcinoma 385. Prophylactic radiotherapy to neck given in which 364, Temaur marker from medullary carcinoma malignancy with palpable swell (APPG 03) thyroid is - (SGPGI88) a) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma aR byT4 ») Laryngeal carcinoma ©) TSH 4) Caleitonin ©) Sinuses malignancy 365. Lymphnode metastasisisseen with (NIMHANS 05) ) Tongue carcinoma ) Liposarcoma b) Neurofibrosarcoma 356, A70 year old man who has been chewing tobacco ¢) Histiocytoma 4) Angiosarcoma for the past 50 years presents with a six months : 34H)d 3452 346)¢ Med 348)a 349)a_350)abe 3SI)ae 352)qb 353)cde 354)a 355)a_356)e 357)b 358)be 359) 360)abd 361) 362)¢ 363)a 364)d 365)dLIT MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIt 366. Allof the following are carcinogenic except- 377. Inchildren intracranial tumous is more common in ) B.pylori ) Hepatitis B virus a) Anterior fossa (6184) ©)EB.vinus __d)Campylobacter _(Jipmer 05) ) Middie fossa 367. Which of the following in involved in tumor ©) Posterior fossa metastasis cascade~ (MAHA 05) 4) Equal incidences in all fossa 2) Fibronectin ) E-Cadherin 378. Most common tumour of the posterior cranial ©) Type lV collagenase _d) Tyrosine kinase fossa is - (PG193) 368. The paraneoplastic syndrome associated with 2) Glioma b) Medutfoblastoma, Hodgkin’s disease is- (AIMS NOV 05) ¢) Meningioma @)Oligodendroglioma a) Nephrotie syndrome 379, In children intracranial tumour is more common in b) Retinopathy a) Anterior fossa (PGI 84, 85) ©) Cerebellar degenerative disease b) Middle fossa «) Acanthosis nigricans ©) Posterior fossa 369. Alpha-fetoprotein in maternafserum and/or amniatic 4) Equal incidences in all fossa fluid is inereased in allexcept- (AIMS May 2005) 380, Prophylactic brain irradiation is used in the-(4797) a) Fetal'neural tube defects a) Ca breast ) Ca prostate ) Down's syndrome ©) Multiple myclomia dal ©) Anencephaly 381, Which one of the following tumours shows 4) Encephalocele calcification on CT scan - (A105) 370, Multiple submucosal neuromas is most likely 4) Ependymoma b) Medulloblastoma associated with - (AIMS May 2005) ©) Meningioma CNS lymphoma 8) Medullary carcinomos of the thyroid 382, In the treatment of cancer cheek using a single ) Ovarian carcinoma drug, the best results are obtained by -(A/MS 86) ©) Testicular teratoma 8) CIS platinum b) Methotrexate @) Pancreatic beta cell carcinoma €) Bleomycin 4) Endoxin 371. The most common side-effect of chemotherapy 383, C/F of cerebello pontine angle tumours - (PGI 05) administration is- (AIMS May 2005) a) Tinitus 'b) Deafness a) Nausea ) Alopecia ©) Loss ofcomealrelflex _d) Vertigo ©) Myelosuppression _d) Renal dysfunction 384, Most common tumour of the posterior cranial : 372. Which s the most common site of metastatic disease- fossa is - (MAHE 05) a) Lung b)Bone (AIMS May 2005) a) Glioma b) Medulloblastoma ©) Liver Brain ¢) Meningioma 4) Oligodendrostioma 373. Which of the following has a nornial level of alpha 385, Allof the following hereditary conditions predispose fetoprotein valueinserum- (AIMS May 2005) to CNS tumors, except- (AIMS May 2005) a) Ovarian dysgerminoma _b) Hepatoblastoma a) Newrofibromatosis 1 & 2 ) Embroynal carcinoma d) Yolk sac tumours ) Tuberous sclerosis 374, WHO Ladder is for the rational titration ©) Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome | of- (AIS May 2005) 8) Xeroderma pigmentosum } a) Oral analgesia b) Chemotherapy 386, Which of the following is the most common type of | ) Radiotherapy 4) Antidepressants Glial tumors? (A106) i 375. Which one of the following isnot a non-metastatic ) Astrocytomas ) Medulloblastomas ; complication of malignancies- (A7/MS May 2005) «) Neurofibromas 4) Ependymomas ! a) Cushing’s syndrome i b) Cerebral cortical degeneration THYROID ) Cerebellar digeneration i 4) Polymyositis 387, Multiple cold nodulesin a thyroid scan in a feature | of- (ums 92) i BRAIN a) Graves disease b) Malti nodular goitre : 376. Commonest type of intracranial tumour 6) Hashimoto's | is- (Kerala 88, Nimahans 87) 4) Multicentrc papillary carcinoma 2) Astrocytoma 'b) Medulloblastoma ©) Meningioma a) Neurofibroma €) Secondaries i 366)d 367) 368)c 369)b370)a_371)a_ 372)e 373)a__374)a_375)b 376)e 377) 378)a_379)¢ 380)d 381)e 382)a 383)abc 384)a 385)d 386) 387)d Po118 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIT CARCINOID ©) Embryonalcell carcinoma —— 4) Interstitial cell tumour 388. Urinary excretion of hydroxy indole acedtic acid 400, Undescended testis usually develops which of the 4s diagnostic ofearcinoid syndrame- following - (PGP 79,40 89) by15mg_— (PGT 84) a) Seminoma __b) Teratoma 25mg. ©) Lymphoma d) Interstitial cell tumour 389, Carcinoids are associated with all except- (PGI88) 401, Cases of testicular cancer with past history is a) Hypertension ) Diarrhoea eryptochidism % (PGI 98) ©) Asthma 4) Constipation a) 1-5% 6)20-25% 390, Which does not occur in areinoid syndrome- c) 25-30% 4)>30% ) Flushing (PGI 89) 402. A 26 years old male was found to be infertile one 6) Bronchospasm year after marriage, He had a history of ©) Pellagra like rash retroperitoneal lymphonode removal for embryonal i) Lrhanty ener Gav o cell Ca, right testis when he was 15 years old, His ae syd olen ipeeebiie WP Tensed semen analysis showed - volume 0.5 ml, no sperm aaa sore bofructose, TRUSshoweds normal seminat Siena vesicle and vas deferens. Lt. testicular biopsy ) Metanephrine 4) Serotonin ecate SIE ae rae aie 392. Which ofthe following about carcinoids isnot true ree eet aren ene 2) 80 %eoccurin appendix andieun (N95) a) Electro ejaculation and artificial insemination iy Rue Se erated eae ts tee ') Aspiration from epididymis and intracytoplasmic 6} 90 % of them cause careinomta symptoms injection into ovum 4) They ean occur in the lings ©) Surgical removal of ejaculatory duct 393, _Commonest site for carcinoid tumour is/A1/MS 85) 4) anificialiseminationfrom donor ) ileum 'b) Appendix 403, Radical retroperitoneal lymphnode dissection is ¢) Rectum )Colon indicated for all the following testicular tumours 394, Commonestsite ofearcinaid tamour- (PGI85) except (TN 99) a) ileum b) Appendix 8) Choriocarcinoma ) Teratoma ) Cecum 4) Rectum ¢) Teratocarcinoma @) Seninemna 395, Carcinoid syndrome occurs only if there is 404. Stage seminoma t12estis. it of choice is - (TN 01) metaatasisto - (PGI 88) 4) High inguinal orchidectomy a) Lang dy Liver 6) High inguinal orehidectomy and radiotherapy ©) Brain Bone ©) Radiotherapy and Chemotherapy 8 9) Trans-scrotal orchidectomy LUNG 396, Best Position for self palpation of breast in women is- (AIMS 87) 40S, Hypercalcemia oceurs in which type of lung a) Siting b) Standing cancer- (AIMS 82,JIPMER 90) ©) Leaning forward 4) Lying down a) Oat cell b)Giantcel 397, A false negative rate of 11% exists for ©) Squamous cell 4) Alveolar cell mammography. waich of the fotfowing causes is 406, - Which ofthe following does not initiate lung eancer- most frequently listed- (JIPMER8I, AMU 86) a) Mercury b)Nickel (A193) 2) Dense breasts ) Small lesions ©) Coal ar 4) Chrormivin ©) Faulty technique 4) Recent aspiration 407, Which type of Carcinoma lung commonly causes 398, Breast malignancy commonly detected by- (PGI 95) Horner's syndrome- (AIIMS 78) a) Mammography) Breast self examination a) Squamous cell CA) Oat cell CA ©) Ultrasound ¢) Metastasis ) Adenocarcinoma 4) None of the above 408, Neurologic manifestation that may be seen with TESTIS cancer of ung are- (PGI8I,DNB89) a) Corticocerebellar degeneration 399. The commonest tumour decuring in undescended b) Foot drop is (PG1-88) ©) Peripheral neuropathy 4) Seminoma @) ataxia by Teratoma_ 388)d 389) 390)d_391)b,d 392)ac 393)a 3%4)a 395)b 396)d 397)a 398) 399)a_400)u4ONDa 402} 403)d 404)b 405)¢ 406)a407)a 408) All ,119 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 409. Carcinoma lung responding best to b) Egg sheit calcification chemotherapy - “(DELHI 87,93) ©) Indistict margins I ) Squamous cell type _b) Oat cell type 4d) Doubling time of 2 weeks ©) Claracell type 4) Large cel type 422. Which one ofthe following cell type of lung cancers 410. Hormone producing carcinoma bronchus 1s most frequently associated with hypercaleaemis manifests- (JIPMER 8], DELHI 87) a) Smallcell __b) Largecell (UPSC 95) a) Hormonal changes earlier than other changes ©) Squamous cell 4) anaplastic 'b) Hormonal changes after other changes 423, Pancoast tumour true statement- (A195) ©) Simultaneously a) Affects left lower lobe 4) During remission b) Causes radicular pain in upper imb 411, Hormone producing carcinoma bronchus ©) Produces recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy manifestis- (PGI 78.DELHI&8) 4) Usually adenocarcinoma 4) Hormonal changes earlier than other changes 424, Thetype of bronchogenic carcinoma associate most 'b) Hormonal changes after other changes" commonly with superior vena cava syndrome is- ¢) Simultaneously ~ 8) Squamous cell carcinoma (AIIMS 96) 4) During remission b) Adenocarcinoma 412. Pancoasttumouris mostlikelytobea- (4/96) ) Smal cell carcinoma a) Squamous cell Ca b) Adenocarcinoma 4) Large cell carcinoma ) Small cell ca €) Large cell 425, The feature of benign nature of solitary pulmonary 413, Hormones secreted by small cell Ca lungs all nodule- (AP 96) except- (ALLINDIA 97) 8) 6omsize a) Vasopressin byGRP b) Acute onset ©) GnRH ) ACTH ) Small speckts of calcification 414, TCa*2in Ca lungs seen in Ca- (P6197) 4) Popcom calcification a) Adeno ») Squamous 426. SIADHis most commonly seen in- _(AIIMS 97) «) Small cell d) Largecell 4) Squamous cell ca by Oat cell ea 415, All following secreted by Bronchogenic Ca except- ©) Adeno ca 4) Mesothelioma 4) Nor adrenaline b)PTH (PGI 2000) 427. Allare true of pancoast’s tumor exeept- (4P 97) ©) ACTH 4)ADH 2) Deltoid muscle atrophy 416, Non-metastatic manifestation of Ca lung- (PG/03) ) Treated with radiotherapy & chemotberpy 8) Cushing Synd. ’b) Diabetes Mellitus ©) Homer's syndrome ©) Carcinyid Synd. 4) Jaundice 4) Pain along the ulnar border of the forearm ©) Hypercalcemia 428. Which of the following features denote 2 417, Lungeancer predisposingfactors- (G13) contraindication for surgical resection in a case a) Cigerette smokin; by Bidi sinoking of carcinoma lung - (AIMS 2K) ¢) Passive smoking «) Active smoking a) Malignant pleural effusion ¢) Rurals have higher invidenee than arbans b) Involvement of visceral pleura 418, Most common cause of superior venacaval ©) Hilar lymphadenopahty obstruction is- (4193) 4) Consolidation of one lobe | a) Treatoma 429, Paraneoplastic manifestation of Bronchogesic ») Lymphoma carcinoma include ait except - (AIMS 97) ©) Squamous Cell Ca. of lung a) Dermatomyositis 9) Adenocarcinoma tung ») Acanthosis nigricans | 419. The commonest cause of superior vena vacal ©) Cerebellar degeneration | syndromeis- __ (PGI8I, AlIMS 87, UPSC 85) 4) Hyperkeratosis of palms & soles | a) TB lymphadenitis ') Carcinoma lung 430, A 60 year old male was diagnosed as carcinoma | ¢) Retrosternal thyroid —_d) Coarctation of aorta right lung. On CECT chest there was a tumour of | 420, Superior vena cava syndome is due to which type 5x5 .em in upper lobe and another 2 x 2 cm size | of lung careinoma- (MP 2k) tumour nodule in middle lobe. The primary 2) Small cell ) Squamous cell modality of treatment is (AU India 04) ©) Adeno carcinoma 4) Undifferentiated a) Radiotherapy) Chemotherapy i 421, Asolitary nodulein a chest X -ray is indicative ) Surgery ) Supportive treatment of malignancy if- (PGI 88) : a) The patient is over 45 years 40) 410)a 41a 412)a 413) 414) 415)a_ 41Gace AIMabed 418)c 419) 420) 421)d 422) 423)be 424)¢ 425)od 426) 427)ab 428)a eee ee EE EEE 429) 430)1.20 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-Iit 431, True aboutadenocarcinoma lung- (PGI June 05) SOFT TISSUE 2) More common in female 'b) Smoking is not associated with 440. Lymphovenousanastamosisdonein- _(PGI97) ©) Central cavitetions a) Filiariasis 4) Upper lobe involvement is most common >) Malignant lymphedema ¢) Peripheral involvement ©) Post RT lymphedema 432, Lung to lung metastasis is seen in - All ) Adenocarcinoma oflung _(AIIMS May 2005) 441, Best method of treatment of soft tissue sarcoma b) Squamous cell carcinoma is- (AIMS 91) ¢) Small cell carcinoma 4) Therapeutic embolisation _b) Radio therapy 4) Neuroendocrine cumor of lung ©) Wide excission 4) Chemotherapy 433. Small cell carcinoma features are~ (PGI June 06) 442, Lymph node metastases is commonly seen 8) Commonest malignancy of tung in- (AIMS 95) ») Associated with paraneoplastic syndrome 4) Osteogenic sarcoma _b) Rhabdomyosarcoma « ©) Don’t cause SVC syndrome ©) Angiosarcoma 4) Histiocytosis &) Chemosensitive 443, Prophylactic lymph node removals done in- «&) Commonly present with metastasis to brain 4) Liposarcoma (AIMS 97) ») Fibrosarcoma LIVER ‘c) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma 4) Leiomyosarcoma 434. Commonest cause of hepatacelleular carcinoma inn (AUMS.92) PANCREAS «) Hepatitis A ) Hepatitis B 444, Dizrrhoea is seen in (PGI88) ©) Non A non B hepatitis ) Insulinoma b) Glucagonoma @) Alcoholic Cirrhosis ¢) Vipoma @all 435. Hepatocellular carcinoma is complication of a - 445. Which of the following is the most common site for a) Hemochromatosis. _—_b) Affatoxin (PGI88) the carcinoma of pancreas - (PGI2K) ©) Hepatitis A 6) Hepatitis B ) head ) Amputla 436, The following is true about hepatocellular ©) Body Neck earcimoma- (PG189) ©) Tait 2) Good prognosis ater resection 446. Which of the following is the most common ) Caused by atfatoxins funetioning pancreatic islet cell tumour ? ©) Bad prognosis if fibrolamelia variety 8) Gastrinoma 6) Glucagonoma (Manipal 06) 4) Responds well to RT ) Insulinoma 4) Vipoma 437. Hepatoceltular carcinoma is assocaited with the following except (Karn. 94) COLON 4) Chronic Hepatitis B infection ) Aflatoxins 447. Predisposing factors for colonic carcinomas - ¢) Cirrhosis 8) Familial polyposis (PGI 88) @) Bilharzia ) Gardener's syndrome 438, Following are associated with cholangiocarcinoma ¢) Juvenile polyp except (AIMS 95) 4) Chronic ulcerative colitis 8) Uleerative colitis 448. Highest risk for malignancy in colon is ») Sclerosing cholangitis for (AIIM 91) ¢) Stones in CBD 4) Gardners syndrome —_b) Ulcerative colitis 4) Clonorchis sinensis infestation ©) Crohn’s disease 4) Familial polyposis 439. All the following increases risk for 449. Which of the following is not precancerous cholangiocareinoama except - (4197) condition tocolon = GIPMER 95) a) Uleerative colitis ©) Sclerosing cholangitis ») Gall stones in CBD 4) Chlonorchis 2) Imitable bowel syndrome. b) Uleerative colitis ©) Familial polyposis. =) All 431)ae 432)a 445) 446) 44T)abd 448)d 449)a 433)bde 434)b 435)abd 436 437)d 438) 439)b 440d 441)c 442)b 443) Ad)121 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIt 450, Most precancerous condition for carcinoma colon 459. Low serum iron is seen im- (JIPMER 86, PGI87) is, (Al 95) a) Iron deficiency anaemia a) Familial polyposis b) Sideroblaistic anemia ') hamartomatous polyps ©) Thallassaeria traits ©) Juvenile polyps 6) Sickle cet anaemia 4) Fyperplastic polyps 460. Macrocytes in peripheral blood smear are seen 451, Which of the following colonic polyps is not in- (PG187) pre-atignant ? (A706) 8) Liver disease by Aplastic anacraia 8) Juvenile polyps ) B,, and folate deficiency d)CRF b)Hamartomatous polyps associated with 461. Thefollowing arethe features of thalassaemia except Peata-Jeghers Syndrome 8) Bone marrowbyperplasia. (Kerala 87.UPSC 87) €) Villous adenomas ») Hair onend appearance 6) Tubular adenomas ©) Splenomegaly is seen 4) Increased osmotic fragility KIDNEY 462. Features of megaloblastic anaemia include- 8) Tongue smooth and atrophic (AIMS 82) 452, Worst prognosis in renal cell carcinoma is ») paresthesi assocaited with~ (MALE 95) c) Macrocytosis with anisocytosis a) Haematuria 4) Hyper segmentation of neutrophils b) Sizs>Sem ©) All of the above ©) Invasion of renal vein 463. In sickje cell anaemia the pathology may be repre 4) Pulmonary secondaries sented as- (IPMER 86) 8) HS B® glu-Val b) HDS A’ glu-Val BLOOD ©) HSB" gi-Val )HDS 8 glu-Val ANEMIA 464, In sickle cell anaemia which infection is common (PGt 8S, Keraia 87} 453. Microcytie hypochromic anemisis seen in-(PGI88) 2) staphylococcal eee a) Siderobiastic anemia 6) Thalassemia OE cot 4) Salmonelta ©) Vitamin Cdeficiency €) All 465, Anemia can manifest as al except- (AIIMS85, 87) 454, Coomb's autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is not ') Headache b) Vertigo seen with- (AM India 95) ©) Delia Tinea a) Chronic active hepatitis 466, Whcih of the following is true of iron deficiency _ ») Primary billary cirhosis anemia- (AIIMS 85, 87) ©) Sclerosisng cholangitis a) Iron binding capacity is decreased 4) All ») Increased number of sideroblasts 45S, The virus most commonty causing apiastie crisis ¢} Seruen iran concentraction is decreased fn hemolytic anemia is- (Delhi 96) @) All of the above a) HIV ) Herpes virus 467, Hemolytic anemia is associated wiht aff of the @) Parvo virus @HTLY following deficiencies except- (PGI 86) 456. Most common cause of myelophthisic anaemia — a) hexokinase ——b) Pyruvate kinase ‘) Multiple myeloma CIPHER 2K) eer 2) Glucose phosphatase ty NHL 468, Which of the following drug commonly cause aplastic anemia - (UPSC 85) eee 4) Prednisolone b)Penicilin fer ee eae eee ye ee ©) Minocyline 4)Chloramphenicol oh cn ceeeeenemnn Gucencean 469, Treatment of choice for aplastic anemiais- » : Slecreaao! 8) Blood transfusions (NIMHANS 88) 3 ee ee b) Oxymethatone a ion 458. Cold anitbodies are seen in- (IPMER 85) yee 8) Syphilis 470, Which is not seen in congenital spherocytosi 'b) Mycoplasma a) Splenectomy improves (NIMHANS 88) ¢) Infectious mononucleosis bj Positive direct coombs test 4) Lymphoma €) Increased fragility 9 All 4) Leg ulcers 450)a 451)a>b 452)d 453)ab 454)d 455)c 456d ASabde 458)abed 459)a 460)abe 461)d 462)e, 463)2 468) 465)e 466)e 467)4 468) 469)c 470)122 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT an, anaemia can be caused by all 483, Allare true features of sickle cell anemia except HUPSC 87) a) Leukopenia (A190) 8) Cholramph by Hepatitis ) Pulmonary hypertension ©) Analgin @) Kantamscin ©) Hear enlargement 472. Which of the following show the constituents of 4) Fish mouth vertebra fetal hemoglobin (PGI 86) 484. "Hypochromic microcytic anemia is found in- a) A2B2 wazG2 a) Pernicious anemia (N91) ©) A2D2 SA2C2 ’) Chiconie lead poisoning 473, Drugs contra indicated in G6-P.D. deficieney-(PGI ©) Sideroblastic anemia a) Sulfonamides b)Nitrofuration 89) 4) Hemochromatosis ¢) Aspirin 4) Antimalarials 485. Which is nota feature of hereditary spherocytosis- 474, Megalobiastic anemia due to folate deficiency can a) Increased MCHC (alsids 91) ‘occur due to- (PGi 90) b) Increased RBC surface area ) Diphyllobrothum latum infestation * ©) Norma! or decrease MCV ») Gastric resection 4) Autosomal dominant ©) Pregnancy 486, Microangiopathie hemolytic anemia is a 4) Tropical sprue complication ofall except- (P6193) 475. Bone marrow transplant is the treatment of a) Eclampsia _b) Sickle cell anemia choice in - (PGI 90) ©) Scleroderma _d) Malignant iypertension 4) Aplastic anemia 487, Mierocytic hypochromic anemia not responding ) AML in Ist remission ‘0 ironis seen in- (AU! India 93) omP ) Hemolytic jaundice _b) Chronic renal failure 4) All in second remission ©) Thalassemia 4) Hemoglobinopathies 476, Fragmented RBC’s are seen in- (PG190) 488. Spur cell anemiais a feature of-(PG/ 79, AIIMS8)) a) DIC ITP a) Liver disease by Rane failure ©) Spherocytosis _d) Patient on cardiac valves ©) Myelofibrosis 4) Acute blood loss 477, HYPOSEGMENTED neutrophils areseen in- 489, Mostiron stored in combination with- (PGI79, a) CML ») Addisonian (P6190) ) Sulphate b) Ferritin. AMU84) ¢) Iron deficiency anemia d) Myeolodysplasias ) Transferrin 4) Ascorbic acid 478. Which vitamin prevents development of 490, The total daily loss of iron amounts to about- perniciousanemia but does not protect against 9 0.1mg b)0.5 mg, (WIPMER 79, CNS manifestations- (IPMER 90) Img &) J0mg PGI 84) ) Pytiodoxine »B, 491, Regarding Thalassemia minor the following in IN ©) Biotin 4) Folic acid CORRECT- (AUMS 78, PGI81) 479. Hypochromic mierocytic anemia orcurs in all ) Hypochromic microcytic cells except (Al 90) ') Raised Hb A, a) Iron deficiency ') Thallaseria ©) Severe anaemia 6) Lead poisoning 4) Chronic renal faiture 4) Poikilocytosis and ovalocytasis 480, Reduced serum iron and iron binding capacity is 492. Macrocyticanaemia is seen in all except- seen in - (Ali) a) Tropical Sprue (IPMER 30, AMC 92) 4) Thalasemi ») pernicious apaemia b) Iron deficiency anemia ©) Iron deficiency ©) Chronic infections 4) D. Latur infestation 4) Sideroblastic anemia 493. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobizeria is due to- 481. Allare true regarding hemolytic anemia exgept- a) Congenital membrane defect (Kerala 94) ) Hemosiderinuria (A191) b) Autoimmune disorder ») Increased unconjugated bi ©) Complement mediated RBC lysis ©) Increased serum LDH 4@) Acquired membrane defect 4) Increased haptoglobin 494, Spur cell anemia is seen in - (IN 95) 482, Allare (rue features of sickle cell anemia except- a) Drug induced anemia a) Hemosiderinuria ») Increased unconjugated bilirubin ©) Increased serum LDH 4) Increased haptoglobin (Al91) ») hepatocellular disease ©) Renal disease 4) Alcoholism 47I)bd 472)b 473)abd 474)cd_475)abd 476)ad 484}bc 485)b 486) 487)c 488)a 489) 490)e 4714 478)d 479d 480) 491)ed 492)¢ 481)d 482)d 483)2 493) cd 494)b509)a S10)a SUl)be $12)d 513)b S14)a 1.23 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 495, Iron levelis deceased in allexeept- (Delhi 96) 506. Microcytie hypochromic. anaemia is seen in all 8) Hookworm anemia except- (MP 98) by Anemia dut to chronic infection 4) Beta thalassemia b) Iron deficiency «) Sideroblastc anemia ©) Malaria 4) Lead poisoning 4) Anemia due to gastric ulcer (Bleeding ulcer) 507, Patients with sickle cell anemia are prone to 496. Mucosal tranferofironinGIT by- (Kerala 96) infections with - (MAHE 98) a) Transferrin by Apoferritin a) Staph. aureus ') Preumococcus ©) Apotransferrin @) Ferritin ©) H. influenza 4) Gonococcus 497. All are true of long standing sickle cell anemia 508, Best test to detect iron deficiency anaemia in a except- (Karnat 96) community with Iwo prevelance of iron deficiency aj Normocytic normochromic anennia, is (Kerala 98) 'y Recurrent jaundice aR ) Serum iron ©) Cholelithiasis ©) Serum ferritin 4) Iron binding capacity 4) Massive splenomegaly a 509. Megalobiastic anemia in blindloop syndrome is + 498. Pernicious anemia is due to- (AP 96) duete- (AU! India 99) a) Iron deficiency b) Atrophic gastritis 8) VitB,, deficiency ©) Low folic acid ) None ») Intrinsic factor deficiency 499. Diagnostic of fron detiefency anemia is-(AIIMS 97) ©) Iron absorption defect 1) Decreased serum iron 4) Folate deficiency ) Decreased feritin 510, Which of the following is not a characteristic of ©) Decreased Hb A2 Fancon#snxemia- (Karnat 99) 4) Microcytic hypochromic anemia ) Hematologic abnormalities in infancy 500, Macroeytes are seen in drug adminstration to all ») Pancytopenia except- (AIMS 97) €) Skeletal anomaties a) Methotrexate ) Trimethoprine 4) Chromosome fragility ©) Azathioprine 4) Primaquine S11. The following statements 2bout Fanconi’s anaemia 501, Manifestations ofsideroblastic anemia areall except- are true EXCEPT- (Kerala 2k) a) Defective erythropoiesis (AIMS 97) ) Progressive pancytopenia b) Decreased saturation of transferrins ») Simuttanagnosia 6) Increased iron ¢) Visual object agnosia 4) Presence of ring sideroblasts in marrow 4) Increased chromosomal fragility 502. Allof feature of warm antibody hemolytic anemia 6) Associated skeltal abnormalities involving thumb cexcept- (All India 97) and radivs a) Coombs positive 512, Ail are the following are features sideroblastic b) Spherocytes in blood EXCEPT- (UPSC 2K) ©) Mycoplasma Ag positive a) Mierocytosis with hypochromia 4) Responds to steroid b) Increased iron stores in bone matrow ‘503, Falsestatement about anemia in chronic infection- «) Responds to pyridoxine therapy a) Low iron (PGI96) 4) Responds to folic acid therapy ') Low ferritin 513. Bone marrow transplantation isnot indicated in- ) Decrease TIBC 4) Aplastic anaemia (Orissa 98) 4) Increase red cell protoporphyrin ) Congenital spherocytosis, 504. Doesnot cause hemolysis inG6PD- (AIMS 97) ©) Thalassemia a) Salicylates, ) Oestrogen 4) Acute myeloid leukaemia in fist remission ¢) Nitrofurantion 4) Primaquine 514, Which of the following statements about 50S, A 16 year old female presents with generalised ‘paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is NOT true- weakness and palpitations. Her Hb is 7g/dl and 8) Chronic autoimmune form (Kerala 2K) peripheral smear shows microcytic hypochromic responds well to splenectomy anaemia, retievlocyte count = 0.3 % serem b) Results from formation of Donath-Landsteiner bikirubin=1mg%_. The most likely diagnosis is- antibody a) Iron deficiencs (UPSC 97) ©) Attacks are associated with hemoglobinuria ) Haemolytic anaemia 4) Cap occur secondary to syphil ©) Aplastic anaemia ©) Natural history of the disease often extends 4) Folic acid deficiency over many years 495)c 496)a 497)d 498)b 499) $00)d S01) 502)¢ 503)b S04)b S0SJa 506)e SO7)be 50B)e124 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 515. A child 5 years of age presents with anemia. On ) Pyremethamine ex amination his MCV was 70 and MCH was 22. ©) Pentanidine : Blood erythrocyte protoporphyrin was high.What 4) C ytosine arabinoside is the proable diagnosis - (AIMS 2 K) 527. Which doesn’t affeet folate - (PGI95) a) Thalassemia 1) Methotrexate by Aminopterin ») Iron deficiency syndrome ©) Cytosine arabinoside 4) Pentamidine ©) Porphyria 528. The commonest cause of aplastic anaemia is- 4) Sickle cell anemia 2) Idiopathic (AIMS 83) 516. Tetrahydrofolate inhibitor, not trueis~ (AUS 97) ») Catoramphenicol 8) Methotrexate) Pyrimethamine ©) Phenylbutazone c) Pentamidine _d) Cytosine Arabinoside 4) Petroleum products 517. Cabot's rings in RBC’s are typically seen in— 529, Auto haemolysis testis positive in- (/IPMER 95) a) Acquired Hemolytic anemia (Kerala 87) 2) Beta thalessemia b) After splenectomy . b) Hereditary spherocytosis ‘©) Haemochromatosis ©) Vit deficiency ) Thalassemia &) Sickle cell disease 518. Earliestsign of megaloblastic anaemia- (4/59) 530. Organism causing osteomyelitis in sickle cell a) Increased MVC anemia- (4195) ») Increased neutrophil segmentation 4) Salmonella ») Staphylococcus 6) Altered ME ratio ©) Pneumonia 4) Streptococcus 4) Decreased hemogiobin 531. Multiple myeloma is most frequently encountered 519. Which is not associated with microcytic inthe,...decade- (PGI 85) hypochromic anemia ~ (ALL INDIA 92) a) Third ) Fourth a) CRF ©) Fi 4) Seventh ») Pyrdoixine deficiency 532, In hereditary spherocytosis, the gall bladder ©) Thalassemia shows: (7N89) 4) Acute leukemia 2) Mixed stones 8) Cholesterol stones ‘520, Earliest response to iron therapy is- (Kerala 95) ©) Pigment stones d) All ofthe above 2) Increase in Hb% 533, Hypochromic microcytasiss seen in following except b) Reticulocytes a) Lead poisoning, (PGI 97) ©) Increased PCV ») Siderobiastic anemia 4) Increased neutrophils ©) Iron deficiency anemia 521. Macrocyticaneamia are seen in ll except- (4/ 98) 4) Aplastic anemia 2) Orotic aciduria b) Thiamine deficiency 534. Osmotiefragitiy is seen in - (76198) ©) Copper deficiency __e) Liver disease 4) Sickle ell anemia 522, Leukoerythroblastic reaction is seen in all except- 1b) B Thalassemia a) Lymphoma GIPMER 92) ©) Hereditary spherocytosis ') Secondaries in bone 4) Iron dificiency anemia ©) Multiple myeloma 535, Seen in chroni inflammatory anemiais- (PGI99) 4) Hemolytic anemia a) Serum iron 1 S. ferritin f and transferrin L 523. In G-6-PD deficiency hemolysis occurs most ) Serum iron f S. ferritin T and transferrin T commonly with~ (JIPMER 91) ©) Serum iron 4S. ferritin | and transferrin ? 2) Sulfonamide INH 4) Serum iron t'S. ferritin 4 and transferrin | ©) Amphotericin €)Primaguine 536. Which does't cause hemolysis in G 6 PD deficiency- 524, The following cause macrocytic anemia except- a) Oestrogen b) Salicylates (PGI 99) ) Pyrimethamine —b) Methotrexate (41.92) ©) Primaguine __) Nitrofurantoin ©) Pentamidine @) Trimethoprim 537. Patient with MCV =60, Hb =5 gm% MCHC =20& 525, Megeloblastic anaemia is a consequence of all PCV = 32%, causes of anemia in him can except- (ALL INDIA 97) be- (PGI 2000) 1) Trimethoprin ») Methotrexate a) Phenytoin ) Blind loop sync ) Amoxyeillne 4) Pyrimethamine ©) Hook worm infection CRF 526, Allof following are dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor 6) Renal dialysis, except - (PGI89) 2) Methotrexate S15)b 516d SIT) S18)b $19)d 520) SZIe 522)d$23)ad $24)None 525)e 526)d S27) 528)a 529)b 530)ab S31} $32)c $33)d 534) 535)a 536)a_ S37) cd538. 539. 540. sai. 542, 543, 544, 545. 546. 547. 548. ‘True about PNH is/are~ (PG12090) 1) Hypocellular marrow ») Budd-chiari syndrome ©) Thrombosis 4) LAP Score low Decreased osmotic fragility isseen in~ (PGI 2000) a) Hereditary spherocytosis 8) Sickie cetids €) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia 4) Thalassemia Iron absorption is increased in - (PGI02) a) fron deficiency anemia b) Pregnancy ©) Alltypes ofanemia —_d) Malignancy €) Macrocytic anemia g Causes ofiron deficiency anemia are- (PG/01) a) CRF ’) Young male ©) Celiac sprue 4) Hook worm €) Carcinoma Pancytopenia with massive/moderate splenomegaly is seen in - (PGI01) 8) Myelofibrosis by Thalassemia ©) PRY 4) Hairy cell leukemia 2) CME ‘True about plummer-vinsonsyndrome- 8) Microcytic hypochronic anemia ) Sideroblastic anemia ©) Common in oid age 4) Post cricoid carcinoma ©) Oesophageal webs Anemia in chronic renal failure (CRF) is due to- a) Decreased erythropoietin production (PGI01) b) Iron deficiency ) Hypoplastic bone marrow @) Decreased VitB,, ©) Decreased folate levels ‘Viral infection with haemolysis is seen in-(PGI 02) @cr0n) common a) Hepattis-B 'b) Hepatitis-C ©) Prolong fever 9) Hepatitis-A cy Pancytopenia is seen in - (PG102) a) Aplastic anemia ) Megaloblastic anemia ©) Myelofibrosis 4) Myelodysplasia ¢) Diamond-Blackfan syndrome HbA, increased in - a) Alfa-thalassemia ») Iron deficiency anemia ©) Beta-thalassemia ) Sickie cell trait ©) Megaloblastic anemia RELP may be used in diagnosed of - a) Thalassemia (PGI 02) (PGt02) 125 549, 350. 581, 582, 553, 554, 555, 556. 357. MEDICINE QUES, VOL-LIT ¢) Duchenne muscular dystrophy. 4) Phenylketonuria €) Huntington's disease Aplastic anaemia isseen in - (PG103) a) PNH ) Chloramphenicol ©) Ataxia Telengiectasia 4) Hepatitis A 2HV Haemolytic Uraemic Syndromeis characterized by- 2) Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (PGI 03) ») ded LDH ©) Thrombocytopaenia 4) Renal failure ©) Positive Coomb's test Increased iron absorption is seen in - 2) Iron deficiency anaemia ») Hypoxia ¢) Inflammation 4) Acidic P* of stomach 6) Ferticiron A patient presented with skin pigmentation, hyperglycemia and his serum ferrith level is 900 icrogramv/, possible diagnosi (PG103) 4) Aceruloplasminemia ») Atransferrinemia ¢) Sideroblastic anemia @) Hereditary spherocytosis ) Thalassemia ‘Common features of haemolytic anemia are 2) LRBClife span (P6104) b) T Heptoglobulin ©) Unconjugated hyperbitirubinemia 4) Bile salt and bile pigments in urine ¢) Erythroid and Myeloid rato altered Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) is screened by- (Karnataka 02) a) Acid ham test ¥) Sucrose lysis test 6) Serum hapten levels, 4) Low serum complement levels ‘Commonest presentation of sickle cell anemia is- 2) Priapism )Bone pain (Jipmer 04) 6) Fever 4) Splenoinegaly All causes microcytic anemia except -(4PPGE 04) 8) Hookworm infestation ) Thalassemia ©) Orotic aciduria 4) Pyridoxine deficiency Causes of megaloblastic anaemia areal except 2) Hemodialysis (PGI04) ) Fish peworm infestation ¢) Folinic acid &) Dep ¢) Amlodipine (PGi 03) S38)bed 539)d SAO)abd SAl)acde S42)ad S43)ade SAabe Sds)ade Seabed SAT) 548) Al Sd)abe S50)acd SSl)abed S52)b S53)ace S54)ab S55)c S56}c SSTHode1.26 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-HIT 558. Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by - 568. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell anemia is due to a) NESTROFT Test (4105) infection of (APP 06) b) HDA Cestimation a) Herpes bj Parvovirus B19 ©) Hb electrophoresiss ©) CMV 4) Papova 4) Target cells in peripheral smear 569. Hemoglobin with zeta 2 and gamma 2 chains are 559, Hacmoglobinuria doesmotoccurin- (MAHE 05) seen in which of the following - (4PPG 06) ) CuSO, poisoning a) Gower! b)Gower IT 'b) Snake bite ©) Poland Hb d) Fetal Gb ¢) Mismatched blood transfusion ‘570, Whatis the definitive finding of GPD-(Manipal 06) 4) Thalassemia 4) Bite cells by Intravascular hemolysis 560, Bone marrow transplantation is not indicated in- ©) Splenomegaly _d) Hemoglobinoria a) Aplastic anaemia (SGPGI 05) 571. Acquired intrinsic defect in Hymolytic anemia is Congenital spherocytosis seen in - (Manipal 06) ©) Thalassemia : a) Sickle cell anemia 4) Acute myeloid leukaeniain first remission b) Hereditary spherocytosis, $61. Plasma ferritin levels may be reduced in all of the ©) Thalasemimia following conditions, except J & k 05) 4) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria a) Iron deficiency by Vitamin C deficeiney ©) Liver disease 4) Hypothyroidism POLYCYTHEMIA 362. Hemolyticanemia may be characterized by all ofthe following except- (AIMS May 2005) 572. Polycythemiaisseenin— __(NIMHANSE 87) a) Ryperbilimbinemia a) Bronchial asthma )Corpulmonale b) Reticulocytosis €) Vitamin Dexcess CCF ©) Hemoglobinuria 873, Causes of secondary polyeythemia may inelude~ 4) Increased plasma haptoglobin level a) Chronic cor pulmonale (JIPMER 80, AMC 84) 5363. Megaloblastic anemia due (o folic acd deficiency is b) Renal carcinoma ‘commonly due to- (41 06) ©) Cerebellar haemangioblastoma a) Inadequate dietary intake 4) All ofthe above b) Defective intestinal absorption 574, Which isnot true of polycythemia vera -(KARN 94) ©) Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum 8) Low erythropoietin 4) Absence of glutamic aca in the intestine ) Raised ESR 564. A patient aged 65 years, in diagnosed to have severe ©) Raised LAP score aplasticanemia, HLA compatible sibling isavailable. 4) Raised total blood volume ‘The best option of treatment is- (AIMS 06) 575, Polyeythemia' may be a features of all of the 4) Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by following except— (UPSC 95) cyclosporine 4) Gastric carcinoma b)Hepatoma +) A conventionat bone marrow transplantation from ©) Cushing's syndrome.) Rypernephroma the HLA identical sibling 576. Allare true of polycythemia vera except- ©) Anon-myeloablative bone marrow transplantation 4) Myeloproliferative disorder (Karnat 96) fiom the HLA identical sibling ') Increased red cell mass 4) Cyclosporine ©) Increased ESR 565, Adult haemoglobin consists of which one of the d) Thrombotic episodes following tetramer of chains? (UPSC.06) 577. Following are features of polycythemia rubra a) 2a+28 b)20+28 vera except- (uP 97) 9) 2)+2y 20+ a) Increased'red cell mass 566. Reticulocyte count in Hemolytic jaundice is- ) Normal arterial oxygen sturation a) 08-1% b)1-2% (NIMHANS06) ©) High leucocyte alkaline phosphatase score 9) >25% d)<2% @ Splenomegaly 567. Warm-antibody immunohemolytic anemia is seen ‘578, Allare true respect to polyeythemia vera except in all except~ (COMED 06) a) High leucocyte alkaline physphatase (4//MS 97) a) SE ) a - Methyladopa ingestion ) Increased B12 binding site ©) Quinidine _d) Infectious mononucleosis €) Increased Erythropoietin 4) Bone marrow hyperplasia 558)c 559)d S6O)b S6I)e $62)d_ $63)a_S64)a_S65)a_S66)e 5S67)d S6B)b 569)e $70)b S7I)d 572)b S13)d S74) 575)a_576)e ST7)None 5S78)¢127 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIt 379. True about polycythemia rubra vera is all 587. Choronic lymphatic leukemia occurs usually in except (G19?) (AIMS 88) 4) Bleeding ») Thrombosis by Third c) Sed ESR d) Infection d) seventh 580, Causes of secondary polycythemia may inelude— 588. Stage 2 chronic lymphatic leukemia is treated 2) Chronic cor pulmonale (NIMHANS 05) with = (AIIMS 88) ») Renal carcinoma, a) Imragiation ) Hormonal therapy ) Cerebellar haemangioblastoma c} Chemotherapy 8) No therapy @) Allof the above 589, Drug of choice in chronic lymphatic leukemia 581. Which of the following is not commonly seen in is- (AIIMS 89) Polyeythemia Vera (MAHE 05) ) Bulsuphan by Vinerstine a) Thrombosis ©) Chorambucil 4) Mareatopurine ») Hyperuricemia 390, Regarding leukemias, which of the following is 6) Prone foracute leukemia correct (PGI86) 4) Spontaneous severe infection a) ALL is common in children 7 582. AN] of the following are the cuases of relative ») ALL is seen in the fifth decade polychthemia except- (A105) ‘©) Bone marrow transplant is done in ALL. ) Dehydration 4) Bleeding tendency in AML »b) Dengue haemorrhagic fever 591, In remissioin induction for AML ail are used ©} Gaisbock syndrome (189) 4) High altitude b) Daunorubicin ©) Thioguanine ¢) L-asparginase LEUKEMIA 592, The foltowing conditions predispose to Leukemias- (PG189) 583. A 22 year old man presents with history of 8) Blooms syndrome bleeding from gums for the last 6 months. On ) Downs syndrome investigation the Hh was found to be 8.2 gm% ) Fannconi’s aneamia TLC 4400/mm, DLC N 64%, L 27%, E 3%, M @ all 6% and platelet count of 20,000 /eu mm. Which 593. Cells seen in MS type of leukemia (KERALA 91) ‘one of the following investigation would be most ‘) Neutrophils 'b) Lymphocytes useful in establishing the diagnosis- (UPSC.97) ©) Monocytes 4) Eoisinophils a) Bleeding time and clotting time 594. The biochemoical marker of lymphocytic leukemia ») Prothrombin time is (PGI 93) 6) Pantal thromboplastin time 8) Bnolase by Peroxidase 4) Bone marrow examination €) Choline esterase Tat ‘584, 65 year old women has the following blood picture 595. The drug of choice in eoisinophilic leukemia Hb-12gm% TLC: 40, 000 peripheral blood smear iss WIPMER 78, PGI79) Iny elocytes and myeloblasts. The next investigation 8) Cyclophosphamide) Vincristine ofehoice ise (A189) ¢) Doxorubicin 4) Corticosteroids ) Bone marrow biopsy. 596, Acute Myeloblastic leukemia is characterized by - b) Bone marrow aspiration 2) Auer rods in blast cells GIPMER 81. ©) Splenectomy 2) Philadelphia chromosome PG/80,DNB 92) 4) Ph Chromosome analysis. €) High leukocyte alkaline phosphatase ‘585, Leukemoid reaction is seen in- (ects? 4) Peak incidence in childhood ) Acute intection 597. ‘The serum Vitamin B 12 level in chronic myeloc b) Myelomatosis feukemia is - (PGI 80, DELHI84) ©) Hemorrhage a) Normal ) Elevated @) Brythrolukemia ©) Slightly decreased) Markedly decreased ©) Bronchogenic carcinoma $98. Gum hypertrophy isseen in— (AML 95} 586. Whatis the treatment ofstageICLL- (PGI86; 8) Myelogenous leukemia a) Radiotherapy b) Myelomococytic leukemia ) Chiorambucil ©) Lymphocytic leukemia ©) doxorubician a)None 4) No treatment is necessary 579)d S80)d S8I)d$82)d_583)d_SBA)d585)a_ $86) SBT)d S8B)e S8B)e SDJacd Sod 592)d $93) 594)d 595)d 596)a S97) 598)1.28 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIL 599, All are used in hairy cell leukemia except— a) Accelerated CML 4) Steroids ») Alpha interferon ) CML in blast crisis ©) Pentostatin 4) Splenectomy 6) Ineffective erythropoiesis 600, Acute leukemic phases not seen in- (PGI96) 4) Myelofibrosis @) PNH b)CML 610. Leukemia is predisposed to by - (PG102) QL <) Hodgkins lymphoma 8) Bloom's syndrome 601. A.55 year old male presents with enlarged glands ) Fanconi’ anemic over the left side of neck. On examination, Spleen ©) Ataxia telangiectesia isenlarged 4.em below the costal margin and liver &) Klinefelter's Syndrome is enlarged 2 cm below costal margin. Blood 611. Huge splenomegaly is found in- (PG103) examination shlow a total leucocyte count of ) Haityceli Leukemia 6)CLL 80,000/cumm, Mostly lymphocytes and a few ©) CML 4) Polycythemia vera prematurecells the mostly likely diagnosis is ~ ¢) Lymphoma 8) Infective adenopathy (UPSC 97) 612. All of the following are poor prognostic factors b) Acute leukaemoid reaction 7 for acute myeloid leukemias EXCEPT- (4/03) ©) Lymphatic leukaemia a) Age more than 60 years 4) Hodgkin’ disease »b) Leucocytes count more than 1, 00, 0001 602. Blast erisisin CML is indicated by all except ©) Secondary leukemias 2) Lyinphadenopathy (HP 98) 4) Presence of t(8:21) ») High fever 613. Gum hypertrophy is seen in which type of AML- ©) Sudden enlargement of spleen a) MI byM2 (APPGE 04) 4) Bleeding tendencies NB Or) 603, For acute leukaemia the blast cells should be more 614. Which ofthe followings combinations of eytogenetic than %- (AMC 2K) abnormality and associated leukemia/lymphoma is a 10 b)20 incorrect - (AIMS 04) 0% 40 a) t(8:14) Burkits lymphoma “604, Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (AML - M3) b) (15:17) AMLM3, includes which of the following subtypes ~(Kerala2k) 6) (9:22) CML a) Hyper granular and hypo granular type 4) 1(9:20) ALL ) Hyper granular and hyper segmented 615. Laboratory evaluation forthe differential diagnosis ©) Hyper granular and micro granular type ‘of chronic myeloprolferative disorders includes all 4) Hypo granular and miczo granular type the following except- (AIMS 04) ©) Hypo granular and inclusion type 4) Chromosomal evaluation 605. Pentostatinis- (ATIMS 98) b) Bone marrow aspiration a) HMG CoA reductese inhibitor ©) Flow-cytometric analysis ») Adenasine deaminase inhibitor 4) Determination of red blood cell mass ) Used for treatment of hairy cell leukemia 616. A four year old boy was admitted with a history of 4) None abdominal pain and fever for two months, 606. Best Rx for CMLis (PGI 98) ‘maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, a) Autologous BMT ») Allogenic BMT dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On ©) Alpha interferon ) Hydroxyurea ‘examination, liver and spleen were enlarged 4 em 607. ‘Treatment of choice for intracranial ALLis- and 3 em respectively below the costal margins. His 1) Intrathecal methotrexate (PGI99) hemoglobin was 10.0 g/l, platelet count 37x 10°/L b) Vincristine and prednisolone and total leukocyte count 70x 10°/L, whick included 6) Inteathecal vincristine 80% cosinophils. Bone marrow examination 4) Prednisolone revealed a cellular marrow comprising 45% blasts (608. Trestment of ALL- (PG102) ‘and 34% Eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors. a) Hydroxyurea ») Alltrans retinoic acid ‘The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and 6} Prednisodone 4) L-asperginase non-specific esterase and were pcsitive for CD19, 2) Vincristine ‘CD10, CD22 and CD20.Which one ofthe following 609. In a patient suffering from chronic myeloid is the most likely diagno (ATIMS 04) leukemia, Hb falls from 11g% to 4g% in a short 4) Biphenotypic acute leukemia (lymphoid and span of time, and splenomegaly occurs. The cause ‘eosinophil lineage) could be (PG102) by Acute eosinophilic leukemia 599)a 600)ed GOI)e 602)ac 603)b 604)e 605)de 606) GOT)a 608)ede 609ab 610)abcd 611)All 612)d 613)d_ 614d 615)e 616)e617. 618, 619. 620. 1. ©) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia with hypereosinophilic syndrome . 4) Acute myeloid leukemia with eosinophilia ‘Which one of the following is not a criterion for making a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia in accelerated phase- (AIMS 04) 4) Blasts 10-19% of WBCS in peripheral blood ') Basophils 10-19% of WBCSS in peripheral blood «) Increasing spleen size unresponsive to therapy 4) Persistent thrombocytosis (>1000 x 10°/L) unresponsive to therapy CD 19 positive, CD22 positive, CD103 positive monoclonal B-ceils with bright kappa positivity ‘were found to comprise 60% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells on flow cytometric analysis in a $5 ‘year old man with massive splenomegaly and a total leucoeyte count of 3.3 x 10°/L. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis - (A1IMS 04) 1) Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes ) Mantle ceil Iymphoma ©) B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia 4) Hairy cel leukemia ‘A48 year old woman was admitted with a history of ‘weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2 em below the costal margin, Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 x 1077 L, and total leukocyte count 40 x 10°L, which included 80% mature lymphoid ceiis with coarse clumped chromatin, Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate, The peripheral blood Iymphoid cells were positive for CD19, CDS, CD20 and were negative for CD79B and FMC -7.Which one of the following statements in not true about this disease - (AIMS 04) a) Trisomy 12 correlates an aggressive clinical course ) Abnormalities of 13q 14 are associated with fong term survival ©) Cases with 1192-23 deletions have excessive lymphadenopathy )t (11:14) translocation is present in most of the cases Congenital syndrome Iymphoproliferative malignancy = a) Bloom syndrome ') Fanconi’s anemia ©) Turmer syndrome 4) Chediak Higashi syndrome ©) Ataxia (elangiectasia ‘A448 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months, On examination. cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2 em below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 associated with (PGI June 05) 1.29 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT x 10°/L and total leukocyte count 40x 10/L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin, Bone marrow revealed ‘a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD 19, CD 5, CD 20 and Cd 23 and were aegative for CD 79 B and FMC-7. (AlIMS Nov 05) ‘What is the most likely diagnosis- 8) T - cell rich B - cell lymphoma with leukemic spill over in blood. ») Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c) Mantle cell lymphoma @)A definite diagnosis can not be made in this patient without lymph node biopsy 622. Beell prolymphocytic leokemia patients differ from those with B cellchronie lymphocytic leukemia in - 4) Presenting at a younger age (A106) ») Having a lower total leucocyte count ) Having prominent lymphadenopathy 4) Having a shorter survival 623, A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and levkepenia. Which offollowing isthe clinica! diagnosis-(AI06) 8) Appendicitis ) Leukemic colitis €) Perforation peritonitis” 4) Neutropenic colitis 624, AML transformation common in- (PGI June 06) 2) Aplastic anemia b) Mps ©) Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia 625, Treatment of choice for Hairy cell leukaemia ? ) IFNX b) Splenectomy (PUNJAB 06) @) Cladirabine —_d) None LYMPHOMA 626. Generalised lymphadenophathy is not seen in- 2) Infectious mononuleiosis (KARY 94) b) ALL ©) Tertiary syphilis aan 627. The translocation is Burkitt’s lymphoma is between chromosome- (AIMS 80, PGI81) a) Sand 14 ) 9and22 ) Mand 13 4) Sand 12 628, Bilateral epitrochlear node enlargement is a feature (PGI 79, JPMER 80) 2) Secondary syphilis _b) Sarcoidosis ¢) Tularemia 4) All ofthe above 629, IgA lymphoma invioves- (Kerala 94) 617)d>b 618)d 619)d G20)de 621)b 622)d 623)d 624)ab a) Large intestine ) Lymph nodes, ©) Small intestine 4) Spleen ©25)e 626)¢ 627)a 628)d 629)e130 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-TIT 630, Lymphadenopathy is seen is all of the following 641. IgAlymphomainvioves- Cipmer 05) (A195) a) Large intestine ) Lymph nodes b) Donovanosis ) Small intestine 4) Spleen 4) Chaneroid 642. Which ofthe following is tymphomasis associated 631. Treatment of choice for stage Il a Hodgkin’s with HTL-l virusinfeetion- (AIIMSMay2005) lymphoma- (JIPMER 86,87) a) Burkit’s lymphoma a) Chemotherapy ) B-cell lymphoma b) Radiotherapy ©) Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma c) Combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy 4) Hodkin’s disease 4) Excision 643. Allof the following statements regarding primary 632. Stage B symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma inelude- effusion lymphomaaretrueexcept- (41 06) a) Weight loss b)Fever — (PG/88) a) It generally presents in elderly patients ¢) Bone marrow infiltration d) Pruritus b) There is often an association with HHV-8 o) Anaemia . ©) The proliferating ces are NK cells. 633. Treatment of stage 1 Hodgkins disease is- 4) Patients are commonly HIV positive 2) Steriods b)MOPP regime (Kerala 94) 644, Which ofthe following is nota B-cell neoplasm ? c) Radiation d) Methotrexate a) Hairy cell leukaemia (AIMS 06) 634, Hodgkins disease with single cervical and bilateral 2) Angiocentric lymphoma inguinal nodeisstage- (KERALA 94) c) Mantle cell lymphoma aN bu 6) Bukit’ lymphoma 6) Ila a) ib 635, Stageof Hodgkins lymphoma with right sided neck MYELOMA nodes and left inguinal node without fever - ala b)lla (KERALA 95) 645, Multiple myeloma is characterised by all except - c) Mla d) IVa a) CRF (Al 92) 636. Dingnostic criteria of Hodgkin's disease are A/B~ ') Gum hyperplasia a) RScells (PG199) ©) Lytic bone lesions b) Atypical cells in background d) Respiratory infections ©) Sclerosing pattern 646. Which is not a feature of multiple myeloma - d) CD 30 absent a) Bony lesions —_b) Renal failure (PGI 93) 637. Poor prognostic factors for Hodgkin's disease are - c) ‘M’ Spike 4) Cutaneous nodules 3) Younger age (PGI01) 647. Renal involvement in multiple myeloma is b) Systemic manifestations characterized by - (AIMS 81, AMC 83) ©) Lymphocyte depletion a) Hematuria b) Oedema d) Mediastinal disease c) Nitrogen retention d) Retinitis ¢) Stomach involvement 648. Bence jones proteins are- (Kerala 94) 638, Burkitt's lymphoma is- (PG102) a) Heavy chain IgG a) Beelllymphoma ) Present in bone marrow +b) 6, 14 wanslocation c) Seen in lymphoma c) Can present as abdominal mass 4) Light chain IgG d) Radiotherapy is used in treatment In multiple myeloma, best indicator of prognosis 639. The classification proposed by the International 4) Serum beta-2 microglobulins (al95) Lymphoma Study group for non-Hodkin's ) No. of plasma cells in marrow lymphoma isknown as (Al 05) ©) Level of Ca” a) Kiel classification d) None of the above: ) REAL classification 650, Allaretrue with respect to multiple myeloma except- c) WHO classification 4) Increased ESR (AIMS 97) 4) Rappaport classification 'b) Increased Alkaline Phosphatase 640, Poor prognastc factor of non Hodgkin's lymphoma ©) Increased plasma cells in Bone marrow is (AMU 05) 4d) Punched lesion in the bone 8) Age > 60 years 651. The single most powerful predictor of survival in 'b) Weight loss > 10% multiple myeloma is - (UPSC 2002) ©) Night sweats with loss of weight a) °M" component production 4) Allof the above b) Bone marrwo plasmocytosis 630) Gl)a 632)ab 633)be 634) G3S)e 636A EIHbede 638)ae 639) G4D)d GHI)e G42e 643)c GD 645) G46)d GAT)© Gi8)d 649)a_G5NJb GSI)131 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LtT 652. 654, 655. 656. 657. 658, 659, 660. €) Serum beta 2-microglobulin level 4) Serum calcium level Diagnostic criteria of multiple myeloma inelude- 2) Plasmacyiosis > 30% (PIG02) bj Lytic bone marrow ©) Decreased B, microglobulin 4) Bence Jonés proteinuria €) Rouleaux formation on peripheral smear Drug of choice in multple myelomais-(A/IMS85) a) Mechilorethamine ) Vincristine ©) Vinblastine 20000 (P6199) ‘b) Azoter «) Hypocaleemia 4) Low or normal M component production A patient with multiple myeloma and serum ca+15mg/dh the treatment - (PG104) 2) Oraipamidronate ) Less than 1Smg/l serum calcium dose not causes symptoms c) Mithramycin 4) Glucocorticoids ‘A45 year-old female patient presents with symptoms of easy bruisabilty and frequent headaches. Physical examination shows moderate splenomegaly Blood counts show a norm ieacocyte count and platelet count of 1000 x 10°/eu mm, The leukocyte alkaline ‘phosphatase score is normal. Which ofthe following isthe drug of choice forthe treatmentof this patient? a) Hydroxy urea ) Radioactive phosphorous ¢) Anagrelide 4) Interferon alpha In multiple myeloma following are seen - 2) Increased Caleium (PGI.June 05) 6) Sclerotic bone lesion ©) Bone deposition 4) Renal failure Bence jones proteins are~ (MAHE 05) 2) Heavy chain IgG by Present in bone marrow 6) Seen in lymphoma & Light chain IgG ‘Most common plasma cell tumo a) Plasmacytoma ') Waldenstorm’s macroglobineria ©) Moltipfe myeloma & Primary amyloidosis (Orissa 05) 661. Which one of the following is not a feature of ‘multiple myloma- (AIMS May 2005) ) Hypercalcemia »b) Anemi ©) Hyperviscosity 4) Elevated alkaline phosphatase 662. Which of the fotfowing is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma ? (A106) 2) Lytic bone lesions ») Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy «) Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30% 4) °M’ spike > 38% for Ig G, > 25% for IgA BLEEDING DISORDER 663. Inyon Willebrands disease, which is true ) Normal prothrombin time (UPSC 88) ») Decreased platelet ©) Normal partial thromboplastin time 4) All ofthe above 664, Factor deficiency in christmas disease is-(UPSC 88) au bv ©) Vill aix 665. DIC is seen in- aNsy 4) Promyelocytic leukemia _b) Venom injection ©) Carcinoma prosizte All 666. Christmas disease is treated by — (PGI 88) 3) FF. plasma b) RF. blood ©) Cryopercipitate 4) Steroids 667. Platelet tranfusion is not indicated in — ‘) Immune thrombocytopenia. (KERALA 90) ») Dilutional thrombocytopenia 9 DIC TP 668. The defective platelet function isseen in all except a) SE (A191) b) Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia ©) Myelofibr 4) Henoch-Scholein Purpura 669, All are true of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura except— (AliMs 91), 2) Treatment with steroids b) Auto immune in nature ©) Prolonged clotting time 4) Splenectomy indicated 670. Heparin’s major mode of action s—_(J/PMER79, a) Inhibits synthesis of thrombin PGI80) ') Not easily controlled ©) Inhibits factor VII synth 4) Activates plasmin 671, Oral anticoagulant therapy is monitored with - 652)abd 653)d 654)a 655)b 656)ac,d 657)a 658)ad 659)d 666)a 667)abd 668)d 669) 670)a 671) a) PT oT b)PTT (GIST, AIMS) 4) Clot lysis time 660)¢ 661d 662)a 663)a 664)d 665)d132 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 672. Prothrombin time detects deficiency of- (PGI81 684, Small capillaries bleed in— (ALL INDIA 95) a) Factor7 b)Factor8 — JIPMER 80) a) VitK defiency ') Hemophilia «) Factor9 4) Factor 10 ©) Thrombocytopenia _d) Heparip oxicity 673, Clotsolubility in SM ~ Urea isa test of — 685, In DIC which false (ALL INDIA 95) a) Factor 13 (AIMS 78, PGI79) ) PT is prolonged b) APTT is normal ») Factor 12 6) fibrinogen is decreased 4) Thrombocytopenia 6) Platelet function 686, A young person presents with a history of severe @) Plasmin inhibitor menorrhagia. She has palpable spleen. Her 674, Patient of heparin therapy should be monitored bleeding time is prolonged with a normal clotting with— (JIPMER 8081) time. Platelet count is normal .The most likely a) Clotting time ») Bleeding time diagnosis is — (UPSC 96) ¢) Prothrombin time 4) Fibrinogen assay 8) Haemophilia 675. Does of heparin to pervent venous thrombosis ') Henoch-Scholeim purpura is- (AIMS 80, JIPMER 81) 6) Thrombosthenic purpura 2) 10.000 Ulday 'b) 50,000 Uiday 4) Allergic purpura > 0) I lakh Uiday 4) 2 lakh U/day 687. Haemophilia A is characterrised by the presence 676. Younger platelets are best characterized as- of following features, except— (UP 97) 2) Largest and sticker (AIIMS 81, AMU 88) a) Bleeding into soft tissues, muscles & joints ») Urenersponsive to collagen b) Loss of Vil levels 6) Less dense €) Prolonged partial thromboplastin time 4) Less sticky 4) Prolonged prothrombin time 677. Heparin requires for its action- (AIIMS79,PGI81) ‘688. Mostimportant aspect of treatment of DIC-(PG196) 2) Amtithrombin | ») Antithrombin IIL 4) Trea the primary cause) Heparin ) Antithrimboplastin __ d) Antithrombin VI ©) FFP and Cryoprecipitate ) Fluids 678. Raised platelet count may be found in— 689. Which ofthe following is the best source of factor 4) Postoperative period (JIPMER 81, AIMS 83) vin- (KARNAT 98) 8) Acute haemorthage a) Fresh food ») Fresh frozen plastha ©) Splenectomized patients © Cryopreci 4) Platelet concentrate @) Allofthe above 690, What is the most common mode of inheritance of 679. People eating a seafood diet have~ (PGI 80,81,82) von Wille brand’s disease — (ALMS 2K) a) High prostacyclin 2) Autosomal dominant b) High thromboxane A2 ) Autosomal recessive €) Low thromboxane A2 Ce ee 4) Low prostacyclin 4) Codominent _ 680, Thrombocytopenia sa recognised feature of - 691. Disseminated intra vascular coagulation is seen a) Von Willebrand's disease (AIMS 80, PGI83) Ea EERE) b) Systemic lupus erythematosus Byatt sae eee ©) Henoch-schonlein purpura feet re eee eerie fh WiLae Aaa . The best screening test for Hemophilia is- a BT byPT (Bihar 91) eee ; ity due tot ©) Pr crt 681, Patients with coagulation abnormality dueto liver 693, Haemophilia Ais associated with all except (47972) ase are likely to have ~ (JIPMER 79, DNB 90) 8) Soft tissue haematoma») Pseudotumor 2) Prolonged bleeding ime ©) Increase PT 4) Increase PTT ') Prolonged prothrombin tie 694, DICis diagnosed by the following (4190) ) Thrombocytosis 4) Greatly increased prothrombin time 4) Shor partial thromboplastin time ») Increased serum fibrinogen 682, InDIC whichis true~ (KERALA 94) ©) Increased serum fibrin degradation products a) Increased clotting time 4) Increased partial thromboplastin time ») Increase in level of fibrin degradation products 695, All the following are preliminary investigations 6) Bleeding from all mucous membranes in primary coagulation defeets except -(NIMS 96) 4) all ofthe above ) Bleeding time 683. In thrombasthenia there isa defect in- (KERN 94) ») Platelet count 4) Platelet adhesion _b) Platelet aggregation ©) Prothrombin time ©) ADP secretion d) Platelet contraction 4) Platelet aggregation studies 672)ad 673)a 614)a_ 675)a__676)a_ ETL 678)d 6ID)e 680)bde 681)b 682)d_683)b 684)c ES)b 686)c 687)d 688)a_689)c 690)a GDL) 692)c 3)< 694)ajed 695)e1.33 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIT 696, Thrombocytopeniasis seen in all except-(A/IMS98) 706. Which one of the following platelet counts usually a) Wiskot Aldrich Syndrome bITP associated with increased incidence of spontaneous : +t) Henoch Schnolein Purpura DLE bleeding - (UPSC 05) F g97. Converging point of both pathways in coagulation is 2} Greater tha 80,000/mm? —b)40,000/mm? at- (PGI99) ©) 20,000? €) Less than 20,000mm’ 2) Factor VIII by Stuart factor X 707. Complication of long-term hemophilia(PGI June 05) ! ©) Factor IX 4) Factor VII 2) Joint deformity 698, Best assay for deficiency of von Willebrand factor is b) Transfusion transmitted disease a) Bleeding time (PGIOL) ) Renal cae b) APTT 4) Severe iron deficiency anemia ©) BT+APTT 708. The following condition is not associated with an 4) BT + APTT + vWF-ristocetin factor assay Anti phospholipid syndrome (MAHE05) Orr a) Venous thrombosis 699. Platelat function assessed by- (PG102) +) Recurrent foetal loss 4) Platelet adhesion »)BT : ©) Thrombecytosis ocr @PrT 4) Neurological manifestation ©) ded TLC 709, Anti phospholipid antibody syndrome is 700. Plateletfunction defectis seen in- (PGI 03) characterized by all the following features except - a) Glanzmana synd, 8) Thrombocytosis (KARNATAKA PGMEE 06) ') Bemard soulier synd. ») Arterial and venous thromb ) Wiskot Aldrich synd, ©) Recurrent abortions 4) Von-Willebrand disease 4) Livedo reticularis «) Weber christian disease 701. Hess's (Tourniquet) test isa feature of - (Karn 02) TRANSFUSION 4) Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (1.T.P) ) Secondary thrombocytopenia. 710. Transfusing blood after prolonged storage could «) Allergic purpura leadto - (UPsc 97) Senile purpura 4) Citrate intoxication 702. Most specific investigation in disseminated +) Potassium intoxication intravascular coagulation is- Wipmer 03) ¢) Circulatory overload 2) D-dimer assay ) Bleeding time ) Haemorrhagie diathesis ©) Clotting time 4) Fibrinegen level 711. Complication of repeated blood transfusion 703. Thrombocytopenia with widespread thrombosis? Re (PG195) a) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome a) Hypothermia 'b) Hypocalcemia b) CML. (Bihar 03) ©) DIC 4) Hyperkalemia ©) Hairy cell leukemia 712. Which one of the following is the cause of non — 6) Hemolytic uremic syndrome cardiogenic pulmonary oedema seen in 704, Achild underwent a tonsillectomy at 6 years of age immunologic blood transfusion reaction (UPSC 01) ‘ith no complications. He underwent a preoperative 4) Antibody to IgA in donor plasma screening for bleeding at the age of 12 years before ») Antibody to donor leukocyte antigen an elective laparotomy, and was found to have 9 ©) Donor artibody to leukocyte of patient prolonged partial thromboplastin time but normal @ RBC incomapatibility Prothrombin time. There was no family history of 713. Stored blood as compared to fresh blood has - bleeding, The patient is likely to have- (A//MS 04) 8) More2,3 DPG (WAHE 98) 2) Acquired vitamin K deficiency ) Highestacelfular K* ») Acquired liver disease ¢) High extracelilar Hb ) Factor XII deficiency 4) Increased platelets 4) Mid bemopt 714, Repeated blood transfusion can cause all the 703. In which of the fallowing conditions thrombocyto following except (AIIMS 92) penia is not seen - (SGPGI05) a) Tetany b) Hemosiderosis 3) HSP ©) Thromboembolism —__d) Thrombocytopenia bie 718. Cyoprecipitateis rich in factor— (AP 96) ©) Dengue fever . au bv &) Wiskott’saldrich syndrome Vi ova 696)c 697) 698)d 699), 700)abd 701)a 702)a 703)a 70sec 705)a 706d 707)ab 708)c 79a 710)b IAM 712)e | 713)67I4)e 715)d134 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 716. Blood transfusion is least likely to transmit — 727. All of the following are major complications of 2) Toxoplasmosis (UPSC 86, AIMS 87) massive transfusion, except- (4106) ) Syphilis 3) Hypokalemia b) Hypothermia ©) Non A Non B hepatitis ©) Hypomagnesemia ) Hypocalcemia ) Malignancy 728. What happens when normal erythrocytes (blood ‘717. Diseases transmitted by blood tranfusion are all group matched) are transfused in toa patient with except (PGI 88) anaemia secondary ton intracorpuseular defect ? 2) Syphilis }) NANB hepatitis a} Donor cells are destroyed (UPSC.06) ©) AIDS 4) Malaria ) Donor cells have normal survival ¢) Histoplasmosis ©) Depends on the saverity of anaemia 718. Which ofthe following is not transmitted through 4) Depends on whether the donor cells are fresh or diood transfusion~ (Al 2002) stored (older than a week) a) Dengue b)ParvovirusB 19 °) CMV ¢) Hepatitis virus MISCELLANEOUS (BLOOD. 719. Hazards of exchange transfusion include all (PGI 81, AIMS 83) 729. Bence Jones proteins are exereted in the urine in- ic shock ») Citrate tetany ) Maltiple myeloma (PGI 84) ©) Cardiac arest <4) Hypokalaemia b) Chronic lymphatic leukemia 720, More than three units of blood transfusion must be ©) Waldenstorms macroglobutinemia ‘supplemented by intravenous injection of - (4/96) 44) Rheumatic fever 2) Furosemide ’) Calcium gluconate 730. A 28 year old man who is an alcoholie,presents ©) Sodiumbicarbonate _d) Multivitamin with easy fatiguability and moderate pallor for 721. ‘True about blood transfusion - (P6198) the past six months. His Hb is 5.2G% and serum 2) Antigen D’ determines Rh positivity iron level is 190 microgram per dl. The treatment ) Febrile reaction is due to HLA antibodies of choice for him would be~ (UPSC 95) ©) Anti-D is naturally occuring antibody a) Iron ») Pyridoxine ) Cryoprecipitate contains atl coagulation factors ¢) Ascorbic acid A) VitB, ‘722, ‘Trueabout complication of massive blood transfusion 731. Chloromais associated with - (UPsC 8?) isfare ale (PGI 2009) a) Dehydratin b) Melanoma a) Hyperkalemia b) Alkalosis ©) Myelogenous leukemia d) Wilms tumour @) Acidosis 6) Hypercalcemia 732. Eosinophitia is not seen in - (A189) ©) Hypothermia ) Hodgkins lymphoma —_b) Mycosis funfoides 723. Blood for acid base gas (ABG) analysis ina bottle c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Steroid therapy containingexcess heparin can causedecreased value «733. ‘Neutropenia can be the feature ofal except- o- (PGI01) a) Acute lymphatic leukemia (AIIMS 88) 1) pCO, b)HCO, b) Typhoid fever ©) pH 4) pO, ¢) Felty syndrome ©) Base excess &) Polyeythemia 724, True about blood transfusion reaction- _ (PGI04) 734, Bence jones protein in the urine is characteristic of a) Complement mediated severe haemolysis a) Multiple myeloma, (AIIMS 88) ») Renal blood flow is decreased »b) Acute glomerulonephritis ©) Transfusion should not be stopped ©) Neuphrotic syndrome 4) Death isnot seen 4) Chronic glomeulonephritis 728. Cryoprecipitate is used to treat all of the following 735. Which is not a feature of hemolytic Uremic coagulopathies EXCEPT- (Karnataka 03) syndrome. (AIMS 92) a) Hemophilia A a} Thrombocytosis b) Christmas disease ) Uraemia ) Von Willebrand's disease ¢) Hematuria 6) Disseminated intravascular coagulation 4) Segmented RBC’sin peripheral smear 726. Complication of massive blood trasnfusion~ 736. Which is not seen in hemolytic uremic a) Acidosis by Alkalosis (PGI 05) syndrome~ (PGI 93) ) Increased K* 4) Decreased K* a) Renal failure 'b) Hypokalemia ¢) Increased Ca™ ©) Thrombocytopenia —_d) Hemoghubinuria 716) Tie 718)a T19)ad 720)a T2l)ab 722) 723)e 724)ab 725) 726)be 72a 728)d 729)a TO)b TBIe 732d 733)d 734)a_735)a 736)135 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-UIT 737. 738, 739. 740. mat. 742, 43. 744. 745. 746. BNb 738) Ba 751)b 752)d 753)e Bone marrow lymphocytosis 2) Kalaazar ') Hypopiastic anemia ) Diamond blackfan symfrome 4) gauchers disease seen in all except (ALL INDIA 93) Doble bodies are inclusions seen in- (AIMS 78, a) Eosinophil —_b) Basophis JIPMER 80 ©) Monocyte _d) Neutrophi ‘The most common neutrophil defects is- a) Myeloperoxidase deficiency (AIMS 80, b) Cd 3bdeficieney PGI8} «) Chediak- Higashi syndrome 50 766. Following are the causes of neutropenia 778. A 58 year old woman, who had backache and except- (ALIMS 80) recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops 4) Indomethacin ) Captopril sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. ©) Phenylbutazone 4) Corticosteroids Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gmv/dl, 767. Agranulocytosisis common with- (KERALA 94) serum calcium 12.6 mg/dl, phosphaté-2.5 mg/dl, 4) Chloramphenicol ») Methotrexate alkaline phosphatase-100W/1, serum albumin-3 gm ©) Sulpha drugs 4)Carbamazepine dl, globulin-7.1 gm/dl and urea 178 mg/d. What is 768. . Onc of the drugs does not cause thrombocytopenia - the most likely diagnosis - (A106) ) Chlopropamide b)Phenobarbitone (4/95) ) Lung cancer —_b) Disseminated tuberculosis ©) Quinine @) Thiazide ©) Multiple myeloma _d) Osteoporosis, 7STe 758)e 759ad 760) 76I)e _762)a_763)a_764)d_765)abed 766)d 767)a,04 768)b 76)c Ti)ace Ti)abe 772)b 773)ac 774)a T15)c 776)a 77d 778)c137 MEDICINE QUES, Vot-LIt 779, Apatient presents witha platelet count of700x10 787. Thefollowingare trueabouttetanus- _(PGI8?) ‘AL with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity 2) Centrally placed spasm in size shape and granulatit ofplatelets. WBC count »b) Contagious of 2x 10°7L, hemoglobin of 11 g/al and the absence «) Local necrosis of the Philadelphia chromosome, The most likely 4) Prevented by immunisation diagnosis would be (AIIMS06) 788. Complication of cholera areal except- (A//MS'87) 2) Polyeythemia vera a) Acute circulatory failure 6) Essential thromeytothemi by ARF 6) Chronic myeloid leukaemia 6) Metabolic acidosis 6) Leukemoid react © Metabolic alkalosis 780. What is the Neutrophil count for moderate 789. ‘Thepathogenesis ofcholerais by (AIIMS 67) neutropenia? (Manipal 06) 4) Stimilation the small intestine to secrete large a) <500m? )500- 1000/mm? amount of uid ©) >1000/mm? )100mm by Uleeration ofthe mucosa of the intestine €) Inhibition of absorbtion of fluids INFECTION 4) None of the above 790, Features of Klebsiella pnemonia is/are- (BHUS5) BACTERIOLOGY a) High mortal ) Upper lodes invoived 781. Living microorganisms have been widely used in ¢) Systemic disturbance ‘theimmunization of- (PGI79, N89) @ Chocolate colour sputum a) Rocky Mountain spotted fever 2) Allofthe above by Tubereulosis 701. Steroid are used along with antituberculosis therapy ©) Diphtheria in the following- (JIPMER 88) @ Whooping cough 2) TB meningitis ©) None of the above ) Ureteric obstruction in genito urinary TB 782, Langhans giant cell are seen in- (Pa1 86) ©) TB ofthe eye 2) Sercoid granuloma 6) Pericardial effusion ») Tubreculous granuloma ©) All ofthe above 6) Leprosy 792, Staphylococcus aureus commonly inbabits- &) Syphilis a) Nose )Throst — (PGI88) 783,. A farmer from central asia persents with an acute O Ee Skin onsetr of swinging pyrexia, rigor sweating and 793, ‘Tuberculosisisexacesbated by- (WIMHANS 56) monoartucutar arthritis of the hip. He also 2) Gastrectomy ) Aleohotism complained of headache and insommia~ ¢) Diabetes @ All ofthe above On examination he is found to have a small firm Investigation of choice i the diegnosis of typhoid splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. His counts fever in the first week- (IPMER 88) showed leucopenia with relative lymphocytosis 2) Blood culture by Widal test ‘The most likely diagnosis is- acs 98) «) Stool culture 8)Urine culture “a) Brucellosis ') Bagassosis 798. What test is used in the diagnosis of ©) Byssionosis 4) Chikungunya fever plague- (NIMBANS 88) 784.. Which isnota features ofBotulism- (4192) a) Casoni’s test bb) Ascoti's test 2) Deranged pupillary reflexes, 6) Otoloni's test Frei’ test ) Spasticity 796, Leonine facies is seen in which disease- (PGI 87) c) Akinesia a) Leprosy ») Syphilis @ Rigidity 6) Jaws 4) Trypanosomiasis, 785, Bloody mucoid diarrhoea isnot seen with- (4/89) 797 Diagnosis of typhoid fever inthe first weekis by- 2) Shigella byCholers a) Widal test 1) Stoo! olture 6) Salmonella 4) Campylobacter Fea ee eons 786, Poisoning of fod by which ofthe organisms bas + iphheria may cause whichofihetolowing thesboriss eabatiog period (CUPGEES) 8) Mocca ater? we S. aureus ) Salmonella y masa disco a ©) Acute sensory neuropathy ¢) Botulism 4)Cl. perftingesn fy cae pal Pals ©) All TP TBOy 781) 782)ab 783)a 784)bd 785) 786)a 787)d 788)d 789)ac 79O)e 71)abd 792} 793}d 794)a 795) T96)a Td 798)138 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 799. Lymedisease is caused by- (IPMER 90) «) Retropharyngeal abscess ) Borrelia burgdorferi —_b) Borrelia dutoni 4) Laryngeal edema | ©) Borreliarecurentis __d) Borrelia turicate 812. All of the following may be complications of 800. Pontiac fever is caused by (UIPMER 90) pulmonary tuberculosis,except- (JIPMER 78, a) Marbug virus b) Legionella a) Empyema AIIMS 84) ©) Tubrecilosisbacilli _d) Sindbis virus ) Bronchopleural fistula 801. The serological test to assess the responsiveness of, ©) bronchiectasis treatment in syphilis is - (A191) 6) Pulmonary haemorrhage a) VORL D)FRA-ABS «) CO, retention ) TP @) Reagin antibody titre 813, The commonest method for the diagnosis of 802. Which of the following regarding human plague leprosy is (AIIMS 81, Rohtak. 87) is true- (IN91) 4) Clinical examination a) Penicillin is drug of choice b) Streptomycin discontinued if renal failure occurs ¢) Skin smeat for AFB. ©) Bubo rarely recedes without incision & drainage 4) Lepromin test @) Vector is Rat 814, The exanthem of rocky mountain spotted fever 803, Which is incorrect of typhoid uleer- (All India 92) usually appears first on the- (A//MS 81, UPSC 84) 4) Hemorthage is common a) Face b)Neck ') Occurs on Iyphoid aggregation ) Extremities ) Abdorninat wall ¢) Stricture common ©) Back ) Longitudinal ulcer 815. Diagnosis of typhoid fever in the first week is 804, Bullneckin diphtheria isdueto- —_(41MS 92) by (PGI81, AMC 86) a) Retropharyngeal anscess a) Widal test b) Stool culture ’) Laryngeal edema ©) Urine culture 4) Blood culture ¢) Cellaitis 816. The best single teboratory aid in diagnosis of 4) Lymphadenopathy tubereulosis- (AIMS 79, Dethi 81) 805, PUO ina farmer dealing with goats milk is usually 2) Skin test ) Chest X-ray dueto- (AllMS 92) ©) Sputumexamination 4) Histology a) Anthrax b)Brucella ¢) Physical examination ‘¢) Mycobacterium 4) Histoplasma 817. Legionnaires disease cause- (JIPMER 80, AMC 87) 806. Culture of biopsy tissue of peptic ulcer yeilds- e respiratory infection 4) Acinetobacter (ALINE 92) ry tract infection ) Helicobacter pylori ©) Congenital malformations ©) Campylobacter jejuni 4) Neoplastic disease @) Candida 818, Complication of cholera are all except 807. Toxic shock syndrome is eaused by- (Al! India 93) 2) Acute circulating failure (AUMS 50, 81) 4 Pseudomonas ») Staphylococcus 6) ARF ©) Gonacoccus 6) Pneumecoccus ©) Metabolic acidosis 808. Which is true regarding enteropathogenic E.Coli @) Metabolic alkalosis 2) Mucosal invasion (493) 819. General paralysis of insane (GP) usually follows ) Non motile organism primary infection ater. (PGI80, A1IMS 82) ©) Causes diarrhoea in neonates 5) lyear 8)3 year 6) Toxin similarto that of cholera ©) year €) 10 year or more ‘809. Patients with lymphedema are prone to recurrent 820. ‘The pathogonomonic physical sign of tuberculous cellulitis by- (AIMS 81, PGI 85) cavity in the lung is- (AIMS 81, PGI 86) a) Staph, aureus )S. Pyogenes a) Bronchial breath sound ©) EC 4) Proteus b) Whispering pectorilogy 810. Which drug is not effective against H. «) Puerile breathing pylori (PGI 89, AUMS 89) 4) Posttussive suction ) Colloidal bismuth b) Metronidazole 821. The treatment of tetanus may include all of the ¢) Vancomycin 4) Amoxycilin following except- (AUMS81, PGI85) 811, Bull neck in diphtheria is due to- 2) Penicillin a) Cellulitis (PGI 79, ALIMS 92) 'b) Tetanus immunoglobulin b) Lymphadenopathy ©) Sedatives and muscle relaxants 799)a 800) BO1}a 8O2)b 803)e 804)d 805) 806) BOT) 808)e 80) $10)e SII)b 812e 813)b 814)e 815) B16)e BI7)a 818)d 819)d 820d 82I)d1.39 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT @ Corticosteroids 832. In botulism all are seen exeept- (AIMS 97) ©) Early tracheostomy * a) Diarrhoea b) Diployaa 822. Pneumococcal vaccine is indicatied for patient ©) Dysphagia 4) Abdominal pain with (PGI 78, AUMS 86) 833. In primary syphillis the lesion seen is (MMP 98) {Chronic bronchitis- 4) Indurated ulcer b) Multiplicity of lesion ») Valvular heart disease ¢) Painful ulcer 4) Bleeding ulcer ©) Chronic renal disease 834. Young famale presents with myalgia fever, 4) All of the above headache, diarrhoea and an erythematous rash 823. Legionella causes- (Kerala 94) which first appeared in the groin. Most jikely a) Diarrhoea diagnosis (MAHE 98) ) Pulmonary oedema 4) Toxic epidermal necroly ©) Meningitis ) Staph. scalded skin syndrome @) Acute respiratory infeciton €) Toxic shock syndrome 824, Allareseen in tetanus except- (Kerata 94) 4) Epidermolysis bullosa 4) No loss of conciousness during convulsion, 835. Consider the following statements- (ICS 98) ») Patient concious inbetween convulsions Helicobacter pylori Increased muscle tone 1) The causative organism in 80% of the cases of 4) Loss of consciousness during convulsions Peptic uleer- 825. Reactivation of pulmonary TB is because of- 2) Present in 80% of normal Indian population 2) High perfusion (Karn 94) 3) Responsible for relapse of peptic uleer ») High Pao, 4) Incidentally present in 80% of the cases of peptic ©) High ventilation ulcer 4) Increased drainage Of these statement - 826. Reactive arthritis is usually caused by- (Kerala 95) a) Land Three are correct b)3 and 4 are correct 4) Shigella flexineri ) Shigella boydli ©) 1,2and3 are correct. — d) Land 4 are correct, ¢) Shigella shiga 4) Shigella dysentriae 836. A farmer from central Asia presents with an acute 827. Which of the following statements regarding onset of swinging pyrexia, rigor, sweating and plague are correct - (UPSC 95) monoarticular arthritis of the hip. He also a) There is no man to man transmission of disease complained of headache and insomnia, ) Bubonic plague may evolve into septicaemic ‘On examination he is found to have a small, firm form of disease splenom egaly and hepatomegaly. His counts ©) Fleas survive in thé wall of dwellings for 2 10 4 showed leucopenia with relative Iypmhocytosis. weeks ‘The most likely diagnosis is- (IC 98) 4) Domestic rat is infected from wild rodents 2) Brucellosis, b) Bagassosis 828, Which of the following is not associated with ©) Byssinosis 4) Chikungunya fever streptococeus- (WP 96) 837. Following can be used for diagnosis of H pylori a) Rheumatic fever (All India 99) by Scarlet fever o) Acute G.N. ») Urea breath test 4) Scalded skin syndrome ©) Gastric biopsy and staining with Giemsa 829, Streptolysin ‘O” acts through- (UP 96) @) SAFA test 4) N-muraminidase 838, Pneumococcal vaccine advocated for all except 8) Teichoic acid 4) Diabetes mellitus ») Sickle cell anaemia ©) Muramie acid ©) Renal failure 4) Cystic fibrosis 4) Cytochrome oxidase 839, Hutchinson’s teeth involves- (Karanat 99) 830. Pneumococcal vaceine is not given for patients in a) Incisors by Premolers which condition - (AUMS 98) ©) Molars 4) Canine teeth a) Diabtes mellitus b) Sickle cellanemia 840. A patient in the post opreative ICU with 6) Renal failure 4) Cystic fibrosis, intravenous catheter developed spikes of fever. 831. Allareseen in diphtheric outcome except- ‘The causativeorvanism is- (Karant 99) 4) Pseudomembrane formation @PMER 98) a) E.Coli ) Cardiomyopathy ') Coagulase negative staphylococci ©) Endotoxeria «) Pseudomonas @ Polyneuropathy ) Streptococcus agalactiae 822)ac 823)d 824)d 825) 826a_ $27) 828)d 829) 830) 3I)c 832)a $33)a_ A)e 8B5)e B36)a S37)d 838)d 8392 B40)b1.40 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-ILT 841.1 ‘A 30 year old lady with sweating fever shivering 851. Single plaque with satelite lesions is - (AIMS 94) and diarrhoea, On examination there was a) lepromatous leprosy bilateral pneumonitis. Probable diagnosis s-(AI2K) ») Indeterminate leprosy a) N. meningitis ) Legionelia pneumonia ©) Tuberculiod leprosy 1) Pnemococci 4) Staphylococ 842, True about pneumococcal vaccine is- (MP 2K) 852, (PMER 99) a) Not given if age is less than 2 years 1) Chronic atrophic gas b) Not given in splenectomy patients ») Eosinophilic gastritis «) Polyvalent ©) Lymphomatoid gastritis 4) Derived from capsular protein 4) Chronic non atrophic gastritis 843, Bronchopneumonia complication in measles is due 853. H. Pylori does not eause- (&K 2001) to- acs 2K) 2) Gastric ulcer 'b) Duodenal ulcer ) Aspiration ) Sinusitis «) Lymphoma 4) Leiomyoma 6) Bronchiolar obsturction _d) Immuno-modultion 854, Drugs of choice in pseudomonas aeuroginosa is 844, Which of the following is false about Helicobacter. all except- (AIMS 89) Pylori- (AIMS 2K) 8) Carbenicilin b) Aloeilin a) Endoscopy is best for diagnosis ©) Mezlocillin «) Moxalactum »b) Urease activity becomes negative in a chronic 855, The antibiotic effective against pseudomonas carrier is- (Kerala 89) 6) Unless treated it will remain for life long 8) Gentamycin b)Exythromycin 4) Gastric carcinoma can develop in chronic disease ©) Streptomycin 4) Tetracycline 845. A farmer rearing sheep, presented with complaints 856. Drugs effective Against Bacteroides of fever and weakness for the last hepatomegaly. is/are - (PGI88) Biopsy of liver showed non caseatinggranuloma. a) Chloramphenicol ) Metronidazole ‘These are most likely dut to infection with- (4UMS ©) Ampiciliin 4) Clindamycin ) Brucellamelitensis _b) Brucellacanis_ 2K) 857. In epidemiological survey of H. pylori, the test ©) Francisellatularensis _d) yersinia pestis used is - (ALL INDIA 99) 846, Among the toxins produced by clostridium a) Rapid urease test ») Serological test botulinum the non-neurotoxiconeis- (Kerala 2K) ¢) Urea breath test 4) Culture of organism aA b)B 858, Estimated number of sputum +ve pulmonary och a2 (AIMS 91, AP 91) 9D b)10Million 847, Botulinum toxin is used in treatment of- ©) SMillion 2.5 Million a) Facial dystonia and ties (NIMHANS 2K) 859, Rash starting peripherally isa feature of - ) Tetanus a) Epidemic typhus (IPMER 79) ©) GB. syndrome ») Endemic typhus 6) Botulism ©) Scrub typhus 848. Method of choiceo confirm H. Pylori eradication is 4d) Qefever a) Urea breath test b)Culture We KOI) 860. The clostridial infection most common in cancer ©) Serology 4) Microscopy patients’ (P6181) 849, Allofthe following are spirochetal infection except- a) C. novyii b)C. sordelli a) Bejel byYews (CIP 01) ©) C. welch 4)C. septicum ©) Pinta 4) Relapsing fever 861. Crepitus in a wound is produced by- (Kerala 97) icv 1) Staph aureus ) Clostridium tetani 850, A 48 year old male presents with non-itchy ©) Clostridium welchii __d) Pseudomonas generalised papulo-nodular lesion of three months 862, Antibody titre most useful in - widal reaction ‘duration. Physical examination does not show any utilises identification of a-_ (U.PS.C. 86, AM 87) other abnormaly.Slit smear from a nodule does a) H antigen )O antigen not show AFB. Blood VDRL is reactive 1:2 ©) Viantigen 4) H& O antigen dilution. The most likely diagnosis is- (UPSC 95) 863. Most common X-ray finding of pulmonary TB a) Drug eruption in AIDS is- (IIPMER 78) ) Lepromatous leprosy a) Upper zone haziness _b) Diffuse infiltrates 6) Post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis ©) Multiple cavities, 4) Pneumonie patch ) Secondary syphilis BAlyb 842)a,¢ 843)d B44) 845)a_846)d_847)a_—BAB)a_—$4D)e85)d BSIE B52)a_853)d854)d 855)a_856)All 857)bee 858)b 859)None 860)e 861)e 862)b 863)bLal MEDICINE QUES. VOL-Iit 864, Single skin lesion is seen in which type of Leprosy- 879. In cystic Mbrosis, pseudomonas aeroginosa is most a). wIT (A193) common arganism. The next most common is - OBL oBT a) Steptococci (IPMER 95) 865, Uleer resembling Ca penis isseen with- b) Klebsiella 8) Chanesoid B)LGV (JIPMER 78) «) Pruemococei 9 Donovanosis ) Yaws 4) Staphylococcus aureus 866. The following are characterized by 880. Secondary lactose intolerance seen with PGI 96) bradycardia (IPMER 78) 4) Rota Virus diarrhoea —_b) Shigella infection 2) Typhoid by Brucellosis ©) Entamoeba 4) Yersinia enterocolitis, ©) Leptospirosis, ) Yellow fever 881. Actinomycosis is commonly seen in- (ICS 98) 867. ‘The serum concentration of penicillin in treatment a) Tibia ) Mandible ‘at syphil (PGI80) ©) Scapula 4) Femur 8) 0.03 mg/ml b)0.06 mgmt 882. An 18 old year girl presented with history of lower ©) Lmg/ml 4)3 mg/ml abdominal pain. Cervical culture was positive for 868, The treatment of choice in Gardenella vaginitis chlymyida infection. What is the best modality of is (AIMS 78) treatment (AIMS 2k) a) Metronidazole lin a) Erythromycin ©) Gentian viloet <4) Nystatin cream ») Azithromycin + contact tracing 869. Drug of choice in campylobacter diarrhoea is- ©) Doxycycline + metronidazofe a) Septran ‘Tetracycline (PGI78, «) Trimethoprim ©) Erythromycin 863. False postive veneral desease research laboratories 870. Drug of choice in Listeriosisis- (AAS 81) (VDRL) test have been associated with all a) Erythromycin 8) Gentamicin thefollowing except- (KARNAT 96) ©) Tetracycline 4)Peneilin a) Narcotic addi 87t. The most common site of osteomyelitis in the ») Atypical pneumonias adultis- (WIPMER 80) 6) Oldage a) Femur b) Tibia ) Diabetes meltitus ) Mandible 4) Spine 884, Urinary tract infection by a gram +ve organism in a 872. Linear calcification of ascending aorta isa feature ‘young sexually active female s due to-(MAHE 98) of GIPMER 79) a) B.Subtilis b)E.coli a) Atherosclerosis, by Syphilis ©) Staph. Saprophyticus 4) Strept. pyogenos ©) Marfan’s syndrome _d) Alll of the above 885, What drugsare used to treat ENL reactions- (PGI 873. which does nota STD - (A189) 2) Taafidomide )Clofazamine 88) ) Chaneroid b) Coxiella 6) Steroids 4) All ofthe above ©) Herpes Simplex IL 4) Scabies 886. In staphylococcal infection, the following antibioties 874, Which of the following was the first bacteria to are recommended except- (AIMS 84) hhave complete mapping of chromosomes- 4) Penicilin by Cloxaciie 8) E.coli b) H. pylori(Kerala01) ©) Enythromicin 4) Gentamicin ©) Vibro 4) H. influenza 887. Bilateral epitrochlear adenopathy is seen in all 875. Syphilis attack the fetus after the... months. except- GIPMER 95) a2 “eye ) Syphilis b) Tularemia oa a7 ©) Toxo Plasmosis 4) Sarcoidosis 876. Bad progaosis in meningococcal infection is 888, Ina contaminated, puctured wound of the leg of @ indicated by - (PGI88) ‘Ron-immune child of 10, whic one of the following a) Hypotension.) Rash more than 3 days ‘measures would give the best protection against the ©) Leukocytosis d) Leukopenia development of tetanus (UPSC 97) 877. Ghon’s focus is - (PGI59) 4) Active immunization and antibiotics a) Primary complex b) Post primary TB. ») Active immunization, antibotics and immobilisation ©) Miliary TB. 4) TB. lymphonodes ©) Active immunization, wound excision and primary 878, Tetanusischaracterized by- (AIMS 98) closure a) Can be cultured from wound @) Active and passive immunization along with ') Spasm of masseter occurs first antibiotics 6) Incubation period is 2—3 days 4) Accompanied by loss of consciousness 864)b 865)c 866)ab 867)a 868)a 869) 870)d871)d 872)b 873)b_874)d 875)c_ 876)abd S7T)a_ 878)b 879)d 880)a 881)b 882)b 883) “8B4)c 885)d 886)d ° 887)None 888)d1.42 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 889, 890, 891, 892. 893. 894, 895, 896. 897. 898. 899, 900, 889) 890) 902)a 903)a Best way fo reat street wounds a) Immediate suturing ) Cleaning with saline and debridement ©) Oral antibiotics 4) Leave italone (KERALA 97) Drugofchoicein actinomycosisis-_/A7/MS 97) 2) Chloramphenicol b)Pencilin ©) Erthromyein 4) Tetracycline Bartenelloss is caused by - (CMC 98) 4) Staphylococcus ») Streticiceus €) Anaerobes 4) Gonococei €) Coccobacillus ‘Human bite spreads - (A198) 2) Gram-ve bacilli b) Gram +ve bail «) Anaerobic streptococi 4) Gram-ve cocei Best treatment to prevent gas gangrene - a) Thorough debridement —b) Anti serum ©) Vacenation 4) Antibiotics Which of the following methods is the best for controllong an outbreak of Methicillin resistant staph aureus infection of woundsin a post operative vard- (AIIMS 2K) a) Using a face mask by the personnal +) Washing the hands thoroughly before and after dressing. the wounds ©) Thorough fumigation of the room 4) Pre operative vancomycin to every patient Best method of control of Methicillin resistant Staph, Aureus outbreak in hospital wardis- (AIMS 2K) 2) Daily fumigation ’b) Hand - washing before and after dressing, 6) Surgical mask a) Pre- operative Vancomycin ‘The initial colonization of a burn is by which micro organisms - (JIP MER 80, UPSC 87) 2) Proteus b) Pseudomonas 6) Staphylococcus E.coli ‘The main side effect of mafenide application is- 4) Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis (PGI79, b) Crystalria| AMU85) ) Methaemoglobinemia 4) Neutropenia ‘Nosocomial pneumonia is mast common due to- 8) Gm-vebacili b)Gm-vecocci (A198) ©) Gmivenonnal Gm ve bacilli Allof te follwing drugs are used for eradication (1N99) of Helcobacter pyloriexcept- (UPSC 95) a) Bismuth subcitrate _-b) Sucralfate ©) Metronidazole 4) Amoxycillin Which one of the following statements about H. pyloriisNOT true- (UPSC) 4) Its prevalence increases with age b)Its prevalence is inversely related to socio- economic status 891) None 904) 892)¢ 893)a 901. 902, 904. 905. 906. 907. - 908. 909. 10. 894)b 895)b 896)b 897)a 905)c¢ 906)b.d 907)be 908)d 905)2 ¢) Commonly fundus is the site of colonization 4) Its implicated in duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer and gastric carcinoma Regarding H. Pylorieall true except a) Very difficult to culture b) Anaerbic 6) Lifelong immunity €) Bismuth isthe érug of choice Most common cause of surgieal wound infection (A198) is- (Kerala 94) a) Staph. aureus b)_ Streptococcus ©} Pseudomonas 4) Anaerobes (PG198) 2) Focal dystonia ) Myasthenia gravis ) Cerebellare ataxia 4) Hypotonia| ‘Yn Botulinism all are seen except - (PGi99) 8) Diplopia ) Diarthoea ©) Dysphagia 4) Aba. pain According of revised leprosy programme trueis- 8) Leprosy is of 3 types, (PGI 2000) paucibacillary, multibacillary & single lesion type 'b) Treatment for multibacillary (Rmp-600 mg/month + dapsone 100 mg/day) is giver for one year ©) Treatment for paueibacillary (Rmap-600mg/month + Dapsone 100 mg/day} x 6 months 4) Treatment for paucibacillary (Rmp-600 mg/day + Dapsone 100 mg/day) x 12 months ¢) Treatment for single lesins consist of Rmp + Ofloxacin + Minocycline (ROM) Features of secondary syphilis arelis- a) Condyloma accuminata ) Condyloma tata ©) Mullberry/moon molar 4) Lesions over palms/sales ‘Which of the following cause dysentery -(PG/2000) a) Giardi ) Entaemoeba histolytica ©) Balantidium coli &) Cyclosporiasi True about H. Pylortisaffexcept- (PGI 2000) a) It splits urea & produces ammonia to survive b) Produces Gastric Ca ©) Gram -ve curved rods 4) Cag-A gene is not associated witheisk of duodenal uleer DOC in esophageal andidiasisin HIV. (2G12000) (PG12000) a) Fluconazole ) Miconazole ©) Amphotericin-B 4) Griseofulvin In ieprous neuritis, there is- (PG101) 2) Intracutaneous thickening of the nerve b) Facial palsy ¢) Occurs in warm and moist areas 4) Palpable peripheral nerves are present ©) > 10 lesions may be found 898)4 899) 900)e 901) bye 910) ab,de1.43 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT on. gn. 913. gn4. 915. 916. 917. a8. 99, 920. oa, M1)bee 912)de 23)e Which of the following is true of lepromatous leprosy- (PGI01) a) Bacterial index + to-++ 'b) Involvement of earlobes ©) Symmetrical involvement <6) Only a few bacilli ate seen inthe lesion ©) Loss of eyebrows Botulism characterised by - a) Seizure b) Fever €) Ascending paralysis 4) Descending symmetrical paralysis ¢) Blurring of vision Pneumococcal vaccination is indicated in - (PG! 02) 2) Postsplenectomy ») Sickle cel! anemia HV 4) After radiotherapy Chance of developing TB. is high when mantoux test positive in patients with ~ (PG102) 1) Taking adrenal steroid b)HIV 9) DM 4) Alcoholism Infection causing CAD- (P6103) 1) Chlamydia pneumonae by Streptococcus ©) Proteus 4) Uroplasma ureotyticum (Clinical features of Erythema nodosum Leprosum - (PGI02) a) Fever b) Hepatitis (PGI04) ©) Joint pain @) Pancreatitis ©) Skin eruptions ‘Typhoral vaccine is recommended after (Jipmer 03) 4 years 8) 6 years ©) At birth 4) After puberty Carrier stage is not seen in - ipmer 03) 2) Diphtheria ) Typhoid ©) Hepatitis -B 4) Whooping cough In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess ustally erodes- (4103) a) Intervertebral dise ©) Into the pleural cavity 6) Into the reteroperitoneal space &) To wards the skin ‘The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of- (A103) 4) Neisseria gonorthoeae and herpes genitals ) Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis ©) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis, 4) Syphilis and chaneroid ‘Aman presents with fever and chills2 weeks after a louse bite. There was # macula - poptlar rash on the trunk which spread peripherally. The cause of tis infection ean be - (alin 03) a) Scurb typhus ») Endemic typhus ©) Rickettsial pox 4) Epidemic typhus 913)abe Md 25d 926}e G27Ta 928)a 922. 923. 924, 925, 926, 927. 928. 929. ‘A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line, His blood culture shows growth of grain positive coce! whic are catalase positive and coagulase negative. The most likely etiological agent is- (AIMS 03) 4) Staplycoccus aureus by Staplylococcus epidermidis ©) Streptococcus pyogenes 4) Enterococcus faecalis Ina patient with enteric fever bone and joint infection is seem speciatly in children having- (UPSCO4) a) Aplastic anemia b) HIV disease ©) Sickle cel disease 4) HbsAg + ve hepatitis Allare complication of diphtheria, except- a) Myocarditis Cipmer 04) ) Ocular muscle palsy ¢) Cerebellar ataxia @) Hepatic failure Characteristic feature of early congenita) syphilis is- (UPPGMEE 04) a) Microcephaly By Sadie tose 6) Interstitial keratitis with sabre skin &) Vesicular rash with bulla over palms and soles All ofthe following are true regarding whooping cough except- (Kerala 04) ) Spread by droplet infection ') 90% of cases occur in children under 5 years of age ©) The whoop stage is more infection than catarrhal stage 4) Blood count shows Jymphocytosis Allof the following are true regarding diphtheria except- (Kerala 04) a) Tonsiflar membrane cab be easily wiped off ') There may be swelling of neck causing bull neck appearance ©) With high degree of immunity a membrane may never appear | yin laryngeal diphtheria, tracheostomy may be rneeded to relieve respiratory obstruction Endoscopic biopsy from a case of H.pylori related duodenal ulcer is most likely to reveal- (AUIMS 04) 4) Antral predominant gastritis b) Muhifocal atrophic gastritis ©) Acute erosive gastritis 4) Gastric atrophy ‘An army jawan posted in a remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104° F and pulse was 70 per min. He had an erythematous Aesion of about 1 em. On the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation 0 VAabe 95)2 NBabce 917Tb 918d 919d 920e 92I)d 922)b 929}the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of 144 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-tit ©) Cryptosporidium-induced diarthea 4) Helicobacter pylori infection Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following 940. H.Pyloricauses which ofthe following anemia - resulls in Weilfelix reaction will be diagnostic in 2) Iron deficiency anemia (APPG 06) this clinical setting - (A105) » Sideroblastic anemia a) HighOX-2 b) High OX-19 ©) Hemolytic anemia 6) HighOX-K 4) HighOX-19.and OX-2 @) Aplastic anemia 930. Which one of the following is not a feature of 941. Generalized paresis of Insane is seen leptospirosis - (UPSC 05) in (Manipal 06) 8) More than 10 fold rise of transaminases 4) Primary stage 8) Secondary stage ») Elevated creatinine phosphokinase 6) Teritiary stage 4) Congenital syphilis ©) Hepatorenal syndrome 942, Loss of lateral 1/3" of eyebrow is seen Thrombocytopenia in (Manipal 06) 931, A four-fold increase inthe titre obtained in Weil- 4) Lepromatous leprosy) Taenia capitis Felix reaction is diagnostic of - (UPSCO5) €) Tuberculosis 4) Tetanus a) Ricketsial infection) Fungal infection 943, Diagnostic method in TB is all except -(Manipal 06) 6) Spirochetal infection 4) Viral infection ®) Biopsy ) Chest X-ray 932, Rxoflatentsyphilis- (PGI June 05) ¢) Montaux, test @)FNAC 2) Penicillin b) Erythromycin 6) Tewacycline 6) Ciprofloxacin ENDOCARDITIS 933, The single most common cause of pyrexia of ‘unknown origin is: (AUIMSG5) ‘944, ne 8) Mycobacterium tuberculosis s 4 blood cultures results are ») Salmonella typhi negativenext investigation of choice is ~(AI/MS87) ¢) Brucella spp 2) BG 4) Salmonella paratyphi A b) Chest X-ray 934, Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid ©) Echocardiography fever. The infective dose of. typhiis- (4IIMS06) 4) Repeat blood culture 4) One bacillus ') 10-10% baci «) ASLO tire ©) 10°-10° baci €) 1-10 cil 945, Commonest organism causing infective 935. ‘The endotoxin of the following gram-negative endocarditis (EMER 85) bacteria does not play any part inthe pathogenesis 2) Streptococcus viridans ofthe natural disease (AIMS 06) ») Streptococcus Fecalis 2) Escherichia coli b)Klebseilla spp. ©) Coxiellaburnetti ©) Vibriocholerac 4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 4) Staphylococcus aureus 936, Diseases caused by Chlamydia- (PGIJune06) 946. Commonest complication of subacute bacterial a LGV endocarditis (A189) ) Trachoma 0 OF b) Thromboembolism ¢) Granuloma inguinale ¢) Pulmonaryedema 4) Renal failure 4) Nonspecific cervicitis 947, Osler’snodes are patognomonicof- (IME. 86) 937, Complications of shigelia infections - (PGI June 06) 4) Subacute bacterial endocarditis 2) HUS - ») Rheumatic fever b) Reactive arthritis ©) Pulmonary tuberculosis ©) Sepsis @ Leprosy 938. Pneumococcal vaceine is given in (PGI.June 06) 948, Causative organism in acute bacterial a) HIV endocarditis is- (JIPMER 86, AMU8?) ») Splenectomised patients 2) Staphylococcus aureus 6) Sickle cell anemia ) Streptococcus viridians 4) Comicosteroids therapy «) Pneumococcus €) Chemotherapy &) Streptococeus pyogenes 939, Metronidazoleisindicated inthe treatment ofwhich 949. Acute bacterial endocarditis is seen in- (Kerala 88 one of the following ? (UPSC06) a) ASD ByVSD LPSC8S, 87) a) Traveller’ diarrhea ©) TOF 4) Drug adaiets ») Escherichia coli-induced diarrhoea 930)e>a 931)a 932)a¢ 933) 934)e 935)¢ 936)abd VB7abe 938)All 939)d MO)a B1)c MM2)a 943)a SHA)c 945)d 946)b 947)a 948) acd 949) bed145 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 950. Investigation of choice in infective endocarditis DRUGS when blood culture is negative is- (Kerala 94) 1) Urine culture ’b) Repeat biood culture 961. Drug choice for pseudomonas septicemia are- ©) Echocardiogram d) Xray chest 8) Carbenicilin WIPMER 84) 951. Valve affected in infective endocarditis due to ) Gentiamicin intravenous drug abuse is- (Kerala 94) 6) Tobramycin plus ticarcittin a) Mitral ) Tricuspid 4) Cephalaxin ©) Pulmonary 4) Aortic 962, Close contacts of patient with meningococcal 952. Which of the following statements are NOT true infection should betreated with-(Keraia 87) of right sided infective endocarditis- (Karnat 96) 8) Benzyl penicitin ) Erythromycin 4) Unlikely inthe absence of murmur ©) Rifampicin| 4) Ampicillin ») It is commonly seen in drug addicts €) Chloromycetin ) Emboli to organs other than the lung is rare 963. Dapsone is used to treat - (PGr88) 4) Can occur following septic abortion : +) Actinomyecetoma b) Leprosy 983. Aftera septic abortion infective endocarditis most ©) Dermatitisherpetiformis d) Rhinosporidiosis comimtonty affects...valves- (All India 95) ©) All a) Aortic ) Tricuspid 364. Ketocanozole is useful in all except - (Kerala 95) ©) Pulmonary 4) Mitral a) T.erutis b) Tversicolor 954, InSARE test of most diagnostic significance-(4195) ©) Tecapitis @) T.corpoiris a) Serial bloodulture _b) Anti DNAase 965, Treatment of Vincent’s angina is— ©) ASLO 4) Anti stteptolysin 3) Peacitin (AIMS 79, Dethi 87) 958. Commonest complication of infective endocarditis b) Metronidazole is- (IN 95) ¢) Penicilline + Metronidazole a) CC +) Embolisation 4) Amphotericin B ©) Regurgitation 4) Sudden death ‘one ofthe following therapies would be safe 956. Infective endocarditis in drag abuse commonly in a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis having affects (AIMS 97) markedly abnormalliver function- (PSC 95) ) Tricuspid valve b) Mitral valve 2) Streptomycin isoniazid €) Aortic valve 4) Pulmonary valve ) Ethambutol + isoniazid 957. SBE is commonly caused by - (PGI 86) ©) Rifampicin + isoniazid a) Streptacoceus viridans _b) Strep-facalis @) Streptomycin + ethambutoy «) Staphyloceus 4) Pneumococeus 967, Treatment of INH toxicity is - (PGI 81, Delhi 88) 958. Bacterial endocarditis is most commonly caused by- a) Gastric lavage 2) a-Hemofytie Streptococei (PG103) b) Gastric lavage + pyridoxine intravenously ») b-Hemolytic Streptococci (ose by dose) 6) Staphylococcus aureus ©) Diuresis @) Cardiobacterium 4) Vitamin C (500 mg twice a day) for 7 days ©) Staph epidermidis 968. Neurotoxicity of LN. is related to- 959. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is 8) The dose of the drug (AUIMS 80, Bihar 89) the least ina patient with - (aiina5 03) ») Slow inactivation of drug 4) Small ventricular septal defect ‘© Rapid inactivation ofthe drug ») Severe aortic regurgitaion 4) None of the above €) Severe mitral regurgitation 969. One ofthe following drugs used in the treatment of 4) Large atrial septal defect ‘tuberculosis is bacteriostatic in its action -(PGI 79, 960, Which of the following is least likely to cause a) Rifsmpicin —b) Streptomycin Dedh 83) infective endocarditis ? (4106) ©) Isoniazid d) Ethambutol 8) Staphylococcus albust ©) Pyrazinamide b) Streptococcus facalis 970. Ethambutol causes- (AUMS 88) 6) Salmonella typhi a) Retrobulbarneuritis 5) Deafness 4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 4) Res urine 4) Peripheral neuritis 971, Pellagra like dermatitis is seen with...therapy- 8) Rifampicin —)INH (AIMS 85, 87) ©) PAS ) Streptomycin 950) FI)b 952)a 953)b - 954)a 955)b 956)a BT)a BKe 959d 96OJe I)e M)c —F3)e 964)e 965)¢ 966}d 967) 968)a 969)d 970)a 97I)b146; MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 972, Important toxicity ofethambutolis- (IPMER 87) 985, Drug of choice in pseudomonas septicemia 2} Jaundice ») Epigastri pain (PG195) ©) Retrobulbar neuritis) Skin rash a) Methicilin b) Ceftazidime 973. A S8year old woman on anti-tuberculosis therapy ©) Moxalatum Piperacillin developed anaemia of the microcytic hypochromic 986. Drug of choice for pseudomembranous variety not responding to iron preparations. The colitis- (JIPMER 98) treat ment of choice i (PG187) 4) Penicillin ) Metronidazole 4) Blood transfusion __b) Vitamin ©) Ciproffoxacin 4) Vancomycin 6) Packed cells transfusion d) Pyridoxine 987. Worldwide accepted minimum dose of penicillin ©) Cyanocobalamine in latent syphilis- (AP 97) 974, Idoxuridine is the drug of choice in - 8) 4.8 mega units ') 6.0 mega units 4) Chicken pox (NIMHANS 88) ©) 7.0 megaunits 4) 10 units ») Adeno virus infection 988, Which of the following is least likely to cause ©) Herpes virus infection : in(erstitial nephritis on chronic use- (A//MS2 K) 6) Rubella 8) Methicillin »b) cephalothin 975. Venereal warts are best treated with-(NIMHANS 88) ©) Heparin 6) Ampicillin 4) Topical podophyllin _b) Penicilins 989. 4.38 year old man isseen 6 months after a cadavrie ©) Sulphonamides 4) Cautery renal allograft. The patient has been on azothioprine 976, The drug of choice used in donovaniasisis-(PGI 86) and prednisone since that procedure. He has felt 2) Sulphonamide ) Tetracyeline poorly for the past week with fever to 38.6 degree 6) Pencittin 4) Streptomycin celsius, anorexia and a cough productive of thick 977, Drug used in Herpes infection - (PG186) suputm. Chest X-ray reveas!a left lower lobe(Scms) a) Acyclovir 'b) Vinblastin nodule with central cavitation. Examinaton of the ©) Vidarabine 4) Idoxuridine sputum feveals long.Crooked branching, beaded 978, Drugof choice for anthraxis- (AIMS 89) ‘gram-positive filaments. The most appropriate initial a) Erythromycin ») Streptomycin therapy would include the administration of which of 6) Peticilin 4) Tetracycline the following antibiotics - (AIIMS 99) 979. Treatment of travellers diarrhoea is- a) Penicilin b) Erythromycin a) Sulfaguandine GIPMER 90,Kerala 90) 6) Sulfisoxazole a) Ceftazidime b) Diphenoxylate and atropine 990. Notan ototoxic- (PG196) ) Loperamide & Quinolones 8) Neosporine ) Amikacin @) Choromycetic and streptomycin ©) Vincristine 4) Cisplatinum 980. Drugof choice in eryptococcal meningitis is-(4/ 93) 991. Allof the following are Hepatotoxic except- (AP °7) ) Ziduvidine Clotrimazole ) Erythromycin ) Tetracycline ©) Pentosatin 4) Amphotericin ¢) Choloroquine «) Rifampicin 981. Drug of choice in herpes simplex enephalitis 992. Which of the followingi not hepatotoxie drug. ise . (IPMER 93) ) Ethamutol b)INH 4191) 2) Interferon ») Acyelovir ©) Pyrazinamide @) Rifampin ©) Amantidine @) Vidarabine 993, Antitubercular drug which is nothepatotoxic-(4/93) 982, Treatment choice in cryptococcal meningitis- 4) Streptomycin b)Pyrazinamides a) Amphotericin B (Karn 94), c) Rifampi 4) Ethionamide ») Flucytosine 994, Inethambutol toxicity defect is seen in- (MP 2K) ©) Ketokonazole a) Red vision ’b) Green vision 6) Crysilline penicillin €) Yellow vision €) Blue visi 983. Which one of the following is effective in the 99S, Safest anti TBdrug in renal diseas- (Orissa R) treatment of brucellosis- (UPSC 95) 2) Steptomycin )Capreomycin 2) Rifampicin ) Amphotericin ©) Rifampicin 4) Ethambutol ©) Ketoconazole ) Peneillin 996, Pencilinis the drug of choice for-(Karala 88) 984, All of the following are true of pyrazinamide 4) Scarlet fever 'b) Whooping cough EXCEPT- (Karn 95) ©) Typhoid a) Bruceliosis 4) Itkills intracellular organisms 997. Drug of choice in cutaneous larva migrans b) It is contraindicated in pregnancy is- (JIPMER 92) €) It crosses blood brain barrier 8) Thiabendazole ») Hetrazan 4) Is is must in short course chemotherapy ©) Niridazole d) Mebendazole M)e 913)d 97A)e 975)a 976) G7Tacd 978 979)e 980)d 981)B 982a 983)a_ 984)b 985d 986)b 987)c 988)c 989)c 990)e 991)c 992)a 993)a 9M)b 995)c -996)a 99T)aLat MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIt 998, Afterfullcourseof usual treatment of Kala-Azar,if 1009. Chicken pox rash~ caiius 87) patient is not cured, then next ine of treatment is - a) Appear inthe second day ofthe iliness 2) Repeat double the dose for 40-60 days of Na ») Appears onthe trunk fist stibogluconate (al 97) ¢) Maximum density of trunk 2) Give amphotericin B 4) Lesions at all stages of development seen «) Ketoconazole «) All ofthe above are corect 4) Amoxyeilin 1010, Period of maximum infectivity of congenital 999, Drug of choice for Leptospirosis- (JIPMER98) rubella in utero is- (UPSC8S, AIIMS87) 2) Pencilin 1) Tetracycline 2) 5.6 weeks 8)9-12 weeks 6) Suplhonamide @) Erythromycin «) 12-t6 weeks 4) After 20 weeks 1000. Allaregiven ineysticercosisexcept- (4/95) «A011. Commonest complication of mumps in 2) Nilosamide 6) Praziquental ehildhoodis- callus 87) <) Albendazole €) Flubendazole 2) Orchitis b) Aseptic meningitis 1001. Indication for use of corticosteroids in a child with 6) Pancreat 4) Myocarditis meningocoecemia would be presence of 1612, Incubation period of mumpsis-(JIPMERSS) a) Shock (Adis 81, AP 91) 2) 2-8days 0) 7 days b) Pewechiae 6) 10 days 4) 18 days ©) Meningitis 1013, Which of the following is seen in infectious €) Temperature greater than 104°F mononucleiosi- (P6185) 1002. Post- translation modification isseen with- a) Increased serum transaminase 2) Streptomycin ‘)Peniclin (703) b) Lympocytosis «) Sulphonamides 4) Cephalosporins «) Thrombocytopenia 1003, Quinine given toa patient of falciparum malaria 4) Hemolytic anaemia caused sweating and plapitation, the likely cause 6) All is (EPPGMEE.04) 1014, Serum amylase is raised in- (amnMs'87) 2) Cinchonism b)Hyperalyeemia a) Rubella 1) Measles 6) Hypostveemia @)Hypoklemia 6) Mumps &) Chicken pox 1004. Clindamycinis the drug ofchoicein-(PGIJure05) 4018. Koplik's spots are seen in- PaMS 88) a) Methiclin resistance staph, Aureus 2) Rubell, b) Chicken pox ) Mycoplasma pneumoniae ¢) Smallpox &) Measles 6) Bacteroidis frais 1016. Whatis morbil- (NIMHANS 88) 4) Pseudomonus infection abet eS og Eusobctiam 6) Monkey pox 4) Measles 100S, Antibiotic asteciated dlarshes lscrasod by - 1017. Commonest complication of mumps in adults a) Cliffe 'b)Cholera. (PG105) (NIMHANS 88) ©) Salmonella d) Klebsiella Pa (IMHANS 88) 6) Eval 2) Ottismedia &) Orci ¢) Myocarditis a) Encephalitis VIROLOGY 1018. Test used for the diagnosis of infectious eases! mononucleosis. (NIMHANS 88) 1006. Epstein-Barr virus is considered responsible for 2) Paul Bunnel test 8) Ascot test all he following conditions EXCEPT- 2) Otofon’s test. a) Frei'stest 2) Burki's lymphoma (UPSC 96; 1019. Thefollowingare all features ofmumps except- ») Infectious mononucleosis 2) Caused by paramyxovirus (A190) 6} Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 1b) Aseptic meningitis is comprication in children 4) T-Cell ymphoma 6) Orehitisis «complication in adults 1007, Allaretrue about rabies virus except- (MP 2K) 4) Incubation period is less than 2 weeks 2) Itis DNA virus 1020, Thecharacteristic feature ofrabiesis- (A191) 'b) Vaccine view fas fixed incubation period 2) Brainstem encephalitis 6) Negri bodies ae found in hippocampus ») Peripheral neruopathy €) All bites on fingers with laceration are class three 6) Pachymeningitis 1008. Herpes simplex encephalitis ae aabe- Pietro . Herpes simplex ence |. Herpes Zooster occurs after an attcak of (7191) 2) Temporal W)Paretal— (WIMHANSO1) ——-NW2 Nevpes inosterorcursaer sn atiea of (TN 91) fe Cectieliaane ae ¢) Smallpox a) Rubella 998) 999) 1000)a 1001)a. 1002} 1003)e 1004)e 1005) 1006)None 1007)2 1008)a 1009)e 1010) 1o11yb’ 3012}¢ 013) 1014)e 1015)d 1016)d 1017) 1018)a 1019)d 1020)a 1021)j | 14 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIt 1022, Which s not an important complication of meastes- ‘) Transmitted by oro-pharyngeal secretions 2) Encephalitis (al 92) 4) Vesicles are centripetal in distribation >) SSPE 1034, Dengue haemorrhage fever (DHF) is suspected if ©) Optic neuritis allof the following are present EXCEPT- 6) Transverse myelitis 4) Fever of over 10 dyas duration (UPSC2K) 1023. Whichisincorrect about rabies- _(AZIMS 92) b) Evidence of bleeding a) Virus multiples in brain only ¢) Thrombocytes count less than J,00,000/¢men b) Infection transmitted through saliva 6 Evidence of lymph adenopathy ©) 100% mortality 1038. Most common complication of rubella- (ZN 2002) 4) Pre-xeposure prophylaxis is essential in high risk ) Polyarthrtis ) Encephalitis cae 6) Orchitis 4) Thromoboeytopenia 1024, Herpes-Zooster most commonly affects- (PGI 93) 1036. The most specific method for the diagnosis of 4) Sumpathetie ganglia small poxis~ (UIPMERSG, PGI84) ’) Anterior hor cells a) Smear test ©) Dorsal root ganglion ) Gel diffusion test . 4) Spinal cord medulla ©) Complement fixation test 1025, “Torres inclusion body” may be found in - 4) Egg culture (12 day chorionic membrane) 2) Yellow fever (JIPMER 79, DNB 89) 1037, In yellow fever, Dakar vaccine is given by b) Dengue cutaneous searification to children of ©) Pinta month- (PGI 80, DNB 91) 4) Kyasanur forest disease 2) Upto3 by Upto s ¢) All ofthe above ©) Upto 10 4) Above 14 1026, Following are the characteristics of the rash of __-1038. DNA. probes have been developed for the chicken pox- (PGI81, JIPMER 90) following viruses except- (PGI 81, Delhi 87) 4) Quick evolution of rash 4) Herpes simplex and I 2b) Rash Begins on the trunk b) Cytomegalovirus ©) Quick prodromal period ©) Entero viruses 4) Profuse of lesion on face 4) Rabies virus ¢) Lesions mostly are umbiliceted 1039. The best method to diagnose Herpes simplex 1027. Deaths due to measles are almost always due encephalitis is- (AIMS 79) iS (WIPMER 79, A191) a) CSF culture ) Fluorescein studies 4) Encephalitis b) Meningitis ©) MRI &) Brain biopsy c) Dehydration 4) Pneumonia 1040. Herpes zoster~ (ATIMS 84) 1028. Which snot a common sequale of mumps - 2) May commonly be reactivated by physical traum a) Sterility ) Diabetes (Karn 94) peered Oro ©) Pancreatitis, 4) Oophrititis a Sec ee 1029. Japanese encephalitisiseaused by (UPSC 95) oa ees 4) Human retrovirus ’) Enteroviruses Ota een sane renee 1030, elie 4 ss eorgenteatrnae 6) Is found more aften in patents an underlying a) ASD byvsD (A195) rmalignacy 1041. Most sensitive test for diagnosis of infectious QPDA OPS mononucleosis - (Kerala 90) 1031. Epstein-Barr virus infection is usually associated 4) Moncspor test with the following disease states except- (UP97) +) Paul Bunnel test a) T-cell lymphoma ) Lymphocytosi in peripheral smear. b) Inceetious mononucleosis 4) Culture ofthe virus c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 1042. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is caused by- (PG! 98) 4) Meningoencephalitis a HV b)HSV 3032. Drugotehoice for cytomegalovirus (IPMER98) HIV HBV a) Acyclovir ‘b) Amantadine 1043. Diarrhoea in Rota virus infection is due to - ©) Ganciclovir 4) Idoxuridien a) Increased intestinal hypermotility (PGI 93) 1033, In varicelia infection which is not true-(Kerala 97) ») Decreased absorption by 2) Seabs are highly infective ©) Increased Secretion by Vili ) Caused by herpes virus 4) None of the above 1022)c 1023)a 1024)¢ 1025)None 1026)abe 1027)d 1028)a 1029)c 1030)b 1031)None 1032)¢ 1033) 1034)d 1035)a 1036)None 1037)}d 1038)cd 1039)d 1040)b,qde 1041)a 1042)a 1083)149 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1044, Thecongenitat rubella syndrome- (DNB 02) a) May be prevented by vaccination in early pregnancy +b) Causes intra uterine growth retardation ) Causes cataracts 4) Causes deafness only ifacquired before 16 weeks of gestation 1045, Commonest intrauterine infection of the foetus - a Cw b)Rubella (PGI 96) ©) Herpes 4) Toxoplasma 1046, Treatment of Post-measles bronchopneumoniais- a) Antibiotics and oxygen (JIPMER 88) ') Only oxygen ) Steroids 7 @) No treatment is necessary ‘Commonest complication of mumps in children (AIMS 83, 87, AL 88, 89) 1047, 2) Orebit b) Aseptic menigitis ©) Myocarditis 4) Pancreatitis, 1048, Rota virus immunity to children occur above ... ears a2 5 (IPMER 90) 97 10 1049, Rots yirusimmunity inchildren occur above ..Years- a2 97 bs (AMC 87, PGI 88) 10 1050. Child with agammaglobinemia with respiratory tract infection and diarrhoea is most likely having infection N97) 2) Cocksackie virus ») Rota Virus ©) Shigella 4) None of the above 1081, Sternal edema is seen in- (IN 98) a) Measles b) Mumps ©) Diphtheria ) Varicella 1052, Most common intrauterine infection is-(AIMS98) a) CMV ') Toxoplasmosis HSV 4) Rubella 1053, Respiratory syncytial virus causes all except - 8) Cold in children (NSD) ),Coryza in adults ©) Pneumonia in elderly 4) ARDS 1054, Which does notcause pnemonia- (AUIMS91) 3) Measles 1b) Varivette c) Mumps 4d) Cytomegalovirus 1055. Which is not associated with measles - (AIIMS91) a) Transverse myeliis_) Optic neuritis ©) Encephalomyelitis __d) SSPE 1056. Ocsophagitis in immuno compromised person is ‘caused by allexceptis- (CALCUTTA 2K) a) HSV b)HIV. ©) Varicella. d)CMV 1087, Dentritie uleer commonly seen in- (AIMS 94) 2) Herpes zoster b) Herpes simpiex ¢) Candida d) Staphylococcus 1058, 1059, 1960, 1061, 1062, 1063. 1064, 1065, 1066. 1067, Dengue hemorrhagic fever - (PGI 2000) ) Most common in previously affected patients b)DHF-2mostcommoncause ©) Immunosuppressed 4) Incubation period 7-14 days Which of the following is true regarding chicken por (PG101) 8) CNS complications are seen b) Reye's syndrome can occur €) Prevented by giving immunoglobulins 4) Itis infectious for first 2 weeks €) Childhood infection is more severe than adult True about measles isfare- (Pater) 4) Ineubation period (LP. is 10-12 days ») Confunctivitis common ©) Rash starts on abdomen 4) Fever disappears —> rash appears €) Koplik spots are seen on fundus examination Features of bronchiolitis are- (PGIO1) a) Caused byRS.V. b) Wheeze present ) Pulmonary edema common a) Seen in imtmmunocompromised hosts €) Common age groups is from 5 to 15 yeats aye ‘True about Rabies- (PG103) a) Bats Transmit disease in some parts of the world »b) Brainstem encephalitis characteristic ©) Negri bodies commonty found in thalamus arid anterior pituitary @) Paraesthesia is not seen ©) Recovery is the usual course Trueabout Roseola infantum - a) Also caited 5° disease b) Caused by HHV 6&7 ©) Rash appears in trunk 4) Defeverse, rash begins ‘True statements is/are a) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by HHV-6 'b) EBV causes lymphomatous lymphoma ©) Bronchiolitisis caused by RSV 4) Erythema infectiosum have ‘slapped cheek’ apfiearance €) Roseofa infantum is caused by parvovirus All of the following elinical features are associated (PG103) (PGI 04) with enteroviruses except (All Indio 04) a) Myocarditis ») Pleurodynia ¢) Herpangina 4) Hemorrhagic fever Dengue fever is transmitted by - (Karnataka 04) a) Tiger mosquito ') Jackal mosquito ©) Wolf mosquito 8) Lion mosquito All of the following are true regarding influenza except- (Kerala 04) a) Point mutations in hemaggfutinin gene cause antigenic drift 1044)b,c1045)a_1046)a_1047)b 1048)a_1049)a_1050)b_1051)b_1052)a_1053)d 1054)¢ 1055)b 1056)b 1057) 1058)a° 1059)a,be 1060)ab 1061)ab 1062)ab 1063)b,c.d 1064)b,c.4 1065)d_1066)a 1067)¢1.50 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-tLE ») Acquisition of completely new hemagglutin in ') Aspergillus clavatus ‘gene cause antigenic shift ©) Aspergitus fumigatus ) Amantidine is active against influenza B only 4) Mucor 4) Amantidine Shortnes the illness 1079. Pneumocystis cariniiis diagnosed by - (Kerala 91) 1068. Acute viral hepatitis A is diagnosed by - a) Silvernitrte staining b) Leishman a) Hepatic injury related with transaminase level ©) Fontana staining, 4) Acid test staining ») Variable increase in transaminase leveKSGPGI 05) 1080. Candisis is frequently associated with all except ©) IgG anti HAV used for diagnosis 9) OCP user bpLUCD aser (POI 93) 4) No rise of transaminase at all ) Diabetes 4) Pregnancy 1069. Hand foot mouth disease is characterized by - 1081. Cryptococcus neoformans has been found 4) Cause miniepidemie in school ‘Browing mast often in - (AIMS 84 6) LP.3-10Days a) Water ) Transmitted by virus ») Soil containing pigeon feces 6) CAF similar test seen in cows ©) Chicken feces 1070, SARS trueare- (PGIJune 06) €) Desert soils a) Severe acute respiratory syndrome 1082, Cerebral infarcts are most often seen 'b) Documented respiratory route spread ine YAIIMSS], AMU8S) ©) Biieetive vaccine available a) Nocardiosis by Aspergillosis 4) Cause atypical pneumonitis, ©) Cryptococcosis 4) Candidiasis ©) Group coronavirus 1083. Pneumocystis carinii is diagnosed by-(Kerala 01) 1072, A of the following és complications of mumps 4) Sputum examination for trophozoites and cyst expect? (4PPG06) under mieroscope 4) Meningoencephalitis _b) Myocarditis ) Culture ©) Panereatitis Myositis €) Positive serology 4) Growth on artificial medi FUNGUS 1084. Skin smears may be positive in all except - a) Madura mycosis (AIMS 81, DELHI81,92) 1072, Initial site of Cryptococeal infection is-(PGI93) b) Blastomycosis ) Meninges b)Bone ©) Cryptococcosis ©) Lungs )Skin 4) Tinea versicolor 1073. Extensive chronic candidiasis should arouse 1085, An AIDS patient with a T lymphocyte counts suspicion of- (PGI 2002) <200/mm* presented with complaints of headache, a) HV ’)TB nausea, dizciness and irritability, As a part of the ©) Histroplasmosis 4) Leprosy diagnosis tests, spinal fluid was submitted to the 1074, Thrombosis of pulmonary vessels by mycelia is laboratory with a request to examine the specimen euase by - (Muss) directly fe India ink to enhance visualization of a) Mycoplasma b) Aspergilosis encapsulated organisms, This request was made on ©) Cryptococcus 4) Actinomycosis ‘the suspicion of a diagnosis of - 1075, Proximal bronchiecstasis, eosinophilia and 2) Histoplasmosis 'b) Cancdisaiasis asthma is seen in - (P6189) ©) Novardiosis, 4) Cryptococcosis 8 Aspergillosis ) Histoplasmosis 1086, Regarding candida trueare- (PGI June 06) ©) Nocardiosis 4) Mucormycosis 8) Comamensal in skin 1076. Drug of choice in pneumocystis carinii ») Oral candidiasis common in pregnancy pneumonia- (aris 92) ©) In AIDS at early stage 2) Ciprofloxacin b) Co-trimoxazole 4) Gram’s Staining done ©) Zidovudine 4) Pentamidine ©) Bladder candidiasis treated by Amphotericin by 1077, Microscopic appearance in pneumocystis carinii catheter shows (PGI96) 1087, Which one ofthe following is the drug of choice for 8) Interstitial pnewraonia treating systemic fungal infection? (UPSC06) ») Pulmonary haemorrhage 4) Griseofulvin ’b) Amphotericin B ©) Eosinophillc infiltrate o interstitium ¢) Ketoconazole A)Costimoxazole 4) Fibrosis of alveoti 1078. The common fungal infection in neutropenia is- ) Candida (AIMS 99) 1068)b 1069) 1070)abde 1071)d 1072)¢ 1073)a 1074)b 1075)a_1076)b 1077)a 1078) 1079)a 1080) 1081)b 1082)b 1083)a 1084)None 1085)d 1086)b,4e 1087)seemed ee ee 151 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIT PARASITOLOGY 1088. Malaria affects the following organs except- 2) Brain b)Heart (Kerala 8%) ©) Liver 4) Kidney 1089, Allare true about amoebic liver abcess except - 4) Common sites right postero superior part of liver b) Anchovy sauce pus (Kerala 94) ©) More commone in alcoholics 4) 30%are multiple 1090. Nephrotic syndrome may be caused by-///PMER86) 2) Plamodium vivax b)P.Ovale ¢) P.Falciparum )P.Malarias | 1091. Tissue and blood eosinophilia is seen in- a) Trichinella infestation (PG/ 80, Delhi 87) ) Giardisis ©) Entamoeba histolytica 4) bacillary dysentry 1092. Radical cure of plasmodium vivax is by- (Kerala 91) 4) Chloroquine )Primaquine ©) Quinine 4) Tetracycline 1093. Baneroftian filariasis is transmitted by- (4/91) a) Culex ) Aedes ©) Mansonoides #Tid 1094. Which parasite complete its entre lfe cycle in man- a) Strongyloides b) Ascaris (AUMS85) ©) Hookworm 4) Trichuris 1095. Intestinal prastie disease in immunocompromised patient is- (AIMS 87) 2) Strongyloides b) Ascaris ©) Hookworm @) Trichuris 1096, Romana’s sign seen in infestation with - 1) Toxoplasma (NIMHANS 88) ) Trypanosoma cruzi ©) LoaLoa 4) Wachirreria 1097. Which species commonly cuase cerebral malaria a) Prmalariae byPvivax (PGI87) ©) P falciparum 4) P.ovale 1098, Genetically transmitted diseases which protect against malaria areall except - (ar87) 4) Sickle cell anaemia +b) Gluc-6-phosphatase deficiency 6) Absence of duly blood group 4) Heriditary spherocytosis 1099. Parasites causing lung injury include- (PGI84) a) Strongyloides ») Paragonimus ©) Chlonorchis 4) Trichinella 1100. The following istrueabout malaria- (PGI89) 2) P. falciparum can cause relapse — b) Pvivax dos not contain pigment granules ©) P.vivax causes enlargement of affected RBC 9) Schizogony of p. malariae occurs in 48 hours 1088)b° 1089)¢ 1090)e,d 10912 1092) 1093)a>b 1054)a nol. 1102. 1103. 1104, 1108, 1106, 1107, 1108, 109. 1110. mn, ‘The following is true regarding malaria prophylaxis- a) Started 2 weeks before travelling (PGI90) ») Started just before going €) Continued for 6 weeks 4) Completed with a course of primaquine Cerebral eysticercosiscan presentas- (PG190) 4) Calcification of X-ray skull b) Affects meninges predominantly ©) Convulsions 4) Mimics cerebral tumour Recurrent giardiasisisafeatureof- (491) 8) C 8 4eficiency b)C 1 inhibitor deficiency ©) Digeorges syndrome 4) Common variable immiuno-deficiency * Kalazaar stransmitted by - (VIPMER 91) 4) Droplet infection ) Sandfly «) Anopheles 4) Black fly Drug used in multidrug resistant plasmodium falei parum- UIPMER 93) a) Mefloguine b) Proguanil ©) Quinine Neurocysticerscosis is diagnosed by -(J/PMER 79, 4) Pneumoencephalography UPSC 87) ) Angiography ©) EEG @) CAT scan Inhepatic amoebiasis, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate- (PGI81, 84) 2) Is within normal ') Is occasionally decreased ¢) Is invariably more 4) Dose not help in diagnosis Allare seen in children in ascariasis except - 4) Loffer’s pneumonia (AIMS 81, Delhi 86) >) Diarrhoea with malabsorption ©) Anorexia 4) Iron deficiency anemia ‘Which is not a feature of cerebral mala 2) Focal neurologic deficit (Karn 94) b) Retinal haemorrhages ©) Extensor plantar 4) absent abdominal reflex Visceral larva migrans is caused by- (Karn 94) 8) Toxocara canis ») Ankylostoma brazilensis 6) Strongyloidosis, 4) Filarasis| Drug of choice for treating schistosoma haematobium is- IPMER 93) a) Metronidazole b) Praziquantel ©) Pyrantel pamoate 4) None of the above 1095)a_ 1096) 1097)c 1098)d 1099)ab 1100)¢. Fi0f)a¢ 1102)acd 1103)d 1104) 1105)a>c 1106)d 1107)d 1108)d 1109) 1110)a 1111)b12, 113, 14, 11s. 116. 417, 118, 19, 1120. 121, 12, Resistant kala-azar is defined by the persistance of the following feature despite adequate therapy- ) Fever (UPSC95) b) Non-regression of splenomegaly ©) LD. bodies in more than 5% cells in bone marrow 4) Hyperglobulinae Chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria in a pregant woman is treated with - (PGI95) 2) Mefloquine ') Quinine ¢) Primaquine 4) Pyrimethamine P. faeiparum does not present with - (CUPGEE95) a) Hyperglycaemia ) Hypoglyeaemia ©) Hypotension @) Fever Asiatic cholangitis is caused by ~ 8) Schistosoma hematobium ») Paragonimus Westerman 8} Clonorchis sinensis 6) Amoebiasis, All of the following drugs have been used in the treatment of Kala-azar, except ~ (uP 97) a) Sodium stibogluconate ) Clindamycin ©) Amphotericin B 4) Pentamidine Recurrent giardiasis suggests - 4), esterase inhibitor defeciency ') C; deficiency €) Severe variable immunodeficiency 4) Di george syndrome ‘The diagnosite test for cerebral cysticercosis- (AP 96) (AIMS 97) a) MRI (7N98) ) Non contrast CT sean ©) Contrast CT sean 4) Plain x-ray Which isnot true ~ (Kerala 97) a) Plasmodium vivax affects immature RBC b) Plasmodium falciparum affect all stages of RBC ©) Plasmodium malaria affects senescent RBC 4) All of the above. The treatment of chi in Taenia saginata aid taenia solium infections is- (UPSC97) 8) Metronidazole b) Niclosamide ©) Praziquantel 4) Albendazole Alll of the following are effective in giardiasis except- (AP 97) a) Co-trimoxazole ) Furazolidine ©) Metronidazole 4) Tinidazole ‘Truestatement regarding amoebic dysentry - a) Incubation period 7-10 days (MAHE 98) 152 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1123, Trve statements regarding falciparum malaria 1124, 1128. 1126. 127, 1128, 129, 1130. 131, 1132, 1133, reall the following durgs except- 4) Haemoglobinuria and renal failure b) Hypoglycemia ©) Cerebral malaria, 4) adequately prevented with chroloquine therapy Which one of the following immunoglobulins is characteristically elevated in filariasis -(UPSC 2K) a) IgA ©) IgG ‘What is the treatment of choice in a pregnant lady having plasmodium vivax infeetion- (AI/MS2K) a) Chloroquine b) Chlorogine + Primaquine «) Quinine 4) Chlroquine+ Primethamine ‘A patient presents with subeutancou nodules over Rt. iliae crest. Lymph node as well as skin smear shows microfilariae. Patient also has eye manifestatons .Most common filarial spe‘ involved. (amson a) Brugistimori _b) Onchocerca volvulus ©) Loa Loa ) Mansonelle ozaradi Rarest complication of falciparum malaria is - a) Hepatitis by Pancreatitis. (4/89) ©) Nephrotic syndrome). Unconsciousness Best and least toxic treatment for amoebic dysentry (Kerala 94) b) Chloroguin ©) Metronidzole 4) Diloxanide furoate Drug used in Dracunculus infestation- (FGI88) a) Niridazole ) Thiabendazole ©) Mebendazole 4d) Levamisole Inthe overhead tank of a hostel,cysts of Entamoeba were found. The best method of disinfection (AIIMS 99) (MAHE 98) a) Emetine 4) Ultravioletrediation 6) Boiling 6) lodination 4) Chlorination Recurrent giardiasisisafeatureof- (PGI87) 18) Wiskot aldrich’s syndrome ') Severe combined immunodficiency ©) Primary acquired agammaglobulinema 4) Failure of C3 activation ©} X-linked recessive agammagolbulinema Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped~ (AIIMS 78, PGI84) a) Dot b)Comma ¢) Banana 4) Rod Which is true about post ftansfusion mala ) Profuse, watery diarthoea a) Caused by plasmodium malaria (JIPMER 95) ©) Diagnostic mucosal lesion most. common in +) Radical chemotherapy is required rectim ©) Transmitted by needles 6) Diagnostic mucosal findings on sigmoidoscopy 4) Caused by P. ovale 112)¢ 1113)a 1114)a 1115)e 1116) 1117). 1118) 1119)None 1120)¢ 1121)a 1122)d/ 1123) —“1124)b 1125)a 1126) 1127)b 1128)¢ 1129)None, 1130)¢ 1131)bee 1132)€ 1133)acd1134, Malaria pigment consits of (Ar 96) 1) Bilirubin b) Melanin ©) Hemoglobin) Iron Porphyin Hematin 1138. All of the following are seen in cerebral malaria except (PSC 97) 8) Hyperelycaemia b) Thrombocytopaenia ©) Acute respiratory distress syndrome ) Heavy parasitemia 1136, The most common manifiestation of Thread ‘worm infestation is- (A197) a) Urticaria ») Rectal prolapse ©) Abdominal pains 4) Vaginitis 1137, Drug of choice in cerebral cysticercosis is (IPMER 01) a) Piperazine »)Pyrviniten ©) Thiabendazole 4) Mebendazole 1138. One of the following is true about eryptosporidial cysts in stool (All India 96) 3) Uninucteate 6) Racket shaped «) Acid fast 4) Gram pos 1139, Tachyzoites areseen in - (UP 97) a) Toxocara canis ) Toxoplasma gondii ©) Leishmania 4) Trypanasoma 1140, A tick borne fever, where organism attacks RBC's- a) Typhus b) Babesiosis /IPMER 98) ©) Dengue d) Malaria 1141, Drug of chotee in CHAGAS disease is- (A/MS 80) a) Suramin ') Benznidazole ©) Pentarmidine a) Nifurtimox. 1142. Typhoid psychosis should be treated with - a) Steroids byAmitryptiline — (A11MS78) ©) Benzhexol__d) Haloperidol 1143. Drug of choice in treating amocbasis in first trimester of pregnancy is- (AIMS 81) a) Chloroquine «) Metronidazole nanide 1144, Inhuman pediculosis-——_ (PMERSD, PGIS7) 4) The causative organism is Sarcopteci scabei ) A blepharoconjunctivitis may occur + ©) Head shaving is not necessary for treatment 4) Clothes most be burt (0 destroy the lice 6) Infection does not spread within the family 1145. The parasite which is transmitted sexually- 2) Strongyloides stercoralis (TN 98) ) Necator americanus ©) Ankylostoma duodonale 6) Trichura 1146. Treatment of uncomplicated hydatid eyst in lang is- a) Marsupialisation (P6189) ») Lobectomy : ©) Enucleation 4) Extended tube drainage 1134)d_1135)a_1136)¢ 1137)None 1138)¢ 1139}b Uid6}e U47)ab {148d 1149)b 1150)d 1151)ab 153 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1147. Chaga’s disease doesnot involve-_ (JIPMER 90) 1148, a) Panereas ) Duodenum ¢) Esophagus Coton Winter bottom’s sign is typically seen in- 8) Muconium peritonitis UIPMER 81, AIIMS 80) b) Kala Azar ¢) American trypanosomiasis @) African trypanosomiasis 1149. In complication of falciparum malaria, which drug 1180. 1151. isnot given- (P6197) 2) Phenobarbitone b) Dexamethosone ©) Quinine 4) Blood transfusion ). Which is nota feature of cerebral mal 8) Perivascular demyelination ») Durck granuloma ©) Prolifereated glial cells arranged radially 4) Lesion is not related to paras |. True about cerebral malaria ischildren-(PGI 2000) 8) Quinine is drug of choice b) Hypoglycemia ©) Good prognosis 4) Caused by P. vivax (PGI99) 1382. Cystivercosis present as (P6103) 1183. 2) Seizure b) Neuropathy ©) Encephalitis 46) Muscular hypertrophy €) Encephalitis . Insevere malaria following areseen- (PGI 03) ) Coma b) Thrombocytopenia ¢) Lacti¢ acidosis d)pH<75 ¢) Hyperglycemia 1184, Jn plasmodium vivax malaria, relapse is caused by - uss. 2) Sporonoite b)Sehizent — Wipmer 03) ©) Hypnozoite 4) Gametocytes . Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosisis- a) Seizures (4103) b) Focal neurological defects ©) Dementia 4) Radiculopathy 1156. Which one of the following statment is false - 4) The presence of ingested erythrocytes is seen only in Entamoebs histolytica +) Young adult males of low socio - economic status are most commonly affected by invasive amoebiasis ©) A low iron content in the diet predisposes to invasive 4) The pathogenic and non pathogenic strains of E. histolytica can be differentiated by electrophoretic study of desmosomes 1157. Dufly antigen on erythrocytes are receptors for - 2) P. falciparum BYP. vivax (UPSCO4) ©) P.ovale OP. malariae 11406 1141)d_1142)a 1143)a_ 14s we_145)None M132)abe MS3abed MSAe 1155)a 1156) 1157)154 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIE 1158. "String test” in which jejunal mucus is examined, ») Leptospirosis (Wells disease) isdone for diagonosis of - (Kerala 04) «) Yellow fever a) Amoebiasis, b) Stronglyoidiasis ic uraemic syndrome 6) Giardiasis 4) Cyclosporiasi 1168, Sabre tibia is seen in- (AIMS 91) 1159. Visceral leishmaniasis is predisposed by - 1) Gonorthoea ) Congenital syphilis 4) Sickle cell anemia (Kerala 04) ©) Renal osteadystrophy _d) Rickets, ') Renal transplantation 1169, Toa febrile, neutropenic patient allcan be done except ©) G6PD deficiency 4) White cell transfusion (AIMS 96) 4) AIDS ») Antibiotic coverage 1160, Which one of the following is used in therapy of ©) Handwashing by all staf'members before touching Toxoplasmosis- (AL05) the patient a) Artensenuate ) Thiacetazone 4) Colony stimulating growth factor transfusion 6) Ciprofloxacin 4) Pyrimethamine 1170. One of the following statement about tetanus is 11161, Peripheral blood smear in Plasmodium falciparum ‘true anol infection may show all of the following a) Caused by Cl tetani except- (SGPGI05) b) Anaerobic infection 4) Male gametocyte b) Trophozoite «) Central spores ©) Female gamatocyte 4) Schizont. 4) Cannot be prevented 1162. Malarial relapse is seen in - acsos) 1171, Maximum sensfivity in VDRL test is seen in 2) P.falejparum and Pvivax caseof (Kerala 91) ») P falciparum and P. malariae a) Primary syphilis »b) Secondary syphilis 6) P.ovale and P. malariae 6) Tertiary syphilis, aGPI 6) P. vivax and P, ovale 1172. Prognosis s related to incubation period in- 1163, Toxoplasmosis inthe foetus can be best confirmed 8) Cholera ) Rabies(JIPMER 92) by- (MAHA 05) ©) Tetanus 4) Diphtheria 2) IeM antibodies against Toxoplasma in the mother 1173, Which of the following is not a differential 'b) IgM antibodies against Toxoplasma in the foetus diagnosis to botulism- (All India 93) ) IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma in the moter 4) Potio +) Guillain Barre syndrome 4) IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma in the foetus ©) Stroke ) Tick palsy 1164, A patient present with fower gnstrointestinal bleed. 1174, Which is true regarding enteropathogenic E.Coli- Sigmoidoseopy shows ulcers in the sigmoid. 8) Mucosal invasion (All India 93 Biopsy from this area shows flask-shaped ulcers. b) Non motile organism Which of te following is the most appropriate ©) Causes diarrhoea in neonates treatment (AIMS NOY 03) 4) Toxin similar to that of cholera 4) Intravenous ceftriaxone 1175. Which infectious disease is asually not associated ») Intravenous metronidazole with cataract- (WIPMER 78, PGI 80) ©) Intravenous steroids and sulphasalazine 1) Leprosy b)Pulmonary TB 4) Hydrocortisone enemas ©) Cysticercosis 4) Onchocerciasis Features of Giardiasi «(PGI June 06) 1176, A group of students who attended a college banquet a) Mal absorption reported vomitting, watery diarrhoea in 6 hours. The b) Cyst with 4 nuclei ‘most causative organism is WJIPMER 95) ¢) Trophozoite wit four nuclei ') Clostridium botulinum 4) Common in hypogammaglobulinemia ©) ECali ) Salmonella 1177. A 30 year old male presents with non-itchy MISCELLANEOUS (INFECTION) 1166. Prophylactic dose of tetanus globulin is....TU- a) 250 soo (AL 89) ©) 1000 1500 1167. An Indian adult who has never travelled abroad comes with a history of high fever;headache Jaundice, marked oliguria and shock with TLC of 16,000/cumm. The most likely diagnosisis- generalised papulo-nodular lesion of three ‘month's duration, Physical examination does not show any other abnormality. Slit smear from from a nodule does not show AFB, Blood VDRL is reactive 1:2 dilution. The most likely diagnosis is- ) Viral hepatiti (UPSC 97) 1158)¢ 1159)¢ 1160)4 1161) 1162)¢ 1163)b 1168)b 1165)abd M71)b —-1172)b_1173)None1174)e 1175)? 1176) None a) Drug eruption (UPSC 93) b) Lepromatous leprosy ©) Post-kala azar dermal leishmaniasis 4) Secondary syphilis 1166)a 1167) 1168)b —1165)a_1170)ab umd155 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1178, All are Seatures of hyper eosinophilic syndrome except- (AP 96) 8) Blood eosinophilia 6) Bone narrow eosinophilia ©) Associated with parasites @) Tissue eosinophilia 1179, In pneumonia due to mycoplasma all of the following are trueexcept- *(MAHE 98) a) Myalgia ) Dry cough ) Pleuritic chest paia 4 Bilateral infiltration on chest X-ray 1180. Treatment of choice for typhoid carries-(Rohtak 97) 8) Chlorophenicot b)Ciprofloxacin , ©) Cholecystectomy 4) Ampicllin 2) Cholecystectomy and ampicittin 1181, Immediate infection in an immunocompromised patient is caused by- (Rohtak 97) 8) Cryptococcus +) Preumocyetis carinis ©) Geam-ve baci ©) Cytomegalvirus ©) All 1182. Rhinopharyngitis mutitans is not seen in- a) Yaws ) Pinta (JIPMER 2K) ©) Leprosy Kala azar 1183, Benzathine penicillin should not be given in which type of syphi (Karnat 99) 2) Primary syphilis ») Secondary syphilis ©) Latent syphilis 4) Neuro syphilis, 1184, Ulcer on the finger with axitfary fymphadenopathy suggest infection due to (IPMER 93) 8) Coceides, ») Sporothrix ©) Histoplasma 4) Nocardia 1185, Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required in one of the rottowing — (KERALA 91) a) Cardiac valve replacement ') Rheumatic fever ¢) Rip join replacement 4) Endocardial pacemakers 1186, Which of the following disease is not susceptible tochlorination (AIIMS 78, PGI87) 2) Bacillary dysentery) Typhoid fever 6) Cholera 4) Giardi 1187. Which ofthe following organisms isnot affected by normafchforination - (ASSAM 95) 2) E. histolytica trophozoite ) Cysts of E, histolytica ©) Giardia 4) Shigella 1188, Universal precaution is applicable toall except - a) Urine b)Semen — (AI2K) «) Feces 4) Sputum 1199, 1190. 191, 1192, 3193, 1194. 195, 1196, 1197. 1198, 1199, Patients with organ transptants are most frequently infected with (AIMS 78) 2) Hepatitis A ) Hepatitis B ©) OMC OEBV The following statements constitute correct advice for travelters requiring immunization - a) Smallpox vaccination (PGI 02, UPSC 83) is now only required fora few Afican countries by Yellow fever vaccine can be given at the same time s oral polio vaccination ©) Typhioid vaccine can be given intradermally 4) The only vaccinations required by international Sanitary regulations are cholera and typhoid €) Immunoglobulin for hepatitis A gives full protection against infection for at least 6 months. ‘The following oraganistas are found in infections caused by bites~ (PG186) a) Eilenella corrodens ) Haemophilus aphophilus ©) DF-2 @) Arachnta propionica ©) Pasteurella multocida DNA vaccines allaretrueexcept-_ (A1MS 97) a) Enteric coated are more immunogenic ») Presented along with class I MHC. ©) Vector fusion 4) Naked DNA good at inducing T, cells ‘Nosocomial organisms are all except - (AMS 56) 1) Pseudomonas ») Proteus ©) Klebsiella 4) Salmonelia ©) Staphylococcus Most common made of transmission of nosocomial infections - GIPMER 957 a) Nasal droplets b) Catheters ©) Conactwith hospital personel 4) Contaminated needles Stain used for pnewmocystiscarinit is (Kerala 94) ) Methylene blue )Gram stain ©) Hematoxylin andeosin d) Methenamine silver Syphilis affects most commonly~ _ (/IPMER 95) 1) Proximal aorta ) Ascending aorta ©) Decending aorta ) Abdominal aorta Best Method of estimation of incidence of dental caries in masses is - (IPMER 95) a) Oral hygiene ) Tooth deacy ) Caries nucleus 4) Halitosis Celtutitis isiafection of = (UPSC 83, ABC 86) 2) Hairfollicles b) Subacutaneous spaces ©) Nailbed 4) Any of the above ‘Neurotropism isshown by - (PGI 2000) a) C. neoformans b) Polio virus ©) Coxsackie virus d}Calbicans H178e {Tac L180)e 1181)e 1182) 1183)d_1184)b 1185)d_U186)d_TSDbe 1188)e 1189) 1190°e 1191)a¢ 1192)a 1193)d 1194) 1195)d 1196b 1197)b 1198) 119%)ab.<1200, All are seen in SIRS except- (PG199) b) Leukopenia ) Hypoxia. ©) Hyperthermia ) Tachycardia 1261. Giant cell Hech’s) pneumonia isdueto- (PGI 98) aw b) Measles ©) Malaria ) P.carinii 1202, The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceratiom in a sexually activemaleis- (4/03) 2) Herpes genitals, b) Aphthous uleer ©) Syphilis 4) Chaneroid 1203, Decreased megakaryocytes are seen in- a) Kyasanur Forest disease (harkand 03) b) Dengue hemorthagic fever ©) Malaria : ) Typhoid fever 1204. Complement membrane attack complex is very important for protection against- (Kerala 04) ) Gram positive organisms ») Gram negative organisms ©) Viruses @) Allof the above 1205, The following causes food ofpreformed toxin- a) Salmonelia typhimurium ) Campylobactor jejuni €) Staphylococeus aureus 4) Shigella dysenterie 1206. Mycotie aneurysm because of- a) Fungal infection ») Blood-bore infection (intravascular) ©) Infection introduced from outside (extravascular) 4) Both intravascular and extravascular infection 1207. Mycotie abscesses are due to (Al 06) 4) Bacterial infection ) Fungal infection «) Viral infection ) Mixed infection 1208, Leucocytosis in stools is seen in- (Manipal 06) a) Viral b)Cholera ©) Food poisoning 4) Amoebiasis \\y CMS. cenerat 1208. Loud first heart sound is heard in- a) Mitral stenosis bMR ©) MY’proplapse (fe) 2 slid ial eae (@ Murmurs which increase with valsalva maneuvre soning by elaboration (SGPGI05) an aneurysm iafected (A106) (@GI79, DELHI 92) 156 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1211, Commonest cuase of pulsus paradoxusis- (4/92) a) Pericardial effusion ) Adhesive pericarditis ©) Constrictive peircarditis ++, Chylopeeadium a) COPD. (All India 95) 5 Recent simon ental ‘¢) Mitral stenosis $ Komosctes Seat spmee — SurHbbs >) Reduced Hb 5 gm% 4) All of the above (Astin te treatment of cate pulmonary oedema ote tohvingarcemplyed een a) Morphine (PGI81,DNB 90) D pose resi daring inspaton 8 endure positon 2) inertial ee O)etaenoniienia @ ner ulnnay roi 2 Sioved clon rong he sin (Kerala 94) X-ray is seen in- (PGI 80, 81) 2) Hypothyroidism b)BeriBeri ©) Carcinoid syndrome —_d) Obesity 1217. Roth’s spotare seen in- (uPsc 87 2) Subacute bacterial endocarditis ») Rheumatic fever €) Thromobocytopenic purpura 4) Rheumatic fever 1218, Roth's spotsarescen inthe... (UPSC87, 85) a) Pharaynx b) Hear ©) Fundus 6)Palms 1219. Which one of the following is non invasive- 4) Cardiac catheterisation (AMU 88) ») Angiogram ©) Ballon angioplasty 4) Echocardiography 1220. Pedal pulses are absent in- (G18) a) Cosretation ») Leriche syndrome >) €) TAO 4) Peripheral embolism (2211 Which is incorrect about pneumatic antishock garment- (alts 92) a) Used in aortic aneurysm rupture } improves cardiae filling ©) Effective in septic shock are~ (PGI 89) a) MVP b)HCM Removal causes toxin release ©) VD AS 1222, Sudden death can occur inall the following cardiovas cular conditions except- (PGI 79,AMU88) a) Ventricular fibrillation 1200)b 1201)b 2202) 1203)b 1204)b 1205)c 1206)4 1207) 1208)a 1209)a 1210)ab I211)a_ 12126 1213)d 1214)d 1215)d 1216)a 1217)a_1218)e 1219)d 1220)bed I2b 1222)137 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT b) Massive myocardial infarction 1232, Split S, is seen in all except- (A190) ©) Atrial fibrillation a) AF ‘b)CHB d) Rupture of the aorta from dissecting aneurysm ©) LBBB 4) Ectopics ) Massive pulmonary embolism 1233, Deep Y descent in JVP occurs in- (TN 91) 1223. Pulsus bisferiens may be seen in all except- a) CHB b) Constrictive pericarditis a) Combined AS+AR (PGI 80, UPSC 83) ©) MS d)TR ©) Normal individuals. a) ASD b)MS 4d) None of the above ¢) Oldage d) Severe MR 1224. A 36 year old female recurrent chest pain and 1235. The normal cardiac index is- (AI/MS79, PGI 80) palpitation varying in duration and severity and a) 23 2)2.53.5, 6-7 ectopics per minute (Possibly supraventrigation 4s d) More than 5 a) Echocardiography (AIMS 99) 'b) Papillary muscle action 4) Technetium pyrophosphate 1237. First heart sound is modified by which of the 21225, Corputmonaie is seen in - (PGI 89) following- (PGI 86) a) Marked obesity a) Vagal stimulation b) Kyphoscoliosis ) Force of ventricular contraction €) Massive pulmonary embolism ) PR interval d) All d) Force of atrial contraction 2) Always pathological (PGI 81,Kerala 89) a) Lutembacher syndrome _b) Aortric stenosis +b) Indicative of aortic stenosis ¢) LBBB 4) Mitral stenosis ) Suggestive of poor left ventricular function ) Eisenmenger with ASD. 1227, Opening of the aortic valve is initated by- a) Complete heart block (NIMHANS 88) a) Contraction of atria (WJIPMER 80, Dethi 83) b) Tricuspid stenosis b) Contraction of ventricle ¢} Paimonary stenosis ©) When ventricular pressure is more ) Pulmonary regurgitation d) None of the above output is- (AL 89) 1228, First heart sound is because of- (PGI 80, Delhi 86) a) Dyspnoea b)Pain a) Closure of A- V valves c) Fatigue d) Edema b) Closure of semilunar valves 1241. Continuous murmur is seen in~ (AP 98) ¢) Flow of blood from auricle to ventricle a) PDA ‘b) A-V malformation 4) Flow of blood from ventricle to pulmonary. c) AP Window 4) All of the above artery 7 1242, Jn isovolumetric contraction of ventricles- 1229, Pulsus paradoxiusis associated with- a) Both aortic and AV valves closed (A/IMS 98) a) Cardiac tamponade (WJIPMER 81, AMU 89) ‘b) Both aortic and AV valves open c) Hypertension 4) AV open aoryic closed ~ 4) ASD 1243, All produce cantinuous murmurs except-(TN’ 98) — \e) VSD a) Mitral valve prolapse a) Tachycardia 'b) Artial ectopic. c) Ruptured sinus of valsalva’ 1 ¢) Istdegree A-V block d) Complete heart block 4) PDA -3%. Cannon wave are seen in- (Karn 94) 1244, Wide split of S, in seen in- (Kearal 94) / a) Sinus bradycarida a) ASD ‘b)PDA b) Complete heart block ©) VSD d) All of the above o} Pulmonary stenosis ¢) Atrial fibrillation 123e I22b 1225)d 1226e 1227}¢ 1228)a 1229)a 1230)d (231)b 1232)¢ 1233)bd 1234)d 1235)b 1236)a 1237)abe 1238)a 1239)abe 1240)e 1241)d 1242)a 1243)a 1244)a,¢MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIE 1245, Mitral sound is loud in- (Kerala 94) ) MVP ») Papillary muscle dysfunction «) Mitral regurgitation @) Tachycardia 1246, Valsalva mancouvre increase loudness of murmur in (IPMER 81, Delhi 89) 2) Aortic stenosis ») Aortic regurgitation ©) Mitral stenosis 4) Hypertrophic cardiomypathy 1247, Loud and split second sound can be associated with althefollowingexcept- (AIIMS81,UPSC&4) 2) Mitral Stenosis : ») Atrial septal defect ©) Ventricular septal defect 4) Pulmonary stenosis 1248, A double apical impulse is seen in-(PGI 78,AUMS 79) a) TRand TS ) AS and AR ©) HOCM aM 1249, Opening snap in mitral area corresponds to- a) ‘X° descent in JVP (IPMER 93) b)A’wave in JVP ¢) Dicrotic notch of carotid pulse 4) °C’ point of apex cardiogram 1250, Continuous murmur is not found in- (AI/845 89) a) PDA ») Systemic A-V fistula ©) Rupture of sinus of valsalva 4) Double outlet right ventricle 1251, Pulses bisferiens is seen in - (PG189) aAS MR OAR 4) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 1252 Causesof pansytolic murmurare- (PGI85) a SD b)TR MR @)ASD €) Aorto pulmonary shunt 1253, ted by- aN 89) ) Contraction of ventircle ©) When ventricle pressure is more than aortic, pressure 4) None of the above 1284, Anacrotie pulse in felt in- (NIMHANS 88)° a) AR b)MR ©) MS AAs 1285, All of the following are diastolic murmur except (Kerala 88) 2) Carey comms b) Graham steels ) Austin flint 6) Carvallo's murmur 1256. Paradoxical splitting of S, is seen in -~ (A/IMS 87) a) Aortic stenosis ») Severe hypertension ©) Coaretation of aorta 4) Left bundle branch block «) All of the abéve Pardees sign inECG indicates (Kerala 89) a) Hypercalcemia b) Digitoxity ©) Myocardial infarction d) Hyperkalemia Gint a waves in the JVP areseen in- (Jipmer 85) a) Tricuspid regargitation b) Tricuspid stenosis, 9) ASD avsp S,isindicative of - (ipmer 85) 8) Abnormal forceful Lt. ventricular distension b) Ischemic heart disease ) Long standing hypertension 4) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ©) All ofthe above |. Reversed spilitting of S2 is seen im all except (Al 89) a) LBBB ») Systemic hypertension ©) Aortic stenosis.) ASD Pulses alternans is seen in- (NIMHANS 88) a) Leftventricular failure b) Digitalis poisonin ©) AS with AR ) MS with MR . Pulses paradoxusisseenin- (NIMHANS 88) a) Mitral stenosis b) Artrial fibrillation ©) Aortic stenosis 4) Asthma Hypocaleemia causes cardiac arrest in- (PGI84) a) Systole ») Diastole ©) Mid systole 4) Both a and b Swan Ganzeatheter measures- (AIMS 89) a) Rightartial flow b) Pulmonary capillary resistance ©) Left ventricular pressure 4) CvP External cardiac massage is usually doae in the- Gipmer 92) a) Lower 1/3 ofsternum —_b) Xphistemum ©) Middle of sternum @) Manubrium ‘The optimal cardiac index achieved by external ‘massage is of Normal - (AIMS 79, PGI 80) a) 80% 60% ©) 40% 20% The folowing are contraindications of heart transplantation except- (PGI78, AIMS 80) a) Age less than 35 yrs.) IDDM ) Pulmonary hypertension 4) Pulmonary embolism Varying puise pressure with normal rhythum is seen in- (JIPMER 78, PGI 87, 93) a) Left ventricular failure b) Asthma ©) Respiratory failure) Cardiac tamponade Changing character of a murmur in. patient with joint pain and embolic phenomenon indicates the diagnosis of - (AUMS 78, Kerala 90) 8) Mitral stenosis DSABE. ©) Rheumatoid arthritis ¢) Aortic regurgitation ©) Pulmonary regurgitation 1245)d_ 1246)41247)a_1248)e 1249)¢ 1250)d_1251)ed _1252)abe 1253)¢ 1254)d 1255)d 1255) 1257)e 1258) 1259)e 1260)4 1261)a 1262)d 1263)b 1264)b 1265)a 1266)c 1267)a 1268)a 1269)b159 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1270, External cardiac massage is given at least at the ) Abdominal rate of- (AIIMS 81, Delhi 93) 8) Arch of Aorta a) 100 per minute +b) 50 per minute 1282. A young lady complains of sudden onset of ¢) 80 per minute 4)40 per minute palpitations, extreme weakness and sweating. On 1272, Venous pressure increases in - (AUMSS1, PGI82) ‘examination, she was found to have B.P. 90/70 with a a) Acute pulmonary embolus regular pulse rate of 180/minute. Her symptoms ) Opiate intoxication disappeared after vomitting bot she complained of ©) Obstructive airways disease polyuria, The most likely diagnosis «) Medullary lesions a) Primary thyrotoxicosis, (UPSC 96) 1272, Jp cas of let ventricular hypertrophy, sum of S ) Acute anxiety state inV,and Rin V, should be more thatn- (PGI81 ©) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia, a) 10mm 20mm 4mMS85) 4) Paroxysmal atrial fluter ©) 25mm, 435mm 1283. Inaotic aneurysm, seen in marfans syndrome there ©) 50mm (PGI 96) 1273, Aortic aneurysm is seen inal} except - (Kerala 94) 2) Aortic thickening with decrease collagen a) Marfans syndrome +b) Takayasu’s disease ») Aortic thining with decrease collagen ©) Syphylitic aorttis 4) Atherosclerosis, €) Decrease elastic fibres 1274, Prominent ‘a’ wave of SVP is not seen in - (UP 96) 4) Decrease élastic & collagen fibres ) Junctional Rhythm . _b) Complete heart block 1284, The cardiac abnormality seen in Osler-Rendu ©) Tricuspid stenosis __d) Pulmonary stenosis Weber syndrome - (PGI 96) 41275. Normal PQ interval is~ (Kerala 96) 2) PS a) 0.12 sec by0.2s0c, ») VSD ©) 0.16 sec. HO02 sec. ©) Dilated cardiomyopathy 2) 0.016 sec. 4) High output failure 1276. Central venous pressure monitoring is helpful in - 1285, 40 years old male patient present with crushing 4) Regulating the speed and amount (UPSC' 97) type of chest pain with BP-100/80, pulse 10mt. of fluid infusion all peripieral piilses normal, cold periphries, no >) Regulating the dase of noradrenaline galiop, rates + likely diagnosisis- (PGI 96) ing the need for plasma infusion a) Aortic dissection ') Pulmonary embolism 4) Deciding the requirement for blood transfusion MI 4) Acute pericarditis 1277, Swan-Ganz catheter is used to measure- (UP.97) 1286, In carcinoid syndrome, the part of heart mostly a) Right artial flow ) Pulmonary capillary pressure ©) Central venous pressure 4) Right ventricular pressure ‘Commonest radiation effect on heart - a) Endocarditis b) Myocarditis €) Pericarditis & Pericardial effusion 4) Hypoplasia of heart Electrical atteransin ECG is 2) Severe bronchial asthma ») Peri cardial effusion ©) Severe LVF 4)-AR. A Carey Coomb’s murmur heard in a child with rutiple joint pains is suggestive of- (UPSC 95) 4) Infective endocarditis, 6) Rheumatoid arthritis ) Rheumatic fever 4) Libman-Sack’s endocarditis In Marfan’s aortic aneurysm oceursin= a) Ascending aorta b) Descending thoracic aorta 1278. (alg?) 12379. haracteristic of- (Kerala 95) 3280, 1281, (alg) 1287. 1288, 1289, 1290, affected is~ (PG197) 2) Inflow tractofRV. ——_b) Inflow tractof LV. ¢) Outflow tractofR.V. 4) Outflow tract of L.V. Calcium Gluconate is not used in CPR by - 2) Hypocalemia (AIMS 97) b) Rypokalemia ©) Hyperkalemia 4) Calcium antagonism All are seen in association with reverse splitting ofS, except (MP 98) a) LBBB ») Complete heart block €) Systolic Hypertension 4) Aortic stenosis ‘Water hammer pulses seen im afl except - a) AR 'b) Anaemia (CMC 98) ©) Pregnancy @MR MSS Pulsus paradoxusis not seenin- (AIMS 98) 2) Cardiac tamponade b) Cord ©) Chronic constrictive pericarditis ) PY. 1270)a_ 1271)ac 1272)d_1273)None 1274)None 1275)¢ 1276)a 1277)b 1278) 1283)c1284)d 1285)c 1286)a 1287)b 1288)b 1289)e 1290) 127)b 12806 128))a I28e1.60 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1291. S3is heard in all except - (AUMS 98) 1302, Ventricular filling- (AIIMS.78, ROHTAK 66) a) MS B a) Produces 3 heart sound in some healthy persons b) LVF 8) Depends mainly on contraction of atria ©) Healthy young athlete ) Begins during isometric ventricular relaxation 4) Constritive pericarditis 4) Will not occur unless atrial pressure in higher 1292, Puisus bisiferians is best felt at- (AIMS 98) than atmospheric, pressure 2) Carotids ») Radial 1303. What is not seen following obstruction in major ¢) Brochial 4) Femoral coronary artery (AIIMS 86) 1293. Which one i not a feature of Leriches syndrome 4) S.T. depression commonly in lead 2) Absent femoral pulse (AP 96) +b) Commonly rise in body temperature ) Gluteal claudication ¢) Reflex vagal inhibition ofheart may further damage ) Continuous bruit over abdominal aorta the myocardium 4) Impotence @ Commonly ventricular fibrillation 1294. Dicrotic pulse is seen in - (ipmer 2K) 1304, Left ventricular failure tends to cause -(A/MS 84) 2) Cardiac tamponade 4) No breathlessness in lying position ») Aortic regurgitation ») Decrease in ventricular end diastole pressure ©) Dilated cardiomyopathy €) Presystolic muraur over heart 4) Retrictive cardiomyopathy 4) Rise in lung compliance 1295, Which ofthe following ECG changes is least fikely 1305, What isnot true for jugular venous pulse- ina patient with left pneumothorax- (AIMS 2K) 2) Pressure typically (ALUMS 81, Kerala 89) 4) Inversion of T wave raised in right ventricular failure ) Leftaxis deviation ») Pressure typically raised in partial obstruction of ©) Small Rwave : 6) Blectrical alternans ©) Commonly not visible with normal heart 1296, Which isnot a major eriteria for CCF- (Orissa R) 4) Pulsations exaggerated in tricuspid incompetence @) PND b) Rales 1306, Changes in mean electrical axis of the ventricles, ©) $3 gallop 4) Cardiomegaly ‘may be caused by- (Bihar 91) 1297, Framingham criteria for diagnosis of congestive 2) Muscular necrosis heart failure classifies the following as major ») Bundle branch block criteria except: (Kerala 2K) «) Change in body position a) Extremity oedema 4) Hypertrophy of one ventricle ») Acute pulmonary oedema ¢) Allof the above ©) Positive hepatojugular reflux 1307, What is not true of ‘a’ wave of venous pulsations &) Paroxysmal noctumal dyspnoes neck - (JIPMER 81, DNB 89) ©) S3 gallop ) Exaggerated in tricuspid stenosis 1298, Ventricular hypertrophy means - (TN 2001) ») abolished in arial fibrillation 2) systolic dysfunction ¢) Occurs just after in carotid artery ») Diastolic dysfunetion 4) Exaygerated in complete heart block when P 6) Asystole ‘wave falls between QRS and T waves a None 1308. Pulmonary wedge pressure corresponds to~ 1299, Ejection fraction denotes performance of - Ei erlaceabanaaabs ee a} Leftyentcle b)Letatium -(CUPGEE 02) Dl ©) Aortie valved) Pulmonary valve ree 1300. In a transplanted heart, heart rate rises in Eee 7 : 2 1309, Hallmark of atherosclerosis histology is- (7191) response to excercise because- (PGI 2002) 2) Deposition of fain intima 4) Heart receives reinnervation from host's nervous i) Vaseal system ¢) Intimat fibrosis ) Reflex stimulation through Bainbridge reflex 4) Median necrosis 6) Starling’s aw 1310. The earliest manifesation in the fatty streak of 4) Production of adrenaline from adrenal medulla Atherosclerosis is - (KERALA 97) ) Due to intrinsic regulation of heart 4) Collection of lipid in endothelial cells 1301, In Marfan’s aortic aneurysm oceurs in - (AMC 2K) ») Collection ofipid in smooth muscule a) Ascending aorta ') Arch of aorta ©) Endothelial cell damage ©) Descending aorta 4) Abdominal aorta 4) Noneof the above 1291)a 1292) 1293)e 1294)¢ 1295)bd _1296)None 1297)a 1298)b 1299)a 1300)d 1301)a 1302)a 1303)d 1304)¢ 1305)e 1306)a 1307)e 1308)e 1309) 131Qa161 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1311, Lipoprotein-X is elevated in- (AP 96) 1322, Double apical impulse is seen in ~ (PG198) a) Hyperchotesteoleria 2) MR DAR ») Primary Biliary cirrhosis OAS * aMs «) Indian childhood cirrhosis 1323, At the end of ventricular diastote- (G1 98) 4) Alcoholic Cirrhosis 2) Atrial volume is more 1312, In the abdomen, aneurysms of the ... commonly ) Coronary flow is maximum ‘occurnextonly tothe aorta- (PGI80, AIIMS86) 6) Flow in aorta drops 4) Extemal iliac artery 4) All ofthe above ) Interna iliac artery 1324, During valsalva maneuver, impaired heart rate 6) Splenic artery changes seen in - (PG198) ) tnferior mesentric artery 4) Horner's syndrome 1313. If a patients known to have an abdomial aortic ) Autonomic insufficiency aneurysm compfains of severe back pain it usually 6) Vestibular dysfunction means- (GJIPMER 81, AIMS 86) 4) Cephalic ischemia a) Associated pancreatitis . 1325, True about pulsus paradoxusis- (PG198) ') Pressure on spinal cord a) Armetongue circulation time is increased 6) Impending rupture b) 7 Stroke volume: 4) Englargement of sac ©) Seen in constrictive pericarditis 1314, Most common site af aortic dissection -(Jipmer 98) a TAR a) Ascending aorta 2) Arch. of aorta 1326. Stimatation of proximatcutend of vagus causes- ©) Descending aorta 4) Abdominal aorta a) Apnea SHR, (PGI98) 1315, Aortic dissection is seen in- (SIPMER98) °) 8° i Be a) Down's syndrome 1327, Not seen in pre capillary pulm. hypertension - ») Rinefetters syndrome a) T pressure in pulm circulation (PG198) ©) Tumers syndrome by T capillary pressure <) Marfan’s syndrome 6) Rt-vent. hypertrophy 1916, In carcinold syndrome, the pars of heart miostly 6) T Pulm. wedge pressure affected is- (P6197) 1328, Pulsus alternans oceurs in - (PG198) a) Qutflow tractof RV bY Inflow tract of RV 4) Constrictive pericarditis b) Vieal myocarditis 6) Inflow tract of LV 4) Outflow tract LV ©) Hiypokalemia aMt 1317. Carey comb murmur is seen in - (PG197) 1329, Transoesophageal Echocardiography is usefut in a) Severe mitral stenosis 4) Sinus venosus type of ASD (PGI98) ») Acute rheumatic carditis ») Dissection of arch of aorta «) Pure aortic regurgitation ©) Thrombosis 4) Severe pulmonary HT 4) Prosthetic valve endocarditis 1918, Most common cause of LVH is - (P6197) 1330. Syphilis causes al} except - (Poi 99 a) MS, b)AR a) Linear calcification of aorta ©) Hypertension) Mitral vaive prolapse b) Aortic aneurysm 1319, InCCF there's- (P6198) ©) AR ) Oliguria 4) Coronary ostial stenosis ») Polyuria 1331. PeripheraledemainCCFisdueto- (PG/2000) ©) Olijuria during day and potyuria during night 8) Increased sympathetic tone @) Anuria ») ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) 1320, During ventricular pressure pulses square root wave ©) Incteased hydrostatic pressure is seen in (PGI 98) @) Pulmonary hypertension a) ASD 1332. Difference between upper and lower limb blood b) MVPS Bressure is usuatty - (G01) ©) Dilated cardiomyopa 2) Sm b)10mm 4) Constrictive pericarditis, ©) 20mm )30mm 1321, True about third heart sound is- (PG198) ¢) 35mm a) Absent in Chr. constrictive pericariditis 1333, Manifestations of aortic dissection are- (PG! 0/) ») Absent in aortic aneurysm a) Pericardialeffusion —b) AR. ~ 0) Absent in MS. ©) MR @) AMI @) Normal physiologically in Athletes 2) Limb ischemia BBU)b 13D 1913)d GMa 13154 131Gb 1317b 1318)e. 19a 1320)d 132d 13220 122e 1324)b 1325)e 1326)a 1327)d_ 1328)d 1329) AN 1330)None 1331)ac 1332)b 1333)abdhe a1.62 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1334, Wide-split second heart sound - (PG102) 1348, Calcium Gluconate is not used in CPR a ASD b)LBBB by- (VIMHANS 05) ©) PDA MR 8) Hypocalemia b) Hypokalemia ©) PS ©) Hyperkalemia 4) Calcium antagonism 1335. Haemorrhagic infaretionisseen in- _(PGI02) 1346, A 26 year old man complains of abdominal ) Venous thrombosis _b) Thrombosis, distension, swelling ofthe iegs and easy fatigabilty. ©) Septicemia ) Embolism His blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg and pulse ¢) Central venous thrombosis becomes difficult to feel on inspiration. JVP is 1336, Insuperior vena cava obstruction followingare true- grossly elevated and rises further on deep a) Dyspnea (PG102) inspiration. He has pedal edema, ascites and ») Palpitation tender hepatomegaly. Precordium is quiter with ©) Oedema of the head and neck loud and some what early apical third heart 4) Enlarged dilated veins on anterior chest wall sound. The probable diagnosis (UPSC 04, ©) -ed VP : a) Cor Pulmonale 1337. Aorticdissection is associated with” (PGI02) b) Tricuspid stenosis a) Systemic hypertension €) Constictive pericarditis ») Coarctation of Aorta 4) Pulmonary stenosis 6) In Ist trimester of pregnancy 1347, Which of the following conditions commonly d) Takyasu's arteritis progress to cor pulmonale - (PG104) ) Marfan syndrome ) Pulmonary thromboembolism 1338, Pulmonary hypertension iscaused by (PGI03) ) Bronchial asthma 4) Interstitial lang disease ©) Copp 'b) Myocardial infarction 4) Cystic fibrosis ©) Systemic hypertension ©) Airway foreign body «) Thromboembolism 1348, Single second heart sound seen in- (PGI 04) 1339, Cardiac contractilityisinhibited by (PGI03) a) TOF ) Digitalis use ') Respiratory acidosis ) Pulmonary arterial hypertension ©) Metabolicalkalosis 4) 4PO, ©) Pulmonary atresia €) Hypothermia @) Corrected TGA 1340, Swan Ganz. catheter is used for - (PG103) «€) Severe pulmonary stenosis a) Lt. cardiac output 1349. Loud S, is eaused by - (PG1 04) ») Pulmonary capillary pressure a) Caleified mitral valve ©) Pulmonary artery occlussion pressure by Mv 4) O, saturation in mixed venous blood ©) Short PR interval 1341, Reverse spliting of 1 heart sound heard in- DyTachycardia @) RBBB D)LBBB (PGIO4) Dilatation or widening of mitral valveafter ©) Tricuspid stenosis. d) AR valvotomy ©) Atrial myxoma 1380. A $0 year old man, an alcoholic and a smoker 1342. Load pulmonary component of second heart presents with a 3 hour history of severe sound beard in - (PGI04) retrosternal chesi pain and increasing shortness ) Pulmonary hypertension of breath. He started having this pain while ») TOF ‘eating, which was constant and radiated to the back ©) Bissenmenger’s syndrome and interseapular region. He was a known 4) pulmonary’ stenosis, hypertensive. On exomination, he was cold and ©) AS clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP 1343. Drug used in heart failure- (PG104) (0 80/40 mmHg. JVP was normal. All peripheral ) ACE inhibitors b) Hydratazine pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds ©) Ca2+channel blockers d)Carvedilol ‘were decreased at the left lung base and chest x- ©) Chlorthatidone ray showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the 1344, Standing inereases murmur intensity in- following is the most likely diagnosis- (4705) 4) Aortic stenosis = Gipmer 03) a) Acute aortic dissection ») Aortic regurgitaion +) Acute myocardial infarction ©) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ©) Rupture of the esophagus @) Mitral stenosis 4) Acute pulmonary embolism 1334)a 1335)abd 1336)acde 1337)abde 1338 abd 159)bde 1340)abed 1341)be 1342)ac 1343)abd T344)¢ 1345)b 1346)e 1347)e 1348)ace 1349)ed 1350)1.63 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IDT 1351. Allofthe following may cause ST segment elevation, Of EKG, except- (A105) a) Early repolarization variant 6) Constrictive pericarditis ¢) Ventricular aneurysm @) Prinzmetal angima 1352. Current of injury is- (PGI June 05) a) Pwase b)ST segment €) QRS complex & QTinterval 1353, Wide split2~' Heart sound seen in- (PG/June 05) a) MR +)ASD ©) Right ventricular esctopics AAR PS 1384, Ejection click is heard in - (PGT June 05) a) Idiopathic pulmonary Artery dilation b) Mild PS. 9) TOF AS «) Systemic hypertention 1388, Ejection fraction denotes performance of a) Leftventricle —b)Leftatrium’ —(Jipmer 05) ¢) Aortic valved) Pulmonary'valve 1356, Anacrotie pulse in felt in- (MAHE 05) a) AR b)MR ©) MS a) AS 1357. A continuous murmur is heard in allof the following. ‘conditions except - (AIIMS May 2005) 4) Ventricular septal defect with aortic regurgitation by Patent ductus arteriosus ©) Coronary arteriovenous fistula 6) Venous hum 1358, Carcinoid syndrome produces valvular disease primarity involving - (AIMS May 2005) 4) Pulmonary valves b) Tricuspid valves ©) Mitral valve 4) Aortic valve 1359, Suiden cardiae death may occut in alfofthe following except- (A106) 4) Dilated cardiomyopathy ') Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ©) Eisenmenger’s syndrome ) Ventricular septal defect ‘A 45.year-old woman underwent a modified radical ‘mastectomy 4 years ago. She was treated for multiple bone metastasis with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluorouracil for 6 months. Sheis complaining of exertion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, S1, S2 audible, S3, $5 gallop present. Her BP is 149/137 mang, PR is 80/min, and RR is 18/min, What is the most likely cause for-her cardiac 1360. ©) Metastatic car 4) Pneumonia disease 1361. Coatinwous murmur presentin- (PGI June 06) a) PDA b) AS with AR ©) Shunt between pulmonary & subclavian artery é) HOCM 1362. Most common cause of orthostatic hypotension - 4) Peripheral neuropathy (NIMHANS 06) ') Carcinoid Syndrome ©) Pheochromocytoma 4) Hypothyroidism 1363. Most common organism for causing infective endocarditis in native valve- (COMED 06) a) Streptococcus Viridans — b) Enterococci ©) Staphylo cocci 4) Gram negative bacilli 1364. ‘a? wave in JVP isseen in- (Manipal 06) 1) Will be large when atria contracts against resistance » Filling of ventricles 6) It is followed by “V" waves 4) 4 in inspiration SHOCK 1365. The presence of one of the following clinical fea ture indicates very poor progaosis in a case of endotoxin shock. (PGI 78, AUMS 82) 4) Generalised Weakness _b) Low volume pulse ©) Tachycardia 9) Oliguria ©) Restlessness 1366. Endotoxie shock is due to - (KERALA 94) ) Gram positive bacteria ) Gram negative enterobacteriae ©) Viruses 4) Gas gangrene 1367. Treatment of choice in cardiogenic shock with pump failure is— (KARN 94) a) Dopamine ») Intra cardiac adrenaline 6) Digoxin 4) Intra aortic balloon pumping 1368. Hypovolemic shock is seen in all except-(KARN 96) a) Hemorrhage ») Starvation ©) Vomiting &) Diarrhoea 1369, The regional arteria) resistance of the atesentery and kidney vessels is reduced by - a) Dopamine 'b) Dobutamine 6) Nor adrenaline €) Isoprenaline 40 % Loss of blood volume ina patient is managed ty- (WP 98) 2) Vasopressor agents b) Cardiac stimulants (UP 97) 1370. condition? (AIMS 06) 6) Saline infusion a) Systolic dysfunction CHF 4) Intracardiac adrenaline +) Drug induced cardiac tox 135I)b 1352)b 1353)be 1354)abe 1355)a 1356)d 1357)a 1358) 1359)d 1360) 1361)ac 1362)a 1363)¢ 1364)a_1365)b 1366)b 1367) 1368) 1369)a 1370)¢Los 1371. In shockall happens except - (IPMER 95) 1382, 8) Constriction of capacitance vessels ») Dilation of arterioles ©) Decrease in cardiac output dd) Heart rate decreases 1372, Cause of renal damage in septicemia is-(AIIMS 96) a) Acute tubular necrosis ») Acute cortical necrosis 1383. €) Acute glomerulonephritis 4) Interstitial nephritis 1373, Which isnot an early manifestation of septicemia: a) Hyperventilaton (PGI81) 1384, ) Respiratiory alkalosis ©) Confused mentation : ) Hypotension 1374, Dopamine in doses of 5-10 micro gmv/kg/min acts on- (JIPMER 79) a) Beta- I receptors ) Alpha- 1 receptors 1388, ©) Beta-2 receptors 4) Alpha- 2 receptors 1375, Sepsis syndrome is characterised by all except @) Normal Pulse b) RR>20 ¢) Hypotension @) Evidence of clinical infection 1376. The following are used in septic shock except- 1386. a) Adrenaline 'b) Nalaxone ©) Steriods 4) Dopamine 1377. Hypovolaemic shock manifests when the percentage of blood loss exceeds - (WIPMER 86, AI 89) a) 10% by 15% ©) 25% 30% ©) 40% 1387. 1378. An old lady, following resection of the intestine developed septicemia. She developed hypotension ith low urine output. She was already on antibiotics without any response. How will you manage the case- ) Dopamine (AIMS 99) ») iv. fluids ©) Antibiotics 1388. 4) ix. fluids and dopamine 1379, Mast important step in cardiac resuscitation is~ 2) Bicarbonate administration (AIMS 87) ») Cardiac massage ©) Ventilation 4) Intracardiac adenaline 1380. The primary factor in resuscitation of a patient of cardiac arrest is- (JIPMER 81, AIMS 85) 1389. Cardiac compression —_b) LV. fluids ©) Adequate airway «) Digitalis ©) None of the abvove 1381. Which of the following is used in resuscitation - ) Epinephrine b) Oxygen (PGIO1) ©) Lignocaine ), Magnesium ©) Nor-epihephrine MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT ‘Appatient in ICU has normal pulmonary A pressure; low systemic peripheral resistance; low cardiac Index; arterial Po2 = 93; diagnostic possibilities are- (PGI01) a) Cardiogenic shock _b) Septie shock ©) Hypovolemic shock _d) Cardiac tamponade ©) AIN Early sepsis is characterized by a/e-_(PG/01) a) Confusion & restlessness b)Bradycardia ©) Hypotension 4) Sweating ©) Cold extremities In cardiac shock - (Pato2) a) SBP<90mmofHg b) DBP<80mm of Hig «) Urine output <20 misir 4) Cardiae index <3.5 ©) Strock volume 70 ml A patient presented with shock and suspecting it due to hypoglycemia. The treatment should be used on- (PG103) a) IV glucose after clinical assessment ) Urine sugar ©) Blood sugar A) IV access A 40 year old presenting with dizziness on standing with systolic reduction of BP of SOmm Hg; appropriate treatment (PGI04) a) Graded compression stockings by Salbutamol ¢) Fludrocortisone 4) B-blockers During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT - 4) After | minute of arrest routinely (4103) ) Hypocalcemia 6) Calcium channel blockers toxicity 4) Electromechanical dissociation Acute physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) scoring system is used as a scoring systemto- (Karnataka 03) 4) To predict postoperative cardiac risk ’b) To predict postoperative pulmonary complications ©) To evaluate prognosis in the critical care settings 6) To evaluate prognosis after acute myocardial infarction ‘True statements about shock- (PGI 04) 2) During dehydration both ICF and ECF volume decreases »b) 10-20% of fluid loss is compatible to life. ©) Early change in shock is increased release of nor adrenaline 4) Risk of death is high when fluid loss is 20-40% ©) Hemorrhage cause intravascular fluid loss 1371)d 1372)a -1373)bed 1374) 1382) 1383)bde 1384)a 1385)¢ —1386)ac “1387)a_1388)e 1375)a_ 1376) 1377)e 1378)d_—_1379)be 1380)ac 1381)abod 1389) abce1.65, MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIE 1390. True statements about sepsis and septic shock - 1400, Sinus bradyerdia is seen in- (PGI 89) commonest cause of death surgical patients, 4) Physiologically b) Hypothyroid state b) Main treatment is -infection site (PGT 04) ©) Atheletes ) Anxiety «) Leads to organ dysfunction 1401. Longand peaked a waves are een in all except- 4) Antibiotic had no role ) Tricuspid atresia (MP 2K) 6) Bes fluid isNS or RL ) Ebsteins anomaly 1391, According to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), a ©) Hyperkelaraia verbal score of f indicates - (A105) 4) Right atrial enlargement ) No response 1402. ‘Seen without apparent structural defect-(PG1 98) ») Inappropriate words a) Premature arial beat 6) Incomprehensible sounds ) PSvT 4) Disoriented response ) Atria Gutter 1392, A4Zyrs man presenting with dizziness on standing 4) Atrial fibrillation and SBP falls by 50mm ofHg- (PGI Juie,0S) 1403, Right axis deviation i seen in all except-(A/IMS 98) ) Gradual stocking and compression 2) Tricuspid atresia b) ASD ') SIL Isoprenaline ©) sD 4) Pulmonary atresia ©) Fludrocortisone £404, The treatment of cardiac asytoleisall except— 4) Oral indomethacin 4) Extracardiacmassage (BHU 86,A1IMS 87) «) Salmeterol ») intracardiac adrenaline 1393, 42 yearsman presented with Hypotension and HR ©) IV Sodabicarbonate ‘52/min causes are - (PGI June 05) 49) IV xylocaine @) CHF 2) Inferior wall MI 1408, Which of the following is nat associated with ©) Pheochromocytoma _d) Theophylline toxicity tachycardia- (NIMHANS 88) ©) Sick sinus syndrome 8) Thyrotoxicosis b) Hemorthagic shock 1394, In basic life support (BLS), supportis given to which of the flloiwng organ - GI une 05) 2) Lung 6)Heart ©) Kidney 4) Skeletal muscle €) Brain CNS) ARRHYTHMIAS 1395, Electrical alternans is pathognomonic of - 1396. 1397. 1398. 1399. a) Pericardial tamponade ») Pericardial effusion (AlIMS80, PGI 82) oLF 0 Allof the above Which of the following does not cause tachycardia- (NIMHANS 86) 4) Thyrotoxisis b) Shock ©) Obstructive jaundice 4) Digitalis poisoning Bradyeardia is seen in- (NIMHANS 88) 8) Myxedema ») Obstructive jaundice ¢) Head injuries Hypercalcemia in EKG is diagnosed by- a) Increased QT interval ) Decreased QT interval ©) Greatly increased PR interval @) TAIL“ waves The normal axis of ECG in adult male is (IPMER 80, AIIMS 81) 4) All of the above (AI 90) 1406. 1407. 1408. 1409, 1410. ©) Obstructive jaundice 4) Digitalis poisoning ‘Treatment of cardiac arrestin systole— a) Cardiac massage (BHU 86, ATIMS 87) ») Inteacardiac adrenaline ©) IV soda bicorbonate ) IVKCL ©) All of the above Qt. prolonged is associated with- (NIMHANS 01) ) Hypercalcemia b) Type 1a anti arrythmic drugs ©) Torsade de pointes 4) Atrial fibrillation A-48 year old presents with history of precot chest pain, He has BP of 80/60 mm of Hg. EKG shows wide QRS, complex with no preceding P waves and a rate of 112/min. The most iéumediate step in the management of this patient would be~ a) Intravenous lignocaine (UPSC 2002) ) DCelectrical cardioversion ©) Overdrive atrial pacing 4) Primary percutaneous transluminal angioplasty, Desynchronised defibrillation is used in (CMC 01) 1) Atrial fibrillation) Attial flutter sr 4) Ventricular fibrillation S.A. nodes pacemaker in heart because - 8) itis only excitable Cipmer 95) ») Its resting excitability is highest of all 8) 30° to +30° b)-30° to+110° ©) It is only sensitive to vagus, 6) 0" 10+180° )-90° 10 490° 4) Its the biggest pacemaker 1390)ace __1391)a_1392)ae 1393)be 1394)ab 1395)ab 1396)¢ 1397)d 1398)b 1399)b 1400)b,¢ 1401)e 1402)a 1403) 1404)d 1405)¢ 1406)axbe- 1407)be 1408) 1409)d 1410)b1.66 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1411, Desynchronised defibrillation is used in- 2) Atrial fibrillation (CMC 2601) b) Atrial fuer ©) SvT 4) Ventricular fibrillation 1412, Atrial fibrillation is seen in allexcept— a) Constritive pericarditis (BHU 80, AIMS 87) ») Atrial septal defect ¢) Mitral stenosis 4) Myocardial infarction ©) VSD 1413, The most important factor in the causation of cardiac arrest is - (AIMS 87) a) Anoxia b) Infarction ©) Conduction defects) Hyperkalemia 1414.What is the drug of choice for ventricular cctopies— (NIMHANS 88) 2) digoxin ®) Disopyramide c) Verapamil d) Xylocaine 1415. P. wavein the ECG disappears in-(NIMHANS8) a) Arial tachycardia b) Artal fluter ©) Atrial brillation d) Mitral valve prolapse 1416, Carotid message is use ful in— (NIMHANS 88) a) Ventricular extrasystoles b) Atrial fluter ©) Paroxysmal atrial tachycard 4) Ventricular Fibrillation 1417. Treatment of choice in ventricular fibrillati a) Electrical cardioversion (NIMHANS 88) +) Carotid massage ©) IV lignocaine 4) Wnifedip 1418, In pre excitation syndrome the EKG shows-(PG188) 2) Quaves by Delta wave ) Short PR interval 4) Tall T waves 1419. Ventricular ectopics are treated in the following conditions - (PGI 84) 8) Morethan 5 per minute b) Occurring in pairs ©) More than 2 per minute d) R on Phenomenon 1420, The best treatment for wolf-parkinson-white syndromeis— (PGI84) a) Carotid massage b) IV verapamil ©) Cardioversion 4) Surgical excision of the tract 1423, The treatment of choice in symptomatic sinus node dysfunction is- (IPMER 80,PG181) 2) Dilitazen——_b) Verapamil ¢) Propranolol d) Permanent pacemaker 1424, Causes of atrial fibrillation inelude~ (JIPMER 79, a) Thyrotoxicosis UPSC 86) ») Constrictive pericarditis ©) Cardiomyopathy ¢) All of the above 1425, Lev’s disease is— (JIPMER 80,AIIMS 87) 2) Sclerodegeneration of the conducting system b)Fibrocalcareous encroachment in to the conducting system ©) Seen as a result of surgical trauma to the conducting system 4) Congenital disorder of the conducting system 1426, In an atrial flutter with 2:1 block, , it the atrial rate is 400/minute, then the ventricular rate shall be- (PGI 80, AMC 83) a) 400%mt )800/me ©) 82m 4) 150-200/me 1427, The treatment of choice for complete heart block is- (AIMS 86, PGI 87) @) Digitalis b) Pace maker ©) Quinidine 4) Bylocaine 1428. Paroxysmal supra ventricular tachycart responds to— (KERALA 94) 2) IV verapamil b) Valssiva manocuvre ©) Carotid sinus massage 4) All ofthe above 1429. The current drug of choice in paroxysmal Sypraventricular Taehyeardia (PAVT) is- a) Digoxin ) Dilantoin(KERN 95) ©) Propranolol 4) Adenosine 1430. All of are ECG manifestations in Wolf parkinson white syndrome except- (AIMS 97) ) Narrow QRS by) Initial slurred upstrok ©) Low PR interval 4) Normal QT interval 1431. Wenekebachk phenomenon is defined as— a) Progressive lengthening of PR (Delhi 96) interval tll a beat is dropped ») Slurred QRS complex ¢) Irregular heart rate & permature ventricular beats 4) Shortened ST intervals 1421, Indications for permanent cardiac pacemaker is- 1432. Torsades de points in ECG is — (AIMS 97) ) Congential heart block (PGI 84) a) Wide QRS by Short QRS. b) WPW syndrome ©) Wide QT d) Short QT ©) One attack of stoke adams 1433, P-wayeis absent in - (ROHATAK 97) 4) Complete block following cardiac surgery a) WPW syndrome 1422, The most effective treatment of atrial flutter b) Atrial Fibrillation is- : (JIPMER 78,PGI 79) ©) Ventricular Tachycardia a) IV lignocaine b) Low dose phenytoin 4) Ventricular Fibrillation ©) Quinidine 4) DC shock ©) Atrial Tachycardia 1411)d 1412)¢ 1413)b 1414) d 1415)e 1410}e 141) 1I8)be 1419)abd 142d 142Iacd 142d 1423)d_1424)d 1425) 1426)d 1427) 1428) 1429)d 430)a_ 431)a_ 1432)01433)b167 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-ILT 1434, Verapamil belong to which class of antiarrythmic - _ a) Class b) Class (AP 98) ©) Class Ill d) Class 1V 1435. Which one of the following electrocardiographic ‘changes is found in hyperealeaemia~ (UPSC 2K) ) Proponged Q-Tinterval ') Short Q-T interval ©) Increased QRS interval 4) Short P-R interval 1436. Which one of the follwing is the ECG hallmark of hypothermia- (UPSC 2002) a) Prominent U wave by Inverted T wave ©) Bizarre QRS wave 4) Osborne J wave 1437. Supra ventricular tachycardia is recognised to arise from allexcept-__(AIIMS 80, NIMHANS 86) a) Sinus-node b) Atria ¢) Atrio-ventricular node @) Atrio-ventricular junetion 1438, The treatment for symptomatic sick sinus syndromes (AIMS 78, 80, 81) a) Atropine only b) Only bed rest €) Pace maker implanation 4) Propranolol only 1439, Treatment of ventricular fibrillation is-(A/IMS84) a) Immediate electrical cardio version b) IV sodabicarb. ©) Intravenous digoxin 4) IV Propranolol 1440. ECG in young healthy person with 80 beats/min will not show - (PGI98) a) RP interval between 120-200 msec ') QRS interval less than 100 msec 6) Interval between 2 QRS is 750 msec @) T. wave repressents repolarization 141, Hyperealeemia in ECG is diagnosed by-(PG/99) a) Increased QT interval b) Decreased QT interval 6) Increased PR interval @) Tall T waves 1442. Torsade de pointes is caused by - (PG199) 2) Hypermagnesemia __b) Metabolic acidosis ©) Hypomagnesemia__—_d) Metabolic alkalosis. 1443, Athleticsyndrome ischaracterized by-.(PGI99) a) Increased amplitude of QRS b) Tachycardia ©) Decreased QT interval &) Uswaves 1444, ST depression & T wave inversion in VI to V6anda ‘VLleads indicate- (PGI 2000) 8) Anterolateral wall AMI b) Posterior wall AMI ©) Inferior AMI 4) Lateral wall AMI 1445. Which of the following is seen in second degree AV block - @ar0l) 2) Change in morphology of ventricular complex ) increased atrial rate compared to ventricular rate ©) Increase in cardiac output 4) Decrease in stroke volume ) Increased AV conduction time 1446, Drug used in AV Block - (PG103) a) Isoprenaline b) Dopamine ©) Atropine 4) Disopyramide @) Propranolol 1447, EKG finding of ventricular premature beats-(PG104) ) Fusion beat ‘b)Narrow QRS complex ©) AV Dissociation 4) Wide QRS complex ©) Capture beat 1448, A patient with heart f lure developed ventricular arrhythmia, Treatment is/are- (PG104) a) Encainide b) Flecainide ©) IntracardiacDefibrilation _d) Beta-blockers ) Amrinone 1449, Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to - 8) Complete heart block (ALIS 03) b) Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia ©) Acute myocardial infarction 4) Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia 1450, Ventricular aneurysm has one of the following characteristic features - (Kanataka 03) 2) Persistent ST segment elevation ») Persistent ST segment depression ©) Lott bundle branch block «) Right bundle branch block 1451. Acute symptomatic sinus bradycardia usually responds to~ (UPSC 05) a) Adrenaline 'b) Dopamine ©) Atropine d) Norepinephrine 1452. Which one of the following statements is true to Stockes-Adam attack (UPSC 05) 2) It is usually preceded by an aura ) Focal neurological signs are commonly observed during the attack It is usually caused by high degree of atrioventricular block Qit is caused by recurrent paroxysmal tachyarthythmias 1453, Ventricular ectopic beatsrepresented by- a) Irregular RR interval (PGI June 05) ) Incomplete compensatory pause ©) A.V. dissociation @) Presence of fusion beat e) Wide QRS. 1454, The most common cause of sudden arrhythmic cardiac death is- Wak 0s) ) Myocardial infarction b) Aortic stenosis 1434)d 1435) 1436)d_1437)d_1438)e 1439)a 1440)e 1441)b 1442)¢ 1443)a 1444)a 1445)abe 1446)a¢ 14A7)d 1448)oe 1449)b 1450)a 1451)¢ 1452)c 1453)qe 1454)1.68 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT ¢)‘Dilated cardiomyopathy ) Mitral valve prolapse 4) Electrolyte abnormalities ©) Patent Ductus Arteriosus 1435. All the following features favour ventricular 6) Ventricular Septal Defect tachycardia as the cause of broad-complex 1465. Commonest type of cong. heart disease seen in tachycardia, except &K05) adults- (IPMER 87) a) Fusion beats a) ASD byvsD b) Extreme left axis deviation ) TOF @)FDA €) Very broad QRS complexes (> 140s) €) Biscupid aortic valve 4) Response to carotid sinus massage 1466, The components of fallots¢etralogy are- 1456. In the treatment of severe bradycardia, all ofthe a) VSD (JIPMER 85) following can be the best modality of treatment ) Pulmonary stenosis cexcept- (AIMS NOV 05) ©) Dextra position of aorta a) Atropine by Pacing 4) Right ventricular hepertrophy 6) Isoproterenol )Dikiazem ©) Allare correct 1487. What is the drug of choice to control 1467. Coarctation of aortaisoften seen in- (A/IMSS) supraventricular tachyeardia-(AJJMSNOV05) a) Klinefelters syndrome) Tumers syndrome a) Adenosine ) Propranolol ©) Down syndrome ) Marfans syndrome «) Verapamil 4) Digoxin 1468. Acontinoas murmur is heard in- (NIMHANS 88) 1458, Alllof the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, a) PDA t)VSD except (A106) <) ASD TOF 4) Prolonged PR interval 1469. Hilar dances seen in- (PGI86) ») Prolonged QRS interval a) VSD byASD ©) Prolonged QT interval ©) PDA aTGv @) Ventricular asystole 1470. Differential cyanosis is seen in- (Kerala 89) 1459, True regarding atrial fibrillation- (PGI June 06) 8) PDA with reversal of shunt ) T Thromboembolism ») Bisenmengers complex ») Digoxin treatment ) Tumers syndrome ©) Anticoagulant not required 4) Hypoplastic left heart syridrome @ Aspirin given ©) Hemophilia 1460, Which one of thefotiowing drugs should be avoided 1471. in tricuspid atresia all are true except-(4/IMS 98) in Wolf Parkinson-White (WPW) Syndrome? 2) Left axis deviation ) Digoxin b) Adenosine (UPSC 06) ') Pulmonary oligemia ©) Procainamide _d) Amiodarone 6) Right ventricular hypoplasia 1461. Which congenital heart disease is associated with @) Split 2 heart sound preexcitation ? (UPSC06) 1472, Mid diastolic rumble in the tricuspid region is 2) Atrial Septal Defect secn in- (AIMS 89) ») Bicuspid Aortic Valve a) ASD byvsD ¢) Bbstein’s Anomaly PDA MR <) Patent Ductus Arteriosus 1473, Apical systolic murmur whose intensity 1462, In syndrome X, patients have all of the following, diminishes in xreet position than supine position except (COMED 06) is characteristic of - (AIMS 89) 4) Angina like chest pain 4) Pulmonary stenosis ») Ischemic ST segment depression by Tricuspid stenosis 6) Abnormal coronary arteriogram 9 ASD 4) Excellent prognosis, 4) Mitral value prolapse tyndrome 1474, Congenital heart disease usually not associated CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE with-syncope is (AIMS 80, JIPMER 81) a) Ebsteins anomaly 'b) Tetralogy of fallot 1463. Rib notching is seen in- (Kerala 94) ©) ASD 4) Pulmonary stenosis 8) PDA bsp 1475, Most common type of ASD is -(JIPMER 79, PGI80) ©) Coarctation of aorta) TOF 8) Ostium primum 1464, RBBB with left Axis Deviation is etaracteristic ») Ostium secundum of- (Karn. 95) ¢) Sinusvenosus type 8) Ostum Primum ASD 4) Endocardial cushion defect 1455)¢ 1456)d 1457)a 1458)e 1459)abd 1460)a 1461) 1462) 1463)cd 1464}a 1465)e 1466)e 1467) 1468)a.1469)abd1470)a 1471)d 1472)a 1473)None 1474)d 1475)b1.69. MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1476. 4477, In ASD the second heart sounds is-(PGI79,AMU 85) a) Narrow splitwith increase in split during inspiration by Narrow split without any effect of inspiration ©) Wide split without any effect of respiration 4) Reverse split ©) No spliting Causes of death in untreated coarctation of aorta may include alf ofthe following except-" (PGL85, 4) Bacterial endocarditis and aorttis AMC 88) 1487. 148 1489. Coarctation of aorta is associated with all except- 3) Pulmonary stenosis (AIDS 98) ») Hypoplastic aortic isthmus ©) Bicuspid aortic valve 4) Cerebrovascular aneurysms ‘The great danger of patient with patent ductus arteriosus is - (AIMS 80, PGI81) a) Syneope b) Convulsious ©) Arthythmia _d) Bacterial endocarditis Lithium intake during pregnancy is associated with- ») Rupture of acrta a) Bbstien's anomaly O)MR (ALSO) ©) Myocardial infarction ¢) Cleft palat 4) None 9) Congestive heart failure 1490. Highest frequency of coarctation of aorta is seen ©) Cerebrovascular accidents 7 in- (PG187) 1478. A child has eyanotic disease with left ventricular 2) Kilnefetter’s syndrome 6) Down’s syndrome enlargement wiht left axis deviation. Probable ©) Rubella syndrome 4) Tumer’s syndrome diagnosis is - (UP. 96) 1491. Highest frequeney of VSDisseenin- (PGI87) a) TOF a) Kilnefetter’s syndrome >) Down's syndrome b) TAPVC ¢) Rubella syndrome 4) Turner’s syndrome ©) Double outlet right ventricle 1492. Contraindications to surgery in patients with an 4) Tricuspid atresia atrial septal defectsare- (PGI 81, AIIMS 86) 1479, Clinicat features of ostium secondum type of 4) Patients over 50 years of age atrial septal defect are all except - (UP 97) b) Pulmonary hypertension without increased 4) Occurence of congestive failure in chitthood pulmonary vascuiar resistance .b) Atrial arthythmias ©) Pulmonary hypertension with increased ©) Wide and fixed spitting ofthe second heart sound pulmonary vascular resistance 4) Mid-diastolic rumble along the left sternal border 4 Pulmonary blood flow one to two times 1480. Coarction aorta associated with allexcept- (4197) -greaterthan systemic Slow a) Bicuspid aortic valve b) PDA 8) All ofthe above ) Tumer’s syndrome _d) Renal artery stenosis, 1493. Which is incorrect about PDA - 1481, Coaretation of aorta is common in.....syndirome~ a) Rightto left shunt (JIPMER 78,79, TN 89) a) Down's byTumer’s (A195) ') Endocarditis is common ©) Klinefeter’s «d) Noonan’s ¢) Can calcify 1482, One of the followings a component of TOF-(4/ 95) 4) In untreated leads to pulmonary hypertension a) V0 b)Aorta arised from RV 1494, PD.A. needs surgery to prevent the development of- ) LV hypertrophy ASB a) CHE, (JIPMER 80, 81, PGI 84) 1489, Ebstein's anomaly iscaused by (AUS 97) 8) Cakification a) Carbamezepine ») Lithium ©) Osteoarthropathy ©) Imipramine @) Amphetamine 4) Bacterial endocarditis 1484, Hilar dance isseen in fluroscopy of- _(TN'98) €) Oedema of lungs a) Patent ductus arteriosus 1495, Paessure difference of 5 mm Hy between the 10 ») Aortic stenosis upper limbs occurs in which congenital heart €) Coarctation of aorta disease - (PGI99) 4) Mitral stenosis a) TOF 1485, In Williams syndrome which isseen- (4//MS 98) b) TGA a) Endocardial cushion defect ©) HOCM b)PDA 4) Supra-valvalar aortic stenosis ©} Coaretation of aorta 1496. Aifof the following causes of death in coarctation of 46) Supravalvulat aortic stenosis, aorta except- (PGI 2000) 1486, Left ventricular hypertrophy isseen in (4199) a) Infective endocarditis b)OCF 8) ASD with fossa ovalis 6) MS. — ©) Intracranial hemorshage d) Anteriot Ml ©) Aortic stenosis 4) Careinoid syndrome. 1497, MC cause of death in adults with PDA is-(PGI99) OOF 'b)Infective endocarditis ©) Rupture @Embolism 1476) \47Te 1478)d 1479)a 1480)d 1481)b 1482)a 1483) 1484)None 1485)d 1486)e 1487)a 1488) (489)2 1490)d 1491) 1492)¢ 1493)a 1494)ad1495)d 1496)d 1497)a170 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1498, A 27 year old man in noted to have blood pressure a) Cardi of 170/100 mmHg. He has prominent aortic ejection 'b) Polyarthritis ick and murmurs heard over the ribs on the both 6) Erythema marginatum jes anteriorly and over the back posterioly. In 4) ESR above 20 mvhour addition. the pulses in the lower extremities are 1508. Which of the following may be seen with acute feeble and he complains of mild claudication rheumatic fever (PGI 81, AMC 85) exertion, The most likely diagnosis is -(AUIMS 04) 8) Abdominal pain byEpistaxis a) Artial septal defect ») Aortic stenosis ) Pneumonia 4) Allof the above ©) Coarctation of the aorta d) Catdiomyopathy 1509, In rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis 1499, Congenital heart disease associated with decreased is detected by echocardiogram and the largest pulmonary blood low - (@PGI04) vegetations seen are due to- (ICS 98) a) Truncus arteriosus a) Streptococcus viridans by) TAPVC 'b) Staphylococcus aureus ©) Ebstein's anomaly ©) Candida albicans Complete TGA 4) Salmonella typhi ) Single ventricle with pulmonary stenosis 1510, In rheumatic fever which is seen- (AMC 99) 1500, Eisenmenger syndrome i characterized by allexcept 4 Sydenham’s chorea _b) Huntington's chorea a) Return of left ventricle and right ventricle to normal ©) Athetosis All size (A105) 1511. Site of lesion in endocarditis of RHDis- (PG197) b) Pulmonary veins not distended a) Along line of closure of valves c) Pruning of peripheral pulmonary arteries b) Both sides of valves 4) Dilatation of central pulmonary arteries c) Valve cusps 1501. Holt Oram syndrome is characterized by - 4) Free margin of valves a) ASD b)VSD — (SGPGIOS) 1512, True abuutacute rheumatic fever = (PG102) ©) TGA AAR a) Chorea 1802, Causes of caynosis- (PGIJune 03) >) Erytheama modosum a) TOF bPDA ©) Arthritis ) Tricuspid atresia _d) Eisenmenger’s complex 4) Caused by antacedent a-hemolytic streptocoses ©) TGA infection €) Carditis RHEUMATIC 1813. Trueabout Rheumatic fever - (PG103) 8) Chorea is ageravated during pregnancy 1803, Rheumati ) Chores & arthritis co-existing 2) Aortic & tricuspid —_-b) Aortic & pulmonary ) Subcutaneous nodules are tender ©) Mitral & tricuspid 4) Mitral & aortic 4d) Erythema multiforme seen 1504, In the jones criteria for rheumatic heart disease 1814, True statement about Rheumatic fever in children - themajorcriteriaare allexcept- (JIPMER 84) «) Polyarthrit (PGI03) a) Cards b) Fever ») Caused by a hemolytic streptococci 6) Arthritis, 4) Subcutaneous nodule ©) Erythema marginatum is most common ¢) Chorea manifestation 1505. In rehumatic heart disease embolism is most 4) MC valve involvement is Mitral ‘commonly eaused b (IN 89) 6) Erythema marginatum is common in face a) Tightmitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation 1515, Trueabout Rheumatic heart disease and Rheumatic b) Aortic stenosis fever is/are ~ (PGI 04) ©) Tricuspid regurgitation 8) Caused by group ‘A’ streptococci & Atal septal defect ») Caused by group'B' streptococci 1506. Which of the following regarding rheumatic nodules ©) Carrier have high risk of developing RF is false- (PG188) 4) Carrier have low risk of developing BF 2) Found over extensor surface @) M-S protein cross reacts »b) Tender on palpation 1516, True about subcutaneous nodulein Rheumatic fever- ©) Associated with severe carditis 4) Pea size nodules a) Non tender +b) Most common manifestation (Pa104) 1507. The major criteria for rheumatic fever are the ©) Present in extensor surfaces following except- (IPMER 81, UPSC 84) 4) Associated with arthritis 1498)c 1499)ce 1500)a 1501)a_1502)a¢,d 1503)d —1504)b 1505)a 1506) 1507)d 1508)d 2509)¢ 1510) IS11)a 1512)ace 1513)a 151d)ad 1515)ad_ 1516)a¢171 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1517. Vegetations on undersurface of A.Y, valves.are found 1829, Hemoptysis is seen in- (NIMHANS 88) in- (KARANT 05) 4) Early in mitral stenosis, a) Acute rheumatic fever ») VSD b) Limban Sach’s endocarditis ©) Late in mitral stenosis, ©) Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis 4) In pulmonary stenosis @ Chronic rheumatic carditis 1830. Hoarseness of voice can occurin- (NIMHANS 88) 1518. Major criteria of Rheumatic fever (PGI June 05) a) Aortic stenosis 8) Chorea ) Erythema nodosum ) Mitral stenosis ©) Arthritis a) Fever ©) Pulmonary stenosis ©) Carditis 0) pulmonary regurgitation 1531. Austin flint murmur is usually mistaken for the VALVULAR HEART DISEASE murmur of (NIMHANS 88) ) Mitral regurgitation 1519, The following is not seen in mitral vaive protapse- b) Mitral stenosis a) Normal ECG (UIPMER 92) ©) Tricuspid stenosis ») Late systolic murmur )-Pulmonary regurgitation ) Bjection click 1532, The area of mitral valve orifice not compatible to 4) Mid systolic murmur life in mitral stenosis is- (NIMHANS 88) 1820. Sudden death iscommonin- __(NIMHANS88) 8) 06cm b) 100m a) Mitral stenosis ) Atrial VSD_ ©) }3em 300m ©) Aartic stenosis 4) PDA 1533, Angina pectoris occurs most commonly in- 1521. The severity of mitral stenosis is assessed by- a) MS 'b) AS (NIMHANS 88) 4) Leftarial enlargement (JIPMERSS, ©) MR OAR b)Lundness of $1 A/4MS 87,488, Kerala 88) 1534, Sudden death is seen (AIIMS 90) ©) Loundness of opening snap 4) Mitral stenosis ») Mitral regurgitation 4) Calcification of valve c) Aortic stenosis 4) Aortic regurgitation ©) A2-OS gap. 1535. Systotie murmur conducted apex to axilla oceurs 1522, In aortic regurgitation the left ventricle is- in (Karnatala 89) 8) Hypertrophic b)Dilated (Kerala 87) 2) MR b)TR ©) Smal 4) atrophic 9) VSD 4) Miteal vatve prolapse 1523, Differential diagnosis of mitralstenosis- (A189) 1536. Recurrent chest pain and syncopeis commonly seen 8) Leftatrial myxoma (Kerala 91) ») Ebstein anomaly ©) Aomtic pulmonary window All ©) Aortic regurgitation 1524, Echocardiography is most useful for- (4789) 4) Mitral stenosis 4) Mitral stenosis 1537, Asymmetricat radial pulse is seen in-(41MS92) ) Mitral regurgitation a) Coarctation of aorta —_+) Aortic regurgitation ©) Aortic regurgitation ©) Takayasu's disea: 4) Dissection of aorta @) Tricuspid regurgitation 1538, In mitra) stenosis the left ventricte undergoes- 1525. Hemoptysis is seen in- (NIMHANS 86) ) Eccentric hypertrophy (PGI79, AIIMS 80) 8) Aortic stenosis b) Pulmonary stenosis ©) Mitral stenosis 4) Tricuspid stenosis Which lesion closely resembles mitrat stenosis- a) ASD (NIMHANS 88) ) Left atrial myxoma «) Pulmonary stenosis, @) Bbstenis stenosis . Graham steel murmur occurs in- (NIMHANS 88) 8) Pulmonary regurgitation b) Aortic stenosis, 1526. ) Concenttic hypertrophy 6) Irregular hypertrophy 4) Decrease in size 1539. Allof the following are true of MVP except- a) More common in females (A/IMS 80, PGI 81) 8) Associated with arrhythmias ©) jection click heard best on lying down, 4) Sudden death is rare 1540, Aortic valve orifice less than....it said to be critica Or 4) Hypertension a) Sem, b)lem, — (PGI79, AIMS 80) . In aortic regurgitation the murmur is -(NIMHANS ©) 06em, 403 cm, a) Early diastolic b) Late systolic 88) ©) Early systolic 4) Mid diastolic ISIDb 1518 ace 151)ed ~ 15%) 1S2)e 1522)ab 1523)a_1524)a_1525)e 1526) 1527)a 1528)ad 1529)¢ 1530)b 1S31)b 1532)a 1533) 1534)c ISR5)a 15362 1597)ad 1538)d 1539} 1540)e472 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1541, Mitral valve prooapse s characterized by- 1552. Acute aortic regurgitation oceursin-(UPSC 2001) a) Diastolic click a) Infective endocarditis b) Sots, ») Ankylosing spondylitis ©) Chest pain 6) Marten’ syndrome 4) Right Ventricular atrophy €) Rheumatoid arthritis 1542, Leftventrcularend diastolic pressure iscommonly _1553. Aortie valve incompetence characeristically elevated in each ofthe following conditions except- produce- (NIMHANS 91) a) Left ventricular failure — (J/PMER 78, AIIMS 84) a) hypertrophied left ventricle b) Early mitral stenosis 'b) Increased mocardial bllod flow ©) Acrtie incompetence 6) Inereased pulse pressure 4d) Restrictive myocardial disease 4) AN of the above 1543. Sustained heaving cardiac impulse indicates- 1554. Mitral valve normal size- (AIMS 94) a) Mitral regurgitation (JIPMER 79, AP 90) a) 2-4.0ms b) 4-6 ems &) Aotie stenosis ; ) ems ea wii tem 6) Aortic regurgitation 1555. Servers MS is associated with (Ar97} a Maat 2) Left ventrculr dilatation 1544, Murmur of pulmonary stenosis i best heard over- De aoa eee o) Piscine © (AUMSI, Dei 5) 6) Right aia thrombus ) 4° left infercostal space 1556. cee salteal valve soageted by C 9 a imercostal space om left side in midclavicular 3} Marked accentuation of the first heart sound at ine apex. 4) None of the above . ) Presence of an opening snap 1545. Graham steel murmurisheardin- (Kam 94) neces caves 2) Aortic incompetence ‘) Nowe ofthe above 'b) Pulmonary incompetence 1557. Calcification of gortic valve is seen in- (A195) ©) Aortric stenosis a) Aortic stenosis b) Aortic Regurgitation 4) Tricuspid stenos c) Hypertension 4) Aortic aneurysm 1546, Pulse pressure in severe aortic regurgitation is 1558. In Valvular Aortic Stenosis poorest prognosis ia equal to- (JIPMER 95) indicated when - (Karn. 96) a) 30-45 mmHg )45-60mm Hg a) Angina occurs b) Syncope occurs ¢) oO75mm¥g 375-90 He, ¢) Dyspnea occurs @ Palptation occurs 1547, Left vertricular hypertrophy is not a feature of- 1559. Loud S1 in mitral stenosis is seen in- (PG) 99) 2) Mitral regurgitation (Karnat 96) 2) Prolonged flow through mitral valve b) Isolated mitral stenosis. b) Ist degree heart block ¢) Isolated ventricular septal defect +) Calcification of the valve d) Aortic stenosis d) Immobilization of the valve 1548. Which one of the following is characteristic of 1560. Severity of MR is associated with - (PGI01) ‘mitral valve prolapse syadrame- (UPSC 96) a) Long duration of systolic murmur a) Rough mid diatofic murmur. b) Thromboembolism +b) Collapsing pulse ) Atrial fibrillation ) Lound first heart sound 4) LYS, 4) Mid systolic click e) Loud, 1549, Angina & sycope in same patients sen in- 1561, Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with~ a) Aortic stenosis byMVP (MP 98) a) Subaortic stenosis (PG102) ¢) MS AAR b) Takayasu's arteritis 1550. Findings in a case of advanced mitral stenosis include c) William syndrome a) Low pulse pressure b)LVH (Kerala 98) d) Coarctations of syndrome ©) Exercise induced angina d) None e) Rubbela 1581. Aortic regurpitation is seen in all except: (MP 2K) 1562. Severity if mitral stenosis is judged by-_ (PG/02) a) Rheumatic fever a) Loud S1 b)S2-08 zap ‘b) Infective endocrditis c) Prolonged diastolic murmur d)s3 c) Marfan syndrome 2s 4) Myocardial infarction Isél)e 1542)b 1543)b 1544) a 1545)b 1546)d 1547)b 1548)d 1549)a 1550)a 155I)d 1552—be 1553)e 1554)b 1555)b 1556)d 1557)a 1558)c 1559)a 1560)acd 1561)ce 1562)be oS173 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1863. Pulmonary flow is decreased in - (PG103) by Asymmetric septal hypertrophy 2) Fallot's tetralogy ©) Forward flow obstruction ) Ebstein's anomally 4) Anterior motion of mitral valve ©) Common aria 1571, Murmur of Idiopathic hypertophic Cardiomegely 4) TGV with intact septum is increased by all except ~ (AIMS 92) ©) Postoperative TGV correction 3) Vasalvamanewre ——_b) Digoxin 1564, Wide pulse pressure is seen in - (PG103) ©) Exercise 4) Standing 1) Aortic regurgitation b) PDA. 1872, Allare true about Idiopathic Hypertrophic Aortic ©) MR AS stenosis except— (AIIMS 84, 85,ES1 89) ©) CCF 4) Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance 1565. A 59 year ofd man with severe myxomatous 'b) Sudden death mitral regurgition is asymptomatic, with a left 6) May have associated MR ventricuiar ejection fraction of 45% and an 4) Verapamil may amefiorate symptoms endsystolic diameter index of 2.9 em/m2.- The 1573. All are true about hypertrophic obstructive most appropriate treatment is- (Al05) cardiomyopathy except— CIPMER 93) a) Mitral valve repair of replacement a) Assymetrical septal hypertrophy ») No treatment b) Systolic ventricular dysfunction is absent ©) ACE inhibitor therapy ©) Anterior leaflet movement is delayed 4) Digoxin and diuretic therapy 4) Cardiac output is diminished 1566. A(63 year old man presents with a triad of angina, 1874, Nottrueof HOCM~ (AIMS 97) syncope and congestive heart failure. Which of the 8) Systolic Anterior Motion following valvular heart lesion can be suspected - +b) Asymmetric septal Hypertrophy a) Mitral stenosis (AlMS NOV 05) ©) Digitalis Helpful 8) Tricuspid regurgitation 4) LY outtlow obstruction ©) Aortic stenosis 1575, All are true about hypertrophic obstructive 0) Aattic regurgitation cardiomypatity except— (UP 2K) 1567. The typical movement of mitral valve calcification: a) Asymmertric hypertrophy of septum is- (AIMS NOV 05) by Systolic motion of anterior leafet 8) Upwards and downwards €) Left ventricle outflow obstruction b) Counterclock wise 4) Beta blockers ate not effective 6) Side to side 1576. The murmur of HOCM is decreased in which of @) Circular the following — (AIMS 2K) 1568, Allofthe following are true for mitral valve prolapse, 4) Supine posion except (4106) by Standing position a) Transmission may be as an autosomal dominant ©) Valsava maneuver trait 4) Amyl nitrate inhalation b) Majority ofthe case present wit features of mitrat regurgitation, THER CARDIOMYOPATHY & ©) The value leaflets choracteristically show ERICARDIT! ‘myxomatous degeneration 4) The disease is one of the common cardiovascular 1577. Constrictive paricarditis is notcaused by- ‘manifestations of Marfan’s Syndrome a) Tuberculosis (PG180, AIMS 83) 1569. Aortic regurgitation may be associated with all of ») Pyogenic infection ‘the following except - (UPSC06) ©) Rheumatic fever a) Ankylosing Spondylit 4) None of the above 6) Marfan’s Syndrome 1578. Endomyocardial fibrosis is believed to be due to- ©) Dissection ofthe aorta 8) Tapioca b)Ganja— (PGISA) 4) Polyarteritis nodosa ©) Dried fst dj Attatoxins 1579. Square root sign in JVP is see H.0.C.M. 8) Cardiac tamponade (NIMS S0.JIPMER 5!) ») Constrictive pericarditis 1570, ‘Which of the following is false regarding ©) Cardiac rupture Hypertrophic obstructive Cardiomyopathy — 4) All ofthe above 2) Digoxin is used (AIMS 91) 1563) ab 1564)abe 1565)a 1866) 1567)a 1568)b 1569)d 1570) 1571)None 1572)a_1573)e 1574)¢ IS75}d1576)alSTT)¢ 1578)a 1579)1m MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 1580. Dilated cardiomyopathy occurs with- (PG/2002) 1592. Which is not true of alcoholic cardiomyopathy - a) Alcohol a) Low cardiac output (UIPMER 78, 79, 80) ) Viral myocarditis 'b) Systemic vasodilatation ¢) Loefler’s endomyocarditis ©) Ventricular arryhymias 4) Peripartum cardiomyopathy ) Atrial fibrillation «) Asymmetric septal hypertrophy 1593. Segment elevation in pericrditis occurs in all leads 1581, Commmonest type of cardiomyopathy in In except (PGI79, JIPEMR 80) 4) Dilated cardiomyopathy (WIPMER 86) ave b) Lead It b) Hyperyrophic cardiomyopathy ©) aVF d)aVR ©) Restrictive type 1594, Feature of pericardial pain may inelude- (PGI8i, 4) Allare equally common 4) Pleurtis pain related to respriration AMC 84) 1582. Constrietive pericarditis is not seen with — ») Crushing substernal pain pericardiai effusion (UPSC86) ©) Pain synchronous with the heart beat 4) Rheumatic b) Uremic. - 4) Aggravation by swallowing ©) Tuberculous 4) Purulent &) Allofthe above 1583. Investigaiton of choice in pericardial effusion - 1595, Following are features of massive pericardial a) CT scan b)NMR (4189) effusion except (Delhi 84, ALIMS 92) ©) BOG 4) Echocardiography a) Rapid “Y" descent 1584, Treatment ofacutecardiactamponade- (4/89) ) Narrow pulse pressure 1) Emergency paracentesis ¢) Rypotension b) Emergency thoracotomy 4) Pulsus paradoxus ©) Pericardiactemy 1596. The causes of pericarditis include all ) IV fluids except UIPMER 78, AIIMS 84) 1585. Which of the following is not seen in chronic ) Uraemia ) Hypertension constrictive pericarditis- (AIMS 86) ©) Rheumatic fever 4) Tuberculosis ) Hepatomegaly 1597. Sign of pericardial effusion are difficult to detect b) Enlarged heart tuniilabout- (PGI81, Kerala 89) ©) Raised VP 2) 200 mlof fluid have accumulated 4) Decreased cardiac impulse b) 300 ml offuid have accumulated 1586, Best investigation to diagnose pericaridial ©) 400 mi of fluid have accumulated effusion is- (NIMHANS 88) 4) 500 ml of fluid have accumulated a) Echocardiography _b) Chest x-ray 1598. Drug used in cardiopmyopathy-(UPSC 84, AIIMS87) ©) BOG 4) Diagnosic tapping a) Verapmil b) Nifedipine 1587, In pericardial effusion all are seen except - ©) Amiodarone 4) Propranolol a) Raised JVP (NIMHANS 88) 1599, Endomyocardialfibroelastosis may be due to- ) Hepatomegaly a) Banana b) Tepioca (Kerala 94) ©) Pedal oedema o) Allfatoxin 4d) Cysticeroesis 4) Loud heart sounds 1600, All of the following may be seen in cardiac 1588, Drug used in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - tamponadeexcept- (AIMS 95) a) Verapamil ——b) Nifedipine (UPSC87) 4) Pulsus paradoxus ) Electrical alternans ©) Amiodarone _d)Propranofol ©) Kussmaul’s sign 4) Rapid Y descent 1589. Which is not seen in cardiae Tamponade-(4UIMS 91) 1601. Commonest presentation of TB pericarditis is- ) Narrow Pulse pressure _b) Iregular pulse 8) Serofibrinous b)Hemorthagic (AIMS 95) ©) Hypotension 4) Pulsus paradoxus ©) Constrictive d) Suppurative 1590, Which is not a feature of massive pericardial 1602, Allof the following conditions produce restrictive ‘effusion - (aus 92) cardiomyopathy exeept- (UPSC95) a) Pulsus paradoxus a) Hypothyroidism ') Hypotension b) Amyloidosis ©) Rapid Y descent ©) Hyper-eosinophilic syndrome 4) Narrow pulse pressure 4d) Tropical endomyocardial fibrosis 1591, Pericarditis due to which of the following is 1603. Chronic constrictive pericarditis usually is due always painful UIPMER 78, PGI79) to- (PGI84) @) Uremia b)MI a) Myocardial infarction) Rheumatic fever ©) Cardiactamponade___d) Pyopericardium ©) Tuberculosis ) Empyema 1580)abd_1581)a 1582) 1583)d 1584)a 1585)b 1586)a 1587)d_1588)ac4 158) 1590)¢ 1591) 1592)b 1593) 1594)abd 1595)a 1596)b 1597)d 1598)ac.d 1599)b 1600)d 1601)c 1602)a_1603)<175 i MEDICINE QUES VOL-IIT 1604. “Pericardial Knock" is characteristically heard in which ofthe following heart lesion -(PG/8, UPSC89) a) Pericardial effusion. __b) Rheumatic carditis ©) Cardiac myxoma 4) Toxic myocarditis 1605. True about painof pericarditisis- (JIPMER 02) fnerease on leaning forward decreasing on supine position increases during inspiration 4) Pain increasing on eating 1606. Commonest presentation of TB pericarditis- (4795) 4) Serofibrinous ) Constrictive ©) hemorrhage ) Fibrous 1607. Not seen in constrictive pericarditis is- 1) Acute pulmonary edema b) Ascites ) Tapping apex 4) Pericardial knock 1608. Typical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade-(PGI2K) a) absent *Y’ descent) Prominant ‘a’ wave ©) Absent ‘a’ wave 4) Prominent “Y” wave To differentiate restrictive cardiomypathy and constrictive pericarditis, features favouring constrictive pericarditis are- (PG102) 2) Diastolic pressures are equalised 1) There is mild pericardial effusion @) Associated with septal hypertrophy 4) Thick pericardium is present ) RV size in increased (RGI99) 1609. 1618, Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all ofthe following except (AIMS 06) 1) Duchenne muscular dystrophy ») Friedrich’s ataxia ©) Type IUI glycogen storage disease 4) Alkaptonuria 1616. Pulsus paradoxus seen in - a) Cardiac tamponade b) Constrctive pericarditis ©) HOcM JAR ©) Severe asthma ‘What is the cause for heamorrhagic pericardial effusion exept? (APPG06) a) Transmural myocardial infaretion ) Aortic aneurysm dissection ©) Metastasis to pericardium 4) Constrictive pericarditis Kussmauls sign is seen in all exeept- (PPG 06) 8) Constrictive pericarditis ) Right vertricular infarct ©) Restictive cardiomyopathy 4) Cardiac tamponade TUMOUR (PGI June 06) 1617. 1618. 1610. Beck's triad ofcardic tamponade includes-(PG/ 03) 1619, The tumour which most commonly metastasizes a) Hypotension ) Neck vein distension tothe heart is- (AIMS 80, PGI81) «) Paradoxical pulse @) Silent heart a) ALL @) Tachycardia ) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 1611, All are true in chronic constrictive pericarditis ©) Bronchogenic carcinoma except (PGI99) <é) Malignant melanoma 4) Kussamauls signin present in all types 1620. Which is not true of Sporadic myxoma -(AIIMS 92) b) Ascites is not in proportion to edema a) Usually Single ©) Commonest cause is idiopathic ») Female perponderance 4d) Right ventricular and diastolic pressure is raised c) Occurs in old age 1612, Rapid X descent is unilikely in- (PGI 99) d) Recurrance uncommon a) Constritive pericarditis "b) Cardiac temponade 1621. Left atrial myxoma is best diagnosed by - ©) RV infarction 4) Restrictive CMP a) BOG (NIMHANS 88) 1613. 4.62 year old man with carcinoma of lung presented ») Cardiac catheterisation toemergency department with respiratory distress. ©) Echocardiogram His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most d) Chest X-ray Hkely diagniosis is- (alIMS 03) 1622. The commonest intracavitary benign cardiac tumour ) Pneumothorax - (IPMER 79,DELHI86) +) Pleural effusion a) Leiomyoma b) Myxoma ©) Cardiac tamponade ©) Neuroma 4) Sarcoid 4) Constrictive pericarditis €) Lipoma 1614, Allof the following may beseen in patient of cardiac 1623, All ofthe following are usual features of left atrial tamponade except- (Al 06) ‘Myxoma, except- (KAR 95) 2) Kussmaul’s sign - a) Raised ESR ) Pulsus paradoxus by Pyrenia ; «) Electrica alternans ¢) Markedly enlarged left atrium g)Right ventricular diastolic collapse on 4) Systemic Embolism echocardiogram 1604)None 1605)c,d 1606)b 1607)a. 1608)2 1609)ad 1610)abd I611)e 1612)¢ 1613)¢ 16l4)a_1615)d 1616)abe 1617)d 1618)d 1619)¢ 1620)None 1621)e 1622)b 1623)e1624, Which of the following metastasize to the heart commonly (Ai95) 2) Melanoma b) Cancer breast «) Bronchogenic carcinoma 4) Thyroid carcinoma 1625, Commonest tumour to metastasise to heart is - a) Malignant melanoma (A195) ») Leiomysarcoma ©) Bronchogenic carcinoma @ Breast carcinoma 1626, Commonest benign tumour of heartis- (795) a) Adenoma b) Myxoma 6) Myoma ) Mabdomyosaxoma 1627. Atrial myxoma is associated with the following except (UPSC06) a) Fever . 'b} Weight loss ©) Systolic murmur at apex 4) Subungual splinter haemorrhage Ml. & ANGINA 1628. Death in cases of papillary ruptureis due to- a) Cardiac arrhythmias (PGI 87) b) Ventricular aneurysm ©) Coronary insufficiency 4) Pulmonary edema 1629. Treatment of choice for a patient with pump faiture after myocardial infarction is (AIMS 87) a) IV fluids »b) Vasopressors ©) Cardiacglycosides 4) Intra aortic ballon pump 1630, Which one of the following is of highest predictive value in the morbidity of coronary heart disease ~ 4) Lipoprotein A CS 98) ») Apolipoprotein B ©) Apolipoprotein A 4) Low density lipoprotein 1631, Atheroschlerosis is Inversely proportional to- (Kerala 91) 4) LDLIevel b) VLDL evel ©) Chylomicronlevele_ €)HDL evel 1632. Prinzmetal angina has the following characteristics except- (UIPMER 95) a) Pain at rest b) ST elevation during the attack ©) Normla ECG without pain 4) Represents transmural ischemia ©) ST depression with pain 1633. What is called the widow's artery - 8) Superior mesentric artery ») Uterine artery 6) Internal mammary artery 4) Left anterior descending coronary artery (JIPMER 85) 1624)6,c1625)c1626)b 1627)e 1628)d_ 1629)None 176 1630) 1631)d MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1634, Enzyme appearing carly in myocardial infraction ~ a) OK S)LDH_ (WIPMER 83) ©) SGOT SGPT 1638, Myocardial isoenzyme of CK which is-specifie for myocardial infarction is- (BHU 88) a) CKBB b)CK-MB ©) CK-MM. @) Allof the above 1636, Most of the deaths after a myocardial infarction ate seen within the first - (WIPMER 88) a) Ihr bone. ) 24hr, 4) one week 1637, Damaged myocardium may be thrown into ventricular fibeillation by (AIMS 85, 87) 1) Anoxia b) Vomiting ©) Endotracheal intubation 4) All of the above Myocardial rupture as a result of myocardial infaretion occurs usually during the (PGI85) 8) First week 'b) Second week ©) Third week 4) Fifth week ‘Myocardial infarction most often result in a) Mitral stenosis, (AIMS 88) ») Aortic regurgitation ©) Aortic stenosis @) Mitral regurgitation 1638, 169. 1640, Most ofthe deaths in myocardial infarction rusult fn the nda WIPMER 86) a) First ) Second ©) Fifth 4) Seventh 1641. Dresslerssyndromeisdueto- (NIMHANS 88) a) Virus by Bacter ©) Fungus 4) Auto immune reaction 1642, The indications of percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasy is- (PGI84), 1) Angina refractory to medical treatment ) Single vessel disease ¢) Proximal non caleified stenosis, 4) Patient who had by pass surgery” eal In right ventricular infarction, the following additional therapy is given - (PGI8), a) IV fluids ») Calcium gluconate ©) Restriction of fluids 4) Lithium carbonate 1643, 1644. Sysemie and pulmonary embolism are together seen in ~ (Al 89) a) Anterior MI b) Posterior MI ¢) Interior MI 64) Septal MI 1645. ECG feature of ventricular aneurysm following MLis/are- (PGI89) 4) Persistent ST elevation b) Persistent ST depression ©) Persistent U wave &) Persistent T wave 1632)¢¢ 1633) 1634)a 1635) 1636)a 1637)a. 1638)a 1639)d 1680)a 1641)d 1642)e 1683)a 1644)d 1645)aMEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 1646, Post myocardial infarct, systolic mumur in the leftlower sternum can be due toaitexcept- a) Complete heart block (ATIMS 89) ) Rupture of iteventricular septum €) Papillary muscle dysfunction 4) Ischemic cardiomyopathy 1647. The drug contraindicated in prinzemetal angina is- (N91) @) Nifedipine ©) Propranolol 1648, Coronary bypass surgery 2) Aortoarteritis 'b) Multiple vessel disease ©) Aortic stenosis . 4) Angina pectoris 1649, In a patient who had an anterior MI_and RBBB and left atrial hypertrophy on ECG, the following b) Amy! nitrate 4) Calcium channe! blocker advised for - UIPMER 91) 1658. 1659, 1660. ‘The drug which is used in angina that can cause CCFis- (Kerala 94) a) Propanalol b) Nifidepine ©) Sorbitrate 4) Verapamil ‘Temporal profile of detection of the given serom enzyme in acute myocardial infarction is(UPSC97) 4) CPK,SGOT, LDH b) SGOT, CPK, LDH ©) CPK,LDH,SGOT €)SGOT.LDH.CPK ‘A.50-year old male has had precardial pain for four hours. On examination, his BP is 110/80 mm Hg. pulse is 120 beats /min, and respiratory rate . His ECG shows marked $-T segment ion in leads V3-V6 and left ventricualr ectopies. The initial therapuetic modalities in this cease would include- (UPSC 97) 4) Lignocaine and streptokinase ») Streptokinase and morphine isto bedone- (JIPMER 92) ©) Morphine and doubtamine a) {Vatropine b) Isoprenaline drip 4) Lignocaine, streptokinase and morphine ) Oral propranolol ) Temporary pacing 1661. Which one of the following is the drug of ch 1650. Thrombolytic therapy in acute MI is contra in a patient with acute myocardial infarction indiacated in all except - (6193) having premature ventricuatr contractions - 42) Healed peptic ulcer 2) Oral digoxin (UPSC 96) 'b) Recent invasive procedure ) Procainamide ¢) Pulmonary hypertension ©) Oral diphenyl-hydantoin 4) Pulmonary thromb embolism 4) 1V xylocaine 165). Right venericular infarction is assocfated with all 1662. Fibrons scar in myocardial infection in well except (IPMER 03) established by (Kerala 97) 8) Cardiomegaly b) Arrythmia a) 6 weeks 'b) 6 months ©) Hypotension )Nortmal SVP ©) 6 days )30 days 1652. The critica narrowing of coronary vessels to 1663. Allofthe following predispose to IHD except -(41/MS cause angina is - (PGI 78, AIIMS 80) a) Smoking b) Alcholism 98) ) More than 50% b) More than 60% ©) Obesity 4) Sedentary habits ©) More than 70.% 4) More than 80% ©) Diabetes 1653. Transient myocardia) infarction in ECG 1664. The complications of ML are all except- (4? 97) characterized by - WIPMER 80, 91) ‘) Pulmonary embolism a) ST segment elevation _b) Prolonged QRS. b) Systemic embolism ©) Pathological Q waves d) T wave inversion ©) Dissection of aorta 1654, Drug of choice in ventricular arrythmia in ME Ventricular fibrillation ik (PGI79, JIPMER 80) 1665, Allof the following predispose to THD except 8) Phenytoin b) Tocainide a) Smoking by Alcoholism (CMC 98) ©) Lignocaine 4) Disopyramide ©) Obesity 4) Sedentary habits 1655. Coronary angiography can visulaize vessels with @) Diabetes fumnen upto- (VIPMER 80, AIMS 81) 1666, False about CABG is that- (4199) ) Sm b)Imm 2) Can give relief of symptoms ©) 05mm )0.1 mm ') Can prevent catastrophic events 1656. The valvular lession most often resulting from ©) Can prevents progression of native vessel myocardial infarction is~ (PGI78, DNB 89) changes a) Mitral stenosis ») Mitral regurgitation 4) Internal mammary artery graft 10 LAD gives ) Pulmonary stenosis__d) Aortic stenosis Jong term results, 1657. Most specificenzymeforMlis- ~ (Kerala 94) 1667. Drug of choice fo relieve pain in myocardiat 2) CPKMM 6) CPK-MB, infaretion- (IN 99) ©) COK-BB LDH 2) Morphine b) Fortwin ©) Diazepam @)NSAID 1646)a 1G4T)c I648)b 16494 1650)acd I65t}d 1652)c 1653) 1654)e 1655)e 1656) 1657)b 1658)ad 1659)a 1660)b 1661)None 1662)a 1663)b 1664)¢ 1665)b 1666)e 1667)178 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1668, In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to 1677. Indications for coronary bypass opertions include cause thrombolysis and to start reperfusion allthe following except- UIPMER 8), AIIMS 83) a) Steptokianase VIPMER 2K) a) Severe angina not responding to medical therapy ) Urokinase b) Occlusive disease of the left main coronary artery ¢) Tissue plasminogen activator ©) Triple vessel disease 4) Anisoylated plasminogen steptonase activator 4) Previous infarction and congestive cardiac failure complex 1678. Critical narrowing of coronary blood vessels is - 1669. A previoulsy healthy 58 year old man is admitted 2) 10% ') 60% (CUPGEE 99) to the hospital because of an acute inferior ©) 80% 6)90% myocardial infarction. Within several hours, he 1679, In MI following are used except- (Pa197) because oliguric and hypotensive (blood presssure a) Fibrinolyties is 90/60 mm/hg). Insertion of a pulmonary ») Plasminogen activator inhibitor artery(Swan-ganz) catheter reveals the following ©) Anti thrombin pressure. Pulmonary capillary wedge 4 mmhg. 4) Platelet inhibitor Pulmonary artery 22/4 mmhg. and mean right 1680. Poor prognostic factor in Acute Myocardial artrial 11 mmbg. This man would best be treated farction - with (AIMS 99) a) VPC's in first 24 hours (PGI 98) a) Fluids b)Digoxen b) Hypotension at diagnosis ©) Dopamine 4) Intra arotic balloon ©) Chest pain 1670. TMT isdone- (Burdwan 2 k) 4d) Hypertension a) For evaluation of HD 1681, Volume of infareted area in acute myocardial 6) For evaluation of latent CAD infarction (AMI) can bedetected by- (PG! 2000) ©) Fortesting maximum working capacity a) ECHO b)ECG @) All ©) Levels of CPKMB 4) Thallium scan 1671. Duration of pain is angina is- (Orissa R) 1682. A patient presents with intense chest pain of 2 hrs a) 2-Smins b)5-30 mins duration. ECG shows ST depression in leads | and «) 30-60 mins @)> T hour Vito V4. There is associated T inversion and CPK- 1672. Druguseful in acute M.L.are all except (MAHE0/) MB is elevated. Which of the following should be 4) Nifedepine ) Aspirin included in his management - (PG12000) 6) ACE inhibitors 4) Metoprotol 4) Nitrogiycerine drip) Aspirin 1673. Theone organism which is responsible for coronary ©) Coronary angiography 4) Streptokinase artery disease - (GIPMER 01) ©) iv-metoprotol ) Chlamydia b) Klebsiella 1683. The treatment of acute myocardial infarction ©) E.coli 4) Mycoplasma includes which ofthe following - ePcrol) 1674, A 40 year old male is admitted with acute inferior 4) Aspirin ) Heparin ‘wall myocardial infaretion, half an hour later BP ©) Alteplase 4) Oral anticozgulanis {80/50 mmhg and heart rate is 40/mt with sinus ©) ACE inhibitors rhythm. The most appropriate step in the manage 1684, Risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD) - ‘ment ofthis patient would be- (UPSCOI) a) High HDL 7 (PG101) a) Admission of normal saline 300 ml over 15 minutes, b) LowLDL ») Immediate insertion of temporary pacemaker ©) Increased homocysteine levels ©) Intravenous adminstration ef atropine sulpate 4) Decreased fibrinogen levels, 4) Intravenous adminstration of isoprenaline «) Increased lipoproteins 50m/minute 1685. Complications ofstreptokinaseare- (PGI01) 1675. The danger complication of massive mycardial a) Myocardial rupture) Joint pain infarction insecond week- (AIMS 79, DELHI 84) 6) Intracranial bleed 4) Anaphylaxis a) Congestive heart failure ¢) Parkinsonism ») Rupture of the heart 1686. which one of the following increases the ©) Bacterial endocarditis susceptibility to coronary artery disease- (4103) 4) Ventricular aneurysm a) Type V hyperlipoproteinemia 1676. Drug of choice in Prinzmetal’s angina is-(4193) b) Ven Willebrandt’s disease a) Nitrates b)Dittiazem ©) Nephrotie syndrome ©) Verapamil 4) Propranolol 4) Systemic lupus erythematosus 1668)¢ 1669)a 1670)ae 1671)a_1672)a_1673)a_1674)c 1678)a_1676)a_1677)d_1678)a_1679)b 1680)a 1681)ad 1682)All 1683)ajbce 1684)ce 1685)cd 1686)eMEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1687. Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis hhas been linked to which of che following factors? a) Antibodies to thrombolytic agents (AI 03) ») Fibrinopeptide A ©) Lipoprotein (a) [Lp (a)] ¢) Triglycerides 1688. Exercise testing is absolutely contraindicated in which one of the following? (4103) a) One week following myocardial infarction ) Unstable angina ¢) Aortic stenosis 4) Peripheral vascular disease 1689, Hyper trighyceridemia isnot eaused by-(UPSC 04) a) Diabetes Mellitus b) Obesity 6) Alcohol 4) Cigarette smoking 1690. The level of LDL cholesterol at which therapy should be initiated in a patient without coronary. artery disease and no risk factors is- (Kars 04) a) 100mg/al ») 230mg ©) 160mg./al 4) 190 mg/dl 1691. Patient is having normal CK & CKMB after 2 days of chest pain which of the following is true- 8) Excludes diagnosis of MI (SGPGI 05) b) Reperfusion after MI ©) Extracardiac source of pain ¢) Cardiac surgery 1692, Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication tothe use of thrombolytic agent in the setting of an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction - (UPSC 05) 8) History of CVA with hemiparesis one month ago ») Diabetic retinopathy ©) Patient's age more than 70 years 4) Patients on warfarin for A.F. with INR ration 1:8 1693. What is diagnostic of fresh myocardial infaretion inECG- (MAHE 05) 8) QT interval prolongation b) Pritale ©) ST segment elevation 4) ST segment depression 1694. Long-term secondary prevention following ‘myocardial infarction is recommended with which ‘one of the following drugs - (ics 05) 2) Antiplatelet drugs ) Nitrates ©) Amiodarone 4) Calcium channel antagonist 1695. Myocardial isoenzyme of CK which is specific 1697. 1698. 1699. 1700. 1701. 1702. 1703. To assess outcome after coronary revascularization 4) To diagnose and evaluate the treatment of exercise induced arrhythmias Alllof the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG,except- (AIS) 4) Early repolarization variant ') Constrictive pericarditis ©) Ventricular aneurysm ¢) Prinzmetal angina ‘The best possible intervention for acute myocardial infaretion is (AIMS May 2005) a) Streptokinase b) Streptokinase and aspirin €) Early primary coronary intervention 4) Streptokinase and heparin All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except - (A106) a) Increased waist-hip ratio b) Hyperhiomocysteinemia ©) Decreased fibrinogen levels 4) Decreased HDL levels ‘The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis is = (AIMS 06) 8) lysine b) Homocystein ¢) Cysteine 4) Alanine LDH,/ LDH, in acute Mlis- (COMED 06) a)>10 bois )>20 a>25 ‘Acute coronary Syndrome includes ll except- a) STEM b)NSTEMI (4//HANS 06) ¢) Stable angina d) Unstable angina Which of the following is common risk factor for coronary heart diseaseexcept? (Manipal 06) ) Family H/O.of HD ') Decreased homoscystinaemia ¢) HDL <40 mg/dl. &) Type 1 DM HYPERTENSION 1704, 1708. Fundus picture of stage 2 of keith wegener classification includes- (PGI85) 28) Copper wire AV nipping and focal spasm by Silver wire increased reflex ) Exudate and hemorrahagic spots © Papilloedema Quick reduction of blood pressure isdone in - for myocardial infarction is- (SGPGI05) 2) Cerebral infarct (AMC 88) a) CKBB b)CK-MB ») Hypertensive encephalopathy ©) CK-MM. 4) All ofthe above ©) Myocardial infarction 1696, All the following are indication for Treadmill testing, ¢) Any patient with hypertension except- (J &k05) 1706. Hypertension can be caused by - (PGI 88) a) To evaluate unstable angina a) Renin ’) Antigiotensin I b) To evaluate unstable myocardial infarction €) Angiotension IL APG 1687)b 1688)c 1689) 1690)d 1691)a 1692)a_1693)c 1694)a 1695) 1696)a 1697) 1698)c_1699)c. 1700)b 1701)a 1702)¢ 1703)b 1704)a 1705)b 1706ac1720) 1721) 1722)a 1723) 1724)e 1725) 1726)d 1.80 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-LIT 1707. Hypertension with increased renin levels is seen 8) Diastolic blood pressure greater than 130 mmHg, ine (PGI 90) >) Transient ischaemic attacks a) Segmental infarction ©) Left ventricular hypertrophy b) Fibromuscular hyperplasia of tenal artery 4) Papilloedema and progressive renal failure ©) Aortic stenosis 1719, In benign hypertension commonest vascular ) Hyperaldosteronism pathology is-| (UPSC 95) 1708. Renin dependent hypertension includes (4/89) 2) Atherosclerosis a) Primary hyperaldosteronism ») Fatty infitraion of intima, b) Essential hypertension ©) Fibmoid necrosis } Renovascular hypertension 4) Hyaline arteriosclerosis 4) Pheochromacytoma hypertension 1720. Pathological change in malignant HT is- (4195) 1709. Benign Hypertension is characterised by - (Ai 93) a) Benign nephrosclerosis a) Hyaline arteriosclerosis b) Hypetplastic arteriosclerosis ») Fibrinoid aererosis : c) Cystic medical necrosis ©) Calcified vessel wall 4) Hyaline arteriosclerosis 4) Berry aneurysm 1721, Ali of the following are feature of malignant 1710, Which does not cause hypertension - /IPMER 93) hypertension EXCEPT - (UPSC 97) 4) Dobutamine )Ritodrine 4) Grade IV hypertensive retinopathy ©) Dopamine. 4) Methoxamine ») Haemolytic blood picture 1711 Malignant hypertension is diagnosed when — ©) Renal failure 4) Associated malignancy is present 4) Respiratory failure b) Diastolic B.P. 120 mg Hg (DNB 80.81,89) 1722, Drug of choiee for hypertensive crisis associated ©) Papilledema associated with elevated B.P. with acute nephritis is- (AIMS 87) 4d) Allof the above 4) Sodium nitroprusside 1712, Treatment of hypertensive emergency ) Hydratazine - (PGI78,DELHI 88) ©) Reserpine a) Hydralazine b) Glucokinase 4) Calcium channel blockers 6) Propranatol <¢) Furosemide 6) Propranolol 1713, Calcium blocking agents of use in treatment of 1723. Im Accelerated HTN what is metabolic defect - hypertension include (JiPMER 78, PGI 88) a) Normal non-ionic metabolic acidosis (PGI2000) a) Prazosin b) Verapamil ) Ionic gap met acidosis ¢) Captopril a) Nifedipine ) Hypomagnesemia ©) Lidoflazine 4) Metabolic alkalosis 1714. Severity of B.P. is graded mainly by- (Kerala 94) 1724, A young patient presented with blood pressure of a) Systolic BLP 190/120 mm of Hg without any clinical symptom ) Pulse pressure and fundus examination is normal, treatment of ¢) Diastolic pressure choice- (P6103) @) Response to treatment 2) OralNitroglycerine _b)IV Nitroglycerine 1715, Renin plays important role in WP.96) ©) Oral Enalapril 4) 1V Enalapril a) Renovascular hypertension ©) Sublingual short acting Nifedipine ) Malignant hypertension 1725. A 40 year old male patient, is suffering from type ©) Coronary artery disease 11 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, Which of 4) Essential hypertension the following antihypertensive druge should not 1746, Which of the following antihypertensives will you be used in such patients - not preseribeto.a truck driver- (PGI 95) a) Lisinopril b) Hyérochionhiazide 4) Clonidine b) Hydralazine ©) Losartan 4) Trandotopril ©) Aldomet €) Propranolol 1726. A young hypertensive patient has serum K* 2.8 1717. Ideal imaging modality for Renal arterial meq/2 and 1 aldosterone level with Led plasma hypertension - (KARNAT 96) The likely is/are- (PGI04) a) NP byusG 2) Renal artery stenosis } Angiography ¢) Renin assay ») Ectopic ACTH syndrome 1718, Which one of the following is of most serious ¢) Diuretic therapy prognostic significance in a patient of essential 4) Conns syndrome hypertension (UPSC 97), ©) Liddle’s syndrome 1707) 1708)¢ 17092 1710) INi)e 1712)a 1713)bd 1714)a¢ 1715)a 1716)@ I717)e 1718) 1719)4181 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 1727, Inessential hypertension the drug preseribed with 1737, Digitalis is indicated in all of the following except - least cardiovascular effect - (APPGE 05) 3) Attial flutter (PGI79, AP 89) 2) Clonidine ») Alpha blocker 'b) Acute myocardial infarction €) Beta blocker 4) ACE inhibitor ©) Atrial fibrillation ) Congestive heart failure with atrial fibrillation DIGITALIS ¢) Congestive heart failure with normal sinus rhythm 1728, Allofthe following arrythmias are caused by digoxin 1738, The treatment digitalisinduced arrhythemlss include except (All india 96) all except- (IPMER8I, AMC 86) ) Ventricular fibrillation 8) Withdrawal of digitalis, ») Ventriculartachycardia ») Potassium supplement €} Mobitz type I block ©) Phenytoin 4) Mobitz type 1 block 4) Calcium gluconate 1729, Features of digitoxicity is~ (VJIPMER 85) 1739. isnoteffective treatment- 2) Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate a) Lignocaine ») Phenytoin (PGI 95) ) ST depression ¢) Hemodialysis 4) Potassium ©) Xanthopsia : 1740, All of the following regarding digitalis therapy 4) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block. are true except- (UPSC 97) ) Ventricular systole a) The dose of digitalis needs reduction in presence 1730, Rhythm disturbance characteristic of digitoxicity is- of liver disease a) Biventricular tachycarida (JIPMER 86) +b) Concomitant administration of quinidine requires ') Ventricular tachycardia reduction in dose of digitalis ©) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia ©) Aral tachycarida with AV block is typical 4) Sino atrial block 4) Anorexia nausea and vomiting are the earliest 1731. The treatment of digitalis induced arrhythmias indicators of digitalis overdose include all except (UPSC 88) 1741. Treatment of digoxin toxicity is all except - 8) Withdrawal of digitalis a) Haemodialysis (AIMS 96) ') Potassium supplement ») Antibodies ¢) Phenytoin ©) Potassium suplements 4) Calcium guconate 4) Phenytoin sodium 1732, The features of digitalis toricty are all exeept- 1742, Digitalis toxicity is not accentuated by-(AIIIMS 97) ) Vomiting ') Yellow vision a) Hepatic dysfunetion —_b) Hypokelemia ¢) Headache) Diarthoea_ (NIMHANS 88) ©) Hypomagnesemia 4) Quinidine 1733. In severe digitalis toxicity the drug of chaice s- 1743, If » patient is on digitatis devetops ventricular 4a) Pheaytoin (ALIMS 90) tachycardia, which ofthe following drugs you will ') Propranolol not usein management- (AIMS 2K) 6) Electrical coversion 8) Amiodarone b) Quinidine 4) Fab fragment of digitalis antibody ©) Phenyroin 4) Lidocain 1734. All predispose to digoxin _ toxicity 1744, Blue vision is caused by - (PGI 86, 82) cexcept- (AIMS 78, PGI79) 2) Digoxin b) Rifampicin a) Hypokalemia b) Hypomagesemia ¢) Ethambutol 4) Chloroquine ©) Hypocaleemia 4) Hypothyroidism 1748, First symptom of digoxin overdose is-(Karnat 99) 1735. Purpose of digitalis in atrial fibrillation is to- a) GIT disturbance )U-vave on ECG ) Depress vagus nerve (JIPMER 81, Delhi 83) ©) Betopic on ECG 4) Fainting spells ') Slow ventricular rate 1746. Digitalis toxicity eam be diagnosed ECG shows ©) Slow atrial cate a) Prolonged PR interval (AMD 83) 4) Restore sinus rhythm ) T wave inversion 1736. The commonest arrhythmia encountered in ©) Shortening of QT. interval tals toxicity is- (IPMER 81, DNB 91) @) Ventricular bigeminy a) Compete heart block 1747, Digoxin is used in the treatment of-(PGI04) ») Sick sinus syndrome - 4) Constretive pericarditis b) Cardiac tamponade ©) Bigeminus rhythm e ) Heart block 4) Atrial fibrillation 4) Atrial fibrillation - €) Diastolic failure €) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia 17274 1728)d 1729)aede _1730)None 1731)d 1732)None 1733)d —1734)e 1735)b 1736)e 1737)» 17380 J39)c IUO}A Wija 1742)a I743)b IT4MAJe 174S)a 1746)a ITAA1.82 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT DRUGS (C.V.S.) 1760, A 40-years old male presents with headache and convulsions. His blood pressure is210/140mm Hg. 1748, Dose of dopamine to be given ina patient with norma} Fundus examination reveals papilloedema. Which cardiovascualar status but with decreased urine one of the following drug combinations will output (AIMS 97) suitable for this patient ~ (UPSC 96) to Smekkg/min ) 5 ugkg/min a) Diazoxide-+ Triamterene ©) 10 ug/ke/min &) 15 ughky/min b) Nitroprusside + Triamterene 9) 20upkgimin ©) Nitroprusside + Furosemide 1749, Digoxipis contra indicated in- —_(/IPMER 93) 4) None of the above 2) Atrial fibrillation 1761. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are not ') Congestive cardiac failure used in congestive heart failure resulting from — ¢) Supraventricular tachycardia a) Mitral stenosis (ELH! 96) 4) Hypertrophic Cardiorhyopathy . ') Aortic regurgitation 1750. Mechanism of action of low dose Aspirin in post ©) Alcoholic cardiomyopathy myocardial infarction i inhibition of (41/MS 97) 4) Aortic stenosis 4) Platelet thromboxane synthesis 1762.Im which of the following conditions ') Endothelial prostacyclin synthesis nitroglycerine will aggravate the angina - ©) Platelet aggregation factor a) Aortic regurgitation (AIIMS 2K) @) Coagulation factors ) Sub aortic stenosis 1751. The antihypertensive which cuases gingival ©) Mitral stenosis hyperplasia is- (AIMS 80, JIPMER 81) 1763. Antihypertensive causing impotence- (DNB 2001) 8) Metroprotol _b) Nifedipine 8) ACE ') Propranolol ©) Hydralazine _d) Sodium Nitroprusside 6) Atenolol a) Nifedipin 1752, Which of the following is not used to treat acute 1764, An overdose of Heparin is treated pulmonary edema~ (PGIS8Y - . (PGI81, DNB89) 8) IV finids b)IV morphine 4) Prostaglandins ») Phenindione ©) IV frusemide 4) Oxygen ¢) Protamine sulphate) Prostigmine 1753, Which drug increase renal perfusion~ (PGI88) 1765. Which of the following would least likely oceur as 4) Adrenaline b) Nor adrenaline an untoward reaction to heparin-(PGI81,A1IMS85) ©) Dopamine 4) Isoprenaline 4) Osceoporsis ») Haemorrhage 1754, Which af the following drug increase renal blood ¢) Hypernatremia 4) Respiratory distress fow- @PGI85) 1766. Drug which may precipitate angina 8) Norepinephrine Epinephrine are- (AIMS 80,PG1 88) ©) Dopamine 4) Isopemaline 8) Beta blockers b)Nitrties 1758, Congestive cardiac failure is not aggravated or 6) Alpha blockers ) Caleiam channel percipitated by - ALI) 1767, Pericarditis is a side effect of all of the following 4) Propranolol ) Theophylline except- (GIPMER 79) ©) Phyenylbutazone 4) Carbenoxolone 8) Methysergide ») Procainamide 1756, Drug of choice in heart block is- (TN 90) ©) Emetine 4) Aspirin a) Nifedipine b) Isosorbide 1768. Cardiotoxicity isseen with- (ALL INDIA 96) ¢) Steroids 4) Isoproterenol 1) Cyclophosphamide b) Doxorubicin 1957, Drag of choice in Carotid sinus syncope 6) Actinomycin =D 4) Vincristine is- GIPMER 80,PGI81) 1769,Non ischaemic chest pain is caused 2) Ephedrin ») Propranolol by (KERALA 97) ©) Adrenaline 4) Reserpine a) Bleomycin ') Vineristnum 1758, Beta blockers are antiarrythmic agents of type- ©) Cyclophosphamide d) Cisplatinum al DDH WIPER 81, DELHI88) 1770, “Gyanecomastia” is caused by- (AP 97) ol ov 4) Phenytoin ') Cushing's syndrome 1759, One of the following does not cause ©) Conn’s syndrome 4) None bradyeardia— (ALLINDIA 98) 1771. ACE inhibitor induced cough is mediated 4) Propanotol b) Hydralazine by (P6103) ¢) Clonidine a) Reserpine a) Bradykinin ») Substance-P 6) Prostaglandin Serotonin e) Renin 1748)a 1749)d_ 1750)a 1751) 1752)a_1783)e ITE2Vb 1763)bed 1764)e 1765)e 1766)e4 V6) 4 1754)¢ 1755) 1756)d 1757) 1758)b 1759) 1760)¢ 1768) 1761)4 1769)a 1770)a 171)abe na IE ‘ asia1.83 RESPIRATORY JERAL 1772. CO, retention is seen in- a) COPD ’) Morphine adminstration ©) Pickwickian syndrome 4) Salicylate poisoning 1773, Total minute volume of normal tung is-(//P MER 79, a) 2L by4L AIMS 80) 24sL JTL 1774, The oxygen content of the arterial blood is reduced in all ofthe following except- (PG178, 4) Mathaermoglobinaemia Kerala 80} »b) Carbon monoxide poisoning ©) By the persence of 2 left to right shunt in the heart 4) Fallot’s tetralogy ¢) Fibrosing alveolits with low arterial paCO, Paradoxical respirationisseen in- (Kerala 95) 2) Multiple fracture ribs 6) Diaphragmatic palsy ©) Bulbar polio 4) Severe asthma 1776, Which is the latest antiviral drug for bronchitis (Pats) 1775. due to RSV- (IN 95) 4) Ribavarin ») Acyclovir ) Amantadine 4) Kdoxuridine 1777. Sudden onset of cough followed by increasing dyspnoea ischaraeteristic of. (NIMHANS87) a) Pleural effusion by Lobar pneumonia ©) Myocardial infarct __d) Pheumothorax 1778, Hemoglobin does not bind with - (AMU 95) a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide ©) Carbon monoxide HON 1979. Shrinking lung syndromeisseen in- (AIIMS85, aE b) Systemic scler A186) ©) Polymyositis d) Dermatomyositis 1780. Pulmonary hypertension cecursin(M/MEANS 88) 4) Essential hypertension ») Parkinsonism ©) Cushing syndrome 4) Sten leventhel syndrome 1781. Pulmonary eosinophilia is not caused (amMs 94) ) Patagonimus 4) Babesia microti MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 1783. Which is false regarding tuberculous pleural effusion = (AIMS 91) 18) Mesothelial cell predominance b) Raised adenosine deaminase ©) Hemorthagic ) LDH 60% 1784. Chronic fibrosing mediastinitis is seen GIPMER 95) a) Tuberculosis ) Histoplasmosis 6) Plague 4) Sarcoidosis 1785. Haman-rich syndromes treated with - (41/245 86) ) Vitamin B, ) Vitamin B,, © INH 4) Steroids 1786, Pickwickian syndrome consist of (AIIMS 87) 4) Hypercapnia b) Obesity ©} Somnolence a) All of the above 1787, Hamman’s eruch is seen in- (PGI80, AIIMS 81) 8) Caries tooth ) Fracture mandible ©) Mediastinal emphysema 9) Nieman pick-disease 1788, Hemoptysis isa important symptom in-(PGI37) 8) Idopathic hemosiderosis ») Bronchial adenoma ©) Alpha antitrypsin deficiency } Pulmonary TB. 1789. Bovine cough is characteristic of- 8) Acute epiglotis ) Tracheitis ©) Laryngeal paralys 4) Chronic laryngitis (AP 89) 11790, Wheih of the following is not a feature of kkartagener’s syndrome- (PGI 86) a) Bronchiectasis ») Pancreatic insufficiency €) Sinusitis 4) Situs inversus 1791, Clubbing occurs earilest with- (AMU 88) a) Empyema ) Bronchiectasis ©) Cyanotic heart disease 4) Crohns disease 1792. Pink frothy expectoration is seen in- (Vimhans 88) a) Pulmonary edema ») Pulmonary tuberculosis ©) Bronchogenic carcinoma 4) Mucormycosis 1793. Crackling crepitations unaltered by coughing is, characteristics- (Nimhans 88) 1) Pulmonary tuberculosis 1782, Anexacerbation of farmer's lung~ (JIPMER8I, by) Interstitial lung disease 4) Is commoner in suramer Delhi 84) ©) Klebsiella pneumonia ) Is characterised by intense wheeze 4) Lung abscess €) Produces eosinophilia in the peripheral blood 1794, Cause of acute pulmonary edema are all except- @) Is excluded by the absense of precipitating 4) Inhalation of irritant fumes (NIMHANS 88) anbtibodies ') Sudden exposure to high altitudes * Disseminated intravascular coagulation 6) Acute left ventricular faire 6) Deep sea diving I772)abe 1773)4 1774)c 1775) 1776)a_1777)b_1778)d_—_1779)a_1780)a_ 1781)d_1782)¢_1783)a 1784)abd 1785)d 1786)d_1787)c 1788)abd 178%) 1790)b 1791)a 1792)a_1793)b 1794)1798, Paradodxical breathing ischaracteristic of- ) Pneumonia (NIMHANS 88) ») Pneumothorax ©) Atelectasis 6) Diaphragmatic paralysis 1796, Pleural effusion wiht low glucose content is characterist (NIMHANS 88) 2) Rheumatic fever ) Rheumatoid arthritis ©) Mesothelioma 4 Metapneumonic effusions Stony dull note on percussion is characteristic of- 1797. 2) Pleural effusion (NIMHANS 88) ») Consolidation . <) Pleurisy 4) Tuberculosis cavity 1798. Tubular breathing isseen in- _ (NIMHANS 88) a) Pleural effusion ¢) Pleurisy 4) Tuberculosis cavity 1799, Cavernous breathing is seen in-_ (NIMHANS 88) a) Pleural effusion ) Consolidation ©) Ca lung 4) Cavity lung, (Chubbing of fingers is caused by all except- ) Consolidation 1800. 8) Acyanotic heart disease (UPSC 87) ) Uleerative colitis ©) Crohn's disease 4) Billiary cirhosis - 1801. Amphoric breathing is seen in- (UPSC 87) 2) Pneumothorax ) Pericarditis ©) Pneumonia 4) Pleural effusion 1802. Commonest cause of bronchopleural fistula is- (PGrs4) ) Carcinoma bronchus) Bronchiectasis ©) Pulmonary TB 4) Bronchitis 1803. In kartagenerrs syndrome all are seen except- (Kerala 89) 8) Cystic fibrosis )Dextrocardia ¢) Sinusitis 6) Absence of cilia 1804, In eryptogenie fibrosing 2iveoitis which is not seen- a) Decreased lang capacity- ) Decreased diffusing capacity €) Decreased arteliolar oxygen tension 4) Decreased FEV /FVC ratio (PGI89) 184 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIt 1807. The following are interstitial lung diseases except- a) Sarcoidosis (IN 90) ») Fibrosing alveotitis 6) Bronchial asthma 4) Pneumoconiosis Allare true of chronic corpulmonale except 8) Prominent pulmonary segment (AI 90) ») Dilated main pulmonary artery ©) Peripheral pruning of pulmonary artery 6) Kerley B lines 1809. Most common ECG finding is acute respiratory failure is- (A190) ) Supraventricular arrhythmia ») Bundle branch block ¢) Right ventricular hypertrophy 4) Complete heart block 1810, Persistent coarse crepitaions in the chest is diagnostic of (Kerala 90) a) Pulmonary TB. Pulmonary edema ©) Cavity lesion 4) Bronchiectasis 1811, 100% Oxygen improves eyanosis in all except- a) Tetrology of fallots (Alon) ») Bronchial asthma ©) Eosinophilic pneumonia 4) Interestitial lung disease 1812, Cardinal sign of respiratory arrestis- (TN 91) a) Apnea ') Shallow breathing ©) lmegular breathing —_—_d) Hurried breathing 1813. Foreign body aspiration is most common in- a) Left apical lobe (Kerala 91) ») Left lower lobe ©) Right middle and inferior apical lobe 4) Right apical lobe 1814. FEV, /FEVC ratiois decreased in ll except - 2) Bronchiectasis (WIPMER 91) ) Emphysema ©) Chronic bronchitis 4) Tuberculosis 1815. Millary mottling of lung is seen in all except (IPMER 91) 8) Silicosis ) Aspergilosia ©) Hemosiderosis 4) Tuberculosis 1816, Which is nota feature of fibrosing alveolitis- 1808. Alpha-1 antritrypsin deficiency which is true- 4) Clubbing, GIPMER 91) 1) Autosomal recessive (PG189) ») Tachypnea ») Associated with emphysema ) Basal rales 6) Premalignant 4) Pulmonary osteoarthropathy 4) High protease activity is present 1817. PO, decreases on exercise i (AIMS 91) 1806. Air embolism is diagnosed by- (IN 90) a) CopD b) Interstitial fibrosing alveoltis ) Loud P2 ©) CCF 4) Bronchiectasis ) Contiftuous murmur 1818, Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is seen ©) Water whee! sound in (AIMS 91) 4) Cresendo decresendo murmur ) Asthma +) Carcinoma bronchus ©) Tuberculosis cavity 4) Bronchiectasis 1795)d_1796)bed 1797)a_ 1798)abd 1799)d 1800)a 1801)a 1802)¢ 1803)ad 1804)d 180S)abed 1806)e 1807)¢ 1808)d 1809)a 1810)d 1811)a 1812)a 1813)¢ 1814)d_1815)b 1816) 1817)b 1818)ad see aia tact1819, Which isnot seen in patients on ventilator- 2) Alkalo (AIMS 92) Pulmonary embotism 6) Cardiac tamponade @) Baro trauma 1820. Lung abscess is 20¢ a complication of- (A/IMS 92) 3} Lobar pneumonia, b) Bronchopneumonia 4) Bronchiectasis 1821. Earliest evidence of clubbingis- (JIPMER 93) a) Increased AP diameter b) Shine ©) Fluctuation 9) Increased transverse diameter ‘Sino bronchial infection is most commonly seen (JIPMER 93) 1822. a) Penumoconiosis b) Kartegeners, syndrome ©) Uremia 4) Downs syndrome 1823. Which is not associated with unilateral pulmonary edema. (JIPMER 93) a) Lymphoma ») Post pleural aspi €) Pneumoconiosis 4) Aspiration pneumonit 1824, Pulmonary edema due to narcotic overdosage is mostly seen with- (IPMER 79, 60, 81) ) Cocaine b) Heroin ‘) Morphine <4) Methadone 1825. Pallor of the creases of the palm occurs with haemoglobin of- (IPMER 79, PGI 80) a) 10gmvl, b)7 em/dL ©) Sema 4) 3 am/dL 1826. The best method of obtaining. sputum for anaerobie culture is- 1) Endobronchial aspiration ») Transtrackeat aspiration (PGI 80, AIMS 8) ¢) Expectoration 4) Transcutaneous aspiration - 1827, In restrictive lung disease- (AIMS 80, 81) a) FVCishigh b)FEV, ishigh ©) FEV, /FVCis high 9) Aitof the above 1828, Pseudobronchiectasis is seen in- (PGI80, 4) Lung abscess JIPMER 81) b) Atelectasis ©) Bronchopneumonia 1.85 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1831. With normal tidal breathing the diaphragm descends- (JIPMER 79, ALIMS 80) a) tom b)3em ©) Sem 4)8em 1832, Most likely precursor to bronchiectasis is- (PGI81, UPSC 82) 8) Tuberculosis ) Carcinoma ©) Bronchial adenome —__) Bronchopneumonia IS FEV, is 1.3 lit. FVC is 3.1 litin an adutt man the pattern is suggestive of (PGI81, UPSC89) a) Normal lung function ») Restrictive lung disease ) Obstructive lung disease 4) None of the above The hail mark of generalised obstructive lung disease is- (PGI80, ATIMS 81) a) Reduced tidal volume ») Reduced residual volume ) Reduced timed vital capacity 4) Reduced vital capacity By pilocarpine iontophoresis of the following the value which suggests cystic fibrosis is- (WIPMER 79, UPSC 89) a) Sweat chloride (<] 70 meajlit, Na [<] 60 megjlit. b) Sweat Cl [>] 70 megllit, Na [<] 60 meal €) Sweat Cl[>] 70 meg/it, Na }60 meqii. 4) None of the above 1833. 1834. 1835, 1836, Differential diagnosis of pirmary lung abscess includes- (AIMS 81, PGI82) a) Silicosis, byPeripheral carcinoma ©) Bagassosis, 4) Tuberculosis Commonest cause of respiratory failure type IT i (IPMER 81, Delhi 93) 1837. 4) Pleural effusion 'b) Chronic bronchitis with emphysema © Bronchiectasis @) Aspergillos ‘The most likely cause of bihilar tymphadenopathy is. (AIMS 78, Dethi 84) 4) Histoplasmosis ») Tuberculosis ©) Sarcoidosis 4) Aspergillosis Pulmonary oedema isa hazard associated with- a) Immersion hypothermia (AIMS 79, PGI 89) ) Ozone poisoning €) Radiation sickness 4) Acute mountain sickness 1838, 1839, 4) Emphysema 1840. Bronchoalveolar lavage is beneficial in the 1829, To qualify as a solitary pulmonary nodule in chest evaluation of - (AIIMS 81, PGI 84) X-ray thesize sboukinotexceed- (AIMS 79 a) Interstitial lng diseases a) om b)6em —-PGI79) ) Acute bronchitis ) 8em d9em ~ ) Bronchopleural fistula 1830. Normal mean reid index is-(J/PMER 78,AIIMS 80) 4) Preamothorax 02 035 oa 06 1819)¢ 1820)None 1821)c 1822)b _1823)¢ 1824) 1825)b 1826) _1827)e_ 1828) 1829)a 1830)c 1831)a (832). 1833)¢ 1834)c 1835)¢ 1836)bd 1837) 1838)c 1839)bed 1840)a1.86 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT. 1841. 1842, 1843. 1844, 1845. 1846. 1847, 1848, 1849. 1850, 1851. Alveolar hypoventilation may be caused by each ofthefollowingexcept- (AIMS 78, AMU 87) ) Obstruction to the airways b) Injury to the chest wall ) Damage to the medullary centres 4) Early diabetic acidosis Restrictive lung disease is associated with- 8) High residual lung volume (AIMS 79, TN 90) ) High PCO, ©) FEV, below50% 4) Very low PO, Finger clubbing is not a usual feature with- 1) Mesothelioma. (PGI 79, UPSC 85) ») Bronchiectasi . ¢) Tropical eosinophilia ion is observed in(AlIMS81) 8) Guillain-Barre syndrome by Status asthmaticus €) Bronchiectasis, 4) Chronic bronchitis, Monday dyspnoea is seenin- (PGI8!, AIMS 87) a) Byssinosis _b) Pulmonary eosinophilia ) Malingering 4) Chronic bronchitis Cavernous breathing is seen in-(A/IMS81, PGI 82) a) Pleura effesion ’b) Consolidation 6) Ca lung ) Cavity lung, Lang abscesses are least likely to be caused by- a) Histoplasma (PGI 80, AMC 81) ) Staphylococcus ©) Metastatic malignancy 4) Primary carcinoma Hypercapnea at rest is most indicative of 2) Hypoventilation (PGI 80, Delhi 84) ) Right to left shunt ©) Impaired diffusion 4) CO poisoning Features of fibrocystie disease include all except- ) Meconium ileus (IPMER 79, TN89) ») Obstructive emphysema ©) Pancreatic insufficiency 4) Decreased Na and Cl in sweat For diagnosis of obstructive airway disease which of the following measurement is usual- a) Vital capacity (PGI81, UPSC86) b) Timed vital capacity 6) Tidal volume 4) Blood gas analysis Ultra structural abnormalities reported in 1852. 1883, 1884, 1855. 1856. 1887. 1858, 1859, 1860. 1861, 1862, 1863. ‘The hallmark of generalized obstructive disease isreduced.... (PGI 81, Delhi 84) ) Vital capacity ») Arterial O, saturation ©) Timed vital capacity @) Tidal volume isease showing marked decrasein FEV -(Karn 94) a) Bronchial asthma ’) Fibrosing alveolitis ©} Pleural effusion 4) All ofthe above Pulmonary oedemamay oceurin- (Karn 94) a) Exposrue to high altitude ) Organaphosphorous poisoning ©) Acute LVF 4) All of the above In haemoptysis from- 1) Bronchial veins ) Bronchial arteries Commonest site of lung abeess is- a) Post segment of right upper lobe ») Lingula ©) Post segment of teft lower lobe 4) Post segment of right lower lobe Findings in blood gas analysis are PO-40 mm Hg;PCO,=60 mm Hig diagnosis is- (a1 96) 8) Type I respiratory failure acute ) Type Il respiratory failure chronic ©) Type Il respiratory failure acute 6) Type I respiratory failure chronic The typical feature of interstitial lung disease (Delhi 96) a) End inspiratory rales b) Expiratory rales ©) Inspiratory rhonchi 4) Expiratory rhonchi ‘Hemoglobin does not blind with- (AMU95) 8) Oxygen ) Carbon dioxide ©) Carbon monoxide HCN Spirometry is useful to calculate all the except - a) Tidal volume b)FEV (A197) 6) Residual volume €) Vital capacity Isobaric O, is used for treatment of-(All India 97) 2) Co poisoning ) Ventilation failure ©) Gas gangrene 4) Divers bends Alveolar arterial O, gradient is increased in all except- (AIMS 96) a) Interstitial fibrosis b) Right to left shunt ©) Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis 4) Hypoventilation In bronchiectasis the following are seen except- blood usually comes (Kerala 95) ) Pulmonary veins 4) Pulmonary arteries (Kerala 95) defectivecilia immotile cilia syndrome are a) Normalchest X-ray (Kerala 97) a) Dynein in arm deficiency (PGI 80, AIIMS’84) b) Chest X-ay with eystic cavities and tramline b) Absence of radial spokes appearance ©) Absence of central microtubule «) Pleural effusion @) Alllof the above @) Clubbing 1841)d_ 1842)d_ 1843)e 1855) 1844)ad_1845)a 1846)d 1847) 1856)a_1857)b,c1858)a 1848)a_1849)d 1850)b 1851)d_1852)c 1859)d 1860)¢ 1861) 1862)d_ 1863)c 1853)a, 1854) i2) Increased by hyperventilation ‘b) Decreased by hyperventilation 6) Similar to venous 07 tension 4) Not affected by respiratory depression 1.87 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 1864, Blood gas analysis in type I respiratory failure 1875. Total lung capacity depend on - (41 98) shows- (ROHTAK 98) a) Size of airway ') Closing tidal volume 4) tpCO, 1 p0, b) (x) pCO, 1p0, ©) Lungcompliance _d) Residual volume ©) t pCO, t pO, 4) 4pCO, +p, 1876. Upper airway obstruction causes all except-(4/ 99) 6) Allare the false ) Functional residual capacity 1865. Hyperventilation isa feature of all except (4/97) ») Increase compliance ) Metabolic acidosis) Raised bicarbonate ©) FEV ©) CSF acidosis 4) High altitude 4 None 1866, Allis true about respiration except- (ROHTAK 98) 1877. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergilosisis related 4) Dead space is 150 ml to sarcoidosis involving the ung by which cell ») PCO, decreased in acute bronchial asthma type- (AUMS 78, 81) €) pCO, increased in acute bornehial asthma a) Macrophage by Plasmacell __ 6) None €) Eosinophil &) Type Il pneumocyte 1867. All the following are features of alveolitis 1878, All are the drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis (interstitial lung disease) EXCEPT- (UPSC 2K) except- cargsy a) Exertional dyspnoea ) Busulfan ) Methotrexate b) Early productive cough ©) Doxorubin 4) Bleomycin ©) Digital clubbing 1879, All drugs cause intersitial lung disease, 4) Coarse crepitations during inspiration ‘except- (AIMS 96) 1868. Most common cause of hypoxemia is- (Kerala 2K) 4) Phenytoin sodium ) Sulphonamides a) Lowered inspired PO, ©) Busulphan 4) Alpha methyl dopa b) Hypoventilation 1880, The commonest cells found in bronchoalveolar 6) Intracardiac shunting ‘washing are~ (Delhi 85. 86) 4) Ventialtion perfusion mismatch a) Monocytes Macrophages * «) Decreased diffusing capacity b) Macrophages (Instead of a) monocytes 1869. Silent chest is seen in (IN 2001) muerophages a) Very severe asthma _b) Chronic bronchitis, ©) Lymphocytes ©) Emphysema 4) Bronchiectasis 4) Eosinophills 1870, A 35 year old male presents with fever. He has 1881, Clinical manifestations of cystic fibroisis include lost 10 kgs. in 1 year. Chest X-ray shows bilateral except= (PGI80, Rohtak 89) basal infiltrates. eis most likely suffering from - ) Cor pulmonale 6) Bronchiestasis a) P.Carini pneumonia Uk K 2001) ©) Malabsorption 4) Hypertension £8) Disseminated candidiasis 1882. In cystic fibrosis the most common organism which ©) Bilateral bronchiectasis cause infection is - GIPMER 86,87) @) Disseminated tuberculosis a) Pseudomonas b) Staphylococcus 1871, Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome(V/MHANS 01) o) Klebsiella 4) Streptococcus a) Associated with sudden cardiac death 1883, Cystic bronchiectasis occursin-_(AI2MS 91) ») Road traffic accidents, ) Malignancy b) Sarcoidosis ©) Bulimia nervosa ©) Tuberculosis 4) Fungal infections 4) Anorexia nervosa 1884. Commonest cause for mediastinitisis- (4197) 1872, Total vital capacity is decreased but timed vital + a) Esophageal perforation capacity is normal in (JIPMER 80, UJPSC 87) ') Cervical spondylitis, 4) Bronchial Asthma b) Scoliosis ©) Osteomyelitis of sternum ) Chronic bronchitis) Allof the above 4) Osteomyelitis of clavicle 1873, Cyanosis is seen if the concentration of 1885. Fluroscopy is useful in ~ GIPMER 98) rmethaemoglobin is more than- (AIMS 87, AI 88) 2) Valvular calcification a) 156% b)206% ») Diaphragmatic palsy ) 306% 496% ©) LV. funetion 950% 4) Coronary wall carcinoma 1874, Alveotar ©, tension is- (Karn. 94) 1886, Most common causes of hemoptysis is-(A1IMS 87) a) Mitral stenosis ©) Pulmonary TB ) Bronchiectasis 4) Bronchogenic carcinoma 1864)b 1865)b 1866)¢ 186778 {868)d 1869)a 1870)d 1871) 1884) 1877)c 1878)c 1879)d 1880)2 1881) 1882)a 1883)acd 1872)b_1873)a 1874) None 1886)4 187s)¢ 1876) 1885)1.88 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1887, 5888, 1889, 1890. 1891. 1892, 1893, 1894, ‘Common causes of ventillatory insufficiency is/are- 1) Decreased comliance of lung ~ ') Decreased compliance of chest wall ©) Depression of respiratory centers 4) Airway obstrietion Increased neutrop! lavage fluid is characteristic of - a) Sarcoidosis ) Hypersensituvity Pneumonitis 6) Fibrosing alveotitis 6) Miliary tuberculosis couat n brounchoalveolar (UPSC95) Indiffuse pulmonary fibrosis allare decresed except- a) Vital capacity (alnns 97) ») Diffusion capacity ) Compliance 4) Alveolar arterial O, gradient Ventilatiow/ perfusion ratio is highest in(A1/MS 96) a) Apex of hing by) Mid zone ¢) Lower zone @) Fitur The best indication of alveolar ventilation is provided by measurment of (VIPMER 81,AlMS85) ) Blood pH b)Blood PCO, ©) Blood PO, 4) Tidal volume Kartagener’s syndrome is characterized by all except: (PGI81, DNB 90) ) Conduction deafness _b) Situs inversus «) Sinusitis 4) Bronchiectesis ©) None of the above FEVI/VCisdecesed in - (PGI98) a) Emphysema ) Chr. bronchitis, ©) Interstitial lung disease 4) Restrictive tung disease ‘Central eyanosisis not seen with A/E- __(PGI98) a) Below 5 gnv/100ml reduced haemoglobin ) Pulmonary aspergillosis ©) Status asthmaticus 4) Congenital pulmonary stenosis 1899, Trueabout oxygen concentrators- (PGI 1) 2) Extraction of O, from water b) Requires electrical power ©) 0, from halolite «) Supplies 100% 0, 1900. Hyperbaric oxygen is used in- (Pat o1 a) ARDS b) CO-poisoning ©) Anaerobic sof tissue injury 4) During radiotherapy as desensitzer €) Aconite poisoning 1901. Kartagener’ssyndrome includes - (PG101) 2) Situs inversus ) Bronchiectasis ©) Sinusitis 3) Male infertility + €) Cystic fibrosis 1902. Hypoxemia seenin- (PG102) ) Hypoventilation ) Decreased Fio, ©) Myasthenia gravis _d) Pulmonary emboli ©) Diazepam of overdose 1903. Primary Pulmonary T-B.trueabout- (PGI 04) a) Cavitary lesion ') Pleural effusion «) Fibrocaseaus lesion 4) Phlyetenular keratitis 1904. Diagnostic criteria for allergic bronchopalmonary aspergillosis - a) Nitrosamines ') Eosinophil ) Bilateral chest infiltrates d) Ted IgG ©) Bronchiectasis, (PGI 04) 1905. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease all are 1906. seen EXCEPT- a) LowFEV, ») Increased FEV, /VC ratio ©) Smoking strongly associated 4) Partially reversible by bronchodilator therapy Diagnostic features of aliergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all ofthe following EXCEPT- (al03) (ipmer 03) 1895, Thickening of pulmonary memb. is seen in- 2) Changing pulmonary infirates +b) Peripheral eosinophilia 2 stim » Epc (PGI 98) 9 Seri precipitins aint Aspergilosis fuians " is Jecurrence in patients with old cavitat lesions 1896, Restrictive pattern ofpathologysseeninallexcep” 4997, The blond gas Parameters: pH7S8, pCO, 23 mm By eabecsioa| (PG198) ‘Hg PO, 300 mm Hg and oxygen saturation 60% >) Constitve pericarditis aremost consistent with - (4103) ©) Endomyocardial fibrosis 4) Carbon monoxide poisoning d) Arrhythmogenic cardiac dysplasia ) Ventilatory malfunction 1897, True about interstitial fibrosis - (PGI99) ) Voluntary hyperventil aFvct b)FEVI/FVC normal ort 4) Methy| alcohol poisoning ©) FRCnomal —_ )FEVIFVCL 1908, Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of the 1898. Static lung compliance is decreased im -(PG/ 2000) following conditions EXCEPT - (A103) a) Asthma ‘by Rac fibrosis a) Toxic oil syndrome €) Scoliosis 4) Empriysema ) Progressive systemic sclerosis ©) Fibrosing Alveolitis ©) Sickle cell anemia d) Argemone mexicana poisoning I887)bed 1888)C 1889)d 1890)a 1891)b 1892)e 1893)ab 1894)e,4_1895)a_1896)ad_1897)b 1898)be 1899)b 1900)b,c1901)ab.cd 1902)All 1903)a,bd 1904)a,be 1905)e 1906)d 1907)b 1908)d ai ee att tinct1909. 1910. 1911. 1912. 1913, 1914. 1915. 1916. 1917. 1908} 1910)d 1911)bed A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end tidal carbon dioxide has decreased abruptly by 15 mmHg. « ‘What is the possible diagnosis - ) Hypothermia ’) Pulmonary embolism ©) Massive fluid deficit 4) Myocardial depression due to anesthetic agents “Sleep apnea”, is defined as a temporory pause (AIMS 03) Iinbreathingduringsleep at least-_(A/IMS03) a) 40 seconds ) 30 seconds ) 20 seconds 4) 10 seconds ‘True about bronchopulmonary aspergillosis - 1) Eosinophil count> 1 x 10°/ ml (PGI 04) ') Commonly associated with bronchial asthma ©) Sputum sensitive to aspergillus antigen @) tedigG @) Lower lobe predominance ‘True about kartagener’s syndrome 8) Dextrocardi b)intertility ©) Mental retardation __d) Bronchiectasis Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in allof the following except- (4/05) (PGIOS ©) Berylliosis, 4) Bronchogenic carcinoma Cyanosis cannot occur in severe anaemia because - 2) Anaemic blood has a higher 02 carrying capacity per gram of Hb (SGPGI05) ») Itrequires a critical concentration of reduced Hb inblood ©) Patient improves his alveolar oxygen as a ‘compensation for anaemia 4) There is an increased blood flow through the skin ‘The key factor in the transport of carbon dioxide as bicarbonate is- (SGPGI05) a) The high sojubility of CO, in H,O ») The presence of Hb in blood ©) The presence of carbonic anhydrase in the erythrocytes 4) The acid nature of carton dioxide and the alkaline nature of bicarbonate ‘True about military tuberculosis- (PGI June 05) 4) Occurs following primary reactivation ) Occurs following secondary reactivation ) Both primary and secondary reactivation 4) Skin test always + ve ©) Commonly affects live, kidney and spleen ES.LD.iscaused by- (PGI June 05) 2) Sarcoidosis »ILD ©) AABPA 4) Amyloidosis ©) Emphysema 1912) abd 1.89 1913)d_1914)b 1915)¢ 1920)d 1921)b 1922)d 1923)a 1924)a 1925)a 1926)d 1918 1919. 1920. 1921. 1922. 1923. 1924, 1925, 1926. 1916) abe MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT Common causesofhaemoptysis- (PG/June 05) a) TR b)Ca lung, ©) LD 4) Pulmonary infarction «) Bronchial asthma Unitateral elubbing seen in- a) Familial clubbing, ) Pancoast tumor ¢) Pulmonary A.V. fistula 4) Aortic aneurysm (arch) ©) Congenital cyanotic heart disease Platypnea is seen in- ) Diaphragmatic palsy «) Pulmonary embolism ©) Bronchial asthma (PGI June 05) (PGI June 05) Pleural effusion ¢) Ltatrial tumor ‘One of the following condition is not associated with clubbing- (MAKE 05) a) Primary biliary cirrhosis ) Chronic bronchi ©) Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis 4) Central bronchiectasis Sequestration lung is best diagnosed by -(MAHE05) a) C.T. scan DMR ©) Barium swallow 4) Angiography ‘The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test 1 patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes - a) Increased RV /TLC (AL 05) ) Reduced FEVI/FVC ) Reduced FEV 25-75 4d) Increased FRC A.28 years old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary function tests (PFT) are 2s fotlows~ PFT Observed Predicted FC 28 282 FEV, © 88% 80% DLCO 526 163 ‘What is the most likely diagnosis in this case 4) Interstitial lung disease (4106) ) Pulmonary artery hypertension ©) Congestive heart failure 4) Bronchiectasis ‘Which one ofthe following isnot a feature of type2 respiratory failure ? (UPSC06) a) pCO, 38mm Hg and pO, 50mm HG b) pCO, 68 mm Hg and pO, 50mm Hg ©) Papilioedema 4) Asterixis Pulmonary tuberculosis is more common in following associated diseases except (COMED 06) @) Acquired Immune Deficiencies syndrome ) Diabetes ¢) Chronic renal faiture 4) Mitral stenosis 1917) abe 1918)abd_1919)bed1.90 1927, White lung is due 10~ (COMED 06) +" a) Congential syphilis) Taxoplasmosis ©) Congential tuberculosis d) Asbestosis 1928. “Creola Bodies" in sputum are pathognomonic of- ) Bronchial Asthma (COMED 06) ) Chronic Bronchitis €) Bronchogenic Carcinoma, 4) Pulmonary Tuberculosis 1929, Mediastinoscope can be visualize all ofthe following lymphnode except ? (Manipal 06) a) Right paratracheal lymphnode ») Aorto pulmonary window lymphnode ©) Anterior tracheal 1939, 1940. MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIL 1938, One of the following is not an indicator of the severity of asthma - (AIIMS 78, PGI81) a) Use of accessory muscles ) Pulsus paradoxus «) Cyanosis 4) Systolic hypertension In bronchial asthma there is constriction of - a) Large airway (AIMS 79, Dethi 84, 93) b) Medium airway ¢) Terminal bronchiole 4) Respiratory bronchiole Aspirin sensitive asthma associated with - 2) Extrinsic estima GIPMER 81, AI 92) 4) Subcarinal : ) Usually associated with urticaria : c) Associated with nasal polyp ASTHMA 4d) Obesity 1941, Asthma is associated with all except - (IPMER 95) 1930, Bronchial asthma can be treated 4) Hyper recactive airways b) Persistent cough L with- (ipmes 86, PGI 87) ©) Episodic wheezing 4) Normal Spirometry 8) Oreiprenaline b) Aminophylline 1942, Use of disodium cromoglycate as a preventive ‘¢) Salbutamol ‘d)Bromhexine measure has been found to be of value in - e) Potassium iodides _ 8} Intrinsic asthma (UPSC 96) 1931. The recent terminlogy for status asthmaticusis~ b) Excercise induced asthma a) Episodic asthma (Kerala 97) ) Chronic bronchitis, ) Chronic asthma «@) Famer’s lung ‘ ©) Acute asthma 1943. One of the constituents of the commonly used 4) Severe actute asthma metered dose inhalers in bronchial asthma which is 1932, Which of the following drugs are used in fanair pollutant & dangerous toearth’s stratophere bronchial asthma - (NIMHANS 88) ae (Delhi 96) 8) Isoprenaline ») Salbutamnat 2) Flurocarbons ») Salbutamol ¢) Aminophylline 4) All of the above ©) Ozone a) Oxygen 1933, Curschmann’s spirals in sputum is seen 4944, Bronchial asthma patient on artifical ventilation in _ ar 84) reaaes- (kama 93) 4) Tuberculosis cavity b) Asthma Ace teehaen Te ; ©) Bronchitis, 4) Bronchiectas ) Anedual IEratioot 1934, All of the following are useful for treating acute ° 6) An inverse ratio ventilation broichialasthma in children except- (4/91) DanBireto a3 Leelee 1945, In bronchial asthma glucorticoids- (UPSC 97) ©) IV aminophylline 4) Actas potent bronchodilators ¢) Sodium chromoglycate inhalation b) Reduce airway inflammation 1935, Following are true of Acute bronchial Asthma except- ¢) Inhibit degranulation of mast cells, 4) Interedstal muscle retraction (Jipmer 92) 4) Block the action of humoral mediators ') Monosyllabitie sound 1946, Excercise induced asthma is not precipitated by - ©) Cyanosis a) High altitude climb & excercise (PGI 96) 3 4) Decreased respiratory rate ) Cycling in cold weather { 1936. Bronchial Asthma is associated with raised levels c) Swimming in hot water of (AIIMS 92) 4) Swimming in cold water a) Leukotrienes bpar2 1947, Zileuton is - (AIMS 2K) ©) PGI 4) Thrombo xane 2) 5 lipo oxygenase inhibitor 1937. Drug of choice in asthma with heart disease b) TXA2 inhibitor 4 is- (JIPMER 80, PGI81) ©) Leukotriene receptor antagonist q 2) Rimiterol b) Terbutaline 4) Lymphocyte inhibitor | c) Ipratropium d)Cromolyn sodium: 1927)d 1928)a 1929)b 1930)abe 1931)d 1932)d 1933)b 1934)d 1935)b,d 1936)a 1937)c 1938)d 1939) ed 1940)¢ 1941)b 1942)b 1943)a 1944)d 1945)b 1946)¢ 1947)aMEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 191 1948, Which B, agonist is not given for acute bronchial asthma” (Orissa R) 4) Satbutamot b) Terbutaline ¢) Salmeterol <4) Methyl xanthine 1949, Charcot - Leyden crystals are derived from- 4) Eosinophils) Basophils (Kerala 2K) ©) Neutrophils. d) Bronchial goblet cells €) Mast calls 1950. Toprevent exercise induced bronchial asthara drug used is - (JIPMER 93) 2) Sodium chromoglycate ) Lpratropium bromide €) Terbutaline @) Epinephrine Which one of the follwing is ar 1981. cbidonie acid derivates cause bronchial asthma-4//MS 0!) a) Prostaglandin H3 b) Prostacy tin ©) Leukotrienes all 1952. Nota feature of acute severeasthma- /PGI99) a) Tachycardia b)Respiratory scidosis ©) Pulsus paradoxus 4) Cyanosis| 1953, Bronchial asthma can bediagnosed by- (PG!01) a) Wheeze ') Dyspnea ©) Normal FEV, 4) Cough ¢) Reversibie obstruction 1954. Universal finding is asthma is~ (PG102) 2) Hypoxia b) Hypercarbia ©) Hypoxemia ) Respiratory acidosis ©) Metabolic acidosis 1958. Pulmonary function changes in acute’ bronchial asthma in untreated patient ~ PG103 2) Ted peak expiratory flow b) led TLC ©) LedFVC. aytedRV ©) TedFEV 1956, Which of the antiasthma medication is not a bronchodilator (Orissa 04) a) Salbutamol ) Adrenaline ¢) Na+ cromoglycate _d) Ipratropium bromide 19517. Trueabout morphology ofAsthma- (PGI 04) a) Charcot- leyden crystal ») Ireversible ©) Involve larger airways 4) Intermittant asthma is better responsive to bronchodilator therapy. ©) Hypersensitive lung. 1958, Trueaboutasthma- 1) Increasing incidence day by day ») Allergic asthma common in older patients 6) Increase in igE in idiosyncratic asthma 4) Bronchoconstriction The ievet of which one of the following compounds (GI 04) 1959. 1960, Anti-nflammatory action of airways - (PGI June 05) 2) Fluticasone b) Ipratropium bromide ©) Budesonide 4) Theophylline ) Terbutaline Bronchial asthama is characterized - (PGI June 05) a) Inflammatory disease of airway ») Allergic disease of airway ©) Hypo responsiveness of airway Hyper responsiveness of airway «) Rx is mostly inhaled steroidabde Proximal bronchicestasis and segmental collapse ina petient with chronic persistent asthma should make us suspect - U&k05) a) Atypical mycobacterial infection by Mycoplasma infection ©) Lymphangitis carcinomatosis 4) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis 1963. Mast cell stabilizer used ia Bronchiat Asthma is - a) Raloxifene —_) Ketotifen (Orissa 05) ©) Azclastin —_—_d) Baclofen PNEUMOCONIOSIS 1964. Which of the following disease coexist with 1961. 1962. silicosis - (PGI85) a) Sarcoidosis b) Tuberculosis ©) Lymphoma 4) Rheumatoid arthritis 1965, Asbestosis causes which ofthe following - (PG/ 84) 8) Apical nodular fibrosis b) Coin shadow ©) Hilar tymphadenopathy 4) Basal peribronchial fibrosis Silicosis causes which ofthe following- (PG/ 84) 3) Apical nodular fibricosis b) Coin shadow ©) Hilar lymphadenopathy 4) Basal peribronchial fibrosis The following does not occur with asbests a) Methaemoglobinemia +) Preumoconiosis ) Pleural mesothelioma 4) Plueral calcification 1968. Causes of hypersensitivity pneumonitis 1967. (P18) isfere- (PGI90) 2) Silicosis ) Farmers lung ©) Bird fancier's tung —_d) Asbestosis 1969, Monday chest tightness is 2 symptom classically seen in- (IPMER 80, PGI81) 2) Bagassoisis ) Anthrocosis ¢) Beryliosis 4) Byssinosis 1970, Cotton dust causes one of the following occupational is clevated in bronchialasthama-- (UPSC 05) lung disease - (PGI81, IIMS 81) a) POL, b)PGH,, a) Bagasso: ») Siderosis ©) Leukotrienes Thronaboxane ©) Benyliosis €)Sillicosis ©) Byssinosis 1948)¢ 1949)a 1950)2 1951}e 1952)None 1953} 1954)a 195S)cd 1956)e 195T)ade 1958)ad 1959)e 1960)ac 196T)abde 1962)d 1963) 1964)b 1965) 1966)abe 1967)a 1968)bc 1969)d 1970)e‘1.92 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-UIT 71, Cotton dust is associated with - (Karn 94) PNEUMONIA a) Byssinosis b) Asbestosis ©) Bagassosis 4) Silicosis 1982. Poor prognostiindieatorin pneumococal pneumonia 172 Pleural califcation is seen commonly in- inelude- (Pars7, ) Silicosis (Dethi 96) a) Leucocytosis over 20000 b) Asbestosis b) Oldage ¢) Hyperparathyroidism ¢) Systemic disease 4) Bronchogenic carcinoma 4) Type II pneumococcus "73, ‘Monday chest tightness’ is characteristic of - ©) Blood culture postive a) Asbestosis (Kerela 2K) 1983, The following about klebsilla pneumonia are true 'b) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis except- (Hus? ©) Byssinosis 4) Red current jelly sputum 4d) Berylliosis 'b) Seen in alocholics €) Silicosis - c) Seen in older age group ‘74, Farmer's lung is caused by exposure to -(UPSC 01) 4) Penicillin is the drug of ctioice 8) Cryptostroma corticale 1984, Post influenza bacterial infection of the lung ) Asperigullus caused commonly by- (NIMHANS 86) ¢) Thermophilic actinomycetes a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus @) Grain dust ¢) Pneumococcus 44) Hemophilus 75. Which one of the following is the most common 985. Thereis no correlation between X-ray appearance initial symtoms of byssinosis- (UPSCO1) and clinica state ofthe patient in -—pneumonia - 2) Chest tightness ') Wheezing 8) Mycoplasma b)Friedlanders (Karn 89) ©) Cough <) Haemoptysis ) Pneumoccal 4) Staphylococcal 76, Asbestosis is usually related to (Jipmer 98) 1986. Broncho penumonia due to measles occurs due to- a) Small cell carcinoma lung ‘) Sinusitis: (Kerala 91) +b) Large cell carcinoma lung, b) Immunomodulation ‘c) Mesothelioma ¢) Bronchial obstruction d) Squamous cell carcinoma lung 4d) Aspiration 77. Malt-worker’s lung is caused by- _(AIIMS83) 1987. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis i associated with - a) Aspergillus clavatus ) Hillar lymphodenopathy (AIMS 92) ) Aspergillus fumigatus ») Raised IgE c) Pseudomonas c) Raised serum precipitins 4) Micropolyspora 4) Increased eosionophilis | 78. Asbesteris is aesociaed with allexcept-(VAz1E 01) 1988. Red ‘current jelly’ sputum is characteriste of- a) Pleural fibroma b) Bronchogenic cancer ) Mycoplasma pneumonia (GIPMER 80, ©) Gastric cancer 4d) Mesothelioma ) Klebsiella pneumonia AIMS 81) 79. Truestatements about asbestosis - (PGI 04) e ee lung abscess 4) Causes Lung Ca Maonee meee ne by Pesiesencaes >, Bulging Fsare sign charaeteritiof pneu ¢) Peritoneal mesothelioma ineto~ a (PGI80, AIMS 81) 4) Anaefobic bacteria _b) Mycoplasma 5) Pulmonary fibrosis 7 ) Pseudomonas ¢)Klebsiella 80, True Statement about silicosis- (PGIO4) 1990, Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by- 8) Produces pleural plague a) Mycoplasma Kerala 95) ) Alw tuberculosis ) Mycobacterium kansasli ) Lower lobe infiltration ©) Photochromogens 4) Hilar adenopathy 4) Pneumocystis carinii 31. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis is associated with 1991. Aperson who has high fever, tachycardia, hemoptysis the following except- (UPSC 05) and alobar consolidation onCXRhas- (7195) a) Sarcoidosis b) Asbestosis a) Bronchopneumonia _b) Lobar pnuemonia ) Carcinoid lung 4) Radiation exposure ©) Pulmonary edema ) Pulmonary infarction 1992, Nosocomial pneumonia is cuased most commonly by (4196) a) Streptococci b) Mycoplasma ‘c) Gram negative bacteria) Viruses ‘sya 1972)b 1973)e 1974)c 1975)a 1976)od 1977)ab 1978)a 1979)All 1980)b,d 1981)e 1982)b,c B)d 1984)acd 1985)a 1986)b 1987)c 98h 1989)d 1990)ad 1991)b 1992)c1.93 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 1993." 1994. 1995, 1998, 1999, 2000. 2001. 2002. ‘All of the followimg statements are NOT true of Klebsiella pneumonia - (Karanat 96) a) Upper lobe involvement ) Bulging fissure sign ©) Ampicillin is drug of choice 4) Itis otherwise known as Friedlander’s pneumonia All of the following organisms cuas pneumonia except- a) Pneumocystis carini +b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae ©) Legionella pneumophila «) Haemophilus influenzae ‘Virus causing pneumonia are allexcept- (JPMER a) Cytomegalo virus +) Mumps 95) «) Herpes 4) Measles . Plasma cell pneumonia is caused by- (PGI80) a) Friedlander’s bacillus) Streptococcus 3) CMV &)P. cain . In mycoplasma pneumonia, following are seen except- a) Diffuse infiltration of lungs b) Cannot be cultures routinely ¢) Best treatment by cefotaxime 4) Serology is useful in diagnosis Pneumocytis carini pneumonia is diagnosed by - ) Interstitial penumonia (PGI 98) ») Eosinophils in septa ©) Alveolar type I cell damaged 4) All of the above Characteristic histopathological feature of penumocystisearini pneumonia~ (PGP 2000) 8) Interstitial pneumonitis ») Increased eosinophills ©) Foamy vacuolated exudates 4) Mononuclear cell in bronchoalveolar lavage ) Neutrophil infiltration Features seen in Bronchiolitis obliterans with ‘organizing Pneumonia include 4) Polypoid plugs in bronchioles ») Urceration and exudation of epithelium into the fumen ©) Exudation of proteinaceous material in terminal airways @) Bronchoconstriction «) Response to steroids Predisposing factor for pneumococal pneumonia - (PG197) ‘eosinophils a) CRF 'b) Lymphoma/PG! 01) ¢) Oldage @) Thalassemia &) Cystic fibrosis ‘True about occupational cancers- a) Seen even after exposure is stopped ») Site for occurance common to a occups ) Usually not seen in younger persons 4) Serotal cancer is common in dye industry workers (PGIO1) (arol) . 2003. 2004. 2005. 2006. 2007. 2008, 2009, ‘Trueabout Legionella penumonia include a) Occurs in epidemics ) Treated wit penicillin ©) Associated with splenomegaly @) Diagnosed from sputum ¢) More common in children Preumocystiscarini pneurmonia prophylaxisis given in- (PG103) a) IfCD, count <200ml b) Tuberculosis ©) Ifthe viral load is 25,000 copies/mi ©) Oral candidiasis ‘The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is faliso4) 4) Staphylococcus aureus ») Streptococcus pyogenes €) Streptococcus _pheumoniae 4) Haemophilus influenzae Common presenting symptom of pneumocystis carini pneumoniais- (COMEDK 05) a) Cavity on X-ray b) Haemoptysis 6) Breathlessness 4) Purulent sputum Broncho penumonia due to measles oceurs due to- a) Sinusitis (NIMHANS 05) ») Immunomodulation ©) Bronchial obstruction G102) ‘Complications of lobar pneumonia do not inelude - a) Lung abscess (AIMS May 2005) ) Amyloidosi ©) Suppurative arthritis 4) Infective endocarditis CCryptogenic organising pneumonia is characterised byallofthefollowingexcept- (KARNATAKA 8) Migratory pulmonary opacities PGMEE 06) ») Obstructive pattern of pulmonary function ©) Arterial hypoxemia 44) Good response to corticosteroids copD 2010, 2011. 2012, Allareseen in emphysema except- (Kerala 95) a) Decreased vital capacity b) Hyperinflation ©) Ronchi ) Damage to alveoli ‘The complication least likely to occur in a case of chronte bronchitis is - (A188) ) Pulmonary hypertension ) Pneumothorax ©) Emphysema 4) Amyloidosi Which pulmonary function change is not seen in copp- (A192) a) Decreased Residual volume ») Decreased FEV ©) Lowmid expiratory flow rate 4) Decreased diffusion capacity 1993)¢ 1994)d_ 1995)b 1996)d 1997)¢ 1998)a 1999)acde 2000)ac,de 2001)abe 2002)ab 2003)ad 2004)ae 2005)e 2006)¢ 2007) 2008) 2009)b 2010)e 2011)d 2012)a2013. Lung involvement in chronic bronchitis is-(AMU 90 a) Bilateral by Segmental ALIMS 81) ©) Lobar ) Unilateral 2014, All are true in difinition of chronic bronchitis except (Kerala 95) 1) Cough 3 months ) Productive cough ©) More than 2 consecutive months 4) Haemoptysis 2015. Nota complication of chronic bronchi a) Amyloidosis by Emphysema ©) Spontaneous pneumothorax @ Cor pulmonale 2016. In COPD all are affected except— (A189) a) RV ») Ratio of FEV to vital capacity ©) FVC 4) None 2017, Pulm, hypertension in COPD is dueto- a) Constriction of pulm vessels ») Hypoxia ©) Interstitial fibrosis 4) Bronchoconstriction 2018. Lung function test in emphysema reveals PGI 01) a) Increased vital capacity >) Decreased diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide ©) Increased diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide 4) Decreased total lung capacity ©) FEV, decreased 2019. True statements about emphysema ~ a) Breathlessness is always there ») Diffusion rate for carbon monoxide is reduced ©) Restrictive pattern of lung disease 4) Long-teon bronchodilator therapy is not effective. 2020, Most common pre = (A198) (Pai97) (PG104) is- (Orissa 05) a) Environment ») Smoking 6) Allergen 4) All of the above PULMONARY EMBOLISM 2021. Earliest manifestation of pulmonary embolism - (BHU 87) a) Cyanosis b) Hemophysis ©) Dyspnoea 4) Chest pain 2022. Pulmonary embolism causes - (PG1.90) a) Bradycardia b) Decreased cardiac output ting factor for COPD 194 2024, 2025, 2026. 2027. 2028. 2029. 2030. 2031. 2032. 2033. MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT ‘Commonest symptoms of pulmonary embolism- 4) Chest pain ») Dyspnoea. ©) Haemoptysis 4) Cough Most reliable investigation in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is - (PGI 87) a) Lung sean ) Angiography ©) Differential gas tension ECG Treatment of recurrent pulmonary embolism in adults ineluds - (PG189) a) Mobin Udin Umbrella ) Kimray greenfield filter ©) Plication of IVC 4) Femoral thromboembolectomy Investigation of choice in pulmonary embolisms- a) Chest X-ray (AI 90) ) Ultrasound ©) CT scan 4) Ventillation - Perfusion scan Investigation of choicein pumonary embolism - a) Ventilation perfusion scan (A195) b) OR ©) CT scan 4) Angiography Gold standard for diagnosis of pulmonary Embolism- a) Chest X-ray : (PG197) ») Pulmonary angiography ¢) Ventilation perfusion scintiscan acr Most diagnosti embolism is - a) Angiography ) X-ray chest «) Ventilation - perfusion sean 4) CT'scan ©) USG Which of the following are featrues of pulmonary ‘embolism - (PGI2K) 2) Respiratory alkalosis _b) Rightaxis deviation ©) Normal A-aGradient —d) Ventricular strain ‘Trueabout pulmonaryembolism- (PGI 2000) ) ECG shows right ventricular strain pattern ) P,O;P 0, difference in normal ©) ECG also shows typical S, Q, , pattern 4) Notamedical emergency A.55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and cchest pain. The chest X - ray is normal. The next investigation in pulmonary (ROHTAK 97) ©) Arterial hypoxemia (4103), 4) Acute right ventricular strain a) Lung ventilation - perfusion scan 2023. Pulmonary embolism is seen in all except~ ») Pulmonary arteriography a) Fanconi’ anemia (AUMS-91) ©) Pulmonary venous angiography ») Paroxysmalnocturnal hemoglobinuria 4) Echocardiography ©) Oral contraception 4) Oldage 2013)a 2014)d 2015)a 2016)d 2017)qb 2018)be 2019)ab,d_2020)b 2021)¢ 2022) AN12023}a 2024) 2025)b 2026)b 2027)d 2028)a 2029)b 2030)a 2031)a,bd 2032)ac 2033)a1.95 ——$<—$—$—<—$<—<$<—$—<———— MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 2034, Pulmonary embolism is most commonly produced by which of the following - (SGPGI05) ) Trauma ») Atherosclerosis ) Thrombosis of pelvic vessels 4) None 2035. Most reliable investigation in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is (ipmer 05) a) Lung scan b) Angiography 6) Differential gas tension d) BOG 2036. The most definitive method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism is - (AIMS NOY. 05) ) Pulmonary ateriography ° ») Radioisotope perfusion pulmonary scintigraphy KG 4) Venography D-dimer is the most sensitive diagnostic test for- 2) Pulmonary embolism (AIMS May 2005) by Acute pulmonary oedema ©) Cardiac tamponade 4) Acute myocardial infaraction 2037. 2038. Inacute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is - (AIMS 06) a) SIQ3T3 pattern )P. pulmonale ©) Sinus tachycardia —_—_d)Rightaxis deviation 2039. What is the definitive method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism ? (UPSC06) a) Ventilation perfusion imaging ») Positron Emission Tomography ©) High Resolution CT ) Pulmonary angiography 2040. Wel’s grading of pulmonary embolism is based on - a) Doppler (APPG06) ) Clinical symptoms ©) Hemoptysis 4) Heart Rate> 100 beats per min PLEURAL EFFUSION & PNEUMOTHORAX 2041. Commonest cause of spontaneous pnemothiorax is- (AI 89) ) Rupture of sub-pleural bleb —b) TB. ¢) Trauma 4) Asthma 2042, Allofthe following cause petural cavity transudation except (G1 84, 86) a) Empyema b)CCF ©) Nephrit 4) Meigs syndrome 2043, Pleural fluid low in glucose is seen in- (PG/ 88) ) Rheumatoid arthritis) Tuberculosis ¢) Mesothelioma &) Empyema 2044; Causes of hemorrhagic pleural effusion - (PGI88) a) Pulmonary infarction * b) Mesothelioma ©) Bronchial adenoma d) Tuberculosis 2048. Bilateral pleural effusion is seen in (A//MS 82) a) Nephrotic syndrome ) Constrictive pericarditis ©) Congestive cardiac failure 4) All of the above 2046. Commonest cause ofaon progressive pneumothorax (Kerala 90) a) Rupture of sub-pleural bleb b) Tuberculosis ©) Trauma 4) Bronchiectasis, 2047. Pneomothorax occurs in all except- 8) Eosinophilic granuloma ) Marfan’s syndrome ©) Assisted ventilation 4) Broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis 2048. Best view to demonstrate right pleural effusion in Chest X-ray is- (All India 93) 4) Right lateral decubitus +) Left lateral decubitus aar91) ©) Prone 4) Supine 2049, Bilateral malignant pleural effusion is most often seen in - (IPMER 80, PGI81) 2) Ca.breast b)Ca-lung ©) Mesothelioma 4) Lymphoma 2050, Best position ot reveal small pleural effusions on chest X-ray is- (PGI 79, AIMS 80) a) AP view b) PA view : ©) Lateral view 4) Lateral decubitus view A patient with spontaneous’ pneumothorax invloving more than 50% of hemithorax is best reated with - (PGI 81, Delhi 93) a) Needle aspiration ») Closed drainage by tube in underwater seal ) Let spontaneous remission occurs @) Open thoracotomy 7 ‘Tuberculous pleural effusion is characterised by all except- (All india 97) 4) LDH inthe fluid is more than 60 times that of serum ) High mesothelial counts ©) Increased cartier adenosine deaminase levels 4) Hemorrhagic effusion To achieve pleurodesmosis in malignant pleural effusion, the drug ased is-(AIIMS 79, Delhi 86, 88) 2051. 2082, 2053. ) PolymyxinB b) Chloromycetin ©) 1% Betadine 4) Tetracycline 2054. The primary treatment of tuberculous empyema is- ) Open tabe dt (AIIMS 84) b) Ctube tube drainage ¢) Systemic chemotherapy ) Thoracoplasty 2034)e 2035)b 2036)a 2037)a 2038)c 2039)d 2040) 2041)a 2042)ad 2043)a,c,d 2044)abd 2045)d 2046)a 2047)d 2048)a 2049)b 2050)d 2051)b 2082) 2053)d 2084)e1.96 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT +2055. Increased Amylase in pleural fluid is seen in ~ 2066. Allare features of ARDS except- (A190) (Pci97) 8) Pulmonary hypertension ») Rheumatoid arthritis ) Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure ©) Pulmonary infarction ©) Hypusernia TB. 4) Low protein pulmonary edema 2086. Decreased glucose level in pleural effusion is found 2067. All predispose to ARDS except- (Al 90) in- (G19; a) Fatembolism ) Rheumatoid arthritis b) SLE ») Septicemia 8) Pneumococcal infection 4). carinii infection ©) Multiple blood transfusions 2087, Amylase increased in pleural fluid is seen in 4) Status asthmaticus following except - (PGI 2000) 2068, All are features of adult respiratory distress a) Rheumatoid arthritis syndrome except- (Al 91) 1b) Esophageal perforation a) Hypoxemea by Hypercapnia. €) Malignaney . ©) Pulmonary oedema) Stifflung- 4) Gall stone pancreatitis 2069. The point which distingushes ARDS from 2058, Transudative pleural effusion seen in- (PGI02) cardiogenic pulmonary edemais- (Delhi 96) a) Nephrotie syndrome a) Normal PO, b) Rheumatoid arthritis ) Normal pulmonary arterial wedge pressure ©) Constrictive pericarditis, ©) Norcial arterial alveolar gradient ) Myxedema @) Normal PCO, ©) Pulmonary embolism 2070, Which is not seen in ARDS - (uP 96) 2059, Left-sided pleural effusionseenin- (PGI 02) ') Low protein edema ) Pancreat +b) Rheumatoid arth b) Low Pulmonary artery wedge pressure ©) Hypoproteinemia CCF ©) Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure ©) Esophageal rupture | 4d) High pulmonary artery wedge pressure 2060. Spontaneous pneumothoraxisseen in- (PGI02) 2071. Which is nota cause for ARDS- (Kerala 97) 1) Smokes b) Male sex a) Nitrofuramoin, 8) Oldage ) Exercise ») OCF ¢) Short stature ©) Chlorine gas inhalation 2061. Right hemithrax with right side shift of mediastinum 4) Amniotic fluid aspiration isdueto- (G19?) 2072, Features of ARDSare allexcept- (AIMS 89) 8) Collapse aflung _b) Right side hemothorax 8) Hypercapnia +) Pulmonary edema ©) Hydrothorax © Bronchiectssis ©) Stiff lung 4) Hypoxia 2062. A high amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a 2073. In ARDS, not trueis- (P6199) diagnosis of - (AlIMS 03) 1) Increased pulmonary compliance a) Tuberculosis ) Malignaney ») Increased pulmonary artery pressure ©) Rheumatoid arthritis) Pulmonary inferetion ¢) Increased left arial artery pressure 2063, Pleural calcification is seen in - @PGI 04) 6) Severe hypoxemia 2) Mesothelioma ») Haemothorax 2074, Acute severe lung injury is characterised by - ©) Asbestosis ) Pulmonary fibrosis ) Hypotension (PGI03) €) Tubercular empyema b) Shunting 2064, Pleural glucose is <60 mg/dlis seen in which of the ) Pulmonary vasodilatation following condition ? (Manipal 06) 4) Cardiac tamponade @) Malignancy b)TB ©) Cardiac irregularities ©) Fungal ) Pancreatitis 2075, INARDS allare seen EXCEPT- (Vipmer‘03) 4) Dilated bronchioles —_b) Edema AROS ©) Fibrosis 4) Alveolar damage 2076. ARDSis associated with- (PGI 04) 2068, Allare characteristic of ARDS except -(4//MS 82) a) Acute pancreatitis a) No response to oxygen ) Stitt tung ©) Hypercapnia 4) Right 10 left shunt ) Trauma ©) Severe Faleiparum mala 2053)a 2056)4 2057)a 2058)ac,de 2089)a¢ 2060)ab 2061)a 2062)b 2063)ajbe 2064)b 2065)None 2066)d 2067)d 2068)None 2069) 2070)ab 2071)a 2072)a 2073)ac 2074) 2075)a_2076)abeMEDICINE QUES. VOL-IEE KIDNEY 2077, Hematuria RBC casts and proteinuria are suggestive of- (PG180) 1) Nephrotic syndrome »b) Renal cellearcinoma ©) Acute nephritis 4) Chronic renal failure 2078. Heavy proteinuria can oceur in which one of the fottowing- (PGI 79, AMC 83) a) Renal amyloidosis ) Orthostatic proteinuria > ©) Acute pyelonephritis 4) Chronic glomerulonephetis 2079. Meteorism is seen in - a) Hiypokalemia ©) Uremia 2080. Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except - 8) Medullary sponge Kidney ») Polycystic kidney €) Vitamin Dtoxicity 4) Hyperpatathyroidism 2081. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis because - (AIMS 98) 2) Angiotensin I! isrequired for GFR ®) Hyperrenism which occurs in long term therapy ig dangerous to the kidney which secondary ‘damages kidney causing decreased renal blood foow ©) Bradykinin motabolism is affected 4) Prostaglandin levels are altered 2082, Feature of uremic lung- 2) Diffuse alveolar injury ) Pulmonary edema ¢) Interstitial fibrosis 4) Fibrinous exudate in alveoli 2083. The kidney in sickle cell anaemia is characterized by (PGI 78, Delhi 81) a) Pyuria ») Inability to concentrate ¢) Decrease in glomerular filtration 4) Inability toacidify the urine 2084, Water reabsorption is seen in— a) PCT ») per ©) Descending loop of Henle 4) Collecting ducts ¢) Glomeraius _ 2085. Broad cast in the urine are diagnostic of ~(A/ 88 a) Acute glomurulo nephritis, b) Acute renal failure : ©) Chronic glomerulonephritis 4) Nephrotie syndrome (PGI 93) b) Septicemia 4) Allof the above (A192) (P6198) (G18?) 2086. 2087. 2088. 2089, 2090, 2091. 2092. 2093. 2094. 2095, 2096. 2097. 2098. 2099, Convulsions are commonly precipitated in terminal renal failure by - 1AL89) ) Hyperkalemia ) Hypokalemia ) Water intoxication 4) Hypermagnesemia Renal papillary necrosis can be caused by- 2) Phenacetin _) Sulphonamides (UPSC 93) ©) Gentamicin d) Penicillin Nephrotic syndrome can be caused by all except- (AMC 88) 1) Organic gold byPenicitlamine ©) Street heroin 4) Arsenic Nephrotic syndrome can be caused by all except - a) Malaria by Syphilis (PGI 88) ) Hepatitis 4) Mycoplasma Sytemic disease which cause nephrotic syndrome are allexcept~ (G18?) 2) SE b) Diabetes mellitus, ©) Atherosclorosis - __d) Amyloidosis Antibiotic which is safe in renal failure - a) Kanamycin Penicillin (NIMHANSE 68) ©) Minocycline 4) Gentamycin IVPisbetter avoided in- (PG187) a) Multiple myeloma ) Respiratory failure 6) Renal injuries 6) Liver failure Fanconi’s syndrome is inherited as(N/MHANS 83; a) X-linked recessive. by Yalinked ¢) Autosomal recessive 4) Autosomal dominant Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the kidney - (Gi 8s) 2) Urea b) Glucose ¢} Potassium 4) Creatinine €) Amino acid ‘Afairidea of GER is given by...clearance~ 2) Urea b) Creatine 7ard4) ©) Creatinine PAH Polyeystic kideny is not associated with cysts in a) Liver ») Pancreas ©) Brain 4) Lungs Inmembranoproliferative glomerulonephritis tke characteristic feature is- (PG189) 8) Thickening and spliting of basement membrane b) Nilesion ©) Mesangial cell proliferation (N87) @) Fibrincap Membranous glomeruonephritis eam be caused by - a) Penicilin 6) Sulfonamide ——(PG189) «) Gold 4) D-penciliiamine ‘Tamm Horsfall protein (Pa1s9) a) Normal urinary const ) Tubular in origin ©) Abnormal urinary constitent 4) Seen in glomerular disease 2OT Ne 2078)a _2079)d 2080)b 208i)a 2082)apb ——————__§ 2083) 2084)abed 2085)e 2086) 2089} 2090)¢ 2091)None 2092}a 2093)acd 2094)d 2095)e 2095)e 2097)ac 2098)e.d 2087) 2088)4 209)1.98 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 2100, Salt losing Nephropathy isa featureot=, (4/9!) 2112, The organism which cases UTI commonly in @) Amyloid Kideny presence of urinary stenosis is- (A/IMS 79, PGI 80) 3) Inertial nephritis 2) Bol 3) Klebsiella ¢) Lupus nephit €) Pseudomonas 4) Saureus 4) Post sreptoccocal nephritis 2113. What pereentageof eardiae output passes through 2101. Tubercularnephritisischaracteried by- (4191) the kidney normally - (AIMS 79,6180) 2) Pus cells without organism inthe acidic urine 1% 5% ‘b) Pus cells with organism in the acidic urine c) 20% d)30% ¢) Pus ells without organism in the alkaline urine 2114, One of these drugs may precipitate cardiac 4) Pus cells with organism in the alkaline urine failure when usedin renal fallure-(J/PMER 80,81) 2102, Papillary necrosis is most commonly seen in- 2) Digoxin ')Penicilin a) Diabetes Melites (ar 91) ¢) Indomethacin @ Aminone ») Sieklecellanemia 2118, Catheter induced UTI is commonly due ©) Acute pyelonephritis ' toe (AIMS 81,PGI 81) 4) Analgesie nephropathy 2) Ecol ¥) Pseudomomas 2103. Dark urine with no RBC’s and positives Dip stick ¢) Proteus vulgaris) Acinetobactor Rerinreesieears (alus'91) 2116. Nonvoligurie real failures commonly sen in— aetna 2 Seabi (IPMER79,80,81) tpPomt ypovolemic shoe 6) Ines vsulr hemolysis 6) Aminoglycoside toxicity eee 2117, following are abrolute_ indications for 2104, WBC casts in urine is seen in- (ALL INDIA 92) hemodialysis GEMS TRIER TS) a) Nephrotic syndrome b) Amyloidosis a) Gl bleedin; +b) Convulsions ) Renal cell Ca 4) Pyelonephritis 6 : a tal )Pericardiis| 4) Hyperkalemia of 6 meq/l 105, Inchronle renal fallureallareseen except- 2118. In which renal tubular acidosis, is hyper-kalemia 8) Hyperphosphatemia (AIMS 92) a prominent feature- (AIMS 79, DELHI88) b) Hyponatermia a) Typel b) Type II ¢) Hypomagnesemia 6) Type @)TypelV @ Metabolic acidosis 2119, The following are tests of proximal renal tubular 2106. RBC casts in urine is seen in- (JIPMER 93) function except- (AIIMS 81, AMU 88) 2) Nephrotic syndrome _b) Renal amyloidosis. a) Urine aminogram ¢) CRF d)Glomerulonephritis ‘b) Urine concentration and acidification test 2107. Renal postassium wasting associated with 6) Urinary glucose hypertension is seen in all except-(AZIMS 80,PGI8) Urinary phosphate 23) Conn’s syndrome b)Cushing’s syndrome 2120. Nephrocaleinosis in common in renal tubular ©) Bartter’s syndrome) Liddle’ syndrome acidosis of which type— (PGI 78,AlIMS 87) 2108. Dialysis patient are prone to develop -(PGI78, AIMS a) Type! b) Type ll a) Lead toxicity byIrontoxicity 81) ©) Type lll 4) Type IV 6) Aluminium toxicity €) Zine toxicity 2121. Renal tubular acidosis may result due to any of * 2109, Radiation nephritis is characterized by al except thefollowingexcept-__ (IPMER78,AIIMS 85) lay Mild hyperténsion CIPMER 80) 2) Impaired acid production 1) Rapidly developing azotemia Increased ammonia production 6) Massive protemnuria ¢) Impaired bicarbonate reabsorption ¢) Anemia a Reduced ees ‘maximum of bicarbonate Dae uee ¢) Inability to elaborate an acid urine 2a Senge en MPOT&D aan. nV ange nari ein ¢) Cystinuria d) Struvite stones. Ry ea (PGI78,UPSC 89,90) 2111, The most sensitive and reliable indicator of a rejection following renal transplant is -(41/MS 80) ati 2) Blood wes 2123, Aloe complications ofuphrottesyndromeexcept- ) Creatinine clearance ©) Urinary hydroxy proline 4) TA/TS ratio a) Delayed atherosclerosis b) Hypotension ©) Renal failure 4) Infection (PGI81,Rohatak 85) 2100) 2101)a 2102)d 2103)d 2104)d 2105) 2106)d 2107) 2108) 2109)a 2110) 2111) 2112)b 213)e 2114)ae 21Sabe 2116) 2117)abed 2118)d 2119)b 2120)a 2121) 2122)e 2123)ab1.99 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 2124, 2125, 2126, 2127. 2128, 2129. 2130, 2131, 2132, 2133. 2134. 212M)e 2125a 2126) 2127)d_2128)a 2129)a 2130)a 2131)b 2132)a 2133)a_ 2134) Urea clearance is increased ~ (AIMS 8,AMC 87) a) During solute diuresis ') During water diuresis ©) Both ) Neither ‘Most common renal pathology in shock is~ ) Acute tubular necrosis (KERALA 94) ») Acute cortical necrosis ©) Renal vein thrombosis 4) Acute medullar necrosis Chronic renal failure is often complicated by all ‘of the following except - (UPSC 95) a) Myopathy : ) Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome ¢) Peripheral neuropathy 4) Ectopic caleification Symptom of medullary kidney disease- (4/95) a) Nocturia )anaemia ©) Azotenia aUTI ‘The neurological disorder seen in GRF patient on dialysis - (PGI95) a) Dementia b Peripheral neuropathy ©) Restless leg syndrome 4) Encephalopathy F Which of the following is not an absolute indication for dialysis - (PGI95) a Tce b) TK ¢) Pericardial friction rub 4) Acidosis not amenable to treatment Allof following are features of Bartter’s syndrome except (AIMS 95) 8) Hypertension ) Periodic paralysis ¢) Alkalosis d) Polyuria All of the following are examples of tubulointerstitial disorder of the kidney except - a) Hypercaleemie nephropathy (UP 97) ) Lupus nephritis ©) Gouty mephropathy : 4) Hypokalemic nephropathy Recurrence of lesions is seen after renal transplant inallexcept- (AIMS 97) a) SLE ) Diabetic nephropathy ©) Alports 4) Goodpasture’s Initial sign of alport’s syndrome is- (A/IMS 97) a) Microscopic hematuria ) Proveinur ©) Oliguria 4) Sensorineural deafness Hypertonic urine formation is due to absorbtion, of water in- (AIMS 97) 4) Proximal segment ©) Collecting duct b) Distal segment 4) Ascending loop 2136, 2136. 2137. 2138, 2139. 2140. 2141. 2142, 2143, 2144, 2137) 2138)a 2139) 2140)¢ 214I)a 2142)b 2143) 2144)b All ean be except ifestation of polycystic kidney (PGI 96) a) Acute retention b) Renal hypertension ©) Renal failure ) Haematuria Dementia in patient of chronic renal failure with chronic hemodialysis is due to- (PGI96) a) Aluminium toxicity ) Uremia ©) Hypolakemia d) Hypertensive encephalopathy Recurrent hematuria in a deaf mute is seen in- GIPMER 98) ) Fanconis anemia ) Alpor’s syndrome ) Renal eytes 4d) Nephrotic syndrome Polyuria is feature of all of the following EXCEPT. (UPSC 97) 1) Hypocalcemia b) Hypokalemia ©) Lithium toxicity 4d) ADH deficiency Investigation in a patient of oliguria revealed Urine osmolity 620 mosm/kg Urine sodium : 12mmoVL Urine /plasma urea ratio :13:1 - ‘The most likely diagnosis is - (Upse 97) 8) Prerenal acute renal failure b) Acute tubular recrosis, ©) Acute cortical necrosis 4) Urinary tract obstruction Chronicity is least common in- (ALL INDIA 99) 42) Post streptococcal glomerulonepiiritis 'b) Membranous glomerulonephritis ©) Minimal change glomerulonephitis 4) Focal glomerulonephritis To differentiate, PROXIMAL from DISTAL RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS, what s the test used - (AIMS 98) ) Urine pH ') Urine aminoacids 6) Urine glucose <4) Urinary osmolarity In nephrotic syndrome levels ofall serum protein decrease except- (AIMS 98), a) Albumin ) Fibrinogen ©) Transferrin 4) Ceruloplasmin In renal transplant recurrence of the disease ‘occurs mostly with - (PGI 98) 4) Lupus nephritis b) DM nephropathy ©) Membranous glomerulonephritis 4) Membranous proliferative glomerulomephritis In nephriticsyndrome the vaccine given- a) Hemophilus vaccine ) Polyvaient pneurnococcal vaccine ©) Meningococcal vaccine d) Tetanus toxoid (PGI 88) 2135)a_2136)a2145. Regarding fanconisyndrome all are correct except 4) Usually presents by 6 months.but may present later (AP 98) ») Linear growth is impaired ©) Uricosuria is feature 4) Polyuria, polydipsia are features 2146. The anemia in CRF is due to- a) Decreased erythropoiesis ») Increased haemolysis, ©) Both, 4) None 2147. Non-oliguric acute renal failure is commonly seen (UPSC 2K) (AMC 99) a) Pre-renal azotemia b) Aminoglycoside toxicity ¢) Acute glomerulonephritis 4) Septic shock. 2148, All of the following are uremic manifestation improvewith dialysisEXCEPT- (UPSC 2X) 1) Metabolic acidosis »b) Osteodystrophy €) Asterixis 4) Nausea,vommiting and anorexia 2149, RBC cast in the microscopic examination of the urine isan indicator of - (UPSC 2K) a) Acute glomerulonephritis ') Acute Pyelonephritis ©) Chronic glomerulonephritis 4) Nephrotie syndrome 2180. Microalbuminuria refers to urinary albumin mn rate of - CS 2K) 2) 30300mg/24 hour ) 400-600 mg/24 hour ) 700-900 mg/24 hour 4) >1000 mg/24 hour 2151, Macroproteinurin is defined as protein excretion of. 2) <350mgd —b)<400mgid (KERELA 2K) ©) <450mg/d 4) > S00me/d ©) >550me/d 2152, Which of the following is the most dangerous renal cast- (AIIMS 2K) a) Hayaline cast b) Epithelial cast ¢) Coarse granular cast) Waxy cast 2153. A young lady presents with hypertension. DTPA sean was normal K. USG showed a small kidney om the left ide. What is the next investigation - a) DMSA (AIIMS 2K) ») Digital subraction angiography ©) CT scan abdomen 4d) Retrograde pyelogram _ 2154. Which of the following values are suggestive of acute tubular necrosis - a) Urine osmolarity >500 ») Urine sodium> 40 2145)None 2146)a_2147)b 2148)b 2149) 2150)a 2157) 2158)a 2159)b 2160)¢ 2161)e 2162)4 ——————— 1.100 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT ¢) Blood urea nitrogen/plasma cratinine >20 4) Urine creatinine/plasma creatinine >40 2155. The absolute indications for dialysis include the following except- (KERALA 2K) a) Persistent or severe hyperkalaemia +) Congestive cardiac failure ©) Pulmonary odema © Hyperphosphataemia ©) Severe acidos ‘Most diagnostic of renal pathology= (AI/MS 2001) a) Hyaline casts : ») Coarse granular casts ©) calcium oxalate crystals >. 4) Epithelial casts 2157. A 10 year old male child presents with polyuria, anaemia & failure to thrive . O/E bilaterally contracted kidney. Most likely diagnos a) Medullary sponge kidney (AIMS 2001) b) Nephronophthisi ©) ARepolycystic kidney 4) Vesico ureteral reflux 2158. In type 11 RTA (Renal tubular acidosis) serum 2156. postassium level is - (IN 2001) a) Low b)Normal ©) 5.7mEq )>7mEq 2159, Young adult normotensive patient with painless gross hematuria, most likely diagnosis ~ a) Minimal change disease (MAHE 2001) b) IgA nephropathy ¢) Cresentic GN * d) Membrano proliferative 2160. ADPKD isassociated with aneurysm of (A1IMS 01) a) Ascending aorta b) Saccular aneurysm of ascending aorta ©) Berry aneurysm 4) Fasoiform aneurysm of abd aorta 2161. A patient presents with multiple pulmonary cavities hematuria and red cells casts. The most likely diagnosis is - (UPSC 2002) 1) Anti GBM disease +b) Churg - Strauss allergic granulomatosis ©) Wegner’s granulomatosis 4) Systemic lupus erthematous 2162. A 55 year old woman who has a history of severe depression and had radical mastectomy for carcinoma of breast one year back, develops polyuria noctiuria and excessive thirst - Laboratory values are as follows (UPSC 2001) Serum sodium 149 m Eq/L Serum potassium 3.6 mEq/L Serum calcium 9.5 mg/dl Glucose 110 mg.dl Bun 30 mg/dl Urine osmolatity 150 m Osm kg 2SH)None 2152)d 2153) 2154)b 2155). 2156)b ann2263. nes, 2165. 266. 2167. 2168, 2169. 2090. 271, 2072. 2173, 2176. ‘The most likely clinical diagnosis would be - 2} Psychogenic polydipsia bj Renal glycosuria ) Hypercalcicuria 4) Diabetes insipidus Hyperkalemia is characteritc of which type of Renal Tubular Acidosis - (GIPMER 2002) a) Type} b) Type ©) Type ttl 4) Type IV Normal kidney does not allow passage of = ) Beglobulin 'b) Lysozyme (PGI87) 0 1G d) Albumin Renal calculi fs seen in - (AP 88) 8) Hyperthyroidism : b) Biyperparathyroidésm ©) Cushing disease 8) Addisons disease Potassium reabsorption in Kidney oceur — (A193) 4) Partly in PCT and DCT b) Under the influrence of ADH ©) Coupled with sodium ions 4) Only in PCT Renal GFR can beestimated by— (A195) a) Te” DMCA 6) R" DTPA ©) Te DMSA Te Reddish colored urine giving positive dipstick test With orthotoludine and no RBC indicates-(4/IMS87, 8) Porphyria b)Myoglobinuria 91) ©) Hemosiderinuria —d) Haematuria Polyuria is seen in: (PGI 88) a) Diabetes mellitus, b) Diabetes insipidus ©} Recovery from acute nephritis &) All ofthe above In the following diseases S.G. of urine may by very high except- (DNB 89) a) Lipoid nephrosis, ») Diabetic coma ©) CHF 4) Terminal phase of glomerulonephritis ‘Acute tubular necrosis can be eaused by-(UPSC 01) a) Contrast media 6) Hemolysis ¢) Crush injury 46) Shock Renal papilry necrosis is seen in (PGISS) a) Diabetes 'b) Sickle cell aneamia ©) Analgesic abuse «) Leukemias| The commonest cause of Renal papillary necrosis - (Al 92) a) Analgestic nephropathy b) Pyelonephritis «) Diabetes 4) Sick cell anemi Renal invofvement in Henock-schonlein pupura ~ ) May cause maerosocopic haematuria b) Is rare inadults + (PGES), 857 275, 2176. 277. 2178, 279, 2180. 2181. 2182, 2183. MEDICINE QUES. VOL-UT ©) Becomes atresed when the attacks of purpura cease 4) Causes changes in the renal biopsy specimen indistinguishable from those of IGA disease (oerger’s disease ©) Has shown an immune response to antigens of Group A haemolytic streptococci Massive protelauria is mast likely to oceur ia~ Rheumatic mycocarditis (AMU 86) b) Coronary oceulusion ©) Aneurysm of aorta 4) Polyartertis nodosa ©) Constrctive pericarditis In adult polycystic disease of the kidney -(PGI 79,84) a) Inheritance is autosomal dominant ’) Hepatic cysts occur in about one-thitd of the paients ) The best technique for early recognition of cysts in suspected case is ultrasound 4) There is a substantially increased risk of death from intracranial haemorrhage ©) Percutaneous cyst puncture can substantially delay the onset of terminal renal failure Lipodystrophy isseen with - (AIIMS 87) a) Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis ») Membrantous GN ©) Minimal lesion GN @) Posistreptococeal GN Inacute tubular necrosis due to mercuric chloride, the site affected is- (Al 96) a) Straight portion of proximal tubule ») Distal tubule €) Loop of Henle &) Collecting ducts Jn pyelonephritis the diagnostic urinary fiaidng is - (KARNAT 96) 2) Pus cel) cast b)RBC cast ©) Pus cells 4) RBCs, Salt losting neohropathy is - (al 97) a) Diabetes. b) Intestitial nephritis ©) SE d)PAN Allare decreased in Nephrotic syndrome except - 2) Albumin ’b) Tranferrin ©) Cerulopiasarin 4) Fibrinogen Proximal eonvoluted tubule willbe injured by - a) Arsenic b)Phenol C4HIMS.96) ©) Alcohol 4) Amantia phatioides Hypocomplementemia is seen in- (AP 97) ) Lupus nep! ') Focal glomerulonephritis ¢) Minimal change disease 6) All 2163)d_2164)¢ 2165) 2166)None 2167) 2168)b 2169)d_2170)a 2M)aba 275)e 276)ac 27a 2178)a 2179) 2180) 218I)d 2182)a>be DITIAN 2172)abe 2173)a 283)(2184, Membranous glomerulonephritsis associated with which of the folJowing - (PG12002) a) Renal vein thrombosis ) Hodgkin's lymphoma c) Massive hematuria €) Presents as nephrotic range proteinuria e) Subepithelial dense deposits 2185, Nephrotic sywdrome can pe caused (AIMS 85, PGI87, AI88) a) Penicillamine b)Sulphonamide ¢) Erythromycin 46)Chloropromazine 2186. The most common cause of drug induced interstital nephritis is ~ (AIMS 78) a) Methicillin b)Sulfonamides —* ©) Furosemide ) Thiazides 2187. Renal tubular acidosis sa side effect of (ATMS 80) a) Oldtetracyline ) Aminoglycosides ©) Ammphotericine 4) Allof the above 2188. Allthe following drugs caused Interstitial nephritis except= (allMS 2K) b) Methicitin 4) Cephalothin 2189. implicated in interstitial nephri li b)Cloxaciliin (4797) 4)Carbenicillin ©) Anpicilin 2190, allarecommon orgainsms causing UTTexcept - a) Streptococcus fecalis ») Escherichia coli ©) Proteus Mirabilis, 4) Hemophillus influenzae 2191. An infant with sever dehydration secondary to diarrhoea suddenly presents with protein ana bio0d {in urine. The most probable diagnosis is~ a) Renal vein thrombosis (PGI78, UPSC 89) b) Pyelonephritis ©) Acute glomerulonephritis 4) Lower nephrosis 2192, Immume complex mediated gloomerular damage is seen in all except - (Kerala 95) 4) Membranoproliferative GN b) Good pasture’s syndrome ©) Crescentric GN 4) Focal segmental GN 2193. Minimal change nephropathy progresses to a) Membranous GN (4195) b) Mesangioproliferative GN ©) Focal glomerulonephritis 4) Focal glomerulosclerosis 2194, Nephrolithiasis in infant is a complication of all except (AIMS 97) a) Hyperparathyroidism - ») Idiopathic hypercaleiuria €) Sarcoidosis 4) Proximal renal tubular acidosis (AIMS 92) 218A)ade 2185)a 2186)a 2187)ac 2197)be 1.02 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIE 2195. A child comes with abdomen pain, arthralgia, hematuria, hypertension diagnosis is- 8) Hemolyticuremic syndrome (JIPEMR 98) 6) Porphyria ©) Rheumatic fever 4) Dengue 2196, The syndrome of sensorineural hearing loss together with heriditary nephritis is- (AIMS 95) 4) Alports syndrome) Fabry’s syndrome €) Nail patella syndrome _d) Edward syndrome 2197, Renal transplant patients receive- _ (PGI-88) 4) Total Lymphnode radiation ) Prednisolone ©) Azathioprine 4) Cyclophoshamide 2498, Follawingiis the commonest renal calculi- (AIMS 84) 4) Cystine 2199. Commonest renal stone is - (PGI 84) a) Phophate b) Oxalate ©) Uricacid &) Cysteine 2200. Nephracalcinosis is seem in all exeept- a) Polycystic kidney ) Hyperparathyroidism ©) Medullary sponge kidney 8) Rene tubular acidosis 2201. In uraemic state, one of these will form a criterion for dialysis~ (PGI80, AIMS 84) 8) Blood urea level ©) PCO, levies ©) Blood uric acid level 4) Serum potassium level 2202. The accurate diagnostic aid in renal artery steno: is- (Karn. 94) a) Selective renal angiography b) Ultrasund ©) CT scan ONG 2203. Nephrocaicinosis- a) Tumours of childhood +b) Depositon of calcium within renal substance ©} Secondary to TB of lungs or bones 4) Congenital disease of renal medulla 2204. The accurate diagnostic aid in renalartery stenosis s- (Karn 96) 2) Selegtive renal angiography b) Ultrasound ©) CT scan dU (PGI88) (Kar. 94) 2188)c 2189)a 2d 29i}a 2192}6 2193)d2194)d 2195)b 2196)a 2198)a 2199) 2200)a 2201)8d 2202)a 2203)b,d 2204)aa 1.103 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-ITT 2205, Renal artery stenosis in yound female i caused due 2217, In tubotar necrosis, ratio of urine plasma creatinine to- (AIIMS 97) is- G19) 8) Atherosclerosis a2 »)40 ») Fibromuscular hypertrophy ©) 2030 )30-40 ©) Pyelonephritis 2218, Prerenal and renal szotemia is differentiated on the @) Trauma basis of - (3199) 2206. Recovery of renal functions after renal transplant 8) Creatinine clearance usually takes- (ROHTAK 97) 'b) Serum creatinine level a) 15 days b) T month 6) Sodium fraction excretion 2) 3 months @) 6 months 4) Urine bicarbonate level ©) 7 days 219, Allare true for transpfanted kidney except-(PG/ 99) 2207. Ultrasound and radionuclids studies are primary 4) Humoral antibody responsible for rejection __ imaging modalities used for assessment of -_ b) CMI, responsible for rejection 4) Renal trauma (Orissa 98) ©) Donor's antibody on transfusion can causes ») Renovascular hypertension rejection «) Renal tuberculosis 4) HLA identity similarity is seen in 1: 100 people 4¢) Renal transplant 2220. Which isseen in nephrotic syndrome- (PGI 99) 2208. Most specific and sensitive method of screening in 8) Lowserumecalcium —_b) Raised AT-17 renovascular hypertension - (AlIMS 2001) ©) Low lipid 4) Platelet activation ) Captoprilrenogram —_b) MR angiogram 2221. A patient had the following blood biochemical 9) USG } Aortogram values. Caleium 6; urie acid 13; phosphorus 12; 2209, Most common form of surgical renovascular creatinine 6, Which could be the possible hypertension is- (AIMS 66, 87) iagnosis- (PGI 99) a) Fibromuscular hyperplasia ) Krait bite ») Carcinoma ») Uric acid nephropathy 2) Embotus ©) Hypercalcemie nephropathy 4) Atherosclerosis 4) Rickets 2210, String of beads sign in arterigram is diagnostic of 2222, Good-pasture syndrome is not characterized by - 4) Renal embolism (PGI 87) 2) Anti GBM antibody (PG199) ') Fibromuscular hyperplasia b) Crescents ) Subadven ttialfibroplais «) Pulmonary haemorrhage hyperplasi @) Diffuse alveolar damage 221. ial amount of urine required to exerete 2223. Rhabdomyolysis oceurs n= (G19) theend products of metabolismis- (PGI 88) a) Volume depletion b) Cocaine intoxication ana pel ) Hyperphosphatemia __ d) None ofthe above sola) Ul 12224, Cause of large kidney in CRF are ale- (PGI 2000) 212. Appt presents with hematuria of several days and ‘dysmorphic RBS casts in urine. The site of origi ed py senso oa emer eons ) Benign nephrosclerosis d) Diffuse GN is (SCTIMS 01) : a) Kidney b)Ureter 2225, Recurrent gross hematuria is seen in -(PGI 2000) ) Bladder Urethra 4) Alpor's syndrome —_b) Ig nephropathy 2213. Following are features ofacute GN except -(PGI97) ) Focalseg.GN DM a) Polyuria, 'b) Haematuria 2226, Orthostatie proteinuri (PGI 2000) €) Red cel cast 4) Oliguia a) Seen in recumbant position 2214, In case of renal transplant, most common infection b) Is benign jn one month is- (PGI97) ©} Future risk of nephrotic synd. 4) Pneumococeus 'b)Gram-ve organism 4) >300mg/day ¢) Pneumocystis carinii d) Cryptococcus 2227. Ise osmolar urineis seen in - (PG12000) 2215. In chronic dialysis, most common CNS manifestation a) ATN b) Severe dehydration is (PG197) ©) Diabetes insipidus) PCKD 2) Sensory loss by Paralysis 2228, Nephrocaleinosisis afeature of AE (PG/2000) ©) Dementia 4) Depression a) Primary hyperparathyroidism 2216, Most characteristicGNinHIVis- (PGI99) b) Medulary sponge kidney 2) FSGN b)MPGN ©) Vitamin D intoxication 9 McD @)RPGN @) Pseudo hypoparathyroidism 2205)b 2206)b 2207)4 2208)b 2209)d 2210)b 2211) 2212)a IWI3)e 2Wid)e WIs)e 216)a 2a Dis)e 2219)d 2240)a 2221)b 2222)None 2223)ab 2224)c 2228)b 2226) 2227)a 7228)d1104 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 2229, Cause for renal vein thrombosis could be-(PGI01) _-—-:2238. Causes of sterile pyuria without UTI a) Membranous nephropathy include- (PG102) ) Lupus nephritis 5 4) Cortical abscess ») Pyelonephritis «) Membranoproiferative glommerulonephritis ©) Gonococcal infection " 4) Uroithiasis 4) Post streptococcal glomerulonephrit e) Analgesic nephropathy «) Renal amyloidosis 2239, Membranous glomerulonephritsis associated with 2230, Ina woman with polyuria of 6 Liday, which are the a) Renal venous thrombosis (PGI02) ‘most important investigations to bedone- (PG/01) 'b) Hodgkin's disease a) Water deprivation test ¢) Subepithelial immune deposits ) Water loading 4) Hematuria «Plasma and urine osmolality ©) Acute nephritis 6) Plasma osmolality 2240, Reval tubular acidosis with hyperkalemia is seen in @) Skull X-ray a) Type I b) Type IT (ipmer 03) 2231. True of the following - (PGIO1) c) Type I 4d) Type IV a) Interstitial nephritis is associated with salt loosing, 2241. Central nervous system manisfestation in chroni¢ nephropathy renal failure are a result of ail of the following, ') Idiopathic hypercalciura is a X-linked recessive ‘EXCEPT- (4103) disease a) Hyperosmolarity. b) Hypocalcemia €) Calcitonin deficiency causes hyperphosphatemia ) Acidosis 4) Hyponatremia 4) Idiopathic lypercelciuria commonly presents with -—-2242, The most common infectious agent associated hematuria with chronic pyelonephritis is- (alms 03) ©) Hdiopathic hypercalejuria commonly presents with ) Proteus vulgaris hematuria ») Klebsiella pneumonie 2232. Hypocomplementemia is seen - (PGI01) ©) Staphylococcus aureus a) PSGN b)Membranous GN 4) Escherichia coli . ©) Focal segmentalGN__d)MPGN. 2243. Most common cause of death in renal transplant €) Infective endocardit patient in India- (Orissa 04) 2233, Which ofthe following is true- ePator 2) Rejection ») Infection a) HSP is associated with IgG deposition ©) Uremia d)Haemorthage b) HUS causes thrombocytopenia 2244, The term’ end stage renal disease (ESRD)’ is ) Inulin clearance is best measure of GFR considered appropriate when GFR falls to-(UPSC 04) 4) PSGN is associated with increased complement 1) 50% of normal b)25% of normal 2134, Chromosomes involved in adult polycystic kidney ©) 10-25%ofnormal —_)5-19% of normal disease (APKD)- (PGI01) 2245, Normal sized to enlarged kidneys ina paticnt with 3) 6&11 b)4a16 chronic failureisindicativeof- (UPSC 04) ©) 7817 412 a) Benign nephrosclerosis )4a17 ') Chronic glomerulonephy 2235. While differentiating prerenal azotemia with ATN «) Chronic interstitial neptitis features favoring pre-renalazotemia- — (PGI02) ) Primary amyloidosis, 4) Urine osmotating>500 mosmol/kg 2246. All of the following are associated with low ») Sodium spot excretion < 10 mit. complement levels except- (All India 04) 6) Plasma transferrin/Ig ratio 2) Lupus nephritis 4) Fraitiona excretion of sodium > 1 ') Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis ¢) Plasma BUN‘creatnine ratio <20 €) Diarrhoea - associated hemolytic uremic syndrome 2236, Regarding medullary sponge kidney- _ (PG102) 46) Post infections glomerulonepbritis 4) Autosomal dominant 2247, In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is b) Nephrocalcinosis characterized by the presence of the following except ©) ARF a) Red cell casts (All India 04) @ Minimal proteinuria b) Acanthacytes ©) More common in females c) Crenated red cells 2237. Which ofthe these can cause both rhabdomyolysis 4) Dysmorphie red cells and nsyoglobinuria - (PGI 02) 2248, All are features of barters syndrome, a) Hyperpyrexia b) Viper snake venom ©) Multiple homet stings d) Prolonged coma ©) Anemia ipmer 04) ) Metabolic alkalosis 4) Hypertension except= a) Polyuria ©) Periodic paralysis D29)abce DWac 2231)a 2232)ade 2233)be 23)b 2WwVacd 240)d 2241)b 2262) 2243) 2244)d 2245)d 246)e 2235)ab 2236)a,b,d 23Tac238)e 2AT\b 248)d1.105 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIT 2249. Which of the following is the most common extrarenal involvement in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (AIMS 04) a) Mitral valve prolapse ') Hepatic eysts ©) Splenic cysts 4) Colonie diverticulosis 2250. Which one ofthe following gram positive organisms 4s the most common cause of urinary tract infection (UTI among sexually activewomen-(AIIMS 04) 2) Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Staphylococcus aureus ©) Staphylococcus saprophyticus @) Enterococcus 2251, Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to heptorenal syndrome in a patient with cirrhosis - (AIMS 04) a) The creatinine clearance is > 40 ml/min ) The urinary sodium is less than 10 mmoV/L ©) The urine osmolality is lower than the plasmaosmolality 4) There is poor response to volume expansion 2252. Which of the following is not found in nephritic syndrome- (PGI04) 2) TLDL-Cholestero! ©) *HDL- cholesterol eo) L1G 2253, Trueabout Rhabdomyotysis- (PG104) a) Hyperuricemia ) Hyperphosphatemia 0) SC 4) CPK-MB 2284, Features of Rhabdomyolysis - (Pato4y 4) Present with acute muscular weakness ) Calfmuscles commonly ruptured ©) Myogiobinuria 4) Hemoglobinuria ) Acute renal failure is most common 2285. Kidney normally does not allow transglomercutar bt TG ©) + VLDL cholesterol passage of- (SGPGI 05) 2) B, microglobulin b) Lysozyme ©) Myoglobin 4) Imreunoglobia 2256, All are features of Acute Renal Failure (ARF) except (HPUOS) a) Hypotension ) Metabolic acidosis ©) Hyperkalemia «) Hypertension 2257, The most specific marker of renal function {UPSC 05) ») Insulin clearance a) Creatinine clearance 6) Blood area 4) Serum creatinine 2258. Nephrotie syndrome may be caused by the fol except (uPsC 0) a) Renal cell carcinoma - ) Minimal change nephropathy ) Diabetes meftitus 4) Rheumatoid arthritis 224D)b- 2250)}e 2251)a 2252} 2253} 226l)acd 2262)cd —2263)abe 2264)a 2265)ae Z2SA)ae T25S)a 2256)d 2259, Regarding membranous glomerulonephritis, which of the following is not correct - (C5 05) a) Thickening of the basement membranes is usually present +b) A marked increase in cellular infiltrate within the ‘glomerulus is usually present ©) This entity is most common in adults 4) Significant proteinuria is uaually present 2260. Long term complication (> 10 yr) following renal ‘wansplantation is/are - (PGI tune 0s) 8) Bacterial infection 6) Malignancy €) Viral infection 4) Acute graft versus host rea ©) Psychosis 2261. CiFof CRF. (PGI June 05) a) Broad cast in urine _'b) Hypormagnesemia ©) Hypokatemia ) impotence 2262. InCRF tall peaked T wake in EKG can be managed by- (PGI June 05) 2) IVK bicarbonate KC 9) CaCl, 4) Sodium bicarbonate €) Decreased PO, 2263. True about prerenal azotemia- (PGI June 05) 4) Urine output 40 ©) FeNa<1 a)FeNa>t ©) Urinary urea/plasma urea>3 2264, Glomerular range proteimuri glomerular proteinurea by - a) Proteinuria > 3.0-3.5 g/day ) Globulin 10000mm3 ') InSBP, WBC count is > S00/Amm3 €) Norfloxacin is the drug of choice in SBP 4) USG can detected as litte as 100 ml of peritoneal fluid ©) Large volume paracentasis is indicated in SBP ‘True about irritable bowel syndrome- (PG/.June 05) 2) Associated with anxiety b) Stress predisposes ©) Constipation Babe 2379)e 2380)bd 2381)a_2382)a_ 2383) 2391)ab 2392)ab 2393)c 2394)a 2395)e 2396) 2397) 2384) 2385)b 2386)b 2387)c 2388)b 2389)a 2390)ad 2398) abcd112 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 4) Diarthea €) Pedisposes fo malignancy in long term 2399, Extra intestinal manifestations of crokn's ‘disease - (PGI June 05) a) Uveitis by) Selerosing cholangitis ‘) Osteoarthritis) Skin nodules 2400, Meconium ileusisa manifestation of- (SGPGI 05) 4) Hirschprungs disease b) Achalasia cardia ©) Fibrocystic disease of pancrease 4) Coeliac disease 2401. Which one of the following conditions commonly predisposes 10 Colonic carcinoma - (A105) a) Uleerative colitis b) Crohn's disease ©) Diverticular diseased) Ischaemic colitis 2402. Which one of the following is not a feature of irritable bowelsyndeome-_(A/IMS May 2005) 8) Abdominal pain ) Constipation ) Rectal bleeding @) Bloating, 2403, “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following - (AIIMS 06) ) Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion 'b) Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion ¢) Preprandial abdominal pain, weightloss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion 4) Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain. acute mesenteric vessel occlusion 2404. Earliest pathological change is X-ray in Ulcerative Colitis - (NIMEANS 06) a) Loss of haustration b) Aphthous ulcerattions ©) Mucosal granularity 4) Skip tensions GALL BLADDER 2405. Alllof the following predispose to gall stones except- ) Oral contraceptives (A196) ») Inflammatory bowed disease ©) Intravenous hyperalimentation 4) Primary biliary cirrhosis, 2406. predisposed by- (4196) 2) Low cholesterol to lecithin ratio +) Low lecithin to cholesterol ratio ) High lecithin to cholesterol ratio 2) Kigh besa o cholesterol ration 2407, Most common presentation of primary billiary cirrh (All India 98) a) Pruritus 8} Jaundice «) Abdominal mass 4) Pain 2408, Gallstoneis seen in allexcept= (All India 98) ) Primary billiary cihosisb) Hypercholesterosis ©) Hyperalimentation __d) Clofibrate therapy 2399)ab,d 2400)e 2401)a 2402)¢ 2403) 2404)© 2405)e 2406) 2407)a_2408)b Dade 2l3)e 2414)e 2415)ab 2416)e 2IT)a 2409, Bile saltinduced diarrhea is reduced by - a) Giving IV bitesalts (PGI 80, JIPMER 80.81) ) Low fat diet ©) High protein diet 4) Cholestyramine 2410. Best diagnostic tool in obstructive jaundice is- a) ERCP ) Ultrasound (Ina) ©) PIC 4) Blood testis 2411. Gold standard investigation for stone in bile-ductis- a) USG b)ERCP (Rohtak 97) ©)Cholangiography — d) CT scan ©) MRI 2412. Hemoblia is characterised by - (AlIMs 87) a) Jaundice byBiliarycolie ©) Malena 4) Fever 2413. Features of emphysematous cholecystitis nciude all except (IPMER 87) a) Elderly male patient ) Diabetic ©) Cl. welehi isthe infecting organism 4) Gas in the gall bladder ©) Good prognosis 2414, Lithogenic bile contains an increased amout of - a) Bile acid Bile salt (MAHE 01) ©) Cholesterol 4) Bilirubin, 2415. Whenever there is stone in the bile duct which of the following raises- (VIPER 95) a) Bile salts b) Bilirubin ©) Amylase ascrr 2416, Most common cuase benign surgical jaundice is - 2) Stricture (4196) b) Atresia of extrahepatic ducts ©) Stene inCBD 4) Parasitic infestation ofbileary tract 2417. Which isthe treatment for mucocele of gall bladder- 8) Cholecystectomy (CUPGEE 96) b) Cholecystostomy ©) Conservative treatment 4) None 2418, Mostimportant indicator for medical therapy of gall bladder stone s- (AIMS 96) 2) Size of stone less than 15 mm b) Stone of choiestrol bilirubinate ) Non-functioning contracted gall bladder 4) Calcified gait stone 2419, Most common presenting symptom in primary biliary circhosis is - (AIMS 96) ) Jaundice ) Pruritis ©) Splenomegaly _d) Gastrointestinal bleeding 2420, Which is premalignant - (AIMS 98) a) Procelain bladder ) Acaleulas choleceystitis ©) Mirizzi syndrome 4) Cholecystitis glanularis proliferons 2409)6 2410)a 2411)b 2418)a 2419) 2420 a1a MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 2421. Risk factors for gall stones - (Pat 04) 2432, Alkaline phosphatase is increased beyond 30 KA 4) Hormone replacement therapy units in - (Karnataka 90) ) Femate sex a) Obstructive jaundice ©) O@ b) Thyrotoxicosis 4) Acute weight loss 6) Polycythemia vera ©) Exythroblastosis fetalis LIVER 2433. The characteristic feature of chronic alcoholic liver disease is (argu 2422, Highest intercostal space used for liver biopsy 2) Fatty liver is- (DNB 92) b) Cirthosis ae nr ©) Perivenular fibrosis oe a 4) Hyaline sclerosis 2423. Confirmation of elevation of alkaline phosphatase of 2434, Inacutehepatic encephalopathy (DNB9I) hepatic origin is by - (41 95) a) The degree of mental disturbance is closely @) SGOT »)SGPT : related to the blood ammonia level ©) GGT OLDH ') Symptoms may be precipitated by diuresis 2424. Conjugated hyperbillirubinemia is seen in - ¢) The presence of flapping tremor asterixis is 4) Gilberts syndrome (UPSC 85, Kerala 88) diagnostic ») Criggler Najjar type 1 4) ERG changes may be helpful in diagnosis 6) Criggler Najjartype Il ¢) Protein should be withdrawn completely from the @) All ofthe above diet ©) Dubin Johnsons syndrome 2438. Chronic active hepatitis is distinguished from 2425. Gilberts syndrome disease all are true, except chronic persistent hepatitis by- (Karanat 96) 4) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (IIMS 97) 8) Characteristic liver pathology ») Fasting hypoglycaemia b) HIS Ag in serum + ¢) Normal liver Histology ©) Extrahepatic manifestations &) Liver enzymes normal 4) Presence of anti smooth muscle antibody 2426. Bilirubin is produced from — (PGI 2002) 2436, Plasma alkaline phosphatase is highest in ~ 2) Haemoglobin ) Myoglobin 4) Biliary cirthosis (KARNAT 98) ©) Gallbladder @)Bone marrow b) Alcoholic circhois €) Liver ¢) Postnecrotic cirrhosis 2427. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia causes include- @ Cardiac cirosis 8) Ineffective erythropoiesis (PGI 2002) 2437. Chances of developing kernicterus appears to be ») Flavispidic acid nificant when serum level of unconjugated ©) Favism bilirubin ceaches- (PGI 80, ATIMS 85) 4) Dubin johnson syndrome a) SOme% »)20me% ©) Rotor's syndrome ©) 10me% a) 5 mg% 2428. Commonest route of infec in acute pyogenic 2438. All the following drugs are used in hepatic abscess of liver is ~ (AIMS 96) ‘encephalopathy, except- (Karnal 96) 2) Ascending infection _) Hematogenous a) Mannitol + ©) Lymphatic 4) Trauma b) Metronidazole 2429, Transudative ascites Is seen in - (A188) ©) Lactulose a) Nephrotic syndrome») CCF 4) Phenobarbitone ©) Acute pancreatitis ___d) Tuberculosis 2439. Cirrhoticascitis has all features except- (P/.96) 2430, Which does not contribute to serum alkaline 4) Albumin > 2.56% Phosphatase (4189) ») Specific gravity < 1016 @) Liver b) Osteoblast, - €) Leueoeytes <200/5nms ©) Renal tubular ells a) Neutrophits @) Straw colour 2431. Piece meal necrosis is seen in- (J/PMER83) 2440, Earliest sign in hepatic encephalopathy i 2) Alcoholic cirthosis b) Chronic pancreatitis 6) Indian childhood cirshosis 4) Chronic active hepatitis a) Ast (CMC Fellore) b) Alternate constriction and diated pupil ©) Constructional apraxia 4) Psychiatric abnormalities 2s2Iaped 2422)d 2423)e 2424)e 2425)a 2426}ab 2427)abe 2428)a 242)ab 2430)c 2431)d 2437) 2438)ad 2439)a 2440)a 2433) 2434)abd,e 2435)a 2436)a 4328Lud MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 2441. A20 year old boy presented with severe hematem ©) Alcoholie-Hepattis On examination there was no hepatomegaly, mild @) Biliary atresia splenomegaly present. On endoscopy 2452. Treatment for portosystemic encephalopathy esophagealvarices were seen. What is the most includes all excepts- (AP 96) probable diagnosis- (AIMS 28) a) High protein diet ) Lactulose a) Cimthosis iver ©) Oral neomycin 4) Enema +) Budd Chiari syndrome 2453. Most common route of infection / cause, for €) Non cithotic portal fibrosis pyogenic liver abcess is- (AIMS 98) 4) Veno occlusive disease a) Biliary sepsis b) Stone 2442. False about jaundice is - (Orissa R) ©) Appendicitis 4) Cacolon a) Detected when bilirubin > 2me% 2454, True about TIPS - (PGI 98) b) High scleral elastin affinity a) It isa type of portocaval shunt ©) Green hue of conjunctiva seen in unconj. b) It is an intrahepatic shunt Hyperbilirubinemia ©) performed by passing endoscopes 4) Carotinemia does not cause scleral icterus 4) Most siutable for patient going for liver 2443, Allof the following cause post sinusoidal obstruction transplant except- (PGI 87) 2455, Minnsesota tube is used for the control of variceal a) Post necrotic cinthosis _b) Wilson’s disease bleeding in portal hypertension has - (Orissa 98) ) Infiltrations 4) Schistosomiasis, ) One lumen ) Two lumen 2444, Hepatomegaly sseen in all of the following except ©) Three lumen 4) Four lumen a CLL ) Thyroid(Kerala 91) 2456. Whatis the line of management ofa case of moderate ) Malaria ) Sickle cell anaemia to severe hepatic insufficiency with porta 2445, Most common cause of liver abscessin South India- hypertension, according to the modified Pugh’s a) Amoebic b)Bacterial (4? 96) calssification - (ALUMS 2K) 6) Trauma ) Cancer a) Sclerotherapy 2446, Which one of the following clinical features suggest ') Orthoptropic liver transplantation aleoholism asa cause of liver cirrhosis (UPSC 2K) ©) Shunt Surgery 1) Spider angioma b) Ascitis 4) Conservative ©) Absence of ankie jerk d) Gynaecomastia 2457. Bleeding in acase of obstructive jaundiceis treated 2447. What is the most common cause for Bud Chiari with (UIPMER2K) syndrome- (AIMS 2K) 8) Fresh frozenplasma _) Cryo precipitate a) Right ventricular faiture ©) Whole blood 4) Buffy coat extract ) Membrane in 1VC 2458. A patient presents with jaundice, right upper ©) Valve in hepatic veins quadrant pain chills with high fever, hypotension 4) Nephrotic syndrome and mental confusion, The most likely diagnosis is- 2448, Amoebie abscess ruptures most commonly into 4) Gallstone pancreatitis (UPSC 88) cavity ~ (AIMS 87, UPSC85, AP 86) b) Hepatitis 8) Pleural ») Peritoneal ©) Acute suppurative cholangitis ©) Pericardial _d) The lumen of the intestines 4) Amoebic liver abscess ©) Right lung 2459, A 35 years old woman complants of attacks of 2449. Acute hepatocellular failure in cirrhosis of liver breathlessness cyanosis and flushing. Apart front is itated by - (ALUMS 89) occasional diarrhoea, she has no abdominal ) Thrombosis of portal vein symptoms. Abdominal examinations reveals an ») Albumin infusion enlarged nodular liver. If eparotomy is done, one ©) Acute GI bleeding ‘would expect tofind - (UPSC 88) ) High carbohydrate diet a) An ovarian tumour 2450, Glycogen stores ofthe liver are depleted after how b) A multicentric hepatoma many days of fasting - (AIMS 78, PGI 78) ©) An appendicular carcinoid al b)2 @) Crohn’s disease 93 aa 2460, True about crigger Najjar type syndrome is- 2451. All of the following ae indications for Jiver transplantation except- a) Hepatocellular Carcinoma b) Cirthosis (Delhi PG 96) a) Diglucuronide deficiency (PGI97) b) Recessive trait ©) Kemicterus is seen 4) Phenobarb not useful 2441)c 2442)a_ 2443)d_2444)d_2445)a_2446)a_2A4T) 2448)a_2449)c 2450)a_24SI)C 2452)a_2453)a 2454)abd 2455)d 2456) 24S7)a 2458)e 2459) 2460)aLUIS MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 2461. In hepatic cirrhosis, which of the following is increased - (PG197) a) Alpha lelobutin ) Alpha? globulin ©) Gamma giobatin 4) Allof the above First line of treatment in severe ascites (PG/98) 4) Bed rest and salt restriction ») Heavy peracentesis ©) Shunt 4) Large dose of diuretics Feature of acute fulminant hepatic failure includes- ) Hyperglycemia (PGI01) ) Hepatorenal syndrome ©) Hypermagnesemia 4) Mostly drug induced ©) Fetor hepaticus 2464: Which of the following is true regarding nonalcoholic fatty liver (PG101) a) Seen in diabetic ») Ciofibrate is used in treatment ©) Commonest cause of cryptogenic cirrhosis 4) Associated with transaminitis 2462. 2463. 2468. Hepatic encephalopathy is predisposed by- (PG/03) a) TK b) Dehydration ©) Constipation 4)G.L bleeding ©) SBP. 2466. Tender hepatomegaly is not seen in- (PSC 04) 4) Viral hepatitis ) Typhoid fever ©) Right heart failure 4) Liver abscess 2467. A 20 year old male has presented with repeated episodes of hematemesis. There is no history of jaudice or liver decompensation. On examination there significant findings include splenomegaly (8 ‘ems below costal margin), and presence of esophageal varices. There is no ascites or peptic ulceration. The liver function tests are normal. ‘The most likely diagnosis is- (AIMS 04) a) Extahepatic portal venous obstruction ) Non cirthotic portal fibrosis, ©) Cirrhosis d) Hepatic venous outflow tract obstruction A patient of esophageal varies with liver span of 19 em. Likely causes - (PGI 04) ) Haemochromatosis ») Alcoholic liver disease ©) Veno- occlusive disease 4) Post necrotic cirrhosis «) Budd chiary syndrome Bland cholestasis is seen wit a) OCP 2468, 2469. - (Paros ') Androgen 6) Chlorpromazine 4) Erythromycin ‘Acute bepatocellular failure in a patient of cirrhosis ofliveris precipitated by - (SGPGI 05) {) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding ) Large carbohydrate meal ¢) Portal vein thrombosis . 4) Intravenous albumin infusion 2470, 2471. Obstructive jaundice may be seen as.a side effeet of therapy with ~ (SGPGI 05) a) Isoniazid by Reserpine ©) Chlorpromazine 4) Furosemide 2472. Palmar erythema seen in allexeept-_ (HPU 05) a) Pregnancy b) Anemia ©) Cirthosis 4) Wilson disease 2473. Non-alcoholie steatohepatitis seen in (PGI June 05) a) DM ) Obesity ©) IED ¢) Gall stone ©) Hyper tryglyceridemia 2474, Enlarge liver with Hepatocellular dysfunction seen (PGI June 05) a) Wilsons disease ») Budd. Chiari syndrome ©) Alcoholic hepatitis 4) NASH ©) Post necrotic cirrhosis 2475, Rx of chronic HBV infection- —_(PG/ June 05) a) Interferon 'b) Adefovir dipivoxil ©) Lamivudit 4) Fameyciovir ©) Ganciclovir 2476. Earliest sign in hepatic encephalopathy is- a) Asterixes (NIMHANS 05) ») Alternate constriction and dilated pupil ©) Constructional apraxia 4) Psychiatric abnormalities Gilberts syndrome disease all are true, except - a) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia —(Jipmer 05) ») Fasting hypoglycaemia ) Normal liver Histology 4) Liver enzymes normal Microvesicular steatosis is seen in all except - 8) Alcoholic liver disease (APPGE 05) ») Acute fatty liver of pregnancy ©) Methotrexate toxicity 4) Reye's sydrome Following liver transplantation, recurrence of primary disease in the liver most likely occurs in - 8) Wilson’s disease (AIMS NOV 05) b) Autoimmune hepatitis ©) Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency 4) Primary biliary cirhosis ‘Which one ofthe following serum levels would help 2477. 2478, 2479, indistinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease - (A105) a) Aminotransaminase ») Alkaline phosphatase ¢) Bilirubin 4) Albumin 2481. All ofthe followingz xe causes of mierovesicular fatty liver except (ALIMS May 2005) a) Reye’s syndrome b) Obesity 2461)¢ 2462)a 2463)bde 2464)ac.d 2465)bede 2466)d 2467)b, 2468)b.c.¢ 2469)ab 2470) 2471)¢ 2472)b 2473)abe 2474)abd 2475)abc 2476)a 2477)a 2478) 2479)b 2480)d 2481)116 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-ILT «) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy ©) Inflammatory bowel disease 4) Valproicacié €) Lactose intolerance 2482. Whick ofthe following s nota precipitating factor 4) Gastrinoma {for hepatic encephalopathy in patients with chronic 2492. ‘Treatment for portosystemic encephalopathy liver disease - (AIMS May 2005) Includes all excepts- (MAHE 05) ) Hypokalemia b) Hyponatremia a) High protein diet ) Lactulose ©) Hypoxia 4) Metabolic acidosis ¢) Oral neomycin Enema 2483. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal 2493. A 30 year old lady presents with features of ‘malabsorption and iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal hypertension ? (4106) biopsy shows complete villous atrophy. Which of the 2) Chronic liver faire following antibodies is likely tobe present - by Ascites a) Antiendomysial antibodies (41IMSNOV 05) ©) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding 4) Encephalopathy 2484, Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia isseen in~ 2) Gilber’s syndrome (aims 06) ») Criggler Najjar syndrome ¢) Breast milk jaundice 4) Dubin Johnson syndrome 2488, Ina child with acute liver failure, che most important 2494, 2495, b) Anti-goblet cell antibodies 6) Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibodies 4) Antineutrophit cytoplasmic antibodies In whict of the following conditions of malabsorption, ‘an intestinal biopsy in diagnostic-(417MS May 2005) a) Celiac disease ) Tropical sprue ©) Whipple's disease __d) Lactose intolerance The presence of anti-Saccharamyces cerevisae prognostic factor for death is- (AIMS 06) antibody is a surrogate marker of one of the a) Increasing transminases following - (4106) ) Increasing bilirubin a) Celiac disease ') Crobir’s disease 6) Increasing prothrombin time 6) Ulcerative c 4) Tropical sprue 4) Gram negative sepsis 2496. Which of the foifowing circulating antibodies has 2486, Primary sclerosing cholangitis, trueare- the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis a) T Females (PGI June 06) of celiac disease? (AIMS 06) »b) Associated with IBD 2) Anti-endomysial antibody ©} Involves intra & extrahepatic ducts ) ERCP not helpful b) Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody ©) Anti-gliadin antibody 4) Anti-reticulin antibody DISORDER OF ABSORPTION HEPATITIS 2487. Surgical removal of about 90% of the ileum and jejunum tends tocause all except- (AIMS 82) 2497, Incubation period of hepatitis (UPSC 87) a) An increase in fat content of stool a} 6 weeks to6 months —_) 6 days to 6 weeks b) Demineralisation of bones ©) 6months to 6 years) More than 6 year ©) A fallin extracellular fuid volume of circulation 2498, ‘The best indicator for recent hepatitis B infection is @) Anaemia a) HBs Ag (Ar9D). 2488, Tropical sprue..all statement are true except - b) HBe Ag a) Associated B12 deficiency (4197) ©) HBc Ag . ») Responds to tetracyelins 4) IgM antibodies against Hbe Ag «) Involves distal ileum 2499, HBs Ag carrier state is not associated with- 4) Biopsy shows specific histology 2) Down’s syndrome (AIMS 92) 2489. Most specific change in biopsyisseen in- (UP2K) ) Chronic renal failure a) Tropical sprue b)Giardiasis| €) Abetalipoproteinemia _d) Malnutrition 2490, Antibiotics are useful in all of the following 2500. ©} Polyarteritis nodosa 4) Infectious mononucleosis Delta virus infection cannot occur without conditions except - (SGPGI05) infection with- (PG193) ) Whipple disease 6) Tropical sprue 8) Hepatitis A by Hepatitis B €) Celiac disease 4) Blind loop syndrome ©) Hepatitis non A non Bd) Hepatitis C 2491. The following are causes of secretory diarrhoea except- (UPSC05) 2) Vibrio cholerae 2801. ‘Commonest presentation of hepatitis A is-(PGI93) a) Asymptomatic ) Fulminant Hepatitis 2482)d 2483)¢ 2484)d 2485)c 2486)b,c2487)c 2488)d. 2489)c 2490)e 2491)be 2492)a 2493)a_ 2494)¢ * 2495)b 2496)a 2497)a 2498)d 2499)d 2500)b 2501)22u7 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT ©) Chronic Carie State 2515, The likehood of becoming an HbsAg carrier after 9) Transient Wness with Jaan acute HBV infection is high in- (Kerala 2K) 2502. Antigen which dots not appear in blood in Hepatitis 4) Neonates Bis- (JIPMER 93) ») Chronic hemodialysis patients a) HBc Ag b) HBe Ag ¢) Persons with Down's syndrome ©) HBsAg 19000 (IPMER 99) 'b) Amylase > 8000 10 6) Albumin <3.2 envdl ) Age> 60 yrs 2558. A chronic alcoholic admitted with acute pancreatitis developed sudden blindness in the Fight eye after 3 days. The cause could be- 2544)a 2545)d 2546)b 2547)bed 2548)b 2549)d 2550)e 2S51)d 2552)b 2553)a ) L-asparginase ’b) Steroids ©) Calcium infusion @) S-fu 2558, Best diagnosis of pancreatic cancer (head ) is, by- (PGI78, DELHI 86) a) Ultrasound byERCP ©) CAT scan PTC 2559, Ectopic ACTH syndrome is seen most commonly with (A196) 4) Renal cell carcinoma b) Lymphoma ©} Bronchogenic carcinoma ¢) Pituitary adenoma 2560, Carcinoma pancrease attains largest size when it is sited in- (AUMS 95) a) Head b) Ampulla ©) Body & tail 4) Periampullary 2561. Increased C-peptide isseen in- (AP 97) a) Glucagoma ’) Insulinoma ©) Gastrinoma 4) Hepatoma 2562, Investigation of ehoice for pancreatic islet cell tumour i - (J&K2001), a) CT scan byMRI ) Nuclear scan usc 2563. Serum amylase Jevel is raised in altexcept- 8) Acute pancreatitis (419i) ') Perforation of stomach ¢) Strangulated small intestine 4) Acute appendicitis Pentagastrin-fast achlorhydria in patient with gastric ulcer indicates (JIPMER79, AIMS 81) 2) Antral uleer b) Malignant ulcer ©) Zollinger - Ellison syndrome 4) Gastric lymphoma 2564, 2565. Surum smylase usually becomes elevated in acute Pancreatitis after....rs~ (ANIMS 88) 3) U-2hrs b) 4.6 rs. ©) 24-48 hs. 48-72 hrs. 2566. Zollinger Ellison syndrome is cused by - (PG/88) a) Non Beta cells ) Beta cells ©) Alpha cells 4) Non Alpha Non Beta cells. 2554)b 2555)¢ 2556) 2SST)ab 2558)b 2559)e 2560) 2561)b 2562) 2563)d 2564)b 2565)e 2566)a1.120 2867. The medical treatment of Zollinger Ellison's . syndorine is- (PGI88) ) Cimetidine b) Ranitidine ©) Famotidine ) Omeprazole 2868. Best progonosis in acute pancreatitis is seen with... pancreatitis- (PGI89) a) Gall stones b) Viral &) Post operative, 4) Alcoholic 2569. In pancreatic cholera, all are seen except <7 90) a) Achlorhydria ’b) Watery diarrhoea ©) Hyperkalemia d) Non beta cell tumour 2870, Diarrhoea in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is due to- (Kerala 90) a) Pantagastrin b)Seeretin : 6) Gastin Enterokinin 2572, Carcinoma of pancreas attains greatest size when, itis located in- (UIPMER 78, 79, Rohtak 88) a) Head b) Body and tail ©) Ampullary region” d) Ampula of vater 2572. Which one of the following tyOpes of pancreatitis haas the best prognosis - (UPSC 95) 4) Gall stone pancreatitis ») Alcoholic pancreatitis €) idiopathic pancreatitis 4) Traumatic pancreatitis 2873. Seurm amalyse levels raiscd in all except - (4797) 8) Duodenal ulcer perforation ) Pancreatitis ©) Appendicitis 6) Small bowel strangulation 2574, Raised serum amylase is not seen in (Kerala 97) 8) Appendicitis by Pancreatitis ¢) Blocked salivary duet @) ectopic pregnaney ruptured 2575. Which one of the following is best avoided in the treatment of acute pancreatitis ~ (UPSC 97) a) Antibiotics ) Nasogastric suction ©) Anti cholinergics 4) Morphine 2576, Most valuable provocative test for Zolinger Elson syndrome is - (A199) a) ACTH infusion test~ b) Secretin stimulation test ©) Ca2+ infusion test 4) Food stimulation test 2577. Apatient presents with a pancreatic pseudocyst ‘Semsin size, 3 weeks duration what is the best ‘method to manage this case - (AIMS 2K) a) External drainage b)USG and follow up ©) Cystogastrostomy —_d) Needle aspiration 2578, Vipoma causes - (PG12002) 2) Watery diarthoea b) Hypokate! «) Hyperkalemia 4) Hyperchlorhydria ©) Hypochlorhydria 2567)d_ 2568)a 2569)c 2570)¢ 2571)b 2572)a 2573)¢ 257a)a 27S)e 216) ISTH 2S7Babe 2579)b 2580)e 2581)b 2582)a 2583)a2584)d 2585)a _2586)b 2587)c- 2588)a 2589)c MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 2579, Worst prognostic mdicator of acute pancreatitis is- (PGI99) ) Hypercalcemia bb) Hypocalcemia ©) Raisedamylase level) Glycosuria 2580, Serum amylase evel istaised in AJE~ — (PGL98) 2) Blocked salivary duct _b) Ruptured ectopic ©) Appendicitis ¢) Pancreatitis 2581, The following can be associated with acute pancreatitis EXCEPT - {UPSC02} a) Hyperparathyroidism —_b) Hyperthyroidism ©) Hypercaleemia <) Hypertrigleeridemia 2582, The most common hormone other than gastrin, contained in the gastric- secreting iste cell tumour is- : (KERALA 2K) a) ACTH ) Glucagon ©) Melanocyte stimulating hormone 4) Growth hormone releasing factor ©) Insulin 2583, Most common tumor of pancreasis- (SGPGI05) {) Insulinoma 'b) Gastrinoma ©) APUD's omas @)VPPoma 2584. Complications of chronic pancreatitis include the following except - (UPSC 05) a) Portal hypertension ) Obstructive jaundice ©) Duodenal obstruction 4) Renal artery aneurysm 2585. Most important screening test for acute pancreatitis is- (KARANTO5) 2) Serum amylase ') Serum lipase 9} CU (Abdomen) ERCP 2586. Definitive diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is done by- a) Lipase (PGI June 03) ) S. alkaline phosphatase ©} Increased Catt 4) Hyperglycemia 2587. Carcinoma pancrease attains largest size when it Is sited in - ipmer 05) 2) Head 1b) Ampulla| ©) Body & tal 4) Periampullary 2588. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and haeochromocytoma may be associated with - 2) Medullary carinoma of thyroid (4105) b) Papillary carinoma of thyroid ©) Anaplastic carinoma of thyroid 4) Follicular carinoma of thyroid 2589. Which of the following does net accur in a patient with gastrinoma - (AIMS May 2005) a) Epigastric pain ) Diarrhoea ©) Basal acid outpur (BAO) fess than 15 mEq/titre 6) Serum gastrin levels > 200 pg/ml | i \ |MEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIT IMMUNE SYSTEM GENERAL 2590, Amyloidosis occurs in all except - (ar91) a) Tubercylosis b) Chronic brone 2591, 2592, 2593, 2594. 2595, 2596. 2897. 2598. 2599, 2600. ©) Lung abscess 4) Bronchiectasis (C-reactive protein levels remains normal in- a) Pneumococcal infection (IN 89) ) Myocardial infarction ©) Viral fever ) Rheumatoid arthrit C-reactive protein is not increased in- (AJ 88) 1) Rheumatic fever b) Active rheumatoid arthritis ©) Acute gout ) Mumps 6) Sydenham’s chorea Immunologic deficiency states associaed with lack of thymus gland are most likely show- 4) Severe pyogenic infections (PGI 80, ANJMS 82) 6) Abnormalitis in neutrophil phagocytosis ©) Ambormalitis in lymphocyte mediated cellular immunity 4) Defects in gamma globulin production ‘Thymoma isassociated with aitexeept= (4191) a) Red cell aplasia ) Di georges syndrome ) Hypergama globinemia 4) Mediastinal syndrome HLAB 27s seen in- ) Retires syndrome ) Psoriasis OSE 4) Ankylosing spondylitis HLA associated with Myasthenia gravis -(PGI84) (PG188) B27 »)DR, ©) DR4 OBS HLA associated with hemochromatosisis-(PGI84) Bq baa 5 ) DWs OBIs Ifbone marrow is transplated, ideally the donor must be- (PGI85) 4) The mother by The father o} The sister 4) An identical twin The donor bone marraw is transplated into the recipient by which of the following methods - a) Bone marrow drills (PGI85) +b) Open itiac bone method 6) Injecting under pressure into the bone- 4) IV infusion Which is not aacute phase reactant. (N87) 4) C-Reactive protein ©) Complement ) Haptogiobulin ) Alpha feto protein 2601, 2602, 2603. 2604. 2605. 2606. 2607. 2608. 2609. 2610, 2611. 2612. 2613, HLA Hantigens are recognised by -— cells- 2) THelper 6) T-effector ©) T-Suppressor OB Non-caseating granuloma with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy isa feature of- (ain 2) Histoplasmosis ') Sarcoidosis ©) Silicosis ) Tannosis| ‘The bad prognostic indicator for scleroderma is 4) Renal involvement «a9 ») Goose skin appearance ) Edema legs 4) Widening of pulse pressure The organ speiicamtibedyispresentin-(4121) a) Rheumatoid arthritis ) Primary biliary cirrhosis ©) Pericious anemia aE Plasmapheresis is used in - UIPMER91) 2) Good pasteur’s syndrome ») Myasthenia gravis ©) Both 4) None C-Reactive protein is not raised in-(JIPMER 91) 2) Osteoarthritis ) Rheumatoid arthritis ©) Pneumonia 4) Tuberculosis Opsonizingtoxins are-_ (JIPMER80, PG18/) a) Coa byC3b ©) Cia acsc9 100% HLA. associations is seen with - 2) Naccolepsy b) Malt’ ple sclerosis ©) Schizophrenia 4) Myasthenia gravis Nitrobule tetrazolium test (NBT) is test of - a) Humoral immunity (JIPMER 79, PGI 79) ) cellular immunity ©) Phagocytosis 4) Complement pathway Neisseria infeciton is characteristic of deficiency (AIMS 81, PGI81) of (AIMS 80, PGI81) ag bc, oc aC, ‘Treatment of serum sickness may include all except= (AIMS 81, PGI 82) ) Epinephrine ») Steroids ©) Garnmaglobulin Histocompatibility complex associated with narcolepsy - UIPMER 93) a) DR, »)DR, ©) DR, OB, Pleurisy is common in which one of the following connective tissue disease - (Karaat 96) 2) System lupus erythematasis by Systemic sclerosis 2590)b 2591)¢ 2592)d.e2593)c 2594)be 2595)abd 2596)bd 2597) 2598)d 2599)d 2600)d 2601)a 2602) 2603)a 2604)¢ 2605)¢ 2606)a 2607) 2608)a 2609) 2610)d 2611)ac 2612)a 2613)a1.122 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 6) Polyaritis nodosa €) both of the above d) Mixed connective tissue disease 4d) none of the above 2614, Sicea syndrome is associated with all except- 2626. True about chronie granulomatous disease is - a) Rheumatoid arthritis (allMs 97) a) Dificiency of bacterial killing (AIMS 97) b) Midline granuloma bb) Normal chemotaxis ©) Sarcoidosis, ©) Normal neutrophils 4) Chronic active hepatitis 4) Normal o, release 2615. ‘Lupus pernio’ is- (G16) 2627. One of following is characteristically seen in a) Sarcoidosis ) Skin TB collagen vascular disease (A196) ©) SLE complication 6)DLEand SLE a) Pulmonary fibrosis) Brochiectasis 2616, Bilateral parotid enlargement is seen in all ©) Pumonary edema 6) ARDS: except - (4198) 2628. True statement regarding amyloidosis if all a) SLE b) Chronic pancreatitis except - (4197) ©) Mumps 4) Sjogren's syndrome 4) AL protein with primary amyloidosis 2617, ‘UVEOPAROTITIS’is seen in- (aP 97) ») AA protein with chronic inflammatory disease a) Sarcoidosis ©) Primary amyloidosis has characterstc skin lesions ) Lupus erythematosus 4) Hypertension is common in primary amyloidosis ©) Sjogren’s syndrome 2629. (M.P.98) 4) Rheumatoid arthritis 2618, Interforonssecrected by all except-_(TIN99) ©) Y chromosome #17Q a) Monocytes b) Macrophages 2630, “Pathergy” Test is specific for (Karan.2001) ©) Fibroblast 4) Lymphocytes 4) Caplan’s syndrome) Sjogren’s syndrome 2619. Which among the following does not secrete ) Bechet’s syndrome _d) Felty’s syndrome interleukin I alpha - (UIPMER 2K) 2631. Thymomaiis associated with all except- (4197) 4) Lymphocyte by Fibroblast a) Pure red cell aplasia ©) Macrophage 4) Neutrophils ) Myasthenia garvis 2620. Which one of the following statements about ) Hypergammaglobulinemia Natural (NK) cells is not correct - (ICS2K) 4) Superior vena caval compression 4) NK Cells can lyse tumour cells and virus infected 2632, Which is not seen in inflammatory arthritis - cell in vitro, without previous sensitization 4) Osteoporosis (Al 92) b)Nk Cells are found in peripheral blood and ») Joint contractures lymphoid tissue ©) New bom formation ©) NK cells are CD, positive ¢) Early morning stiffness 4) NK cells lyse the target cells by antibody 2633. Inataxia,telengiectasia which is seen - dependent cellular cytotoxicity 8) Ig G absent (IMPER 98) 2621. In children atopic dematitis is associated with +) Ig M absent increase i (UPSC 96) ©) Ig A absent . ° mtn ee i |. Which of the following precipitates acute gout - 2) Impose G Deapncacd Dried (4/1892) 4 Immunoglobulin M «) Azathioprine a) Sulphinpyrazone nian eae oe (IPMER9)) 2635. Colchicine is used in all he following except- ‘ a) Familial mediterranean fever (AlIMS 92) 2) Leukotriene ») Seratonin i “ ) amyloidosis © Histamine @) Prostaglandin pcaeae 2623. Anaphylaxis is mediated by allexcept-(ipmer 92) ©) Adrenal adenoma peecanne »)Bradykcinin 2636, Inflammatory response is absent when neutorphil ¢) Anaphylotoxin 4) Prostaglandin eouit i eee eae (IPMER 31) 2624, In leucoctye adhesion deficiency tpye I, the defect 2) 20h? by 100mm is in the synthesis of CS 2K) ¢) 1500ha0? )400/mm? a) ocinterferons ») B,-integrins _ 2637. Insitu hybridisation is usedfor- (Kerala 94) terferons 4) Leucotriens 2) Diagnosis of specific genetic diseases 2625. Chediak Higashi syndromes dueto- (Karn 94) b) Diagnosis of enzyme dificiency diseases a) defective chemotaxis ¢) Treatment of genetic diseases »b) defective phagocytosis 6) Allof the above 2614) 2615)a_ 26162 2617)ac 2618)None 2619) 2620)e 2621)b 2622)a 2623)a_2624)b 2625)c 2626)a 2627)a 2628)d 2629)a 2630)e 2631)¢ 2632) 2633)c 2634)abe 2635)d 2636)a 2637) i |1123 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIL 2638. Among the following most important source of Iga (ATIMS 94) a) Stomach b) Pevitonium ) Small intestine 4) Large intestine In deficiney of leukocyte adhesion molecule which is true- (All India 98) a) Neutropenia ) Chemotaxis is defecti ©) Delayed falling of umblical cord 4) Increased opsonin coated particles 2639. 2640, Tightening of the facial and oral commissure suggests- (AIMS 84) a) Plumbism b) Sarcoidosis - 4) Syphil ©) Scleroderma €) Riboflavine deficiency Raynaud’s phenomenon except 2) Atherosclerosis ») Sclerodema ¢) Burger's disease 4) Juvenile arthritis Sjorgen’s syndromeis associated with -(Jipmer 90) a) Meumatoid arthritis. b)SLE €) Scleroderma 4) Allof the above A female patient presents with finger stiffness & dysphagia, Diagnosis is- (AlIMS 2k) a) Scleroderma b) Dermatomyositis, ¢) Rheumtoid arthritis) Hiatus hernia 2641, seen in all (JIPMER 90) 2642, 2643, 2644, Pseudolymphoma is common presentation of- (PGI80, JIPMER 81) a) PSS 'b) Sjogren’s syndrome ©) MCTD 4) Bechet’s syndrome 2645, HLA B27 is associated with all except- (PGI98) 2) Ankylosing spondylitis us anemia ©) Behcet's syndrome _—_d) Reiter’s sydrome 2646. Uveoparotitisis seen in- (PG198) a) SE b) Sjogren's syndrome ©) Rheumatoid arthritis 4d) Sarcoidi Cavitating lesion in lung is seen in - a) PAN b) SLE ©) Wegenets granulomatosis, 4) Sjogren's syndrome 2647, (PG199) 2648. Primary extraglandular sjoren's syndrome is seen AE (PGI99) a) Rheumatoid Arthrit 'b) Raynaud's phenomena ©) Lymphoma 4) Splenomegaly 2649. Shrinking lung is a feature of - (PGI99) a) SLE ») Rheumatoid arthritis, ©) Scleroderma 4) Sarcoidosis 2650. Which of the following diseases is/are mediated through complement activation - a) Atopic dermatitis ) Graft versus Host disease (PGI03) 2638)¢ 2639)be 2640)¢ 2641)d 2642)d 2643)a 2644) 2645)be 2646)d 2647) ©) Photoallergy 4) Necrotizing vasculitis ¢) Urticaria Intravenous immunoglobulin is given n- (PG/04) a) Kawasaki disease b)GB syndrome ) Heart block ¢) Atria fibrillation ) Myasthenia gravis 2652. A 23 old woman has experienced episodes of myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test to diagnose her disease would be- (4/03) 8) CD, iymphocyte count b) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate ¢) Antinuclear antibody 4) Assay for thyroid hormones The commonest cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is~ (AIMS 03) a) Renal failure ') Cardiac involvement ©) Bleeding diathesis _d) Respiratory failure A 45 year old coal mine worker presents with cutaneous nodules, joint pain and occasional cough with dyspnoea. His chest radiograph shows multiple small (1-4) nodules in bilateral lung fields. Some of the nodules show cavitation and specks of calcification. Mast likely these features are - a) Sjogrens syndrome ») Caplan’s syndrome €) Silicosis, 4) Wegener's granulomatosis 2651, 2683, 2684, 2655, Which of the following is a YAN B lymphocyte marker - (Uharkand 03) a) CDI9 byeps 9) CD10 6)cD38 2656, Humoral immunodeficiency is suspected in a patient and he is under investigation. Which of the following infections would not be consistent with the diagnosis- (AIMS 04) ) Giardiasis ) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia ¢) Recurrent sinusit 4) Recurrent subcutaneous abscesses ‘The type of Allergic reaction seen in Allergic fungal sinusitis is - (AIIMS 04) a) Type 1 and Type 2 ) Type 2 and Type 3 ©) Type land Type3 Type 4 and Type 1 Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is associated with- (Al 05) a) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) b) X-linked agammaglobulinem’ €) Transient hypogammaglobulinemia 4) Chronic granulomatous disease 2687. 2658, 2648)a 2649)a 2650)bd 2651)abe 2652)¢ 2653)b 2654)b 2655) 2656)b 2657)c 2658)a2659, Multiple small aneurym is seen on aortography in ‘which condition - (SGPGI05) a) Behcet’syndrome b) PAN ¢) Takayasu's artertis 4) Wegener’s granulomatosis 2660. HLA B27 antigen is associated with all of the following disease except - (SGPGI 05) a) Ankylosing spondylitis b) Reiter’s syndrome ©) Psoriatic arthorpathy 4) Rheumatoid arthritis 2661. Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with - : (Al 06} 4) Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis b) Mixed connective tissue disease c) CREST syndrome 4) Polymyositis 2662. B cell functions is tested by all of the following except? (Manipal 06) a) CH.50-count b) Amount of ig G ©) PPD testing 4) Cytokine 2663. Which of the following is treatment of Type 1 (Manipal 06) ®) Histamine b)IgA immunoglobulin ©) Sodium cromoglycate) Interleukin 5 AIDS, se 664. The most common cause of seizures in a patient _/ of AIDSis~ a) Toxoplasm b) Cryptococes! meningitis €) Progessive multifocal leucoencephalopathy 4) CNS lymphoma 2665. Commonest oppurtunistic infection in AIDS (UPSC 2K) is- (AIMS 92) 2) Tuberculosis b) Cryptococeosis, ©) Aspergillosis @) Candidasis 2666 Opportunistic lung infection in AIDS is due to (NIMHANS 88) a) Pneumocystis carini_b) Klebsiella ©) Mucormycosis 4) Mycoplasma 2667. Which vaccine is not useful ina patient with AIDS- a) OPV b)DPT (AIIMS 92) ~¢) BCG d) Measles 1G Penewecrssompnosente nic: a) Dementia (PGI 93) oer 4) Demyelinating encephalopathy 2669. Most common CNS manifestation of HIV infection is- GIPMER 93) 4) Vacuolar myelopathy _b) Encephalopathy ©) Acute meningitis 4) Dementia «, 2659)¢ 2660)d 2661)c 2662) 2663)c 2664)a 2665)None 2666)a 2667)a _2668)d 2672)a 2673)None 2674)b 2675)b 2676)a_ 2677)d 14124 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT (AIMS 80, PGI81) Sindee) Catn wel sot \, ¢) Angioid streaks d) Microaneurysms cexhibit- (ALIMS 78) $y antndiest HL @ comers ci penis @) Even narier aee d) All of the above ray looks like- (Delhi 92) 2) Miliary shadow b) Cavity ‘Consolidation 4) Collapse 2673. Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS Ise (AILS 92) a) Cryptococcosis b) Tuberculosis ©) Candidiasis 4) Aspergillosis 2674. AIDS infect- (Kerala 94) 8) Bells b) Helper cells c) Killer T cells d) Regular T cells fom- (TN 95) 8) Crytococcus neoformans meningitis ») Pneumocystis carn ¢) Kaposi sarcoma d) Tuberculosis 2676. The most specific test for AIDS is-(CUPGEE 95) a) Western blot b) Southern blot 6) ELISA a)None (677, In patients of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, 7 tne commonest cans of space oce4pying lslon in (UPSC 97) brainis- a) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma ‘b) Cytomnegalovirus infection ¢) Cryptoccosis ~\d) Toxoplasmosis, II are ture statements with regard to kaposi eomd except (AIMS 97) — a) Conimoner in males ) Seen after renal transplant ¢) Multicentric Chemotherapy...treatment of choice 2679, In AIDS the cells most affected is- _(AIIMS 96) a) T-helper cells 'b) T-suppressor cells \<) Macrophage a)N-keells pias) emcees lesion of HIVare al except _/ 9) Giant ells (AIMS 97) \ ’) Vasculitis €) Spongiform degeneration @) Microglia 2681. HIV induced matignaney not trueis- (AIMS 97) 2) Kaposi sarcoma b) NHL & 2669)bd_2670)b 2671) 2678)d 2679)a_2680)b 2681)c |2135 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LiE 6) Astrocytoma . +) Corticosteroids are contraindicated given the risk Gastric adeno carcinoma of other opportunistic infections in Kaposis’s 2682. Which of the following is AIDS defining sarcoma intness - (UPSC 97) €) Pentramidine therapy by the aerosolized route 4) Mycobacterium tubercufosis meningitis ‘would be appropriated ifthe patient had @ known ») Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis allergy to sulfa drugs ©) Cytomegalovirus meningitis 6) Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole alone should be in) ) Histoptasma capsufatum meningitis administered 683] True statement ragarding neurological 2690, The minimum period required for post exposure manifestation of AIDSis- (MAHE 98) ‘chemo prophylaxis for HIV s- (UPSC 2K) 8} Dementia and delerium are the most a) 4 weeks b)6 weeks common CNS manifestations ©) Bweeks 4) 12 weeks by Neurological lesions do not develop until 2-3 years after HIV infection . ©) 25% of AIDS patients show sub-normal felligence on clinical examination 4 Convulsions may be the presenting symptoms Inn AIDS patient presenting with fever cough a I month by Diarthea> 1 month ©) Loss of > 10% of Body Wt } Cough > I month ‘Which one of the following is not a AIDS defining condition = (UPSC03) a) CMV retinitis ) Cryptococeal mini ) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia 4) Hodgkin’s lymphoma A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. iency syndrome is (SGPGI05) (HPUO5) ‘The best investigation to rule out HIV is- a) P24 antigen assay (MAHE03) b) ELISA - ©) Western blot 4} Lymph node biopsy 2730. 2738. 2732, 2733, 2734, 2738, 2736, 2737, 2738, 2739, 2740, 2741. The most common ophtalmic lesion in AIDS (ipmer 05) a) Hard exudates ) Cotton wool spots ©) Angioid streaks 4) Microaneurysms Zidovudine toxicity is increased by all except a) Azithromycin b)Probencid._ (APPGECS) ¢) Cisplatin 44) Cyclophosphamide ‘Which ofthe following antiretroviral drugsis a non- nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor- a) Zidovudine b) Efavirenz (AIMS 05) ©) Saquinavir _d) Stavudine Reserve transcriptase sequence in HIV is best described as~ (MAHE 05) a) RNA-DNA-RNA b)DNA-RNA ©) DNA-RNA-DNA, a) RNA-DN ‘Commonest presentation of tuberculosis is AIDS - 4) Infection with high organism (+) (PGI June 06) +) Sputum smear positive ) Negative tuberculin 4) Reactive Caseous necrosis seen 6) Extra pulmonary TR is common Major signs included by WHO for AIDS diagnosis- (PGI June 06) ) Chronic cough > 1 month ©) Chronic fever> { month 4) Loss of wt> 10% €) Generalized Lymphadenopathy recommended for prevention of ‘mother to child transmission of HIV infection ? b)Nevirapine (UPS 06) ©) indinavir 4d) Nelfinavir A patient with HIV disease is on Highly Active Anti- Retroviral Therapy (HAART). He develops tuberculosis. Which one of the following anti- tubercular drugsinterferes with HAART ? a) Isoniazid b)Ethambutol — (UPSC 06) ©) Pyrazinamide 4) Rifampicin ‘Which one of the following statementsis correct ? Opportunistic infections in HIV infected individual oceur when CD,cell count fall below- (UPSC06) a) 200/curnm, )400/eu mm, ©) 600/eumm, 4) 800/cu mm ‘Most-common cause of pleural effusion in HIV patients ~ (NIMHANS 06) a) Keposi sarcoma ) Lymphoma ©) Pearinii 4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis fe time risk of TB in HIV Patients «(COMED 06) 2) 20% 650% ©) 10% 0) 5% Characteristic fa distribution seen in HIV patient is? (APPG 06) a) Cheek +) Abdomen ) Temple 4) Buffalo hump 2121)a 2722)a 2723)a W4)c 2725)a 2126) 2727)d 2728)d 2729)a 2730)b 2731)a 2732)b 2733)a 2734)e 2735)c,d 2736) 2737) 2738)a 2739)a 2740) 2741)b1.128 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 2742. Most common GI manifestation in HIV infection is- 2753. A 30 years old sexually active pregnant female a) Amebiasis (Manipal 06) suffers from SLE is having + ve VDRL. Next best b) Cryptosoporidiosis step Is - (NIMS 96) ©) Giatidiasis a) Toke the VDRL +ve as biological false +ve 2743, d) Hook Worm infestation ‘Oral lesions in Immunocompromised state ~ ) Lichen planus (Manipal 06) b) Lichenoid eruption ©) Oral hairy leukoplakia 4) Erythroplakia LE 2744, 2745. 2746. 2747, 2748, 2749, 2750, 2751. 2782, SLE like syndromes seen with - (BHU 6, PGI 87, a) Phenytoin —b)Penicillamine Kerala 87) ©) Hydralazine d) Phenothiazine ) Procainamide The bestdrugof treatingSLEis- _(PGI84) ) Aspirin ') Indomethacin ©) Phenylbutazone 4) Dapsone 8 Steroids Allare true about SLE except- (Karnataka 90) a) It causes habitual abortion b) Causes of sterility «) Psychosis may be seen 4) Combs positive aremia Drugs that cause systemic lupus erythematosus include- (AIMS 79, PGI85) a) Procainamide byGold ¢) Phenytoin 4) Methotrexate €) Isoniazid SLE like syndromeiscuasedby- (Kerala 94) a) Hydralazine ») Phenytoin ©) Proainamide 4) Alllof the above Allare seen in SLE except- (Kerala 94) a) Prerygium b) Alopecia ©) Anaemia 4) Arthritis ‘Antibody found in SLE - (ALIMS 94) a) Antimitochondrial ») Anti double stranded DNA ) Anti nucleolar 4) Anti RNA Alll of the following are indications for use of corticosteriods in SLE except (4196) a) Neuropsychiatric lupus by Pericarditis ©) Endocarditis 4 Nephrotic syndrome Cardiac lesion in SLE cause - 4) Verrucous endocarditis b) Valvular incompetence ©) Heart block 4) Myocardial fibrosis ©) All of the above (Kerala 96) 2754. 2755. 2756. 2757. 2758, 2759, 2760. 2761. 2762, 2763. and do nothing ’) Do contact tracing 6) Treat her for syphilis 4) Do FTS-ABS test Indications for ste SLE are all except- a) Phostosensitivity (4196) 3) Thrombocytopenia «) Neuropsychiatric disorder 4) Myocarditis Antibodies most specific for drug induced lupus are- (MAHE98) 4) Anti ds DNA b) Antism © ANA 4) Antihistone ‘The most specific antibody in the diagnosis of SLE, is (SIPMER 81, PGI 93) 2) Antiess DNA b) Ami-Sm ©) ANA 6) Anti-RNA In SLE, characteristic kidney lesion is- a) Mesangial proliferation ) Tubular fibrin deposits ©) Wire loops 4) IgG deposits Characteristic feature of SLE is - a) Uveitis ) Joint deformity ©) Polyserositis d) Cavitating lesion is lung ie antibody for SLE is~ (PG12000) ) Anti-Jo 4) Anti ds DNA (PGI98) (PGI99) ©) Anti-Sm ©) Anti-La Anti-ds DNA is most specific for - (PG103) a) SLE b) Rheumatoid Arthritis ) Scleroderma) Polymyositis, ©) Sjogrens syndrome ‘Bau prognostic factors in Lupus Nephritis-(PG103) a) Antids DNA. ) Hypocomplementemia ) Persistent proteinuria (> 3emn/day) 4) Anti-La(SS-B) In active lupus nephritis which one ofthe following prostaglandin exeretion is increased in the (SGPG104) 4) Prostaglandin E ») Prostagladin L 6) Prostagindin A 4) None Drug induced lupus can be identified by - a) Antichistone antibodies ») Double stranded DNA antibodies ©) Antinuclear antibodies 4) Anti-SM antibodies (A106) 2742)b 2743)¢ 2744) Al 2745)e 2746)b 2747)ace 2748)d 2749)a_2750)b 27Si)e 2752)e 2753)d 275A)a_2755)d_ 2756) 27ST)C2758)e 27AA)cd 2760)a 2161)abe 2762)b 2763)a1.129 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT |EUMATOID ARTHRITIS 2776, False about felty syndrome- (AIMS 97) 2) Rheumatoid arthritis _b) Splenomagaly 2764, Caplan's syndrome is seen in ©) Nephropathy 44) Neutopenia a) COPD (JIPMER 79, AIIMS 92) 2777. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is not ') Pneumoconiosis responding to rotuine treatment. Which one of the ©) Pulmonary oedema following is to be indicated in further 4) Rheumatoid arthritis " | treatments cs 98) 2768, Rheumatoid arthritis assoclated with a) Methotrexate by Salazopyrine pneumoconiosis is known as- (AIIMS 68) ¢) Endoxan &) Paracetamol 2) Middle lobe syndrome 277%, The most commod cardiac involvement in b) Blacklung syndrome \ rheumatoid arthritis- (ICS 2K) orm ah oyntrece a) Pancarditis by Perican 2766, ANof¢he following are DMARD EXCEPT ¢) Myocarditis oO eeinanaie 7 2779, Etanercept used in rheumatoid arthritis act a) Penizillamine ') Indomethaci eariaer stag) ©) Chloroquine 4) Salazopyrine : 2767. Which of the following is not a feature of felty’s a) TNF alpha b) TFG beta syndorme- (PGIE5) ona iL 2) Splenomegaly b) Rheumatoid anthrtis © 2780. One of the following is nota disease modifying ¢) Anemia 4) Lymphadenopathy drug in rheumatoid arthritis - (/IPMER, PGI81) 2768. Following are disease modifying drugs except - 4) Auronaufin b)D-pencillamine 2) BAL b) Chloroquine (4i93) ©) Chloroquine 4) Indomethacin ©) Gold 4) Penicillamine 2781. Rheumatoid arthritis perlearditisis- (PGS) 2169. Which is not a complications of Rheumatoi a) Serous 6) Fibrinous arthritis- (PGI93) &) Serofibrinous 4) Adhesives 4) Endocarditis ») Pericarditc ~ 2782. Hemophilia with rheumatoid arthritis, analgesi of ©) Splenic infarees 4) Polycythemia choice - : (PG198) 2770, Relty's syndrome comprises of all except- a) Tbuprofen b) Aspirin a) Rheumatoid arthritis (ursc 7, ©) Aetamigophen @) Phenylbutazone ») Splenomegaly AP 87, PGI88) 2783. Which of the following HLA is specific to rheumatoid ©) Neutropenia arthritis - (PGI01) 2 Osteoarthritis 2) HLADR, b)HLADR, 2771. Rheumatoid factor may beseen in allexcept- ©) HLADR, a) HLADR, a) Typhoid (4188) ©) HLADR, ) Syphilis “2784, Rheumatoid factoris- (G103) ©) Pulmonary tuberculosis 8) kG big 4) Infectious mononucleousis ©) Iga a)IgD 2772. Indication for using steroids in rheumatoid ©) IgE arthritis is - (AIMS 95) 2788. Which one of the following is not associated with 2) Carpal tunnel syndrome rheumatoid arthritis- (COMEDK 05) ‘) Mononeurits multiplex 2) Pleura effusion ©) Carpal base erosions ») Pulmonary hypertension 4) Joint deformities ©) Cricoarytenoid arthritis 2773, Which is the most common site of subcutaneous 4) Fibrosing alveolitis nodulesin rheumatoid arthritis- (GUPGEE 95) 2786, Which one of the following is least likely to ocear in 2778, 2798, 4) Elbow b) Wrist ©) Achilles tendon 4) Occiput Rheumatoid factoris mainly-_ (GUPGEES6) a)lgM b)IgA ©) BG aigD Indication of steroids in rheumatoid arthritis - 4) Mononeurits multiplex = (AIST) ») Joint erosion ¢) Capsular involvement 64) Stifness of joints - 2787. late extra articular sero-positive rheumatoid arthrit 2) Neutropenia b) Dry eye c) Leg ulcers d) Hepatitis TrueaboutRA- (PGI June 05) a) BLADR, b)HLAB,, ©) Anaemia _d) Subcutaneous nodules 6) Joiiit deformity 2764)bd_2765)¢ 2766) 2767) 2768)2 -2769)ad 2770)d 2771)a 2772)b 2773)a_2774)a_275)a_2776)e 277I)a 2778) 2779)2 2780)d 2781)b 2782)a 2783)d 2784) 27ES)None 2786) 27ETacde2788, Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) DR 4 occurs ia about 70% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis HLA DR4 encoded in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) region on - (Karn 06) 8) Chromosome 6 ) Chromosome 9 ©) Chromosome 18 4) Choromosome 22 VASCUI 2789. The change seen in the muscular arteries in polyarteritis nodosa - (AIMS 87) 2) Plasma cell infiltration ») Eosinophilic inftration 6) Intimal proliferation 4) Multiple nodules 2790, Recurrent painful oro-genital ulceration with arthritis is seen in - (PGI86) a) Gonorrhoea b) Syphilis 6) Reters 4) Bechets 2791, Skin manifestations of polyarteritis include ~ a) Livido reticulosis (UMS 81, PGI82) ) Hyper pigmentation ©) Subcutaneous infarct 4) Bullous dermatitis 2792, Wegner’s granulomatisis, treatment of choice - a) Splenectomy (PG190, A193) ') Antibiotics ©) Cyclophosphamide &) Surgery 2793, Treatment of wegner’s granulomatosis is- (4/93) @) Steroids ') Cyclosporine ©) Radiotherapy “Cyclophosphamide 2794, In Bechet’ssyndrome-___(AIIMS81, PGI 83) 4) There isa strong association with HLA-BS +) There may be recurrent deep venous thrombosis ©) The skin may be hyperactive to minot injury such as Venepuneture 8) Corticosteroid therapy is of definite value «) The condition is characteristed by an inflamatory reaction around large blood vessels 2795, Kawasaki's disease has the following-features except- (alms 97) 8) Coronary artery aneurysm ) Conjunctival suffusion ©) Thrombocytopenia 4) Desquamiation ofthe skin of fingers & toes 2796, In takayasu arteritis there is- (PG196) 2) Kovimal fibrosis ) Renal hypertension 6) Coronary aneurysm 4) All of the above 2797. A 27 year old female, chanda, presented with epitamis. ENT. examination revealed serons ofitis media. She also had fever. Unrine examination revealed protein +++, 20 RBC/hef and blood RA 2788)a 2789)c_2790)d 2791)ac 2792)c 2793)ad 1.130 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIt Tactor was negative. The diagnosis is (A//MS 99) a) Hypertension with nephrosclerosis b) Wegener’s granulomatosis ©) Goodpasture’s syndrome 4) Idiopathic crescent glomerulonephrit 2798. In which of the following vasculitis syndrome, bronchial asthma is a common presentation - a) Wegener’s granulomatosis (UPSCO1) ') Microscopie polysrteitis ©) Polyarteritis nodosa 4) Churg-Strauss vasculitis 2799, Polyarteritis nodosa is preceded by a history of (AIMS 81, 87) a) Bee-sting 8) Drowning ©) Trauma 4) Bronchial asthma ) Pulmonary tuberculosis (None) 2800. CANCA is pathognomonic of - (AIMS 98) a) SE b) Wegner's granulomatosis ©) Polyartertis nodosa 4) Idiopathic cresentric gromerulonephriti ©) Rheumatoids arthritis 2801. PANCA is sensitive and specific for the diagnosis of the diagnosis of - (AIMS 98) 2} Idiopathic cresentic nephritis b) SLE ©) Minimal change GN ) None ‘Treatment of choice in weguer’s granulamatosis is- 2) Cyclophosphmide —_&) Cycloserine (4193) 2802. ©) Steroids «) Radiotherapy 2803. Which is incorrect about Henoch-Schonlein purpura (AlIMS 91) a) Arthritis b) Nephritis ©) Thrombocytopenia _ 8) Centrifgal Rash 2804, Scleroderma commonly involves- (JIPMER 90) 2) Stomach b)Duoderum ©) Esophagus Colon 2805. Muscle biopsy in PAN shows ~ (PG198) a) Necrotising arteritis. b) Atrophy ©} Granulomatous lesions) Ring lesions 2806, Feature of microscopic polyangitisis- a) IgG deposits in kidney ) Bronchospasm ‘) Renal involvement in 90% cases 4) All of the above 2807, Small vessel vasculitis are~ 4) Classical PAN b) Wegener's granulomatosis ©) Giant cell arteritis 4) HSP ©) Churg-struass syndrome (PGI99) (PGI 2000) 2794)abed 2795)¢ 2796)d 2797)b 2798)d 2799)d 280)’ 2BOI)a IWO2}a 28O3Je 2O4}e 2WS)a WO6e 28Oabde2808. 2809. 2810, 2811. 2812, 2813, 2814, 2815. 2816. ‘Trueabout HSP- 2) Palpable purpura ) Kidneys commonly affected ©) C-ANCA positive ) Thrombocytopenia Find the correct matehes- a) ANCA-Tekayasu's arteritis ’) Antihistone antibodies-SLE in newborn ©) Naproxen-Pseudoporphytia @) Antimitochondrial antibodies-primary biliary cirthosis, TV immunoglobulin i used in - ) Myasthenia gravis 6) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura ©) Takayasu's arteritis 4) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome ©) Multiple myetoma ANCAis found in- 4) Wegener's granulomatosis ») Churg-Strauss' disease €) Microscopic polyangitis 4) Takayasu's arteritis SE Features of systemic sclerosis are - ) Calcinosis ¢) Raynaud's phenomena ©) Occurs in old age ‘An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in third fingers for last 2 week. On examination the blood pressure is 170 / 110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine ‘examinations were unremarkable. Antinucleor antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative, The mostlikely dingnosis is- (4/04) a) Wegener's granulomatosis, b) Polyarteritis nodosa ) Takayasu's arceries 4) Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) Feature of microscopic polyangitis is- 8) IgG deposits inkidney (URPGM.E.E. 04) ) Bronchospasm ©) Renal involvement in 90% cases 6) All of the above A patient presents with melaewa, normal renal function, hypertension and mononeuritis multiples. ‘Thetmost probablediagnosisis- (AIMS 04) a) Classical polyarteritis nodosa ) Microscopic polyan ©) Henoch Schonlein purpura @) Buerger’s disease In takayasu arteritis there is~ 4) Intimal fibrosis +) Renal hypertension (PGI 2000) (PG102) (PGI 02) (P6102) (PG103) b) Sclerodactyly 4) Melanin deposition (NIMHANS 05) 28717, Skin manifestati 2818, 2819. 2820. 2821. 2822. 2823, MEDICINE QUES. VOL-It ©) Coronary aneurysm 4d) Alllof the above ns of polyarter Iude- 8) Lividoreticulosis (MAHE 05) 1b) Hyper pigmentation ©) Subcutaneous infarct 4) Bullous dermatitis Allare the criteria of Kawasaki disease except - a) Fever of 5 days duration (APPGE 05) b) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis ©) Coronary aneurysms 4) Lymphadenopathy ‘Henoch-Schonlein purpura is characterized by the deposition of the following immunoglobulin around the vessels - (AIMS NOY 05) a) IgM b)IgG IgA A) IgE Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except - (4105) a) Thrombocytopenia ) Small-vessel vasculitis ©) Disseminated gonococcal infection 4) Acute meningococcemia ‘A'59 year old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, witha left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end -systolic diameter index of 2.9 emvm2. The most appropriate ‘treatment is- (A105) ) Mitral valve repair or replacement b) No treatment ¢) ACE inhibitor therapy ) Digoxin and diuretic therapy ‘430 years old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs of last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving, 24 and 3 fingers on right side and Sth finger on left side. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hy, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed a Hb 12.gm, TLC- 12000 Cu mm, Platelets 4,30,000, ESR.-49 mm. Urine exzarination showed proteinuria and RBC- 10- 15/ pf with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis- (4/05) a) Polyarteritis nodosa b) Systemic lupus erythematosus ©) Wegener's granulomatosis 4) Mixed eryoglobulemia Which one of the following isthe treatment of choice for Kawasaki'sdiseases- (AIMS May 2005) a) Chyclosporine ') Dapsone €) Intravenous immunoglobulin 4) Methotrexate 2808)abe 280%)¢4 2819)¢ 2820)a 2K2I)a 2822)a 2823)e 2810)a 2811)abee 2812)abed 2813)b 2814)c 2815)a_ 2816)d 2817)a¢ 2818)¢>b2824, 28258, 1132 Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following except (A106) 4) Atherosclerosis ») Fibromuscular dyspl 6) Takayasu's arteritis 4) Polyarteritis nodosa ‘A.30-year-old male represents with numbness of both lower limbs and right upper limb. Examingt reveals pulse 88/min and BP 16/110 mmHg. He also has digital gangrene involving right 2" and finger, urine routine examination is unremarkable. Microscopic examination show RBCs, hesogram and serum biochemistru is within normal limits. ‘Whats most probablediagnosis? —_(AIIMS06) 2) Systemic lupus erythematosis ) Polyarteritis nodosa ©) Malignant hypertension 4) Chrug-Strauss syndrome 2826. All of the following organs contain aneurysm in polyarteritis nodosa except ? (APPG06) 2) Liver b) Lung ©) Kidney 4) Pancreas SARCOIDOSIS 2827, Sarcoidosis causes all except - (MP 2k) 2) Osteomalacia ) Addison’s disease ©) Diabetes insipidus __d) Hypercalcemia 2828. Sarcoidosis true is - (AIMS 98) 2829, 2830, 2831. 2832, 2833. 8) Lung lesions are cavitatory ') Tubercalin test is usually negative ) Erythema tnarginatum positive 4) Usually resolves without treatment Sarcoidosis is characterised by all except - 8) Miliary shadow (alums 89) ») Pleural involvement ©) Hilar lymphadenopathy 4) Egg shell calcification Which is nota feature of sarcoidosis- (4/89) 2) Cardiomyopathy ) Malabsorption ©) Hypercalcemia 4) Paratrachea! lymphodes Commonest cause of death in sarcoidosis is - 2) Pneumonia GIPMER 86) ) Corpulmonale ©) Myocardial infarction 4) Liver fiture ‘Acute sarcoidosis is least likely to be associated with (JIPMER 81, DNB 88) 2) Uveitis b) Pleural effusion ) Erythema nodosum) Lymphadenopathy Kviems testis positive if thereis- 2) Induration of more than 7mm MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIL ») Erythematous change ©) Breakdown of the skin atthe test site 4) Non caseating follicles in biopsy 2834, Which is not characterstic of interstitial lung disease- a) Decreased vital capacity ») Decreased total lung capacity 6) Increased diffusion capacity of carbon @d) All 2835, The organ so far not reported to be affected by sarcoidosis is - (AIMS 90) 2) Heart »)Brain 2) Adrenals 4) Kidney 2836, Common features of sarcoidosis in childhood include - (AIMS 78, PG179, 81,82) a) Parotitis ») Eryhema nodosum ©) ahhigh incidence of spontaneous remission 4) Allare true 2837. Which one is characteristic of sarcoidosis - a) Caseating epitheloid granuloma (JIPMER 98) ) Non caseating epitheloid granuloma ©) Foreign body granuloma 4@) Histioeytic granuloma 2838, Drug of choice in sarcoidosis is(A//MS 81, PG/ 80) ) Cyclophosphamide) Methorexate ©) Prednisolone 4) Cyclosporine 2839, True about sarcoidosisis- (PGI 99) 8) Kveim test in not helpful in diagnosis b) May be assogiated with positive RA factor ©) Pleural effusjon ) Common is 50 years male \ 2840. What is the most common presentation of sarcoidosis - (UPSC 05) ) Erythema nodosum b) Respiratory manifestation c) Constitutional 4) Abnormal routine X-ray chest 2841. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all ofthe following, except (41.05) a) Sarcoidosis ») Silicosis ©) Berylliosis 4) Bronchogenic carcinoma JOINTS 2842, Most specific: Gouty arthrit 2) Urinary uric acid estimation ') Blood uric acid ©) Bone erosion around joints 4) Synovial fluid for crystals 1d earliest investigation to diagnose (AIMS 96) 2824)d 2825)b 2826)b 2827)a 2828)b,d 2829)None 2830)a 2831)None 2832)b 2833)d _2834)¢ 2835)None 2836)d 2837)b 2838)c 2839)b 2840) 2841)d 2842)dMEDICINE QUES, VOL-IIt 2843. Charcot’s joint in diabetes affects comonly - a) Shoulder b)Knee (AIMS 94) ©) Hip 4) Tarsal 2844. Neuropathic joint is seen in all except-(KERALA 94) a) Diabetes melltius 'b) Tabes dorsalis ©) Syringomyelia 4) Fredericks ataxia 2845, Keratoderma blenorrhagica is pathognomonic of- : (PGI79, AMU 90) 12) Behcer’s diseases ) Reiter's disease ©) Lyme's disease 4) Glucagonoma 2846. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with - a)HLAB27—b)HLADR4-—WIPMERS4) c) HLABS @)HLAA3 : 2847. Heberden nodes areseen in- (UPSC87, AP 87, a) Rheumatoid arteritis PSE) ») Rheumatic arthritis ¢) Osteoarthritis — SE 2848, Treatment of acute gout inclutes all except- a) NSAID b) Colchicine (Kerala 87) ©) Allopurinol _d) Alll ofthe above 2849, Neuropathic joints are not seen in - (A189) 4) Tabes Dorsalis ) Leprosy ©) Diabetes 4) Myopathy 2880, Migrating polyarthritis is characteristically seen in- (NIMHANS 88) a) Syphiltc arthritis ) Rheumatoid arthritis 6) Psoriatic arthritis 4) Rheumatic arthritis 2851, Which of the following is true of psoriatic arthritis ‘ipmer 90) a) Involves distal joints of hand and foot ») Pencil in cup deformity ) Sacroilitis d) All of the above 2852, All are features-of inflammatory arthritis except (Aro) a) Raised ESR. 'b) Morning Stiffness c) Tender joints d) New bone formation 2853, Which s not used in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis (6193) 2) Aspirin +) Ibuprofen ©) Napronen ¢) Proxcam 2854. What percent of gouty individuals have nephrolithiasis - (IPMER 81, AMU 86) a) 10-20% 30-40% 325% ) 50-60% Diseases associated with gout are (JIPMERSI, a) Polycythamia vera AMC 87) ») Glycogen storage disease ©) Psoriasis @) Hyperparathyroidism ‘ ©) Allof the above 12856. In the essential hyperuricemia, uricosuric agents ‘or allopurinol should be used when urate level exceeds (AIMS 79, PGI80) a) Smg% by 7me% ©) 9mg% 4) 13 mg% ©) 1Smg% 2857, Which one ofthe following drugs may precipitate -gout- (UPSC 96) a) Ethambutol b) Isoniazid ¢) Pyrazinamide «) Rifampicin 2858. Commonest eause of non gonococcal arthritis - 8) Staphylococcus aureus (AIMS 97) b) Salmonella typhi ¢) Pseudomonas @) Anaerobes 2859. Contraindicated inacute gout ~ (PG196) 4) Indomethacin b) Acetyl salicylate ©) Probenecid @) Colchicine 2860, Transport media for stones in gout is- (AIMS 97) +) Normal saline 4) Alcohol 2861. Erosion ofjoint isseen in alexcept - (MP 98) a SE ) Osteoarthritis ©) Psoriatic arthropathy) Rheumatoid arthritis 2862. Charcots joint is not seen in - (MP 98) @) Ankle ) Knee ©) shoulder <)Elbow 2863. Most effective treatment of acute attack of goutis- a) Aspirin ») Allopurinol (ClP 01) 9) Colchicine d) Mefenemic acid 2864. Which of the following erystals may give rise to pseudo neuropathic arthropathy resembling Charcot's joint (PSE 2001) 2) Monosodium uratehydroxy apatite ») Hydroxy apatite ©) Calcium oxalate 4) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 2865. Charcots joints are seen in allexcept(JIPMER87) a) Tertiary syph ) Sympomyelia ©) Diabetes 4) Rheumatoid arthritis 2866. ‘True about gout is- (PGI 02) a) Occurs due to accumulation of urate crystals in Joint b) Can be pptd by pyrazinamide ©} Bireftingent cystals are present in joints d) Occurs more in females ©) Due to decreased excretion of uric acid 2867, A female presents with H/O rash and polyarthritis, Timay be associated with (PLOY a) ANA 1 B)RA factor _ ©) Bad obsteric history, _) Increased APTT ©) HLA-B2T 2843)d 28444 2845)b 2846)a 2847)c 2848)c 2849)d 2850)d 2851) 2852)d 2853)a 2854)d 2855)e 2856)e 285Tac 2858)a 2859)bc 2860)d 2861)a 282)None 2869)d 2864)d 286S)d 2oO)abee 28HTab Smg, a) Serum Na’, K*, renin (6197) Prednisotone daily ») S. Na’, K*, saline suppression 4)Following cessation, the stress response __notmalises after 8 weeks : 3083. True about eushing’ssyndromeis- (SGPGI 05) 3042, Intake of exogenous steroid causes- _ (PGI97) 8) Adrenomedullary hyperplasia in association with a) Addison's disease —_b) Cushing’ syndrome MEN syndrome is common cause ©) Pheochromocytoma _d) Conn’s syndrome 'b) Bronchial & Mediastinal carcinoid causescushing 3043. The following are features of primary syndrome hyperaldosteronism except - (PGI97) ©) Itis diagnosed by hypokalemis in aSsociation with a) Polyuria ») Hypertension| increased adrenal secretion ¢) Hypokalemi «) Hyperkalemia 4) It is often fatal due to its coronary and 3044. Addison's disease is characterized by following cerebrovascular accidents except (PG197) 3054, True about primary aldosteronism - (PGI Juné 05) 4) Hyperkalemia b) Hypotension a) Pedal oedema ) Increased rennin ©) Hyponatremia 4) Hypocalcemia «) Increased Na 4) Decreased K+ 3048, Cushing syndrome is characterized by all except - ©) Hypertension ®) DM b)HT —— PGr98) 3055. Tumour associated with primary aldosteronism - ©) Proximal myopathy 4) Centripetal obes @) Adrenal adenoma (PGI Sune 05) 3046. About cushing syndrome,trueis- (PGI 2000) ») Adrenal hyperplasia 8) Low dose dexamethasone suppress cortisone ©) Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome secretion 4) Adrenal carcinoma b) CA of adrenal is more common than adenoma 3056. A young patient presented with HTN and VMA 14 ©) Pituitary adenoma size > 2.cm (usually) mg/24, the causes is/are - (PGI June 05) d) TACTH secretion is the commonest cause a) Medullary carcinoma thyroid 3047, Salt losing Hydroxylase deficiency is characterized ') Von Hippel Lindau syndrome by- GIO} ©) Grave's disease 4) Hyponatremia ) Hyperkalemia 4) Psendohypoparathyroidism ©) Hypoglycemi 4) Hypocalcemia «) Sturge weber syndrome 3048, True about conn’s syndrome - (PG102) 3057. Conn’s syndromes characterised by allexcept- atk a) Polyuria byPolydipsia —-(SGPGI05) by IK ©) Weakness) Anasarea ©) Proximal myopathy 3058, Hypokalemia may be a feature of all following 4) Ted plasma renin activity diseases, except- (1 & k05) +) Edema 8) Addison's disease _b) Cushing's syndrome 3049, Extra-adrenal pheoehramocytoma secretes-(PGI03) ©) Barter’s syndrome) Gitelman's syndrome a) Norepinephrine 'b) Epinephrine 3059, Chronic adrenal insufficiency is characterized by ¢) Metanephrine 4) Dopamine allof the following except-_(41/MS May 2005) ©) VMA. a) Excess pigmentation 3050. Regarding Addisonian pigmentation, all are true ») Asthenia except ipmer 04) ©) Weight gain 4) Involves moles and scars, e b) Involves palmer creases ©) Does not involve oral mucosa 4) Decreased fibrosis 4) Hypoglycemic episodes 3039)a 3040)b 3081) 3042)b 3043)d 3044)d 3045)None 3046)d 3047)abd 3048)be 3049)ab 3050)c 3051}¢ 3052)¢ 3053)b 3054)cde 3USS)ebA 3056)abe 3057)d 3058)a 3059)c |11as MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3060, Which of the following statements is correct regarding adrenal histoplasmosis-_ (AI/MS 06) a) In active disease, calcification is commonly seen b) Lymphadenopathy is not seen 6) The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged 4) Adrenal insufficiency is uncommon Y Ny DIABETES 161| Which of the following is false about diabetic ketoacidosis - (A188) ) Low dose insulin therapy is given ») Leucocytosis suggests infection ©) Pyrexia is unusual even if tere is infect 4) Dehydration out of proprotion to severity of vomiting 3062. Dawn phenomenon refers to- ) Early morning hyperglycemia ») Early morning hypoglycemia ©) Hypogiycemia followed by hyperglycemia (AP 96) Foy igh inslinlivels 4063 Deaths from lactic acidosis in diabetes mellitus i therapy- (JIPMER 86) ) Metformin ») Tolbutamide ©) Chlorpropamide 8) Phenformin €) Glipizide 3064, Glycosolated hemoglobin percentage which indicates good control of diabetes (JIPMER 86) a) 8% b)10% o) 15% 20% (606% Fungst tong infection commonly seen in diabetiesis- (NIMHANS 88) 8) Aetonycos b) Mucormeosis »\o) Aspergillosis 4) Coccidiodomycosis '5066/ In non ketotic hypersmolar hyperglycemia the blood sugar level is~ (SIMILANS 88) a) Slightly elevated b) Mildly elevated o ©) Moderately elevated 4) Grossly elevated (067, Estimination of glycosolate hemoglobion gives in 227” assessment of the blood glucose level in the (Kerala 89) previous...weeks- al bz 8 410 3068. HILA linkage is seen in - a) IDDM ») NIDDM 2) Sevondary diabetes due to pancreatic disease > \dj Diabetes due to insulin amagonist 069, Dehydration in ketoacidosis is best treated with- (N91) 1) Isolyte P. by Isolyte M. ©) Normal saline 4) Motar 1/6 lactate (Kerala 89) om ‘The complication of diabetes which cannot be / prevented by strict control of blood sugar ise (AIMS 91) @) Amyotrophy ) Nerve conductivity ©) Fluorescein leak 4) Microalbuminuria 3071, IDDM is found to beassociated with all except - 2) SE (AIMS 92) b) Muscular dystrophy ©) Addisons disease 4) Hashimoto's thyroiditis /8072. Ampaired glucose tolerance can cause- (AIMS 92) a) Neuropathy ) Nephropathy J ©) Retinopathy oiKD 8073) The most effective correction of acidosis in Alabetic ketoacidosisis- _ (JIPMER80, AI81) a) IV bicarbonate b)IV saline ©) IV insulin 4) Oral bicarbonate 3074, Proinsulin canbe best characterized as- (PGI81, 2) Immunologicallysimilarto insulin A/JMS 84) ©) Completely inact ©) More active than 4) Smaller than insulin 3075. Hypoglycaemic effect of soluble insulin lasts sulin for- (ROHTAK 81, 85) a) 12-20hours 8) 20-30 hours ©) 5410 hours 4) 6-10 hours ©) 2-4 hours 1076. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma can be precipitated ina diabetic patient by (/IPMER 80, 81,Delhi 88) 8) Propranolol ») Phenytoin ©} Phenformin 4) Metformin 3077. Hyperglycemia occurs after what % of beta cell mass is destroyed - (PGI 78, UPSC 83) a) 40% 60% ©) 80% 6) 90% fra Minimum amounof carbohydrate equa oprevent ketonuria in acase of diabetes is about-(DNB 90,91) a) 50 gmidaily ')25 gmidaily ¢) 100 grvdaily 4) 150 gmidaily >) ¢) 200 gmidaily 079. Oral anti diabetic drug of choice in renal failure is- (Karn 94) 2) Tolbutamide ) Chlorpropamide ©) Glipizide ) Metformin a) Fanconis anemia GIPMER 95) ) Noonans syndrome 6) Ataxia telangiectasia 4) Myotonic dystrophy ‘3081, Factitious hyperinsulinemia insulinoma by- 8) C- peptides ») Insulin antibodies c) Serum glucose levels ferentiated from GIPMER 95) 3060)¢ 3061) 3062) 3063)ad 3064) 3065)b 3066)d 3067)c 3068)a 3069)¢ 3070)a 3071)ab 3072)d 3073)e 3074)a 3075)d 3076)b 3077)c 3078)c 3079)a 3080)ab 3081)14s. 3082, Which of the following is seen in 95% of patient with diabetesmelitus~ (IN 95) a) HLAB27 ‘b)HLA B3-B4 Je) HLA DR3-DRA a)HLA AS 4083,/1n diabetic nephropathy all ofthe following are (CA trac XCEPT- (Karn 95) 1) Cardiovascular abnormalities can occur ») Micro and macro albuminuria can oceur ©) ACE inhibitors can reduce micro albuminuria 4) Insulin requirement becomes 3084. Conmonest cause of lactic acidosis during treatment of diabetesis- (AIMS 95) 2) Diet restriction b) Insulin treatment ©) Oral hypoglycemics _d) Renal artery stenosis. 3085. Which is true in diabetes mellitus type H- a) Insulinitis of B cells (Kerata 96) ) Hyalinisation of B cells ©) Atrophy of B cells <) Hyperplasia of B cells, 7p) Deweneration of B cells ‘the blood glucose level is around - (CUPGEE 96) 8) SSmmoll b)20mmolA ©) 80mmot/ 4)Smmol! 3087. Dawa phenomenon refers to- a) Early moming hyperglycemia ») Early morning bypolgycemia ) Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia (AP 96) 4) High insulin levels 3088. All of the following are associated with insulin resistance except - (uP 97) a) Acanthosis nigricans) Lipodystrophy ~~“) Amitryptline b) Local gypusm ©) Codeine d) Phenytoit insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) is NOTtrue- (UPSC 97) 2) Circulating islet cell antibodies are usually fourd ) There is no HLA associaton 6) Ketosis is rare @) Relative resistance to insulin is present 3091. The following statement concerning diabetic ketoacidosis are correct except - (MP 98) 4) Pyrexia is uncommon even in the presence of infection b) Dehydration is out of proportion to the severity of vomiting ©) Low dose insulin therapy is treatment of choice 4) Leucocytosis is highly suggestive of associated infection 3082)c 3083) 3084)c 3085)None 3086)a 3087)a 3088) 3089)b 3090)a 3091). 3095)e 3096)a 3097)c 3098)a 3099)b 3100)d 3101)a 1) CRF 3. Insulin resistance is not seen in ~ a) Addison’s disease 4) hyperglycemic glycosuria 3097, Neeroboss ipoidica sen in peu ayResine haem [3699 Insulin sees test asay estimates - C MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT (082) Dose onsulin in stable diabetisis reduced in- 8) Thyrotoxicosis (MP 98) ») Propanoiol therapy 6) Ul trimester of pregnancy (AIMS 98) ) Lipodystrophy ©) Wemer’s syndrome 4) Ataxic telangiectasia 3094. A patient with BMI>30 (Obese) serum glucose 430% urinary ketones 4+ requires- ¢4//MS 98) a) Insulin ») Glibeclamide ©) Metformin 6) Diet control 3095. A 30 year old male with NIDDM has a blood pressure of 150/90. Hils urine examination reveals persistent albuminuria in traces, The most appropriated line of treatment would be- +2) Non treatment (UPSC 2K) ») Regular examination of urine and monitoring of blood sugar ©) Administering tisinopril and restriction of sodium 4) Restriction of sodium only 3096, A patient detected to have glycosuria had the following blood sugar values.Fasting 80 mg% and Véhours 140 mg%. The urineat 90 mts was strongly benediet’s positive. What isthe possible diagnosis - a) Renal glycosuria - (AIMS 99) ») Alimentary glycosuria ©) Transient glycosuria (Kerala 2001) aD b) Lyme disease Zc) Diabetes metus 4) Symonds disease 078 somyori phenomenon is— (AMC 87, 88) 8) Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia ») Hyperglycemia followed by hypoglycemia ) Glycosuria with normal blood sugar (an 99) ‘@) Diabetes mellitus“ _b) Growth hormone ©) Glucagon assay 4) Catecholaines 3100, Ketone body which is maximum in Diabetic Ketoacidosis - (JIPMER 92) a) Acetone b) Pyruvate ) Acetoacestic acid 4) B- Hydroxy butyrate 3101. Dawn phenomenon refers to- (AIMS 91) a) Early moming hypoelicemia b) Non-ketotic hyperglycemia €) After breakfast hypoglycemia 4) Recurrent hypoglycemia 3092)d 3093)a 3094)aLaas MEDICINE QUES. VOL-UIT 3102. To diagnose hyperglycemia of two weeks old the best investigation retrospectively is - (lipmer 95) 8) Ketones bodies b) Glycosylated haemoglobin ©) Glucose in the blood 4) Chromosomal study 5108) Hyperycem is caused by all except-(AIIMS 96) a) Diazoxide ') Thiazide 2) Pentamidine 4) Propranolol 104. Diabetese is aggravated by all except- (4/98) Aa) Nimmuselide ) Diazoxide ¢) Chlorthiazide ) Furosemide 3108, Which isa feature of Dawn phenomenon- a) Early morning hypoglycemia ) Early morning hyperglycemia 6) Breakfast aypoglycemia hod Post prandial coma (3106, Spontaneous hypoglycemia is caused by- (PGI97) 2) Glucagonoma ) Chr. pancreatitis ©) Cushing's syndrome 4) Hepatocellular carcinoma () The carr omen prsenain of diabetie neuropathy is- (PG198) 8) Amyotrophy ) Mononeuropathy ©) Symmetrical sensory neuropathy 4) Autonomic neuropathy 3108, Diabetes controlis best monitored by - 1) Serum glucose »b) Post prandia! blood glucose ©) HOA 4) HbA... (PGI98) 3109, Most useful investigation in diagnosis of diabetic Ketoacidosis - (PG198) a) Ketonemia b) pH of blood ©) Urinary sugar 4) Urine ketone ). The characteristic finding in diabetic nephropathy ise - (PGI99) 8) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis b) Nodular glomeruloscler ©) Armani - Ebstein reaction @) Fibrin caps ‘Which ofthe following statements is true regarding type I diabetes mellitus - (PGI01) 4) Family history is present in 90% cases ') Dependent on insulin to prevent ketoacidosis «) Time of onset is usually predictable 4) Autoimmune destruction of beta cells occur €) Mostly occurs in children Features of diabeticnonproliferative retinopathy are- a) Hard exudates b) Soft exudates ©) Micro aneurysms @)IRMA — (PGIOL) RD 3112. 3113. Two most important tests to be done in a comatose patient with blood glucose of750 mg/dl will be a) Sr. creatinine »b) Sr sodium (PGI 01) ©) CSF examination 4) Blood pH ©) Blood urea Impaired oral GTT indicated by - a) Fasting plasma sugar? 126 mg/dl ») Random blood sugar > 200 mg/dl ©) Fasting blood sugar <90 mg/d 4) Fasting blood sugar < {40 mg/dl and two after ‘glucose ioad> 200 mg/dl ©) 2 his. after glucose load 140-200 meal fasting blood sugar<126 mg/dl ‘An obese NIDDM patient present with FBS=180 mg% and PP2BS=260 mg% Management include- 2) Glibenclamide (PGta2) ») Diet therapytexer ©) Diet therapy exercise+metformin 4) Insutin ) Chlorpropamide Diabetes mellitus can lead to- a) Vitreous hemorrhage ») Rubeosis iris ©) Retinal detachement 4) II, IV, and Vi nerves palsy ©) Hypermetropia Correct statement about Type-1 DM - a) Mumps ») Autoimune 6) Family history of Type-2 DM 3114, (PG102) 3s. 3116. (rar02) 3117. (PG103) 3118, In diabetes mellitus which is/are not found-(PG/03) ) Encephalopathy b) Myelopacty ©) Neuropathy ) Myopathy ©) Retinopathy 3119, A patient with DM of 4 yrs duration presents with dizziness and HR S2/min, probable cause is - a) Hypoglycaemia (PGI04) ») Inferior wall MI ©) Sick-sinus syndrome 4) Autonomic dysfunction Which of the following tests is most suited for early detection of diabetic nephropathy? @) Ultrasonography (Karnataka 03) ») Creatinine clearance ©) Urine albumin 4) Serum creatinine If a diabetic patient being treated with az oral hypoglycemicagent,evelopsdilational hyponatermia, which one ofthe following could be responsible for 3120, 3121. this effect - a) Chlorpropamide 'b) Tolazamide’ ©) Glyburide <)Glimepride 3102)b 3103)d 3104)a 3105)b 3106)d 3107)c 3108)c 3109)a 3110)b 3111)bde 3112)be 3113)ad »3114)e 3115)¢ 3116abed 3117)abe 3118)b 3119)be 3120)¢ 312!)aMEDICINE QUES, VOL-ZIE 1.146 3122. Antabuse like effect eaused by the oral hypoglycemic drug (Orissa 04) a) Acrabose ) Chlorpropamide ©) Metaformin 6) Gliclazide 3123. Which one of the following oral hypoglycemic ‘agents is not an insulin secretogogue ? (PSC 64) 2) Gliclazide b)Glimiperide ) Repaglinide 4) Rosiglitazone 3124, A50 year old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24-hr urinary albumium of 250 mg. ‘Which of the following drugs may be used to retard progression of renal disease- (AIIMS 04) a) Hydrochlorthiazide _ b) Enalapril «) Amiloride 4) Aspirin 3125. Fungal hing infection commonly seen in diabetics (NIMBANS 88) a) Actiomycosis 'b) Mucormycosis 6) Aspergillosis 4) Coccidiodomyeosis 3126, Which one of the following investigations is most Sensitive for early diagnosis of diabetie nephropathy- a) Serum creatinine levet (UPSC 05) ) Creatinine clearance ©) Glucose Tolerance Test 4) Microalbuminuria 3127. Trueabout diabetic nephropathy (PGI June 05) 4) Microalbuminjura‘is not an indicator of longetérm cardiovascular morbidity b)Strict glycemia control cannot prevent ‘microalbuminuria ©) Beta is let cellipancreatic transplantation can improve the proteinuria in early stage 4) Augiotensin receptor blockers have no additive advantage over other drugs except B.P. control 6) Protein restriction is not helpful 3128. Dehydration ix ketoacidosis is best treated with (MAHE 05) 2) Isolyte , ») Isolyte M. ©) Normal saline 4) Molar 1/6 lactate 3129, At what value of one hour glucase challenge test will you recommend a standard glucose tolerance test- (AIMS May 2005) a) 120mg/al b) 140 mg/l ©) 150 mg/dl 4) 160 mg/d) 3130, Insulin resistance syndrome includes-(PGI June 06) 8) Dyslipidemia ) Hypertension ©) Hyperaricemia 6) High HDL 3131, Diabetes melitusis associated with all except - a) Pendred syndrome (NIRIELANS 06) b) Down's syndrome ©) Turer’s syndrome 4) Klinefeiters syndrome iIONADS — 3132, Not seen in a female on oral pilles is - a) Budd chiari syndrome 1b) Cholestasis ¢) Angisarcoma 4) Nodular hyperplasia liver (uP 96) 3133. One of the following is not a ovulation inducing agent- (PGI 79, JIPMER 80) 4) Clomiphene ) Chlormadinone ©) BMG 4) Bromocriptine 3134. Testesterone is secreted by- a) Leyding cells b) Sertoti celts ©) Germeeiis 4) Adrenal medulla, ‘The factor which promotes hair grow¢h in females is- (JIPMER 79, PGI 80) a) Androstenedione (All India 93) 3138, b) Dehydroepiandrosterone ©) Testosterone &) Estrior 3136. Androgen independent hair growth is seen with all except- (PGI 80, ALIMS 81) a) Byelash ) Eyebrows «) Lanugo hair 4) Pubic hairin female 3137, In testicular feminization, falseis- (A/IMS81, 2) Sex orientationis female SJIPMER.90) ) The chromosome karyotype is 46 XY ©) Testosterone in undetectable in the serum 4) Serum estrogen levels are high at puberty 6) The usual presentation in childhood is inguinal herniae ‘Testoesterone receptor antagonist is-(AIIMS 97) 4) Cyproterone acetate —_b) Mifipristone ¢) Danazol 4) Nonoxynol Gonadectomy is done after the diagnosis of - a) Kallman syndrome (AIMS 97) ») Turners syndrome ) Gonadal dysgenesis 4) Androgen insensitivity syndrome Male presenting with Gynaecomastia reduced testosterone and LH, true is- (AIMS 97) 2) Testicular failure b) Testicular feminisation ©) Androgen resistance @) Sertoli cell tumour Primary amenorrhea with anosmi of- a) Kallman syndrome ) Tuer syndrome 6) Testicular feminisation 4) Lawrence Moon Beidl syndrome 3138, 3139. 3140. 3141. is a feature (AIMS 2K) 3142, Karyotype of testicular feminisation-(MAHE 2001) a) 4x0. b)47XXY ©) 46XY 46 XXY 3122) 3123)4 3124)b 3125) 3126)d 3127)¢ 3128)c 3129b 3130}a,b 3131)a3132)c,d3133)b 3134)a 3135)e 3136) 3137)¢ 3138)a 3139)d 3140)d 314/92 3142)e Masti ees147 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3143, Precocious puberty is treated by administering - ‘two weeks, there was no vaginal bleeding. The a) LHRH (WIPMER 95) underlying cause could bein the> (UPSC 99) ») Testosterone a) Pituitary glands ») Hypothalamus ©) Oestrogen ©) Uterus @) Ovary 4) Gonadotrophin 3158, (ANIMS 98) 3144, Estrogen ia the post menopausal women is a) Kallman’s syndrome ‘metabolised mostly into— (JIPMER 92) ») Testicular feminization syndrome a) Estriol b) Estrone 6) Tumer’s syndrome ©) Estradiol 4) Androstenedione 4) Isosexual sexual precocity 3148, Peak testosterone levels are seen at about- 3156. A 22 years old lady presented with recent onset of a) 7-8PM b)2AM — (PGI84) hirsuitism and voice change. What is the test to be 0) 8AM )12PM done- (AUMS 2K) 3146. Androgen receptors are coded in — (4199) a) Urine 17 ketosteroids a) Long arm X chromosome : ») Blood FSH and LH levels ') Short arm of X chromosome ©) Blood testosterone levels, ¢) Long arm of Y chromosome 4) Blood thyroxine & TSH levels 4) Short arm of X chromosome 3157. Primary amenorrhea with anosmia is seen in - 3147, Best indication of testicular biopsy is—(AIMS86) 2) Kallman syndrome (Kerala 2001). a) Necrospermia ) Pyospermia ») Rokitanky syndrome €) Oligospermia 4) Azoospermi ¢) Refenstein syndrome 3148, Commonest cause of ambiguous genitalia in a 2 4) Tuer syndrome year old child is- (A192) 3158. Which of the following is not used to induce a) Klinefelters syndrome ovulation- (UP 96) b).21-hydroxylase deficiency a) Danazol ) Clomiphene ©) Mixed gondal dysgenesis ©) IMG HCG @) Testicular feminisation 3159, All te following drugs are used for the induction 3149, Ovulation and ability to become pregnant usually of ovulation except (UPSC 99) follow menarche by about - (AIMS 81, 86) a) Clomiphene citrate _b)-Gonadotrophins 8) 5-6 months ') 204 months ©) Danazot 4) Corticosteroids ©) I month 4) 12-24 months 3160. All the following are the micro-manipulative 3150. All are causes of precocious puberty in a female methods in Assisted reproductive techaique except- (All India 99) EXCEPT- (UPSC 2K) 2) Craniopharyngioma 2) tntra-cytoplasmie sperm injection ) Head injury ») Intra-uterine insemination ©) Me cune albright syndrome ¢) Zona drilting 4) Hyperthyroidism 4) Zona cracking 3151. Menopause is defined as cessation of menstruation 3161. A 29 year old lady with h/o 2 child births, last baby for- (Kerala 2K) born 6 years ago. After that she did not have check 2)3 consecutive months up. Now she presents with skin pigmentation b) 6 consecutive months lethargy, amenorrhea, coarse Voice, cold intolerance, ©) 9 consecutive months pruritus and bleeding PV and atrophic vagina. All 4) 12 consecutive months are indicated in her treatment except- (A/MSO1) ©) 15 consecutive months ) Insulin b) Prednisolone 3152, Cause of hypothalamic amenorrhoea- (PGI88) OB ) FSH 2) Sheehan syndrome 3162. A $9. years old diabetic was evaluated for ») Kallman syndrome impotence.Intracavernousinjection of papaverine ©) Craniopharyngioma caused no erection. On doppler scan, there was no 4) Ashermann syndrome arterial block but venous leak was present. 3153, Thedrug of choice for shechan’s syndromes ‘Treatment of choice is- (ALL INDIA 99) ) Gonadotrophiin )Cortisone (41 91) a) Intracavernous papaverine 6) Thyroxine 4) Prolactin b) Penile prosthesis 3154, A 25-years old female developed secondary ©) Psychosexual treatment amenorrhoea of 6 month duration. Even after administration of oestrogen and progesterone for dd) Vacuum Constriction device 3143)a_3144)b 3145)b 3146)a_3147)d 3148) 3149)d 3150)ad315I)d 3152)be 3153) 3154)¢ 3155)a3156)¢ 31ST)a 3158)a 3159)cd 3160) 3161)a 3162)d11488 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIt 3163. True about Turner’s syndrome- a)'Primaryamenorthea —_) 45XO ©) Short stature patient) Puberty usually late ) Streak ovaries (Pct 02) 3164, Klinefetter's syndrome is associated with (PGI 02) a) XXY genotype +) Male habitus ¢) Infertility 4) Azoospermia ©) Barr body absent ‘True of testicular feminization syndrome is- a) Testes are present (PG102) b) Female Habitus ©) XY genotype 4) Secondary amenorthea 6) Uterus present : ‘Testicular feminising syndromes characterised by- a) 47XX baTxY — (PaTO3) ©) Ambiguous genitalia _d) Female genitalia 6) Mullerian derrivatives present True statement about Testi syndrome- a) Absent uterus b) Absent vagina 6) Chromosome pattern 47 X Y 4) Absent ovary ‘A Young women with secondary amenorrhoea and galaetorrhoes. MRIshows a tumour‘of<10mm diameter in the pituitary fossa. Treatment is- a) Hormonal therapy for withdrawal bleeding ») Radiotherapy (PG104) ©) Chemotherapy 4) Bromocriptine therapy ) Surgery ‘A21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Her height is 153 cm, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has no public hair or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the follo the most probable diagnosis ? (All India 04) a) Tumer syndrome b) Stein - Leventhal syndrome ©) Premature ovarian failure 4) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome ‘A 28 year old Indy has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorrhae followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressures 160 / 100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the 3168, 3166. 3167, lar feminization (PGI 04) 3168, 3169, 3170. 3171. A baby girl presents with bilateral inguinal masses, thought to be hernias but are found to be testes the inguinal canals.Which karyotype would you expect to find in the child - (AIMS 04) a) 46,XX b)46,XY ©) 47,XXY )47,.XYY 3172. The karyotype of a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome is (AL 05) a) 46XX boxy ©) 47XXY )45 XO 3173. Testoesterone receptor antagonist is -(SGPG/ 05) a) Cyproterone acetate) Mifipristone ©) Danazol 4) Nonoxynol 3174, Hirustism may be found in any of these disorders, except- U&kOS) ) Cushing’s syndrome by Hypothyroidism ) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 4) Polyeystic ovarian syndrome Allof the following statements about HRT (hormone replacement therapy) are true except ~ (AIMS 05) a) It increases the risk of coronary artery disease b) It increases bone mineral density 6) It increases the risk of breast cancer 4) It increases the risk of endometrial cancer 3176. Which of the following isan example of disorders of sex chromosomes ? (AliMS 06) a) Marfan’s syndrome ») Testicular feminization syndrome ©) Klinefelter’s syndrome <) Down’s syndrome BONE & MINERAL METABOLISM 3178, 3177, The function of parathormon (Al 88) 4) Increase: bone resorption by mobilising calcium and phosphorus ») Lower serum calcium ©) Increase renal tubular reabsorption phosphates 4) Increase reabsorption of calcium in the kidney 3178, Vitamin D resistant rickets in inherited as- ) Autosomal dominant (PGI80, AMC 88) ») Autosomal recessive ©) X-linked recessive 4) X-linked dominant 3179, Osteoporosis caused by all except - a) Methotrexate (CMC 98) 'b) Glucocorticoids most appropriate investigation? (ll India 04) ©) Heparin a) Est a) Serum electrotytes 3180, The formation of 25-hydroxycholecaleiferol takes ») Plasma cortisol palee in the- (UPSC96) ©) Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation a) Liver ) Kidney of pelvis ©) Intestines 4) Pancreas ¢) T3, Téand TSH 3181. Magnesium deficiency is caused by - (Kerala 96) a) Prolonged artificial ventilation ) Small bowel resection 3163)All_ 3164)abed 3165)ab,¢_3166)be,d_3167)ab 3168)d 3169)d 3170)b 3171)b 3172)b 3173)a 3174) 3175) 3176)c 3177)ad 3178)d 3179)d 3180)a 3I8l)be1149 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIL ©) Renal disease 4) Liver cihosis 3182. Rypercaleemia is seen in - 2) Multiple myefoma ») Sarcoidosis ©) Milk alkali syndrome 8) Prolonged immobitisaion Acondroplasia is inherited as - (AIIMS 86) (PG187) 3183. 8) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive ©) X-linked dominant 3184. Vitamin D resistent rickets is inherited as -AP &4) a) Autosomal dominant —_b)Autosomal redessive ©) X-linked recessive 6) X-linked dominant 3185. Which is not seen in magnesium defiency - (Alta 91) a) Raised serum calcium —_) Delirium ©) Exaggerated Reflexes d) Convulsions 3186. Hypomagnessemia is seen in all except - a) Giardiasis (AIIMS 92) ) Chronic Renal faiture ©) Chronic alcoholism ¢) Profonged thiazide therapy 3187, Which is false about hypomagnesemia - 8) Prolonged QT interval by Simulates hypocalcemia «) Tetany which responds to magnesium 4) Serum levels should be estimated before Tit 3188. The following is true of urinary finding in ‘osteomaleia - (PGL89) a) Increased hydroxyproline and calcium b) Decreased hydroxyproline and caleuim ©) Increased hydroxyproline and decreased catcium 4) Decreased hydroxyproline and increased calcium 3189, Tetany is caused hy all except - (A190) a) Thytoid surgery ) Hyperventilation ©) Verapamil 4) Malabsorption (AIMS 92) 3190, Nephrocalcinosisis seen in allexcept- (47.92) a) Medullary sponge kideny b) Polycystic kideny ©) Vitamin D toxicity 4) Hyperparathyroidism 3191. Hypomagnsemia Co-excist with- (PGI93) 1) Hypokalemia +) Hyponatremia ©) Hypocalcemia 4) Hypophosphatemia 3192. Thenormal route of calcium excretion is- a) Kidney (AHMS 79, DNB 89) ») Kidney and Liver «) Kidney, intestine 4) Kidney, intestine and pancreas 3193. Which of the following is not associated with tetany (PGI 81,84) 4) Chovetski’s sign b) Trousseau’s sign ©) Erb’s sign a) Cole's sign 3194, Calcium level falls.to normal after cortisone administration in al ofthe following except - a) Primary hyperparathyroidism © (PG/80,56) ») Vitamin D overdose ©) Sarcoidosis, 4) Hypercaleaemia of infancy 3198. “Woody leg” is a clinical feature observed in- (JIPMER79,DNB 91) ) Osteopororis, b) Osteomyelitis ¢} Osteomatacia 4) Scurvy 3196, “Hour glass” vertebra and “triradiate” pelvis are seen radiologically in- ~ (JIPMER 97,PGI 83) a) Throtoxicosis b) Myxoedema ©) Cretinism 4) Hyperparathyroidism 3197, Milk alkali syndrome consists of all of the following except ~ (JIPMER 81,PGI 82) a) Azotemia ») Alkalosis ©) Hypercalcemia 4) Hypercalciuria 3198, Causes of low urinary calcium inciude- a) Renal ubular acidosis (J/PMER 81, DELHI 84) ') Cushing's syndrame ©) Chronic glomerulonephritis 4) Osteomalacia e) Paget's disease 3199. Vitamin D resistant rickets is associated with all except- (JIPMER 81, DNB 89) a) Osteomalcia b) Ostepacosis ©) Hypophosphataemia 4) increased calcium absorption 3200. Caleitionin issecreted Srom~ 8) Ancinar cells of thyroid ») Chief cells of parathyroid 6) “C” cells of thyroid dd) Oxyphil cells of parathyroids 3201. Hyperphosphaturia is treated effectively by-(41.95) (UPSC 95) a) VitD ) High phosphate .__ ©} Lowealcium —_ d} No effective treatment 3202. Hypomagnesemi fed with which of the following - (CUPGEE 96) a) Alcoholism b) Hypothyroidism ©) Both @) None 3203. Tetany may be present in all the following conditions except - (UPSC 97) a) Acute pancreatitis ») Hysterical Hyperventiltion ) Hyperkalemia 4) Hypomagnesemia 3204, Test not done in hyperparathyroidism is-(4IIMS 89) 2) Xray 'b) Serum caleitonin ©) Calcium in 24 hrs urine d) Serum calcium 3182)All 3183)a 3184)d 3185)a 3186)b 3187)d 3188)c 3189) 3190)b 3191)ac3192)e 3193)d 319M)a 3195)d 3196)d 3197)d 3198)ed 3199)bd 3200)¢ 320174 3202)a 3203}c 3204}3208. A patient on i.v. fluids for 20 days develops irratability, restlessness weakness and confusion. The probable cause is- (ALL INDIA 2K) ) Acidosis by Hypercalcemia ©) Hypomagnesmia <¢) Hypematremia 3206, In tumor lysis syndrome all are seen except - a) TPO," (PGI88) b) tCa® ©) Hyperuricemia 4) Temperature increase 3207. All of the following are causes of HYPERCALCEMIA except- (CIP 2001) 8) Sacroidosis ) Cancer bronchus ¢) Hypothyroidism @)Lithium toxicity. + 3208, In osteoporosis there is- (TN 2001) 4) Decrease in absolute amount of bone mass ) More common in male ©) Radiographs show normal bone density 4) Hormonal replacement therapy 3209. In tumor lysis syndrome all are seen except- 8) Hyperuricemia (JIPME 2002) ») Hyperphosphatemia ©) Hyperkalemia 8) Hyperealcemdia 3210, Hyperparathyroidism is characterised by - 1) Hypocalcemia (Karn 94) +) Hyperphosphatemia ©) Multiple bone cysts 4) Increased bone formation 3211. Metastatic ealeification occurs when calcium is in (ipmer 90) 8) Acidic pH ) Alkaline pH ©) Neutral pH 4) lonic equilibrium 3212, Serum calcium level is increased in all except - ) Multiple myeloma (IN 86) b) Secondary carcinomatosis 8) Mynedema 4) Primary hyperparathyroidism 3213. Which does not cause osteoporosis? (A//MS98) a) Oestrogen b) Methotrexate ©) Heparin 4) Steroids 3214, Allof the following drugs alter calcium hemostasis except- (KARNAT 99) a) Flouride ) Indomethacin ©) Mithramycin 4) Thiazides 3218. Steroid super family receptors are associated vwith- (MP 2K) a) Gastrin b) Vitamin D, ©) Encephalin 4) Insulin 3216, Osteitis fibrosa cystica is seen in a) Hyperparathyroidism * b) Hypoparathyroidism ©) Hypothroidism 4) Hyperthyroidism (A189) 1150 MEDICINE QUES, VOL-ILT 3217. Pseudo fracture or looser’s zone is seen in-(A/ 89) 4) Osteoporosis b) Osteomalacia ©) Hypoparathyroidism 4) Pseudohypoparathyroidism 3218. Pain in Pagets disease is relieved best by (AIMS 86) a) Simple analgesic bb) Narcotic analgesics ©) Radiation 4) Calcitonin 3219, The complications of Paget's disease is-(A1/MS 87) 4) Osteogenic sarcoma _b) Deafness ©) Heart failure 4) All ofthe above 3220. Drug of choice for senile osteoporosis is - a) Estrogens —_b) Androgens (JIMPER 90) ©) Calcitonin d) Ethidronate 3221. Inlong-term therapy in vitamin-D-resistant rickets, the best guide to safe treatmentis- (AMU 85) a) Urinary phosphate excretion ) Urinary calcium excretion ©) Serum alkaline phosphatase 4) Serum phosphate level ©) Serum calcium level 3222, Alllof following conditions may be responsible for osteoporosis exept- (All INDIA) 1) Steroid therapy +) prolonged weightlessness in spaceship ©) hyperparathyroidism. ) hypoparathyroidism 3223, Following are features of Paget’s disease except - a) Deformity of bones (KARNAT 96) b) Secondary osteosarcoma ©) Lowered serum alkaline phosphatase 4) Increased Urinary excretion of hydroxyproline 3224, Treatment of Hyperealcemia is all except - a) Rizo! b)Plicamycin — (AUIMS.97) ©) Ritodrinate —_d) Gallium nitrate 3225. Calcium content of boneis increased in - 4) Prolonged immobilisation (MAHE 98) ) Glucocorticoid administration ©) Hyperparathyroidism d) estrogen supplementation in post menopausal women 3226. Drug therapy of Paget's disease (Ostei Deformans) include all except-_ (KARNATAKA 01) ) Alendronate ) Etidronste ©) Calcitonin 6) Plicam 3227. Selerotic lesion in the bone is seen in all except (A190) 2) Osteitisfibrosa b) Osteopetrosis, ©) Melorheostosis. 3228. Bone growth is influenced m; 2) Estrogen .©) Growth hormone 4) Caftey’s 4d) Testesterone 3205)c 3206)b 3207)¢ 3208)ad3209) d 3210)¢ 3211) 3212)c 3213)ab 3214)b 3215)b 3216)a 3217)b 3218) 3219)d 3220)d 3221)d 3222)d 3223)¢ 3224)a 3225)d 3226)d 3227)a 3228)c | |LIST MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3229, Hyperostosisis associated with all except- 3241. Hypocaleemia with hyperphosphatemia are seen in- 2) Hypothyroidism (JIPMER 95) a) CRF (PGI 2000) ) Vit intoxication ») Pseudohypoparathyoidsm ©) Cushings syndrome ©) VitD deficiency 4) Radiation osteoma 4) Magnesium deficiency 3230. The treatment of Hypercalcemia due to 3242. Hypercaleiuria is seen in- (PGI 2000) Hyperparathyroidism is- (PGI 88) 2) Hyperparathyro by VitD intoxication a) Hydration b) Mithramycin 6) Sarcoidosis All €) Steroids Inj, Vitamin © 3243. Which of the following are features of tumourlysis 3231. Signs of hypocalcemia starts apapearing when syndrome- (PGI 2000) serum levels of ionized calcium falls below - a) Idioventricualar rhythm a8 8)7 (AIMS 79) ROHTAK 84) ») Secondary bleeding, 06 a4 ‘ ©) Appearance of new Q waves 3232, Hypercalcemia is notseen in - (Alls 97) ST depression 8) Sarcoidosis, ') Thyrotoxicosis 3244, Increased serum calcium is seen in all except - ©) Vitamin A intoxication d) Phenytoin therapy 1) Myxedema (Grol) 3233, Following malignancies most frequently cause ) Multiple myeloma hhyperealemia except - (SCTIMS 98) ©) Sarcoidosis a) Breast ) Kidney © Primary hyperparathytoidism ©) Lung ) Heart ©) Hyperthyroidism 3234, Hypercalcemia in breast cancer is most often due 3245. Which of the following is seen in Vitamin D to- (JIPMER 93) deficiency - (PGI 01) a) Ectopic parathormone a) Increased alkaline phosphatase ’) Chest wall invasion b) Decreased phosphate in urine ©) Tumour necrosis, ©) Hypophosphatemia ) Bony secondaries 4) Decreased alkaline phosphatase 3238, Rugger Jersy sign is seen in - (CMC 98) €) Decreased serum calcium a) Ankylosing spondylitis) TB spine 3246, In hyperparathyroidism, which of the following is 6) Osteoarthritis Myeloma not seen = (PGI01) 2) Chronic renal failure a) Normal alkaline phosphatase 3236. In hyperparathyroidism all seen except - ») Decreased phosphate in urine a) Osteopetrosis, ') Osteoporosis ©) Increased calcium ©) Cysts <4) Brown tumor 4) Hypophosphatemia 3237, Rugger jersy sign is seen in - (PG198) ©) Decreased alkaline phosphatase ) Myeloma 3247, True about riekets~ (PG101) b) TB spine 4) Increased alkaline phosphatase CRF ) Hyperphosphaternia, 8) Ankylosing spondylitis ©) Hypophosphatemi 3238. Acommon finding in osteomalacia is- (PGI 99) 4) Hypophosphaturia 2) Low serum phosphate ©) Decreased alkaline phosphatase b) Normal level of 1.25 dichydroxy vie D3 3248, Indicators of osteoblastic activity - (Pcro1) © Low serum calcium 4) Alkaline phosphatase _b) Osteocalcin 4) Increased hycroxy proline in urine ©) Hydroxyproline 4) Acid phosphatase 3239. A patient has hyperphosphatemia with short 3249, Anteriorscallopingofvertabraeseen in- (PG/01) metacarpals and associated cataract. The ) Osteogenesis imperfecta b) Aortic aneurysm diagnosis (PGI99) ©) Metastasis Renal Cell Ca a) Pseudohypoparathyroidisin OTB. b) Hypophosphatasia 3250, Hypophophatemiais seen in- (PG102) ©) Hyperparathyroidism 4) Pseudohypoparathyropdism @) Osteomatacia b) CRF 3240, Feature of tumor lysis syndromeare- (PG12000) ©) Rickets 2) Hypocalcemia ) Hyperphosphatemia 4) Hyperphrahyroidism ©) Alkalosis ¢) Hypokalemia ©) Respiratory acidosis 3W)e 3I)abe 323I)d 3232)d 3233)d 3234)ad 3235) 3236)a_3237)c 3238)a_3239)a_3240)ab 3241)ab 3242)d 3243)ab 3244)a 32dS5)ace 3246)be 3247)ac 32U8)ab 3249)be 3250)od3251. 3282, 3253. 3284, 3288, 3256. 3287. 3258, 3289, “Trucabout pseudohypoparathyrogism= — (PGIO2) 2) Heterotopic alcificatio b) ted Cat ©) JedPO, @) ted PTH ©) ted response of urinary CAMP on PTH Abnormalities of bone metabolism is associated with excess of which vitamins - (PGI 02) a) Vitamin by Thiamine ¢) Vitamin B, &)ViaminD ©) Tocoferol Raised calcium and phosphorus are seen in - a) CRF (PGI 02) +) Vitamin D intoxication ©) Hyperparathyroidism @) Pseudotypoparathyroidism ' Hypercalcemia is caused by - (PG103) 8) Thyrotaxicasis, ) VitD intoxication ©) Saroidosis 4) Furosemide ¢) Thiazide ‘True about tumour lysis syndrome are A/E-(PG/ 3) 1) Hyperarecemia b) Hyperealcemia ©) Hyperkalemia 6) Hyperphosphatemia ©) Hiypocalcemia ‘Treatment of acute hypercalcemi (PG103) a) Normal saline with forced diuresis with chlorthiazide ¥) Plicamycin ©) Gallium nitrate 4) Mithramycin ©) Biphosphonates Estimation of 8. Ca should be done only after- (PGI03) a) Urine calcium 1b) Total plasma protein ©) S. Phosphate SK ©) pH ‘True about Hypercalcemia - (PGI 04) a) Rx of the primary cause ) Malignancy dose not produce hypercaleemi 6) LV. fluid with Frusemide is given 4) amidronate is not effective ‘A3- year old boy is detected to have bilateral renal calculi. Metabolic evaluation confirms the presence ‘of marked hypercalciuria with normal blood levels of caleium, magnesium, phosphate, uric acid and creatinine. A diagnosis of idiopathic hypercalciuria i made, The dietary management includes all, EXCEPT (AIIMS 03) 4) Increased water intake ) Low sodium diet ©) Reduced calcium intake 4) Avoid meat proteins 1152 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-III 3260. Deug.used in severe byperealcemia~ (Jipmer 04) a) Fruser b) Prednisolone ) Pamidronate All 3261. A 10 days old neonate is posted for pylorie stenosis surgery. The investigation report shows a seram calcium level of 6.0 mg/dl. What information would xyou like to know before you supplement calcium to this neonate- (AIMS 04) 2) Blood glucose ') Serum protein ¢) Serum bilirubin 4) Oxygen saturation 3262. Treatment of Hypercalcemia (PGI04) ) Calcitonin b) Gallium nitrate 6) Orthophosphate 4) Tayroxin 3263. Alkaline phosphatase is found in all organs, except- (Orissa 05) ) Bone by Heart ) Placenta 8) Langs 3264, All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except (A105) a) Hyperparathyroidism _) Steroid use ©) Flurosis 4) Thytotoxicosis 3265. All of the following are the known causes of ‘osteoporosis except - (Al 06) 8) Fluorosis ») Hypogonadism ©) Hyperthyroidism — d) Hyperparathyroidism 3266. Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia ? (4106) a) Diarthea by Potyuria ©) Depression 4) Vomiting 3267. Features of tumour lysis syndrome~ (PGI June 06) 2) Hyperuricemia ) Hypercalcemia ©) Hyperphosphatemia _d) Hypernatremia @) Hyperkalemi 3268, Picture frame vertebrae s seen in- (COMED 06) a) Ankylosing spondylitis ) Paget's disease ©) Multiple myeloma 4) Histioctosis 3269, Advanced bone age is seen in all except -(4PPG 06) a) Marfan’s syndrome ) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia ©) Precocious puberty &) Obesity DISORDERS OF METABOLISM & ONNECTIVE TISSUE 3270, Premature aged appearence is one of the feature of- (KERALA 2K) 4) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome ) Marfan’s syndrome ©) Pseudoxamthoma eiasticum 4) Cutis axa . €) Osteogenesis imperfecta 3251)ad 3252)ad 3253)b 3254)abce 3285)b 3256)bgde 3257)bee 3258)ac 5259) 3260)4 3261)b 32@2)ab 3263)bd 3264)e 3265)a 3266)a 3267)ace 3268) 3269)a 3270)d1153 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3271. Iron overload isseen in allexcept- (AIMS 96) 3284, All are features of primary hemochromatosis a) Thalassemia major except (ALUMS 93) ») Potycythemia vera a) Chorea by Diabetes ©) Myelodysplastic supplements ©) Arthritis 4) Skin Pigmentation 4) Sideroblastic anaemia 3285, Malabsorption of amino acids is seen in - (4/93) 3272, Plasma iron isinereased in- __ (PGI80, 81, 86) 8) Alkaptonuria ») Cystinuria a) Hemosiderosis ) Chronic infection ©) Homoeystinura 4) Phenylketonurla ©) Haemochromatosis _d) Viral hepatitis 3286. The ‘which is associated with increased age ©) None of the above of father is - (JIPMER 80 PGI 81) 3273, Serum iron is raised in - (AI 88) 8) Down's syndrome _b) Marfan’s disease ) Thalassemiamajor -_b) Rheumatoid arthritis ©) Phenyl-ketonuria 4) Albinism ©) Polyeythemia @) All ofthe above 3287, All are true about essential hyper cholesterolemia, 3274, Treatment of primary hemochromatosis is- except= (PGI 79, ALIMS 82) a) Weekly venesection (ome 84) a) Xanthelesmas are common b) Desferrioxamine therapy ») No response to dietary measures ©) EDTA therapy ©) Xanthomas are present 4) Pencilamine 4) Familiar incidence is usual 3275. K-F ring is seen in - (NIMHANS\ 88) 3288, Features of Hurler’s syndrome may include all of a) Hemochromatosis the following except - (PGI 79, AIMS 84) b) Primary biliary cirrhosis 8) Kyphosis ) Corneal clouding ) Hepato lenticular degeneration ©) “Clawing” broad hands) Umbilical hernia @) Senility ©) Hydrocephalus 3276, Drug precipitating acute intermittent prophyria- 3289, Plucked chicken skin appearance is a) Propranolol b)Lithium — (PGI86) pathogonomonic of- (IPMER 80, AMU87) ©) Estrogen 4) Phenobarbitone ) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 3277. Which of the following are independent risk b) Marfan’s syndrome factors for atheroselerosis- (PG186) ©) Homocystinaria a) Menopause 4) Any of the above ») Diabetes 3290, Thick tongue is seen in- (AIMS 81, Delhi 87) ©) Alcohol ) Galactosemia by Atkaptonuria 4) Hypercholoesterolemia ©) Down’s syndrome _d) Hurler’s syndrome ©) Pipe smoking 3291. Hurler’s syndrome is associated with -(AIIMS 84, 3278, Wilsons disease is characterised by all except - 1) Clinodactyly PGI80) 4) Spasticity _b) Sensory impairment ) Valvular thickening €) Rigidity 4) Chorea (AIMS 90) ©) Endocardial fibroelastosis 3279. Which of the following is important in 4) Mucopolysaccharide deposition in coronary atherosclerosis - ipmer 90) arteries a) HDL b)VLDL. 3292, Characteristic histological appearance of cells in ©) IDL 4) None niemann-Pick disease is- (PGI 78, UPSC 81) 3280. Which is not sen in porphyria - (A190) ) Multinuclear ) Eosinophilic a) Fever 'b) Leukocytosis ©) Foam cells 4) Crystals cytoplasm ©) Hematuria ) Abdominal pain 3293, Sweaty feet syndrome is associated with - 3281. Hemochromatosis affeets following organs - 8) G-6-p deficiency (PGI 81, ALIMS 83) a) Heart b) Pancreas (Kerala 91) ) Phenylalanine deficiency ©) Skin 4) All ofthe above ©) Branched chain ketonuria 3282, Which of the following is not associated with 4) Isovaleric acidemia hemohromatosi Cipmer 91) 3294, Psychiatric manifestation are common in- a) diabetes: ) Baldness a) Acute intermittant porphyria (Kerala 94) ©) Cirthosis «CCF b) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria 3283. Clofibrate acts by - (All India 92) ©) Porphyria cutanea tarda 4) dissolution of plasma cholesterol 4) Hepatic porphy b) Inhibition of HMG Co A reductase 3295. Porphyria is precipitated by - (Kerala 94) bile Salt production 2) Barbiturates by Morphine ition of LDL Secretion ©) Alcohol 4) Paracetamol 3271)b 3272)acd 3273)a 3274)ab 327S)e 3276)ed 3282)b 3283)None 3284)a_3285)b 3286) 3287)b 3294)a 3295)ac 327)abde 3278)b 3288)¢ 3289)a 3290)d 3291)bd -3292)¢ 3293)None 3279)¢ 3280)abe 3281)dLise MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3296, In.a person reporting with pain referring to the tip 3306. Drug contra indicated in Acute intermittant of shoulder, the following are investigations porphyria is- (AIMS 98) tryglycerides 115 HDL 25, LDL254. The diagnosis a) Lithium ) Pethidine ishypercholesterolemia- Gipmer 95) ©) Phenobarbitone 4) Aspirin a) Typel b) Type lt 3307. Xantelesma corposis is- (IN 99) ©) Type 4) Type lV 8) Deposit around eye lids . 3297. VLDLisinereased in allexcept- _ (ipmer 95) ») Deposit over trunk 8) Hypothyroidism b)Uremia ©) More common in females 6) Alcoholic cirhosis __-d) Acute hepatitis 4) Premalignant 3298, To decrease blood cholesterol level best is- 3308. Gaucher’s disease in adult is associated with all 8) Low fibre diet with restricted (Kerala 95) of the follwing except - (Karnat 99) dietary cholesterol 8) Massive splenomegaly _) Bone erosions ) High fibre diet with saturated fatty acids & low ©) Pancytopenia 4) CNS involvement cholesterol diet 3309. In hemochromatosis iron deposition is found 6) Unsaturated fatty acid with high fibre diet, low commonly at aitsites except - (UP 2) cholesterol diet a) Heart d) Joints 4) High fibre diet with low cholesterol ©) Testes 4) Pancreas 3299, 3300, 3301, 3303, 3304, 3308, All of the following statements about Wilson's diseaseis true except - (UPSC 95) 8) May present with haemolysis ») Inherited as an autosomal dominant trait ) Isa recognised cause of chronic hepatitis 4) Is often treated with D-Penicillamine ‘Tay sach’s disease is due to deficiency of (AMU 95} a) Hexosaminidase b)B glucohexomitidase ) Glucogalactosamide __d) None ‘Characteristics of Wilson’s disease include - 4) Kayser-Flesher ring in the comea (Karnat 96) ») Ceruloplasmin deficiency ©) Psychiatric symptoms preceding neurologic symptoms 4) All ofthe above Jn Wilsons disease which is not seen - (AIMS 97) ) Chronic Active Hepatitis ») Haemolytc anaemia ©) Chorea 4) Testicular atrophy Famitial Hypercholestrolem to- 8) Acyl CovA deficiency ») Apo E deficiency ©) LDL receptor deficiency 4) Lipoprotein lipase deficiency Allare een in primary hemochromatosis except a) Diabetes (MP. 98) ) Hepatic dysfunction ©) Hypogonadism 4) Cirmhosis ‘Tendon Xantomas are character ) Familial hypercholesterolemia +) Hypertriglyceredemi ©) Idiopathic hypercholesterolemia 6) Abetalipoproteinemia ig most often due (AIMS 97) of (AIMS 98) 3310. 3311. 3312. 50 year old patient with diabetes mellitus, ivestigation reveals restricted myocardial dysfunetion,skinpigmentation, Serum markers of hepatitis are — ve, Which investigation is to be done— a) Serum ferritin b) TBC ©) Serum cenuloplasi 4) Serum copper content Hyperuricaemia seen in all exeept- (MAHE 2001) a) Gilbert's syndrome b) Lesch ~ nyhan syndrome ©) Renal failure 4) Vor ~ Gierke’s disease Which one of the following is not a feature of Wilson’s disease - (UPSC 2002) 8) Hypotonia ») Kayser ~ Fleisher rings + €) Low plasma copper 3313. 3314, 3315, 3316. 4) Degeneration of basal sang ‘The most common enzyme deficiency in man is— 4) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (AP 88) ») Glucose-6-phosphatase 5 ‘8 Hexokinase 4) Glucose-1.6-tiphsphatse ‘Which type of Glycogenoss is transmitted by X- linked genes — (AIMS 92) a) Type! b) Type It ©) Type lll 4) Phosphorylase kinase ‘Muscle is not involved in which type of glycogen storage disease— (P69?) a) Typel b) Typelt ©) Typelll 4) TypelV Phenyl pyruvic acids in the urine is detected by— a) Fericchloridetest ——-b) Guthrie's (47 88) ©) Gerharts test 4) VMA in urine 3296)b 3297)a 3298)e 3299) 3300)a 3301)4 3302)d 3303)c 3304)None 3305)a_3306)¢ 3309)¢ 3310)a 3311)a 3312)a 3313)a 3314)d 3315)a IH} 3307)a 3308)d1135 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 3317. Albinism results from a defictency of -(AIIMS 6), 3329, Porphyria isa disorder of ------synthesis- 2) Homogentsic acid oxidase a) Heme Protein (799) ) Phenylalanine hydroxylase ©) Globatin 4) Transferrin ©) Tyrosinase 3330, In renal amyloidosis follwing are correct except- ) Xanthine oxidase a) The blood pressure is usually (AMU 89) 3318. Which of the following amino acids is associated normal at presentation with increased risk of Myocardial Infarction — ») Evidence of amyloidosis can always be obtained ) Methionine) Homocysteine (AIMS 2K) from rectal and gum biopsy of both tissues are ©) Omithine Valine sampled 3319. Uric acid levels are inereased in: - (N67) ©) Recurrence ina transplated kidney is infrequent ) Preecalmpsia +) Hodgkins Iymphoma 4) Steroids and immunosuppressive drugs are ©) Leukemia All ineffective 3320. Xylose excretion test used to assess ~ 7 ¢) Proteinuria is usually poorly selective 2) Liver funetion (DNB 89, Delhi 88) 3331. Porphyria can be precipitated - (PGI 8?) ) Kidney function a) Sunlight 'b) Meperidine ¢) Pancreatic function ©) Phenobarbitone 4) Glucose 4) Monosaccharide absorption 2) Chlorpromazine 3321. Dietary changes are not required in- (PGI85) 3332. All of the following cause splenomgaly 1) Hemochromatosis ') Lactose intolerance except- (AIMS 83) ©) Wilsons disease 4) Phenyl Ketonurra 2) Gauchers disease 3322. Uric acid level are increased in all except - ) Von Gierke disease a) Preecalmpsia (PGI81, 84) 6) Tay Sach’s disease ) Hodgkins lymphoma 4) Niemann Pick’s disease ©) Leakemia 3333. Serum cholesterol is high in all except-(AJ/MS 82) 4) Pregnancy 8) Kwashiorkar b) Diabetes mellitus 3323, Increased serum uric acid levels occur in- ©) Primary biliary cithosis _d) Nephrotic syndrome ) Von Gierke’s disease (Karn, 94) 3334. Aclue to the diagnosis of the following disorder is, ») Lesh-Nyhan syndrome ‘obtained form simple chemical tests on urine- ©) Leukania 8) Galactosemia (AIMS 83) 4) Allofthe above ») Cretinism 3324, False Benedict's tests given by allexeept- (Delhi c) Neonatal tetany a) Aspirin b) Ascorbic acid 85) 4) Mucoviscidosis ©) Homogentisic 4) None of the above 3335. In an infant with galactosemia ..., should be 3325, False positive reaction of glucose is seen avoided (UPSC 85, JIPMER 87) with- (AIIMS 85, Delhi 89) ) Gluten b)Egg a) Fruits ) Aspirin > ©) Milk. a) Rice ) Exercise 4) None of the above 3336. Dietary treatment of galactosemia ~(/IPMER 81, 3326. Bone marrow aspiraion is done to confirm all 4) Must be continued life-long Delhi 86) except - (PGI 88) ) Can be relaxed after puberty a) Niemannpick disease ¢) Involves delayed weaning ') Tay sach disease 4) Ensures normal intellectual development ifstarted ©) Gauchers disease in the first week of life 4) Mucopolycaccharidosis 3337. Lactese deficiency in children is characterised by 3327. A Muscle biopsy is useful in the diagnosis of all 8) Dumping syndrome (uP 97) of the following except - (PGI 78, 82) ') Abdominal bloating, cramps and diarthoea a) Forbe’s disease ©) High pH of the stool ») Pompe’s disease 4) Low fatty acid levels in blood ©) Von Gierke's disease 3338, Bilateral cataract with direct vanderberg test 4) Mac Ardle’s disease positive in a3 month old neonate who isexclusively 3328. Childhood gallstones oceurin- (Kerala 2001) breastfeed is suffering from- (ANIM 96) 2) Glycogen storage 2) Toxoplasmosis ) Fructsemia ») Hurler's disease ©) Galactosemia 4) Von gierkes disease ©) Hunter’s disease oie 331T)¢ 3318)b 3319)d 3320)d 5321)a03322)d 3323) 3324)d 3325)b 3326b 3327)c 3328a 3329)a 3330)bed 3331)ac 3332)bc 3333)ab 3334)a 3335)¢ 3336)a 3337) 3338)c3352)abe 3353)a 3354)ace 3355)acde 3356)ade LIS6 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT ‘3339, 8 day male child presents with pale stools, turmeric 3348. KF ring deposition is seen in- (PGI 99 odoured urine, yellow sclera history of 4) Conjunctiva b) Comeal epithelium consanguineous marriage. On 3rd day after birth ) Descement membrance 4) Iris developed fever and sepsis which was treated with 3349. In congenital erythropiotic prophyria, enzyme-defect chloramphenicol a broad spectrum antibiotic is- (PGI.2000) investigation of choice to be done is assay - a) Uro synthase b) Ferro ketolase 2) Glucosidase (AIMS 98) ©) ALA synthetase &)PROTO oxidase ») Galactosidase 3350, Drug causing _hypertriglyceridemia ©) Galactosy/-uridyl-transferase-1-phosphate include- (Patol) @ Glucosidase a) Thiazides b) Beta blockers 3340, 6year old Arun partcipitated in an icecream eating 4) Estrogen ‘competition and developed bloating, diarrhoea and moderate dehydration.-He used to get similar 3351, Trueabout hemoglobin degradation s/are-(PGI01) _ episodes on consuming ice cream and milk in the a) Heme degradation is followed by biliverdin past. The likely diagnosis is- (AIMS 99) formation 4) Lactase deficiency _b) Suerase deficieney >) Hemoglobin breaks into heme and protein c) Maltase defeciency d) Amylase deficiency ‘¢) Heme is broken down into iron & porphyrin 3341, Which ofthe following symptomsare associated 4) Hemeis broken into bilirubin directly ‘with gargoytism (Hurler’s syndrome)- (Orissa 99) 3352. Wilson’s disease characterised by- (PG/02) a) Hepatosplenomegaly a) Ted urinary coper excretion 1b) Comeal opacities b) Jed ceruloplasmin ¢) Profuse nasal discharge ©) Ted liver copper d) All of the above ) T ceruloplasmin 3342, The antenatal diagnosis of all of the following ©) Led copper level in plasm conditions is feasible except - (UPSC 2K) ‘3353. In spectroscopy, nucleotides absorb at 26 nm. This a) Huntingtion’s chorea absorbence is due to- (P0102) b) Down’s syndrome a) Purines and pyrimidines) Deoxribose ¢) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome ¢) Ribose 4) Histone d) Anencephaly e) Phosphate 3343. Amother Kissing her baby findsthatthebaby'sskin 3354, The amino acid associated with atherosclerosis is salty, the diagnosis is - (N90) (Pa102) a) Fanconi syndrome b) Homocysteine ) Thalassemia ©) Cysteine 4) Tryptophan 4 id bros ©) Phenylalamine iemann pick disease ee 3344, Calcification of the prostate is seen in- eter ncn Sete Nm ce NMERO Re on ey «) Predisposes to hepatoceliular carcinoma 9) Oueogeiisimpeteca €) Antrits commonly involve 2nd MCP joint lowing are seen in mucopol ridoses fo ayeaesoneee aa nate erd appearance SMe NMTIdO 97) 3386. Reye'ssyndromeischaracterizedby-_(PGI03) 2 Beaked vertseae 2) Viral infection is seen ©) Avaseular necrosis of femoral head ») Presentas deep jauncice 4) Osteosclerotic lesions 6) Ted Blood urea 3346. Wilson disease allare trueexcept- _(PGI97) 4) Cerebral edema 2) T ceruloplasmin ©) Microvesicular fatty infiltration bt Cuinliver 3357, True about Wilson's disease - (Pt03) ©)? Cuincomia 2) Low ceruloplasmin level b) Ted hepatic copper 4) Absence of sensory loss ¢) Jedhepatic copper 4) Ted urinary copper 3347, Cirrhosis is seen in - (PGI 98) ©) Ted ceruloplasmin 4) Type I glycogen disease 3358, Xanthelesma can beseen with- (Kerala 03) ‘b) Type Ill glycogen disease a) Hypertension b) Diabetes ‘c) Mucopolysaccharidosis ) TB d) Rheumatoid arthritis 4) Type IV glycogen storage disease . 3339)¢ 3340)a_ 3341)d 3342)¢ 3343)c 3344)d 3345)b 3346)a 3347)b,d 3348)c 3349)a 3350)abd 3351)b 3357)abd 3358)bMEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3359. Which one of the follo ‘homoeystinuri ) Downward dislocation of lens b) Marked osteoporosis ©) Stroke in young &) Autosomal dominant inheritance 3360. The Most common Lipoproteinemia is- 1) Familial hyperlipoproteinemia _ (Jharkand03) ) Hyperlipoproteinemia type tt ©) Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIL ) None 3361. Statins are not used a) Kitiney diseases : ») Lung diseases . €) Liver diseases 4) Malabsorption disorders 3362. Enzyme defect in acute intermittent is not trae regarding (UPSCO4) - (moa) porphyria (PGI June 05) ) HMB synthase b) ALA dehydratase ©) URO I synthase 4) URO It synthase ©) Ferrochelatase 3363. Bone marrow transplantation indicated inallexcept- 2) Osteopetrosis (APPGE 05) ) Mucopolysacharidosis ©) Hemochromatosis 4) Thalassemia 3364. A young, tal, thin male with arehnodactyly has ‘ctopia lents in both eyes. The most likely diagnosis (AIMS NOV 05) a) Marfan’s Syndrome ) Marchesani's Syndrome ©) Homoeystinuria ) Ehier’s Danlos syndrome 3365. Allof the following conditions are observed in Gout. except (AIMS May 05) 4) Uric acid nephrolithiasis . b) Deficiency of enzyme X anthine oxidase ¢) Increase is serum urate concentration 4) Renal disease involving interstitial tissues 3366, Liver changed in Wilson's disease are all except - a) Fatty live (NIMHANS 06) 1b) Ac hepatitis ) Fulminant he @) Cirthosis 3367, A child on galactose free diet can synthesize ‘galactose with help of which of the following ? a) Aldolase (APPG 06) b) UDP Hexase 4 uridyécransferase 6) Galactose | uridyl transferase 4) Galactokinase 3368. Achondroplastics suffer from- (Karn 06) 8) Mental retardation —_b) Jointaxity ©) Proportionate dwarfism d) Spinal canal stenosis GYNAE & OBS 3369. HELLP include all except (AlMS 97) 4) Hepatic dysfuction —_b) Hemolytic aneamia. ©) Thrombocytopenia __d) Eosionophitia 3370. In HELLP syndrome the patient sign of cerebral metastasis- sUPSC 99) a) Haemolytic anaemia ) Elevated liver enzymes ) Low platelet count 4) Paralysis of lower limbs ‘3371. A25 year old primigravida in the 2nd trimester threw a fit. Hypertension and proteinuria was present. The first thing todois- (AIMS 99) a) Ensure airway ) Bring down BP ©) Terminate pregnancy 4) Control convulsions 3372, Allare true regarding idiopathic edema of women except- (All India 04) a) It's due to estrogen mediated sodium retention +) Itis not related to menstrual cycles c) There is increased water retention in upright position 4) ACE inhibitors can be useftt in some cases 3373, Allreduce lactation except - (PGI June 06) 4) Maternal anxiety b) Retracted nipple ©) Dehydration &) Diabetes ©) Antibiotics C.N.S. GENERAL 3374, Hydrocephalus in Arnold-Chiari malformation resents- (Kerala 97) a) In pregnancy b) Atany time ©) I decade & Fyear 3375, Equine gait isa feature of-(A1/MS 79, JIPMER 92) a) Extrapyramidal dysfunction ») Brainstem lesion ©) Anterior tibial N injury 4) Multiple sclerosis 3376. Balaclave helmet type of sensory loss over:the face is characteristic of- (IPMER 81) 4) Syringomyelia ) Multiple sclerosis «) Tabes dorsalis 4) All ofthe above 3377. Spinal puncture should be used to determine- a) Spinal fluid pressure (JIPMER 84, AP 88) ) Whether a block exists ©) Types and number of cells present 4) Protein and sugar levels ©) All of the above 3378. The condition where babinski sig s positive but deep tendon jerks are absent is- (Delhi 96) a) Cerebral hemorthage —_b) Cerebral palsy ¢) Cerebral tumour d)Frederich’s ataxia 3359)d 3360) 3361)¢ 3362)a_ 3363)c 3364)a_3365)b 3366)a 3367)b 3368)d 3369)d 3370)d 3371)a 3372)a 3373)cd 3374)b 3375)¢ 3376)a 3377)e 3378)d2) Lead poisoning ') Motor neuron disease ©) Cervical spondylosis 8) Lathyrism 1156 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 3379. All ofthe following is used for gradation of coma 3391. Cervical sympathetic lesion causes all except - in Gtasgow coma scale except- (UP 97) 8) Miosis ») plosis (Kerala 95) 2) Eye opening 'b) Motor response ©) Enophthalmos 4) Increased sweating ©) Verbal response ¢) Bladder function 3392, Ina patient with brain abscess which investigation 3380. Pin point pupils loss of consciousness and is contra indicated - (AlIMS 87) hyperpyrexia is seen in- (NIMHANS 88) a) CT scan b)Lumbar puncture a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage ©) EG 4) Angiogram ») Pontine hemorrhage 3393, In arnold chiari malformation, there is ©) Cerebral infarction a) Elongation of the medulla (NIMES 87) 4) Thalamic syndrome ») Hemnietion of cerebellar tonsils 3381. Lewy bodies in neurons of brain is seen ©) Dilatation of the central canal in- (SCTIMS 98) 4) All of the above a) Huntington's disease b) Parkinson's disease 3394, Lesion of the caudate nucleus produce-(Kerala 87) ©) Niemann’s pick’s disease d) None of the above a) Athetosis )Chorea _ 3382, Pseudotumor cerebri is seen in which of the ) Hemibailismus 4) All ofthe above following except- (NIMHANS 88) 3395, Huntingtons chorea is- (Al 88) ) Gentamycin b) Tetracycline 4) Heriditary disease autosomal dominant ©) Oral contraceptives d) Hypervitaminosis A ») Appears in Younger age 3383. Pseudotumor cerebri is seen in which of the ) Associated with Rheumatic fever following except- (AIIMS 61, UPSC 86) 4) Disapperas with rest and sedation 2) Oral contraceptives _b) Tetracycline 3396, Dissociated sensory loss.is seen in- _(A/ 88) ¢) Gentamycin 4) Hypervitaminosis A ) Syringomyelia 3384, jon in CSF is ») Extradural spinal tumour (UPSC 84, 86) 6) Intradural extramedullary tumours a) Viral meningitis 4) None of the above ) Cervical spondylosis 3397, Flapping tremorsis seen in all except- (4789, ©) Cerebral malaria 8) Thyrotoxicosis b)CO, narcosis 7 89) 4) Infective polyneuritis ©) Uraemia 4) Hepatic failure 3385. Albumino-cytologie dissociation oceurs in the 3398. Hemiballism is caused by lesions of the (AIMS 86) CSFin- (NIMHANS 88) a) Caudate nucleus 4) Spinal cord tumour —_) Poliomyelitis ) Contralateral subthalamic nucfei «) Neurosyphilis 4) Spinal cord section ¢) Putamen 3386, The most common complication of vagotomy 4) Subpstantia Nigra fs- (NIMHANS 86) 3399, Transverse meyelitis usually affects- (PG/87) 2) Diarrhoea +b) Dryness of mouth a) Thoracic and lumbar segments ©) Tachycardia Bleaching ) Cervical and thoracic segments 3387, Ataxia isa complication of- (Karnat 98) ey Laibar ed easel oem 2) Chickenpox ©) Measles 4) Lumbar segment only @) Mumps ese er e int ppupils ad znconsciou: 3388. Which is not seen in parkinsonism- (AUI India 92) lore ceescescer arts eet ae meaner ‘8 Deranged postural reflexes *) Brainiom 2) Spasticity oe piace ») Cerebellar lesion ©) Rigiity ¢) Thalamic lesion 3389, Benda’s sign (A dolicocephalic head with a bulging 4) Internal capsule lesion ; ‘cciput) is diagnostic of - (JIPMER 81, AIIMS 84) 3401. Degenerative changes are seen in..,.Huntington’s 4) Communication hydrocephalus chorea (AMU 88) 1) Otitie hydrocephalus 1) Cerebellum ) Caudate nucleus ) Obstruction at aqueductal site ©) Red nucteus ) Pons 4) Obstruction at cisterna magna 3402, In tabes dorsalis the fibres affected are -(PGI85) 5390. Spastic paraplegia is seen in all except - (PGI 89) a) Lateral spinothalamic tract ) Anterior spinothalamic tract ©) Pyramidal fibres 4) Dorsal column 3379)d 3380) 3381) 3382)a 3383)e 3384)d 3385)a 3386)a 3387)a 3388)b 3999)ac5390)a 3391)d 3392)b 3393)d_ 3394) 3395)a 3396)a 3397)a 3398)b 3399)a 3400)a 3401)b 3402)d1159 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3403. Tendon reflexes are... in Tabes dorsalis-(Jipmer 88) 2) Lost ) Exaggerated ©) Normal ) Weak ‘3404. Dissocinted anesthasia is seen in - (VIMHANS 88) a) Molor neuron disease b) Syringomyelia ©) Tabes dorsalis 4) Fredrick’s ataxia Intentional tremors in young patients is ‘commonlydueto- (NIMHANS 88) a) Cerebellar disease ») Wisons-disease «) Parkinsonism 4) Head injuries 3406. Hyperpathia is observed in... (NIMHANS 88) 2) Pontine hemorrhage ») Pyramidal tact lesions ©) Thalamic syndrome 4) Sarcoidosis ‘Seanning type of speech is seen in «(NIMHANS 88) 2) Parkinsonism }) Disseminated sclerosis 6) After strokes 4) Pseudo bulbar palsy Mask like face is seen i a) Parkinsonism ») Disseminated sclerosis ©) After strokes @ Pseudo bulbar palsy ‘Todds paralysisis seen in- a) Head injury ») Strokes ©) Epilepsy 4) Subarachnoid hemorthage Lasegue’s sign in seen in - a) Nerve root pressure ») Intracranial lesions ©) Myasthenia gravis 4) Transaction of spinal cord Wadding gaitis seen in - ) Cerebellar lesions ) Thalamic lessions ‘Temperature regulaion bye 8) Pons, ©) Thalamus Echolalia isa disorder of - a) Speech «) Perception, Progressive dementia is seen in - a) Alzeimers disease ») Crutzfield Jacob disease ©) Huntingtons disease All ArgyLrobertson pupils are seen in - 8) Tabes ) Diabetes €) Pinealomas &) Multiple sclerosis ©) Frontal tumous 3408. 3407. 3408, (NIMHANS 88) 3409, (NIMHANS 88) 3410. (NIMHANS 88) MIL (IN 89) b) Alchoholism 3487) 3488)a 3489)b 3490)c 3491)a 3492)c 3493)a 3494)b 3495)a 3496)d 41.163 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-EIE 3497, Not given intrathecally- * (Kerata 98) 3508, Prosopagnosiais- (Orissa R) a) Methotrexate by Taxol ©) SFU 4) Cyclophosphamide 3498, All are characteristic of subacute combined ©) Inability to recognise places degeneration except- (AIL India 99) 4) None of the above a) VitB 12 deficiency 3509, Features of Balint’s syndrome include which of the ») Posterior tract involvement following? (Kerala 2 K) ©) Corticospinal tract involved a) Prosopagnosia ) Simultanagnosi 4) Brisk ankle jerk ©) Visual object agnosia d) Construction apraxia 3499, Dressing apraxia is seen in lesion of which lobe- ¢) Dressing apraxia 8) Dominant temporal (AIMS 98) 3510, Intellectual detoriation in a 8 year boy with b) Non dominant temporat myoclonus is seen in- (NIMHANS 2K) ©) Non dominant parietal : a) SSPE b) CI disease 4) Dominant parietal 2) GSS 4) Kura 3500. Palmomental reflex is represented at- (AUIMS 98) 3511. Prosopongnoisa- (NIMHANS 2K) 2) Parietal lobe ) Formal tobe a) Inability to do fine movement ) Temporal lobe 4) Occipital lobe ') Inability to recognise face 3501. Arnold-Chiari malformation- All are true except ©) Seen in Baline syndrome 4) Cerebellomedullary malformation (SCTIMS 98) 4) Associated with Grestman syndrome ') Almost always associated with severe spina bifida 3512. Brain death means loss of- (DNB 2001) «) There is obstruction to the flow of CSF ) Cortical function __- b) Brain stem function 4) 4* ventricle lies above the level of formen €) Spinal reflexes <4) Corneal teflex 3502. 3503, 3504, 3508. 3506. 3807. magmum Senile plaques in b a) Multiple sclerosis ) Parkinsonism ©) Alzheimer’s desease 4) Wilson's disease in isa feature of - (IPMER 2K) Foster’s testis used in the diagnosis of- 4) Spastic type of cerebral palsy (JIPMER 2K) ) Hypotonic CP ©) Choreo athetotic CP @) Myasthenia gravis Frenkel’s exercise is done in case of-(Calcutta 2K) @) MND b) Myopathy ©) Syringomyelia 4) Tabes dorsalis Prosopagnoisa means inability toidentify-—~ 8) Colour b)Face (AIMS2K) ©) Smell 4) Taste A 65 year old man presents with ataxia, opthalmoplegia and recurrent falls. The probable diagnosis is - (AIMS 2) ) Shy drager syndrome ) Fluntington’s chorea ©) parkinson’s disease 4) Progressive supranuclear palsy Babloo. a 4 year old boy, presents with history of seizures. On examination there is hypopigmented patches on his face. There is mental retardation also. What is the most likely diagnosis = 4) Neurofibromatosis (AIMS 2K) b) Tuberous sclerosis ©) Sturge Weber syndrome 49) Incontinentia pigment 3513, 3814, 3815. 3516, 3517. Child has mental retardation, convulsion and periumbilical hypopigmented patch, in front of abdomen, diagnosis is- (AIMS 2) 4) Tuberous sclerosis ») Sturge- Weber syndrome ©) Incontinentia pigmenti 4) Neurofibromatosis Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is characterised by all of the below except- 1) Caused by JC virus, (Karnataka 01) ») Late manifestation of AIDS. ) Cognitive impairment common 4) Brainstem can be involved Which of the following is not true about prion disease- U&K2001) 4) Infective proteins ) Neurodegenerative disease ©) Brain biopsy is specific 4) Prions cannot be killed by routine methods Bano Begum, 45 year old lady has typical hand and limb movements with abnormal smell sensation.She was not able to recall any of the events afterwards, Her most probable diagnosis? a) Temporal lobe epilepsy (412002) ») Dislocation disorder ©) Fugue 4) Conversion reaction \ Jn facial palsy, food accumulated in the mouth ueto paralysis of- (NIMHANS 2001) a) Masseter b) Temporalis ©) Mentalis 4) Buccinator 3497) 3498)d_3499)¢ 3500)b 3501)d 3502)c 3503) 3504)d 3505)b 3506)d 3507)b 3508)a 3505) 3510) 351l)b 3512)abd 3513)a 3514)None 3515)None 3516)a_3517)d3518, Bilateral facial palsy is seen in-_(NIMEANS 2001) a) Myaesthania gravis 9) Guillain Barre ©) Muscular dystrophy 4) Duchnene muscular dystrophy 3819. Golden hour in thrombolytic therapy for cere stroke- {TN 2002) a) 3hrs b)6hrs ©) I2hrs ) 24s 3520, Which IV uid should not be used in a patient witht head injury (SCTIMS2K) a) 5% Dextrose b) Normal saline ) Dextrose normal saline) Ail ofthe above Familial periodic paralysisis caused by- (PG197) ) Hyponatremia b) Hypertension ©) Hyperchloremia 4) Hyperkalemia . Temporal lobe lesion causes (AIMS 89) ) Homonymus upper quadrantinopia b) Homonymus lower quadrantinopia ©) Bitemporal hemianopia 4) Binasal hemianopia 3821. 3823, Which sensation is not lost on the side of lesion in Brown sequard syndrome- (AIMS 91) a) Touch ') Vibration sense ©) Muscle sense 4) Temperature 3524, Hyperkinetie syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually associated with patholigical ‘change in- a) Motor areas of cerebral cortex. ») Anterior bypothalamus 6) Pahtoays for recurrent collateral inhi spinal cord 4) Basal ganglia complex 1164 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 3531. Proins disease, all are true except- _(AI/MS 2001) 8) Protenaceous infectious particle isthe cause ») Brain biopsy gives specific diagnosis ©) 10% of patients have associated myoclonus @) None ‘Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterised by allexcept- (A192), a) Aph b) Ataxia €) Dementia 4) Urinary disturbances The most common cause of hydrocephalus in children is- (A196) a) Posterior fossa tumours ») Congenital malformatio ©) Complication of meningi 4) Rupture of intracranial aneurysm Gait changes are seen in - a) Polio b) Duchene muscular dystrophy ¢) Proximal muscle atrophy 4) Slipped epiphysis 2) Al ‘What s called hyperaccusis- (PG198) ) Normal sounds are heard as loud and painfull b) Completely deaf ©) Only very loud sounds are heard 3532. 3533. 3534, (PGI 88) 3538, 4) Ability to hear in noisy surroundings 3536. A valsalva maneuver generates about...» MM Hg of pressure- (AIMS 86) a) 1020 »)20-40 ©) 80-100 4) 120-160 3537. Allodynia is~ (AIMS 98) €) Increased perception of painful stimulus ») Perception of non painful stimulus as pain 4825, Resting nerve membrane is more permeable to ©) Pain felt as abnormal sensation KthantoNa- (AIMS 83) 8) None a) 0-1 mminin b)13mmmin 5 3538. Commonest site of brain abscess - (a1s9) ©) 3-10mmv/min 4) 10-15 mm/min 8) Temporal ) Frontal 3826, In brown-sequard syndrome sensation, that is lost ©) Parietal 4) Occipit at the same side of lesion is = (Al97) 3839. Multiple sclerosis may be diagnosed by - a) Pain b) Touch 8) Cartoid Angiography (JIPMER88, AI 90) ¢) Temperature 4) Proprioception b) CTSean 3527, Pain sensitive part in CNS is - (4199) ©) Pheumoenephalogsaphy a) Durameter ) Piameter ) Magnetic resonance imaging ©) Brain 4) Pial vessels 3540. Thecommonest bacteria detected from brain abscess 3528, Gagreflexismediated bycraniainerve- (PGI80, secondary to ear infection is~ (AIMS81,AMU 86) a) Va byix ‘ROHTAK85) a) Staphylococcus »b) Streptococcus ox )XIL ©) Proteus 4) H.infuenzae 3529, Extrapyramidal symptomsare seen with-(PG/86) 3541. Metastasis outside the brain occurs in this brain a) Reserpine ) Phenothiazines ‘tumour~ (Kerala 94) ©) Metoclopramide 4) Metranidazole ) Craniopharyngioma 6) Glioblastoma 3530. Drug used to treat alzheimers disease is-(A11MS 82) ©) Medulloblastoma 4) Hemangioblastoma 2)Folinicacid —b)Choline 3542, Investigation of choice in eerebral abscess ©) Melatonin 4) Tetrahydroaminacrine a) Plain X-ray b) Ultrasound (SCTIMS 98) ©) CT Sean MRI 3518)b 3519)a 3520)a 3921)d 3522)a 3523)d 3524)4 3525)c 3526)d 352T)a 3b 3IWahe 3530)d 3531)¢ 3532)a 3533) 3534)e 3535)a 3536)b 3537)b 3538)a 3539)d 3540)b 3541)c 3542)¢i L165 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-TIT 3543, Normal CSF pressure is- (SCTIMS 98) 3856. Punch drunk states associated with- (PG199) a) 110-180mmm CSF b) 180-300mm 4) Alcohoiism ) Chorea ) 200-400 mm 5-10 mm 6) Parkinonism On 3844, Brain space occupying lesions causes death by - 3557. Opsoclonusis- (PGI 99) 2) Acute Hypertension Delhi 84, 86, a) Arrythmic conjugate eye movements ') Brain herniation UPSC 82, PGI 83, 87) ') Conjugate chaotic movements ©) Cushing syndrome ©} Conjugate, chaotic, continuous movements 4) Hypotension 4) Chaotic, disconjugate movements 3545, Im steel Richardson syndrome following are seen 3558 Which among the following does not cause except- (PG197) exaggerated jaw jerk- (PG199) 2) Convulsions 4) Muttiple sclerosis ») Ataxia +) Motor neurone disease ©) Progressive supranucleat palsy | ) Pseudobulbar palsy 4) Dementia @) Syringomyelia ‘3546, Most common cause of LMI facial palsy is- 3559, Cervical cord injury does not cause- _ (PG199) a) Disseminated sclerosis b) Bell's palsy(PG! 97) a) Horner's syndrome ©) DM @) Leprosy 1) Loss of sensation over face 3547. Inmetabolicencephalopathy,featureis- (°G797) ©) Spasticity of foot 1) Tonicclonie seizures &)Chorea 4) Wasting with fasciculations of lower limb 0) Asterixis €) Paraplegia 3560. Bulbar palsy is seen in - (P61 2000) 3548. Downbeat nystagmus is nystagmus is characteristic 4) Myesthania gravis. b) MND. of- (P6197) ¢) Arsenic poisoning _—_d) Lead poisoning 8) Posterior fossa lesion _b) Vestibular lesion ©) Polio ©) Labyrinthine lesion __d) Cerebellar lesion 3561. Increased ICT is characterised by A/E- (PGI02) 3549, Sub cortical dementia true is~ (PGI 98) 1) Headache and vomiting 8) Loss of tactile localisation b) Intellectual change ) Loss of memory ©} Tumors ©) Total paralysis 4) Papilloedema 4) Gait distrubances ©) Tachyerdia 3550. Opso myoclonus is seen in - (P6198) 3562. Localised regional cerebral atrophy is soen in - a) Neuroblastoma b) Nephrobiastoma a) Alzeimer’s disease (PGI02) ©) Retino blastoma 4) Melanoma ) Frontotemporal dementia 3551. Spinomuscular atrophy is seen in lesion of - ©) PML a) Ant, hom ——_b)Peripheralnerve (PGI98) A) CI. disease ONME i) Any of the above ¢) Friedreich’s ataxia 3852, Alzheimers disease, trueisallexcept-~ (PGI98) 3563, Demyelination is seen in- (PG102) 4) Anterograde amnesia 2) Multiple sclerosis ) Dysdiadochokinesia ) AIDS «) Receptive aphasia ©) Human leukoencephalopathy Recogniation of familiar faces is absent 4) Polio 3853, Absent ankle jerk and extensor plantar response is €) Leukodystrophy found in- (PGI 98) 3564. LMN type Facial palsies - (Pa102) a) Friedreichs ataxia ') Tabes dorsalis 8) Bell’ palsy most common ©) SACD «Vit deficiency >) Comea should be protected 3554. CNS tumor seen in von hippel lindau syndrome is- 6 Bilateral paralysis is seen in Melkerson syndrome ) Meningioma (PGI99) 4) Unilateral paralysis is seen in Mobius syndrome ») Cerebellar hemangioblastoma ©} Prognosis affected before repeated electric ©) CNS lymphoma stimulation 4) Glioma 3565. True about Creutzfeldt Jacob's disease is -(PGi/ 02) 3555. Brain tumouris associated with A/E- (PGI 99) 4) Ineritable disease 8) Tuberous sclerosis ) Non hippel lindau ds ©) Neurofibromatosis 6) Sturge weber syndrome ) Comal impiants can transmit disease ©) Caused by RNA containing organism 4) Caused by DNA containing organism ©) Arthropod bome disease 3543)a 3544) 3545) 3546) 3547)c 3548)ad 3549)d 3550)a 3551)a 3552) 3553)a 3554)b 3555)d 3556)c 3557)a 3558)d 3559)bd 3560)be 3561)ce 3562)b 3563)abe 3564)ab 3565)ab3566, Fasciculation is seen in - 2) UMN type of eston b) LMN type of lesion ©) Myoneural junction &) Peripheral neuropathy 3567. Trinucleotide repeat sequence is seen in- (PGI03) 2) Huntington disease ) Ataxia telangiectasia ©) Wiskot Aldrich synd 4) Spinocerebelar ataxia ©) Tuberous ‘sclerosis 3568. Prions diseases are- 2) Alzheimers disease ) Gerstmnan straussler strauss syndrome . ) Familial Fatal insomnia 4) Frontotemporal dementia €) Creutz-feldt JaKob disease ‘Trucabout Atsheimer's disease- 3) Mutation in APP gene ») Autoantibody ©) Aluminium is risk factor 4) Viral infection has -ed risk ©) Heredit Spinal shock is characterised by- 8) Spastcity ) Wasting 8) Sensory loss 4) Urinary retention @) Areflexia True about actiopathogenesis of Alzheimers disease - “ (PGIOS) 4) Absence of tau protein ) Involvement of Apolipoprotein E ©) Preseneline-1 & 2 involved 4) Mutation in chromosome 21 ©) Preseneline 2 not is involved A 10 year old boy presents with superior quadrantanopia and headache. Most likely diagnosis is - Uipmer 03) 8) Temporal lobe tumour b) Optic atrophy 6) Pituitary adenoma —_d) Cranjopharangioma Inhepatic encephalopathy the EEG shows a) a activity waves Gipmer 03) 1b) a Getta) waves ©) € (theta) - waves 4) Rapid a- waves ‘3874, Ataxia fetangicetasia is characterzed by all of the following except (Ail India 04) 8) Chronic sinopulmonary disease ) Decreased levels of a - fetoprotein €) Chromosomal breakage 4) IgA deficiency 3575, In Balint syndrome all are seen except-{Manipal 04) a) Simultagnosia b) Dysgraphia ©) Ataxia 6) Apraxia (PGI03) (PG103) 3569, (PGI03) 3570, (PG103) 3571. 3872, 3573, 1.166 | MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3576. Picket Fence Fever is seen in - a) Lateral Sinus Thrombosis ) Petrosit ©) Meningitis Temporal fobe abscess 3871. Coast of California sign is seen in - a) Neurofibromatosis ) Fibrous dysplasia ©) Tuberous sclerosis 4) Sturge weber syndrome 3578. Examples of PRION disease include - 8) Creutefeldt-Jakob disease (Karnataka 04) +) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis ©) Alzheimer's disease @) None of the above 3579. Which one ofthe following is nota prion associated disease - (AIMS 04) a) Scrapie b) Kura ©) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 8) Alzheimer’s disease Rambkali bai, a3S year old female presented with one year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhea, She also had off-and-on headache. Her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic atropy. Whieh of the following is the ‘most likely diagnosis in this case- (A//MS 04) 2) Craniopharyngiona b) Pituitary macroadenoma ©) Ophthalmic ICA aneurysm 4) Chiasmal glioma ‘A 6 year old boy has been complaining of headache, ignoring to see the objects on the sides for four ‘months. On examination, he snot mentally retarded, his grades at school are good, and visual acuity is > diminished in both the eyes. Visual charting showed significant field defect. CT scan ofthe head showed suprasellar mass with calcification. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis-(47MS 04) (Bihar 03) 3580. 3881. a) Astrocytoma ) Craniopharyngioma ¢) Pituitary adenoma) Meningioma 3582. The most common physical sign of cerebral metastasis- ipmer 05) 2) Epilepsy ») Focal neurological deficit ¢) Papilloedema 4) Visual defects 3583. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis true statement is- a) Present with seizures b) Lesion in ant. horn cells (MAHE 05) 3366)b 3567)abd 3568)boe 356) acde ISTO) qde 3571)bed 3572)a 3573)ye 37> 3575)b 3576)a 3577)a 3578)a 3579)d 3580)b 3581)b 3$82)b 3583)bcd1.167, MEDICINE QUES. VOL-UT 3584. In Von Hippel- Jndau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in thissyndrome- (A105) ‘a) Optic radiation b) Optic tract ©) Cerebeltum 6) Pulvinar Allof the following are true about Frederich’s ataxia except (SGPGI 03) 4) Autosomal recessive ») Spinal cord, dorsal root ganglion cell are primarily 3585. involved ©) Weakness in lower limbs 4¢) Plantar flexor response : 3586, All ofthe following are signs of cerebellar disease except (COMEDK 05) 4) Resting tremors by Past pointing ©) Nystagmus 4) Ataxie gait 3587. In Alzheimer’s disease which area of brain in invotved- (HPU 05) 8) Cerebral cortex ') Hippocampus ©) Cerebellum A+B 3588. Lesion is Alzheimer’s disease are commonest a a) Amygdala (HPU OS) 1) Nucleus of Meynerts ©) Pineal gland 4) Prefrontal sulcus 3589, Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by the presence of thefollowingexcept- (UPC 05) 8) Quadriparesis ) Depressediabsent deep tendon jerks 6) Objective evidence of sensory oss 4) Albumino-cytological dissociat 3590, Isolated 3rd nerve palsy is seen in- a) Frontal lobe tumour ) Webers syndrome ©) Diabetes ; 4) Lateral medullary syndrome ‘Ahead injured patient, who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused and localizes to pain. What csr ipmer 05) 3591, ishisGlassgow coma Score-_(A/IMSNOV 05) a7 »)9 ou O13 3592, Which ofthe following is the most common location of intracranial neurocysticercosis (AIMS NOV 05) a) Brain parenchyma b) Subarachnoid space ©) Spinat cord GOrbit 3593. Which of the following signs is not suggestive of acervieal spinal cord injury- (ALIMSNOV 05) 2) Flaccidity b) Increased rectal sphincter tone ~ ©) Diaphragmatic breathing 4) Priapis 3594, With which one of the following Lower motor neuron Jesions are associated - (Ai 05) a) Flaccid paralysis b) Hyperactive stretch reflex ©) Spasticity <) Muscular incordination Which of the following is cause of reversible dementia- (4105) 4) Subacute combined degeneration ) Picks disease . ©) Creutzfelt- Jakob disease 4) Alzheimer’s disease ‘A-40 year old male, with history of daily aleobol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the fhaspitaf emergency room withacute onsent of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not recognizing, family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for few fours, There is history of is having missed the alcohol drink since2 days. Examination reveals increased blood pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, earful affect, hallucinatory behaviour, disorientation, impaired judgement and ight. He is most likely to be suffering from - 4) Alcoholic halhucinosis (A105) ») Delirium tremens ©) Wemnicke encephalopathy 4) Korsakoff"s psychosis ‘AS year male with a history of alcohol dependence presents with confusion, nystagmus and ataxia. Examination reveals 6* cranial nerve weakness. He s most likely to be suffering from - (A105) 8) Korsakoff's psychosis 'b) Wernicke encephalopathy ©) DeClerambault syndrome @) Delirium tremens 3598, EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following except 8) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis b) Locked - in state ©) Creutzfoldt- Jackob disease 4) Hepatic encephalopathy 3599, Flapping tremors are seen in the following conditions except - (IIMS May 2005) ) Uremic encephalopathy b) Parkinsonism ©) Hepatic encephalopathy 4) Carbon dioxide narcosis 3600. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart diseaseis commonly located i (A106) 4) Cerebellar hemisphere ©) Temporal lobe 3595. 3596, 3597. (A105) b) Thalamus 4) Parietal lobe 3584)c 3585)d 3586)a 3587)d 3588) 3589)c 3590)e 3591)c 3592)a 3593) 35942 I595)a 3595} 3597)b 3598) 3599)b 3600)d1.168 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-III 3601. The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include al of the following except -(A1/MS 06) a) Hypercap b) Hypoxeria ©) Hypotension 4) Hypothermia 3602. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following -(A//MS 06) 8) Hepatic encephalopethy ») Uremic encephalopathy ©) Hypoxic encephalopathy 4) Hypercarbie encephalopathy 3603, PML true A/E~ 2) Caused by JC vines ») Diffuse cortical matter involvernent €) Disease of white matter 7 4) Disease of grey matter (PGI June 06) 3604. Features of UMN lesion ~ (PGI June 06) 8) Spastic b) Rigidity €) Babinski positive «) Hyperreflexia ) Weakness 3605. The following treatment options are usefal in the ‘management of Guiilain-Barre Syndrome except - 2) Intra-venous immunoglobulin (UPSC 06) ») Intra-venous methotrexate ©) Plasmapheresis, 4) Physical medical rehabilitation ‘3606. Alzeihmer’s disease is associated with - a) Chr21 b)Chr 19 (NIMHANS 06) ©) Che 21 )Chr.22 3607. Senile plaques in Atzeihmer’s diseasae are rich in- a) Amyloid ) Tau protein (NIMHANS 06) ©) ApoE 4) Neuroglia 3608, Earliest feature in Multiple sclerosis is~ 4) Optic neuri (NIMHANS 06) ») Inter nuclear ophthalmologia ©) Ataxia 4) Weakness 3609, Khaver- Bucy Syndrome is associated withr lesion in- (NIMHANS 06) 1) Hippocampus ) Amygdala ‘) Mamillary body 6)Cerebral cortex 3610. Single most common finding in Aphasic Patients is- (NIMHANS 06} 1) Anomia b) Apraxia ©) Alexia @) Agraphia 3611. Astasia- Abasiaisseenin- (NIMHANS 06) a) Parkinsonism ») Alzeitmer’s ¢) Schizophrenia 4) Hysterical conversion disorder 3612, The following are preventable risk factors for dementia - (COMED 06) a) Hypertension b) Apo E4 ©) Age 4) Lowered Homocysteine 3613. The annual conversion rate to dementia in patients ‘with mild congnitive impairment is- (COMED 06) 8) 10% »)20% ©) 30% 40% 3614. Which of the following is true about multiple sclerosis except - (APPG 06) a) Nystagmus on abducting eye b) Nystagmus on adducting eye ©) One and half syndrome 4) Pendular nystagmus In cranial synostosis scaphyocephaly there is premature closure of which suture? (4PPG 06) a) Sagittal suture _b) Coronal suture ©) Lamdoid suture &) All above 3616. All ofthe following are true regarding progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy except (Karn 06) 4) Only manifestation of JC virus infection b) Late manifestation of AIDS ©) Cerebellar involvements is unknown 4) Paradoxical worsening with anti-retroviral therapy 3617. Bilateral inter nuclear ophthalmoplegia is pathognomonic of- (KARNATAKA PGMEE 06) a) Multiple sclerosis ») Pontine glioma ©) Lateral medullary syndrome 4) Pontine haemorrhage 3618. Werneks’s encephalopathy is characterized by all except= (NIMHANS 06) ) Global confusion b) Ataxia ©) Aphasia 4) Abducent nerve paralysis HEADACHE 3619, Which isa feature of classical migraine - (4139) a) Symptoms better with increasing age b) Noaura ¢) Early treatment aborts an attack 4) Does not respond to Ergot Migraine causes the following except -(AMU 88) a) Paraesthesia ») Blurring of vision ©) Dysphagia @) Seizures 3615, 3620. 3621, Drug of choice in Acute migraine is- (PGI93) a) Pizotifen. 'b) Clonidine ©) Methysergide 4) Ergotamine 3622. Drug of choice to prevent cluster headache (PG180, AIMS 81) b) Methysergide 4) Phenytoin ©) Aspirin 3623. Drug of choice in Acute migraine is- (JJPEMR 79 3) Ergotamine 6) Methysergide )Pizotifen PGI 93) d) Clonidine 3601)d 3602)a 3603)ac 3604)a,cde 3605)b 3606)a,b 3607)a 3608)a 3608) 3610)a 3611)d 3612) 3613)a 3614)b 3615)a 3616)c.d 3617)a 3618)b 3619)ac 3620)¢ 3621)d 3622)a 3423)aL168 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3624, A 35 year old male with no history of diabetes mellitus or hypertension presents with sudden onset bursting headache and altered sensorium, Most probable cause would be- (4199) a) Meningitis ') Encephali 6) Intracerebral hemorrhage 46) Intracranial tumor ‘3625, A 45 year old man presents with a daily headache. He describes two attacks per day over the past 3 weeks. Each attack lasts about an hour and awakens the patient from sleep. The patient has noted associated tearing and reddening of his right eye as well as nasal stuffness. The pain is deep, excruciating and limited to the right side-of the head, the neurologic examination is normal focal. ‘Themast likely diagnosis ofthis patient's headache is- (41IMS99) {) Migraine +b) Cluster headache ©) Tension headache 4) Giant cell arteritis 3626. A 35 year old lady presents with left sided headache assocfated with paraesthesia of right jimb and lower limb. The most likely (AIMS 2K) 2) Migraine ) Trigeminal neuralgia ©) Cluster headache 4) Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 3627. 40 year old Indy having headache for the last 5 days, thickened cord like structure with sealp tenderness. The diagnosis is- (AIMS 01) 2) Migraine b) Tension headache ¢) Temporal arteries 4) Extradoral hematoma 3628, Prophylaxis for migraine - (NIMHANS 01) a) Sumitriptan b) Amytriptiline ©) Nifidipine ) Diazepain 3629. Headache can be produced by all except-(PG! 79, a) Mechanical damage to UPSC 86) parietal cortex b) Delataton of intracranial blood vessels 6) Presence of blood in CSF &) Loss of CSF fottowing lumbar puncture 3630, The pain of migraine headache is due to- 2) An idiopathic neuropathy (JIPMER 81, ») Dilatation of cranial arteries PSC 88) ©) Consirction of cranial arteries 4) Psychogenic overlay &) Nove of the above 3631, Sudden exeuciating headache is seen = (PGI02) a) SAH 'b) Aneurysmal bleeding ©) Epilepsy 4) Intracerebral hemorrhage ©) Histeria 3632. Indications of glucocoraticoids in raised ICT - a) Cerebral abscess (G104) ») Brain tumour - ©) Head injury 4) Cerebral Haemorrhage Prophylaxis for migraine- 2) Sumitriptan ) Amytrptitine ©) Nifidipine ) Diazepam 3634, Cluster headache is characterized by alk except- a) Affects predominantly females (A105) b) Unilateral headache ) Onset typically in 20-50 years of life 4) Associated with conjunctival congestion 3633. (NIMHANS 05) 3635, Which of the following drugsis useful in prophylaxis of migraine - (A105) 2) Propranolol ) Sumatriptan ©) Domperidone @)Ergotamine APHASIA 34636, Jn Brocas aphasia the following are seen - 4) Spontaneous speech is reduced .(PGI&6, 88) ) Patient repeats words ©) Comprehension s little impaired 4) Telegraphic speech 3637. In wernickes aphasia, the following are aeen- a) Spontaneous speech is reduced (PGI 86, 88) ) Neologism is present ©) Speech is effortless 4) Paraphasia present ‘The aphasia with worst prognosis is- 2) Fluent aphasia (PGI 80, JIPMER 81) b) Nonfluent aphasia 3638. 3639. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is- (AI 95) 2) Aphasia ») Dysarthia ¢) Stuttering @) Echolalia 3640, The commonest aphasia in metabolic encephalopathy- (AIMS 99) a) Anomic ») Transcortical motor ©) Transcortical sensory 4) Broca’s Jargon aphaisa is seen in- a) Wernicke’s aphasia ©) Conduction aphasia 3642. Crossed aphasia means- (JIPMER 2002) a) Right hemispherical lesion in right handed person ») Right hemispherical lesion in left handed person ©) Left hemispherical lesion in left handed person 4) Left handed lesion in right handed person 3641, (IPMER 2001) ) Broca’s aphasia 4) Kosarkoff psychosis 3624)¢ 3625)b 3626) 3627)c 3628)b 3629)a 3630)c 3631)a 3632)ab 3633)b 3634)a 3635)a 3636)acd 3637)bcd 3638)¢ 3639)ad 3640)a 3641)a 3642)a1170 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3643, Broca’s area : whichis true- (AP 96) ©) Temporal lobe herpes 2) Presentbilaterally in brain &) Strychnine poisoning ) Supplied by MCA 3654, Simple partial seizure is diagnosed by - +) Lesion causes laryngel palsy 2) EEG b)BEAR (NIMHANS 2K) 4) Present inthe temporal lobe ¢) CT sean MRI 3644, Which is a feature of Normal Pressure 3655. EEG whitspike and dome patterns characteristic hydrocephalus (NIMHANS 06) of a Epilepsy ~ (AIMS 85) 2) GaitDisturbance b) Aphasia 2) Jacksonian b)Grandmal €) Global confusion 46) Opthalmoplegia ) Petitmal 4) Temporal lobe 3656, Drug of choice for psychomotor epilepsy is- EPILEPSY 4) Valproicacid )Carbamazepine (AIMS 87) ¢) Ethosuccimide d)Barbiturate 3645. In status epilepticus the drug of choice is- ©) Phenytoin 2) IV Phenytoin (NIMHANS 88) 3657. Which is not aside effect of phenytoin(A1IMS 92) b) lV ethosuximide a) Jaundice ©) IV Phenobarbitone ) Nepisrotic Syndrome @) IV diazepam ©) Hyper tension 3646, Sodium valproteis used to treat- (NIMHANS 88) 4) Gingival hypertrophy 2) Diabetes b) Thymic hyperplasia _—_+3658, Drug of choice in status epilepticus is- (Kerala 94) «) Myxedema A)Epilepsy 2) diazepam ») phenobarbitone 3647. Carbmazepine is the drugof choieein- (4/90) ¢) phenytoin sodium _)carbamazapine 4) Absence attacks «) Now, Corazepam isthe D.0.C. ») Panial complex sezures 3659, Drug of choice for simple partial seizure is -(4197) ©) Myoclonus ) Sodium Valproate) Carbamazepine @ Innantile spams ©) Phenobarbitone @)Diazepam 3648, Which ofthe following is not an adverse effect of 3660. In case of hepatic porphyria the safe anti phenytoin (4190) convulsant (NIMHANS 01) 8) Gumbyperplasia 2) Phenytoin ) Carbamazepine ») Osteomalacia ) Valparate 4) Paraldenyée ©) Gynecomastia 3661. Which antiepileptic is safe in pregnancy- 4) Megaloblastic anaemia 2) Phenobarbitone (AliMs 92) 3649, Inepilepsy, EEG is- (Kerala 90) ) Sodium Valporate 2) Diagnostic ¢) diazepam 'b) Useless in diagnosis 4) Carbamazepine ©) Complimentary in diagnosis 3662. Myoclonie seizure typicallyseenin- (PGI) 4) may or may not be useful a) SSPE ‘Cerebellar lesion 3680. Long term complicatrions of phenytoin intake «) Pontine lesion 4) Thalamic lesion inclade all except - (AMDMS 78, PGI85) 3663, True about juvenile mycoclonic epilepsy - (PGI03) a) Ataxia a) Focal seizure ) Gum hypertrophy b) Generalised seizure ©) Megaloblastic anemia due to B,, ) Myoclonus 6) Osteomalacia 4) Responses to Sodium Valproate 3651, Investigation of choice to diagnose epilepsy is- ©) Spike and waves in EEG 2) MRL EEG Kerala 94) 3664, Side effects of diphenyl bydantion may 6) CT scan 4) Angiogram EXCEPT- (Kamataka 02) 3652, Allof the following are characterisitic features of 4) Gingival hyperplasia petitmal siezures except - (wP97) b) Acute cerebellar syndrome a) Short duration of seizures ¢) Inter - nuclear opthalmoplegia ') Absence of motor activity during the seizures €) Megaloblastc anemia ©) On set after the age of 14 years 3665. Allof the following drugs are used for managing 4) 3 Hz spike and wave pattem in EEG status epilepticus except- (AUMS 04) 3653, Myoclonic seizures is characteristic of -(PG/96) a) Phenytoin _ b) Diazepam ose ©} Thiopentone sodium" d) Carbamazepine 3643)b 3644)a 3645)d 3646) 3647) 3648)None 3649)a 3650)c 3651)b 3652)c 3653)a 3654)a_3655)e 3656)b 3657)be 3658)2 3659)b 3660)d 3661)a 3662)a 3663)bc.de 3664)e 3665)d tiLay MEDICINE QUES. VOL-ILT 3666. 3667. 3668, 3669. ‘Carbmazepineis the drug of choice in- (MAHE(05) a) Absence attacks ») Partial complex siezures ©) Myoctonus @) innantile spams All the following are indications for brain imaging inepilepsy, exept - (&k05) 8) Epilepsy starts after the age of 5 years ») Seizures have focal features clinical ) EEG shows a focal seizure source 4) Control of seizures is difficult Allof the following are features of absence seizures except- (AIMS May 05) a) Usually seen in childhood 7 b) 3-Haspike wave in EEG €) Postictal confusion 4) Preciptation by hyperventil All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except - (AlIMS 06) 2) Phenytoin ) Diazepam ©) Thiopentone sodium —_d) Carbamazepine 3670, Well-recugnised side effects of prolonged Phenytoin useinelude the followingexcept- (UPSC0S) a) Hirsutis 'b) Lymphadenopathy ©) Ataxia 4) Hypoglycaerria 3671. Which is most epileptogenic- (NIMHANS 06) ) Lacunar infarct 'b) Embolic stroke ©) Thromboticsttoke __d) Haemorthagic stroke 3672, Mesial temporal lobe epitepsy is associated with - 4) Simple parti (NIMHANS 06) ) Generalised Tonic Clonic ©) Complex partial 4) Atonic seizures CEREBROVASCUALR 3673, Posterior cerebral artrey occlusions leads to loss ofmemoryduetoinvolvement of (ATIMS 94) 4) Superior temporal gyrus ) Supra marginal gyrus ©) Angular gyrus 4) Hippocampus 3674, Commonest site of hypertensive bleed isin the - a) Patamen ) Thalamus (PGI87) ©) Frontal lobe 4) Pons 2) Temporalo lobe 3675, Best investigation for spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage is- (AIMS 87) a) CT Scan ) Angiogrphy 3676, ) Pneumoencephalogram d) Ultrasound Subarachnoid hemorrhage is commonly due to - 2) A-V malformation (NIMHANS 87) ») Mycotic aneurysm ©) Berry aneurysm Hypertensive hemorrhage 3677, Lateral medullary syndromeis due to thrombosis 4) Posterior infetior cerebelle artery (4/88) ») Anterior inferior cerebelir artery ©) Superior cerebeller artery 4) Posterior communicating branch of middle cerebral artery 3678, Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia is known as - (PGI86) a) Millard gobbler syndrome b) Webers syndrome ¢) Foville syndrome 4) Benidicts syndrome 3679, History of transient ischemic attack, excludes - a) Emboi (IN89) 4) Thrombotic episodes ©) Haemorthage 4) Completed stroke 3680. The commonest site of cerebral hemorrhage in hypertension is- (PGI88) a) Pons b)Cerebrum ©) Putamen 4) Thalamus 3681. Ligation of the internal carotid artery result in death and hemiplegia in... % of eases-(PGI 84) a3 50 O% 90 ©) 100 3682. Which of the following is not involved in lateral medullary syndrome (AIMS 82) 4) Sympathetic tract b) IX, X, XIth cranial nerves ©) Xlith cranial nerve 4) Spinothalamic tract 3683. Anterior cerebral arterial occlusion can cause - 8) Contralateral lower leg weakness. (PG/ 90) b) Urinary incotinence ©) Hemianopia 4) Hemianesthesia of opposite half of face 3684. Thrombosis of the superior branch of middle cerebral artery leads to- (PGi93) ) Motor aphasia ) Urinary incontinence ©) Homonymous hemianopi 4) Contralateral grasp reflex 3685. The commonest site of eerebr hemorrhage in hhypertenions is - (PGI88) a) Pons b)Cerebrum ©) Putamen ) Thalamus 3686. Characteristic features of a lesion in the lateral part of the medulla include - (4//MS 79, PGI87) a) Ipsilateral Homer's syndrome ) Contralateral loss of proprioception to the body and limbs ©) Nystagmus 4) Ipsilateral palsy of the hypoglossal nerve ©) Dysphagia 3666)b 36672 3668)¢ 3669)d 3670)d 3671)a 3672)¢ 3673)d 3674)a 3675)a_3676)c 3677)a 3678)b 3679)c 3680)¢,43681)a 3682)¢ 3683)ab 3684)a 3685)cd 3686)aceLan MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3687. Damage to super artery results in - 4) Personality change ©) Urinary incontinence r branch of middle, cerebral (Delhi 96) ) Motor aphasia 4) Sensory aphasia 3688, The pheonomenon of “sparing of the macula” is due to the collateral circulation between (Karn 95) 4) Middle and posterior cerebral arteries ©) Anterior and posterior cerebral asteries 4) Anterior, middle and posterior cerebral artries 3689, Allare sites of intracranial aneurysms except - 4) Post inferior cerebellar artery (AP 96) ) Bifurcation of MCA ©) Junction of ICA & post. communicating artery - 4) None 3690. Presence of hemiplegia with diminution of vision, the contralateral eye suggests occlusion of - a) Middle cerebral artery (ups) ) Basilar artery ©) Anterior cerebral artery 4) Internal carotid artery 3691. Hemianopia cortical blindness, amnesia and thalamic pain are associated with the occlusion of - a) Anterior cerebral artery (UPSC 97) b) Middle cerebral artery ©) Posterior cerebral artery 4) Basilar artery 3692. Most common cause of cerebral stroke- (4/98) a) Arterial thrombosis _b)Embolism ©) Hemorrhage ¢) Tumour 3693. Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage - (4199) a) Berry aneurysm b) Mycotic aneurysm ¢) Trouma 4) Bleeding diathesis 3694. Following is true regarding cerebral venousinuses 4) Transverse sinus is unequal (NIMHANS 2K) b) CVT causes enophthalmos : ©) CVT causes empty detta sign 4) Communicate with subdural space 3695. Lateral medrliary syndrome is associated with - a) Ipsilatera: pain temp loss. (NIMHANS 2K) ») Contralateral vibration loss ) Contralateral pain and temp loss @) Ipsilateral hemiplegia 3696. Sudden onset of hemiplegia with contra lateral ophthlamoplegia the probable lesion is in- (Nimhans 01) a) Pons ) Lateral medulla ©) Mesencephalon 4) Forebrain 3697. Which of the following could occur if branches of the indicated vessel are thrombosed ~ (PG/ 82) a) Left posterior cerebral artery-right homonymous hhemianopsia ») Left anterior choroidal artery-right homonymous 3687) 3688)a 3689)a 3690)d 3691)c 3692)b 3693)e 3700)ed3701)d_ 3702)d 3703) 3704)b 3705)a ) Anterior spinal artery of cervical spinal cord~ flaccid paralysis, ) Left ophthalmic artery blindness in right eye 3698, A patient with a lesion of the entire right lateral funiculus posterior and anterior homs, and anterior white commissure at the T2 to T4 levels of thespinal cord might be expected tohave- 4) Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation indermatome T, (PGI 80) b) Degenerated ‘axons going to a thoracic sympathetic ganglion ©) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature from T,down 4) Ipsilateral increased tone in extensors ofthe lower 3699. A lesion of the entire left cerebral peduncle at superior colliculus levels would probably result in - a) Neocerebeitar abnormal signs in the right (PGI83) ») Piosis ofthe left eyelid ©) External (lateral) strabismus ofthe eft eye 4) Complete hearing oss in the left ear 3700. Visual cortex is supplied by - a) Anterior cerebral arerys b) Medial cerebral artery ©) Posterior cerebral artery 4) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery 3701. Commonest cause of cerebral infarction is-(A1 90) a) Arterial thrombosis) Artertis «) Venous thrombosis) Embolism (MP. 98) 3702, Subarachnoid hemorrhage is commonly due to- GIPMER 92) ) Rupture of aneurysm —_b) Hypertension ©) Stroke 4) Trauma 3703. The incidence for symptomatic cerebrovascular desease being complicated by cartoid arteriography is- (PGI81, ATIMS 81) a) 12% 45% ©) 6-10% )15-20% ©) 21-30% 3704. Theincidence of rapture with intracranial aneurysm correlated well with allexcept~ (4//MS78, 79, 81) 2) Lesions over 10 mm b) Fusiform aneurysm 6) Aneurysmal mass effect 4) Saccular aneurysms 3708, Least common site for berry aneurysms is- 4) Vertebral artery (ails 95) b) Middle cerebral artery 6) Junction of anterior communicating & anterior cerebral aretery 6) Basilarartery 3694)a,03695)c 3696) 3697)ab 3698)bd 3699)b1173 3706, Ina patient with an anuerysmal bleed in the brain, deterioration of the mental state on he 7 day indicates - (P6196) a) Rebleed ) Spasm ©) Seimre 4) Edema 3707. Commonest site ofancurysm is- (SCTIMS 98) a) Middle cerebral artery b) Vertebrobasilar system ©) Anterior communicating artery 4d) Internal carotid artery 3708. Hypotonia, tremor and ataxia are seen in lesion of (PGI98) 2) Basal ganglia ) Medullary pyrami ©) Cerebellum 4) Pons 3709, Most common cause of stroke in young women in India among OCP users - (PG198) «) Cortical vein thrombosis 'b) Moyamoya disease ©) Atherosclerosis HT 3710, Amedial temporallesion produces-_(PGI-99) 2) Visual amnesia only b) Auditory amnesia 6) Aparaxia 4) Anterograde learing problems 3711. Wallenberg's syndrome does not involve -(PG/99) ax wx Ox xm 3712. A lesions in the paracentral lobule causes (PGI 99) a) Contralateral foot weakness b) Seizures only ©) Migraine 4) Cognitive Loss 3713. Anterior spinal artery thrombosisis characterized by- (PG12000) ) Loss of pain & touch ») Loss of vibration sense ©) Loss of power in lower limb 4) Sphincter dysfunction . 3714. Whieh is true about earotid stenosis- (PGI 2000) 4) Ipsilateral hemiplegia by embolism of MCA ») Bruit indicates severity of stenosis ©) Common in ECA 4) Aspirin reduces risk of TIA 3715. Which of these can cause 3" nerve paralysis - 4) Posterior communicating artery (PCA) aneurysm ») Tolosa-Hunt syndrome (PG102) ©) Midbrain infarct 4) Pons infarct ©) Lateral meduliary lasions 3716. Lesion of poster inferior cerebellar artery at brain involves/affects- (PGI03) ) Spinal tract of trigeminal nerve b) Tractus Solitarius 3717. 3718. 3719. 3720. 3721. 3722, 3723, MEDICINE QUES. VOL-TIE ©) Spinothalamic tract 4) Corticospinal tract A 45 years old hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he did’t have any focal neurological deficit, His CT showed blood in the Sylvain fissure. The probable diagnosis f (AIMS 03) a) Meningitis +) Ruptured aneurysm ©) Hypertensive blood 4) Stroke ‘AAS year old hypertensive male patient presented in the casualty with 2 hour history of sudden onset of severe headache associated with nausea and vomiting. On clinical examination the patient had neck stiffness and right sided ptosis. Rest of the neurological examination was normal. What is the clinical diagnosis ? ~ a) Hypertensive brain haemorthage b) Migraine ©) Aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage 4) Arterio venous malformation haemorrhage The only thrombolytic agent approved for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke is -(A//MS 04) a) Tissue plasminogen activator ») Streptokinase 6) Urokinase 4) Pro-urokinase ‘A62 year old diabetic female patient presented with history of progressive right-sided weakness of one ‘month duration. The patient was also having speech dificulty. Fudus examination showed papilledema, ‘Two monthsago, she also had a fallin her bathroom ‘and struck her head against a wall. The most likely clinical diagnosis is - (AIIMS 04) 4) Alzheimer's disease ) Leftparietal glioma €) Left MCA territory stroke 4) Left chronic subdural haematoma Lateral medullary syndrome is characterized by- a) ipsilateral numbness of arm, face, trunk (PGIO4) ») Ipsilateral 12* nerve Palsy 6) Ipsilateral Homer's syndrome 4) Contralateral pyramidal tract sign Lacunar infarets manifests as - (PG104) a) Pure sensory weakness ») Pure motor weakness ©) Ataxic paresis 4) Dysarthria ©) Quadriparesis Most common nerve involved in intracranial aneurysm is ~ (SGPGI 05) a) MCN b)VICN ©) VON S)VICN 3706)ab 3707)c 3708)c _3709)a_3710)d 3711)d_3712)a 3713)acd 3714)d 3715)abe 3716)abe 3717)b 3718)e 3719)a 3720)d 372I)ac 3722)abed 3723)dLim. 3724, In adult mate person presents with drowsiness, vertigo & unconsciousness which artery is involved- a) Anterior cerebral artery (aMU 45) b) Middle cerebral artery ©) Posterior cerebral artery 4) Anterior choroidal artery 3725, ANl ate predisposing causes of cerebral venous thrombosis except- (COMEDK 05) a) Hypotension ) Oral contraceptives «) Pregnancy 4) Aplastic anaemia 3726. CIF of lateral medullary syndrome - (PGI June 05) 4) Ipsilateral numbness of arm, face, trunk ») Ipsilateral 12th nerve palsy Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome ) Contralateral pyramidal tract sign 3727. Which one of the following is the most common location of hypertensive bleedin the brain - (4105) a) Putamenfexternal capsule ) Pons ©) Nentricles 4) Lobar white matter 3728, The most common location of hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage is- (abos} 4) Subarachnoid space. b)Basal ganglia ©) Cerebellum 4) Brainstem 3729, The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is- 2) Arterio-venous malformation (A106) b) Cavernous angioma ©) Aneurysm ¢) Hypertension 3730. Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagicstroke? (4/06) 4) Phenylpropanolamine ) Terfenadine €) Quinine @) Fenfurarine 3731. Lateral medullary syndrome features are- 4) Ipsilateral numbness of face and trunk b) Homer's syndrome (PGI June 06) ©) Ipsilateral ataxia 4) Contralateral paralysis PARKINSONISM 3732. The symptoms of parkinsons’s disease are all except (AIMS 87, NIMHANS 88) a) Flaceidity ») Short steps ©) Mask face 4) Increased tone 3733. Drugs which ean cause parkinsonism - a) Bromocriptine (NIMHANS 88) ) Amantidine ©) Phenothiozines ) Atropine MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3734. The pathalogy in parkinsonism ties i es (NIMHANS 88) a) Red niicleus 'b) Niagro-strial tract ©) Hypothalamus 4) Hippocampus 3735. Which drugs cause parkinsonism- (PGI85) a) Reserpine b) Aldomet ©) Carbidopa 4) Sinnemet ©) haloperidot 3736. All are true about normal Parkinson’s disease except (alaiy 2) Spastic rigidity b) Tremor ©) Acute lesion with drugs 4) Preserved postural reflexes Extrapyramidal symptoms are not a feature of - 2) Carbon monoxide poisoning (AIMS 91) ) Paralysis ogitans 9 CVA 4) Multiple sclerosi 3738, Parkinsonism may occur because of chronic 3737. ‘exposure to (PGI79, AIMS 82) 2) Chromium b) Manganese ©) Molybdenum Nickel 3739, 1'kinsonism is described as - (Kerala 94) ait ») Festinating gait ©) High steppin gait 4) Dancing gait 3740. Extrapyramidal symptoms. is best treated with VIPMER 95) a) Procyclidine b) Metochlopramide ©) Haloperidol 4) Trihexyphenidyl 3741. An acute syndrome of abnormal involuntary movements resembling tardive dyskinesia is associated with excessive dosageof- (Karn95) a) Reserpine 'b) Propranolol ©) Clonidine ) Levodopa Alllare seen in parkinsonism except - a) Tremor at rest b) Rigidity ©) Akinesia 4) Hyperflexion Allare seen in Parkinsonism except (AI/MS 96) a) Akinesia-Bradykinesia ) Rigidity ©) Postural reflexes preserved 4) Resting tremor Freqeuncy of Rest tremor int Parkinson’s disease (SCTIMS 98) 3742. (4197) 3743, 3744, a) 2isee ) 14/s00 ©) 46/sec 4) 8/sec 3745. The first line of drug to be preferred for the treatment of akathesiais- (Karnat 99) a) Benzhexol ») Trihexy phenedyl hydrochloride ©) Promethazine 4) Propranolol 37Ae 3725)d 3726)ac3727)a3728)b 3729)e 3730)a 3731)abe 3732)a 3733)¢ 3734)b 3735)abe 3736)d 3737)d_3738)b 3739)b.3740)d 3741)a 3742)d 3743) 3744)e 3745) — cy 3.ee Las MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3746, Drug used to halt process of degeneration of MENINGITIS dopaminegric neurons in nigrostrial pathway is (NIMEANS 28) 3756, Fungal meningitis is caused by- (PG188) a) VE b)Vita 4) Cryptococcus b) Actiono mycetes «) Propranolol 4) Levodopa ¢) Diptheria 4) Candida 3747, 55 year old male with recurrent episode of fall, 3757. Recurrent meningitis is seen in- (Pai89) rigidity and autonomic insufficiency - a) Railey day syndrome (NIMHANS 2K) ‘b) Shy-dragger syndrome «) Basal ganglionic lesion 4) Parkinsonism A patient with parkinsonism suddenly presented with trembling, dizziness and upward reeling of eyes. It may be due to- (CUPGEE 02) a) Oculygyric crisis ) Cholinergic crisis ©) Cerebreliar infarct 4) Cerebral infarct 3748, 3749, Drug causing parkinsonism is- (AP 85, UPSC 88, 8) Barbitorete 68, PGI87) ) Phenothiazine ©) Thiazide 4) Sulphonamide ©) Suophonyl urea 3750. Drug induced parkinsonism can be caused dy (AIMS 85) a) Reserpine b) Chlorpromazine ©) Phenobarbitone 4) Phenytoin si. The drug of choice for phenothiazine dyskinesia is ) Imipramine b) Diphenhydramine’ (A791) ©) Diazepam —_d) Prochlorperazine 3752. Parkinsonism is induced by all drugs except- (AP 96) a) Reserpine ) Metaclopramide €) Chlorpromazine 4) Amantadine 3753. Which one of the following drugs is most suitable for management of essential tremors-(COMEDK 05) 2) Diazepam. b) Leyodopa ©) Metoproiot 4) Propranolol 3754, All the following statements are true regarding Parkinsonism disease developing in people > 70 years of age, except - G&k05) ®) The long-term side effects of levodopa such as dyskinesia are less b) They are more likely to develop autonomic disturbances ©) Cognitive changes and dementia are more common @) Prognosis is worse 3755. Features of parkinsons disease - a) Decreased Blinking ) Spasticity ©) On-off phenomenon €) Objective L muscle power «) Tremor (PGI June 06) a) CSOM ») Infective endocarditis ©) Trauma a Atl 3758. Fungal meningitis ean be caused by- a) Cryptococeus ) Sporothrix ©) Candida 4) Toxoplasma The least common complication of meningitis GIPMER81, Delhi 90) 2) Hypernatremia b) Hydrocephalus 6) Brain abcess 4) Death Pyogenic meningitis is characterised by following CSF finding- (All India 96) a) Increased sugar, decreased protein +b) Normal sugar, Increased protein ©) Decreased sugar, Increased protein 4) Decreased sugar, Decreased protein (PGIs9) 3759. 3760. 3761. All are complications of TB meningitis except (All India 97) 2) Basal meningitis ') Optic trophy ©) Cerebral infarction _d) Parkinsonism 3762, An old patient of tubercular meningitis is not responding to treatment, A new combination of drugs has to be prescribed for a prolonged period. Which one of the following should not be prescribed in this case - (acs 98) 2) Rifampicin 6) Dehyérestreptomycin Aseptic me a) Polio virus ¢) Mumps virus b) Ofoxacin 4) Pyraxinamide is caused by all except - b) Measles vires (AIIMS 98) 4) Coxsackie A virus 3763. 3764, The most common fungus producing meningitis in immuno compromised hostis- , (UPSC 2001) a) Cryptococcus b) Blastomycetes ©) Candida 4) Histoplasma 3768. Which doesnot cause pyogenic meg - (A189) ) Pneumococcus ) Streptococcus ©) Hemophillus 4) Cryptococeus 3766. Bacteria that can cause meningitis are all except (al 97) 2) Group B streptococcus b) Streptococcus gr. A ©) Pneumococcus d) Listeria 3767. Which of the following does not infect the CNS - a) Hepatitis = b)HTLVAIIL—(JIPMER 90) ©) H.Simplex-I —d)H. Simplex-IL 3768. The important organism causing meningtis in Immunocompromised patientis - (A191 4) Histoplasma 'b) Cryptococcosis ©) Coccidiomycosis 4) Candida albicans 3746)a 3747) 3748)a 3749) 3750)ab3751)b 3752)d 3753)4 3754)d 375S)ace 3756)ad 37572 3758abe 3759)a 3760)¢ 3761)d 3762)c 3763)b 3764) 3765)d 3766)b 3767)a 3768)b1176 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIL 3769. 3770, 3771. 3772, 3773, 3774, 3775, 3776. 3777. 3778. 3779. 3780. 3769)b 3770)AlL Meningitis in an Immunocompromised patient is caused by- (JIPMER 91) 8) Sporothr b) Cryptococcus «) Coceidioides 4) Histoplasma Fungal meningitis is caused by - (Nol) 8) Cryptococcus, ') Aspergitlus ©) Histoplasma 4) Coccidiodomycasis ‘Amebic meningoencephalitis is diagnosed by- (AIMS 81) a) Lodine stain ) Bipolar reftingence ©) Gram'sstain ) Wet mount ‘Treatment of choice in eryptococeal meningi a) Amphotericin-B . b) Flucytosine ©) Ketoconazole 4) Crystalline penicillin Bacterial meningitis in a 9 month olé child is ‘commonly caused by- (AIMS 83) a) H influenza b) M, tuberculosis ) Pneumococeus 4) Streptococcus ‘Aseptic meningitis ismostly caused by- (UPSC85, ) Adeno virus b) Entero virus. JJPMER 87) ©) Arbo virus d) Herpes virus ‘Meningitis in pre school children is most often dueto- (All India 93) 1) Pneumococcus ») Streptococcus ¢) Staphylococcus 8) Hemophilus ‘Aseptic meningitis is mostly caused by-(/PMER 8, a) Adeno virus b)Entero virus UPSC 85) c) Arbo virus d) Herpes virus Meningitis with normal glucose is seen in-(PGI99) aw ’) Cryptococcus ©) Coxsackie 4) Listeria All are complications of tubercular meningitis except: (PGI99) a) Hydrocephalus ») Infarction €) Obliterative endartertis 4) Sinovenous thrombosis A pateint with fever had a lumbar puncture done as part of workup for fever. The CSF revealed high proteins with normalsugar and marked increase in lymphocytes. The diagnosis is likely to be -(PG/01) a) Tubercular meningitis ») Bacterial ©) Viral meningitis 4) Partially treated pyogenic infection ¢) Neurocysticercosis Due to delay in reaching a laboratory for analysis of ACSF sample, it should be transported at -(PGI03) a) 20°C b-4°C ¢) 204°C )37°C incubation ©) 57 Cat water bath 3781. 3782, 3783. 3784. 3788, 3786. 3787. 3788. 3789. SE picture in viral meningitis- (PGr03) ) Lymphocytic pleocytosis b) WBC count> 1500/mL 6) Sugar is normal 4) Sugar is very low ¢) Protein is elevated ‘True about meningitis is/are- a) Epidemic is caused by H influenzae b) E. coli, Group B Streptocci is the MC caused in neonatal period ) Haemophiius-B vaccine is effective in prevention of meningiti 4) Epidemics caused by Meningococcus group B ‘Trueabout HSV encephalitis isare- (PGT04) ‘8) Caused by HSV-1 'b) Haemorrhagic lesion seen ©) Frontal lobe lesion seen 4) Eosinophilic inclusion bodies seen ) Xanthoeromia not seen (PGto4) ‘Acute meningitis in adolescents and young adults iscaused by - (PGI04) a) N. meningitidis b)H. influenzae ©) Staptiylococcus 4) Streptococcus ©) E.coli In TB meningitis which drug is not used in the treatment protocol - (ipmer 03) 4) Streptomycin ) Rifampicin 6) Ethambutol 6) Pyrazinamide ‘A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confused state focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesiom. The most likely diagnosis is - (All India 04) a) Acute pyogenic meningitis ») Herpes simplex encephalitis ) Neurocysticerosis 4) Carcinomatous meningitis ‘The most common cause of sporadic viral encephalitis is- (IIMS 04) 8) Japanese B encephalitis . ») Herpes simplex enceph: ©) Human immunodeficiency virus encephalitis 4) Rubeota encephalitis ‘Herpes simplex encephali a) MRI b) Biopsy ©) Corneal scrapping and colture 4) ERG periodic lateralised ©) CSFPCR of HSV DNA, diagnosed by -/PGI02) Allof the following statements are true regarding, central nervous system —_ infections, except- (ALIMS 04) 4) Measles virus isthe causative agent for subacute sclerosing pan encephalitis (SSPE) 37d 3772)a 3773)c _3774)b_3775)a_3776)b 3T7Ned 3718)d 379) 3780) 37BI)ac 3782)be 3783)abe 3784)a 3785)a 378H}d 378T|} 3788)e 3789)b L177 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IDT ) Cytomegalo virus causes bilateral temporal lobe ©)B lymphocyte dysfunction hemorrahagie infarction & Thymoma ©)Prions infection causes spongiform 3799, Mononeuritis multiplex ts seen commonest encephalopathy in- (Ail India 92) AIC virus is the causative agent for progressive a) Rheumatoid arthritis) Vincristine rmuttifocal leucoencephalopattiy c) Diabetes 4) Lead poisoning 3790. A young female patient with long history of sinusitis, 3800, Carpal tunnel syndrome is seen in- (NIMHANS 88) presented with frequent fever along with personality 4) Pregnancy by Myxedema changes and headache of recent origin. The fundus ©) Rheumatoid arthritis) Allof the above ‘examination revealed papilledema, The most likely 3801. Which of the follawing is not associated with diagnosis is - (AIIMS 04) peripheral neuropathy- (JIPMER 80, DNB 90) a) Frontal lobe abscess a) Urticaria pigmentosa b) Meningitis ») Diabetes mellitus «) Encephalitis : ©) Nitrofurantion 4) Frontal bone osieomyelit 4) Infectious mononucleosis, 3791. Normal CSF glucose level in the normoglycemic ‘3802, Fasiculations is seen in ~ (KARN 94) adultis- (A105) a) Poliomyelit 2) 20-40 mg/dl b) 40-70 mgidl by Polymyositis, ©) 70-90 mg/l 4)90- 110 mg/dl ©) Motor neurone disease 3792. All of the following CSF findings are present in «) Hypertophy of muscles tubereulous meningitis except - (AL 05) 3803. Acute 2) Raised protein levels b)Lowchloride levels. 2) Diphtheria ©) Cobweb formation _d) Raised sugar levels ©) DM @)IMN 3793, Acute Pyogenic Meningitis trueis/are- (PGI06) ‘3804. In primary idiopathic polymyositis, the following 2) Purulent exudates within leptomeninges group of muscles is almost never affected-(UP 97) ) CSF cloudy with PMN a) Proximal limb girdle muscles ©) Spreads to ventricle ) Pharyngeal muscles 4) Causes ventricular enlargements ©) Extensor neck muscles 4) Ocular muscles PERIPHERAL NERVE & MUSCLES 3805. Episode weakness is dueto- (P6187) a) Hypokalaes b) Dermatomyositis 3794. Best diagnostic aid to myasthenia gravis is ~ ¢) Paramyotonia congenita d) Myasthenia gravis a) History (anus 7) ©) Hypophosphatemia b) EMG 3806. Eaton Lambert syndromels seen with - ©) Chest X-ray 2) Oat cell carcinoma bronchus (AIMS 87) 4) Response to IV edrophonium b) Myasthenia gravis 3795, Myasthenia gravisis associated with- (4/91) ©) Thyroid cancer a) Thymoma b) Catung 4) Pancreatic head cancer ©) Redcell aplasia 4) Glucagonoma 3807. Best diagnostic aid to myasthenia gravis is - 3796, In Duchenne muscular dystrophy - 2) History (AIIMS 87) 8) The mutant gene is of | (A/IMS 79, UPSC 83) >) EMG . X-linked dominant inheritance ©) chest-X-rays 'b) ECG may show RVH 4d) Response to IV edrophonium ) Average intelligence is normal 3808, Site of action of blocking immunoglobulin ia 4) All mothers of affected boys are gene carriers Myasthenia gravis- (Al 88) €) Carriers can be detected certainly by CK estimation a) Motor end plate ) Presynaptic vesicle 3797, Meralgin Paraesthetica involves- oy Synapse 6) cell body a) Axillary nerve (AIMS 81, Delhi 86) 3809. Mononeuritis multiplex is feature of- (4/89) ») Sural nerve ) Polyaneritis nodosa ©) Median nerve 4) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh 3798, Myasthenia gravis may be associated with - 2) Drug intake (Kerala 94) ») Viral infection b) Hypersensitive vasculitis ©) Leprosy Oat 3790)a_3791)b 3792)d_ 3793)Al13794)d_3795)a_3796)b 3797)4 3798)d 3799)a 3800)d 3801)a 3802)a,03803)a 3804)d 380S)acde 3806)a 3807)d 3808)a 3809)d1178 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-LIT 3810. Myasthenia gravis is usaully associated with - ©) Nitrofurantoin 8) Hyperparathyroidism (CMC 87) 4) Infectious mononucleosis ) Thymoma 3822. The common cavses of carpel tunnel syndrome ©) Throid adenoma are the following except - PGI 79, NIMHANS 88) 3811. Faseiculation is seen in = (CMC 87) a) Pregnancy ) Rheumatoid arthritis, 8) Motor neurone disease b) Tetanus ©) Gout 4) Thyrotoxicosis ©) Tetany ) Myasthenia 3823, Acute peripheral neuropathy is seen in- 3812. Acute peripheral neuropathy is seen in- (PG/88) 2) Diptheria (KARN 94) 4) Diptheria. ——b) Uremia ») Tetanus ©) Hyperglycemia d) Infectious mononucleosis ©) Hyperglycemia 3813. Which istrue regarding Eaton Lambert syndrome- 4) Infectious mononucleiosis a) Guanidine gives relief (PG189) 3824, Fasivulation are seen in allexcept- (KAR 94) b) Neostizmine also effective 8) Poliomyelitis ©) Ocular muscles spared ) Polymyositis Associated with oat cell carcinoma ) Neuromylitis 3814. Sensory neuropathy is not seen in - (JPMER 91) 4) Hypertophy of muscles 4) Diabetes b)Beriberi 3825. Cardiac involvement is present in all ¢) Lead poisoning 8) Alcoholism except- GIPMER 95) 3815, Type I fibre atrophy is seen muscle biopsy 4) Fascio scapulo humeral dystrophy 2) Polio (ALL INDIA 93) b) Ducchenes dystrophy b) Mytonic Dystrophy ©) Fredreick’s ataxia ©) Myasthenia gravis 4) Myotonic dystrophy 4) Duchennes syndrome 3826. Carpal tunnel syndome is not caused by -(A/IMS 94) 3816. Dysphagia with ptosis and generalised muscle a) Pregnancy b) Acromegaly ‘weakness is seen in - (AIMS 93) ©) Hypertension 4) Hypothyroidism 2) Moscular dystrophy 3827. Acute ascending paralysis is seen in all ) Hypokalemic periodic paralysis except- (ALL INDIA 95 ©) Myasthenia gravis a) Diptheria by Porphyria @) Thyrotoxie myopathy <) DM MN 3817. Thymectomy for myasthenia gravis is indicated 3828. Thymoma is associated with all except - with (AIMS 92) a) Myzesthenia gravis, (ALL INDIA 95) ) Thymoma ) Young females ') Pure red cell aplasia ©) Thymic hyperplasia _d) Makes over 66 years €) leucopenia 3818, Chronic relapsing polyneuropathy is seen in all <6) Hypogammagiobutinemia except (IPMER 93) 3829, Wading gait is seen in - (IN 95) 2) Porphyria * 4) Bilateral dislocation of hip ) Diabetes ) Myopathies ©) Guillain Barre syndrome ©) Common peroneal nerve injury 4) Djerine Sota syndrome 4) Unilateral dislocation ofthe hip 3819, Bilateral facial palsy is seen all except- 3830. Duchenstes pseudo muscular hypertrophy is ) Guillian Barre syndrome (JIPMER 93) inherited as - (IN 95) b) Ramsay hunt syndrome 1) Authosomal recessive ©) Sarcoidosis b) Antesomal dominant d) Melkersen Rosenthal syndrome ©) X-linked dominant 3820. In polymyositis - (PG178,DELHI83) @) X-linked recessive 2 ‘Onset is acute 3831. A raised serum creatinine phosphokinase level in 3821, 38LO)b 3811)a 3812)abd 3813)ad 3814)e 3815)b 3816)e ») Distal muscles are involved primarily ©) Muscle weakness is asymmetrial @ Evidence of systematic infection is usually absent Which of the following is not associated with Peripheralneuropathy- (JIPMER S0,DNB 90) a) Urticaria pigmentosa b) Diabetes’meltitus ‘unusual in - (PSC 97) a) Acute alcoholic myopathy ) Viral polymyositis ©) Myopathy of cushing’s syndrome 4) Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy 381T)a_3818)ac3819)b 3820)d 3821)a_3822)cd 3823)43824)b 3825) a 3826)c 3827)a 3828)None 3829)ab 3830)d 3831)c1179 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-IIT 3832, 3833, 3834, 3835, 3836. 3837. 3838, 3839, 3840. 3841, 3842, In primary idiopatic polymyositis the following ‘groups of muscles isulmost never affected - 4) Proximal limb girdle muscles (UP sco7) ») Pharyngeal muscles ©) Extensorneck muscles ) Ocular Polymyositi-all features are seen except a) Ocular muscle involvement (AIIMS 97), ») Focal necrosis on biopsy ©) EMG which are specific 4) Neck flexor involvemant Myasthenia gravis is characterised by all the following except - (ABMS, 97) 2) Proximal muscle involvement ) Fatigue with exertion ) Spontaneous regression sometime d) Absent deep reflexes Idiophatic polymyositis affects- ) Ocular muscules ) Extraoccular muscles only ) Neck flexors 4) Calf hypertrophy ‘Autonomic neuropathy has allexcept- (NIMS 96) a) Gustatory sweating _b) Tachycardia €) Diarrhoea 4) Pupillary dilatation Relapsing polyneuropathy is seen in -(KERAL 97) a) Refsums disease ) Acute intermittent porphyria ¢) Diabetes mellitus @) None of the above (PG1 96) ‘The cause of segmental peripheral neuropathy is- (KERALA 97) ) Gullain-barre syndrome _b) Amyloidosis ©) Syringomyelia 4d) Poliomyelitis High carbohydrate diet can precipitate - ) Hypokalemic periodic paralysis. (/IPMER 98) +) Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis ©) Hystericat paral 4) Myasthenia gravis In Myasthenia gravis which test done is- 4) Phentolamine test (ALL INDIA 97) ») Glucagon test ©) Eérophonium test ©) Histamine test Mononeutritis multiplex is 2 major presenting feactureof- (UP 98) a) Systemic necrotising vasculitis 'b) Wagner's granulomatosis, ©) Hypersensitivity vasculitis 4) Mucocutaneaous Iymphnode syndrome Aggravation of myasthenia is a feature of all the following drugs except - (MAHE 98) a) Gentamicin b) Neomycin ©) Edrophonium 4) Succinyl 3843, 3844, 3845. 3846. 3847. 3848, 3849, 3850, 3851. 3852. 3853. 3884, ‘Neurofibromatosis is associated with - a) Pheochromocytoma b) Islet cell tumors ©) Papillary or medullary Ca thyroid 4) Glucagonoma In polymyosi affected exeept- ) Pharyngeal muscles) Ocular muscles ©) Neck muscles 4) Muscles of hip girdle ‘Thymoma is associated with all except- (PG198) s all of following muscles are (Al 96) 2) Graves disese GIPMER 95) b) Hyper gamma globulinemia €) Red cell aplasia 4) Thrombocytopes All are seen is myotonic Dystrophy except- (IPMER 91) 2) Cataract byRespiratory failure ©) Cardiac defect 4) Enlarged testes Drug of chice for an attack of familial periodic paralysis (IPMER 81, AMU86) @) ACTH ») Potassium chloride ©) Calcium chloide 4) Adrenaline arount the tonsils during eating (UPSC 88) 2) Trigeminal neuralgia b) Glossopharyngeal neuralgia ©) Facial neuralgia 4) None of the above Nerve abscess is seen in the .... nerve -(Kerala 87) a) Median b)UInar ©) Lateral fibelar 4) Sciatic Meralgia parasethetica isan entrapment neuropathy ofthe- (AIMS 86) ) Musculocutaneous nerve ») ilio inguinal nerve 6) Lateral cutaneous nerve 4) Lateral popliteal nerve Allare true about patients with neuro fibromatosis exceptthat they are pronefor- (Kerala 95) a) Gliomas b)Retinoblastoma ) Swachonoma )Meningioma Lisch nodules in neurofibromatosisare- (TN'98) a) Iris pearls b) Hamartomas 6) Granulomas 4) None ofthe above The incidence of thymoma developing in patients with myasthenia gravisis -(PGI 81,82, AIIMS 86) 8) 30-45% b)20.30% ©) 15.20% )5-15% Toxic focal myopathy is adverse affect of GIPMER 95) 8) Aminoglycosides b) Nareoties 6) Insulin @)Penicllin 3832)d 3833)a 3834)d 3835)c 3836)a 3837) 3838)b 3839)a 3840)c 3841)a 3842)¢ 3843)a 3844) 3845)b 3846)d_3847)b 3848)b 3849)b 3850)c 3851)b 3852)b 3853)d 3854)b1.180 MEDICINE QUES. VOL-ILI 3855, Serum creatinine kinase is elevated in A/E-- a) Becker's myopathy (PG197) ') Acute myoglobinic myops ©) Acute polymyositis 4) Central core myopathy 3856, Muscular weakmess dueto deficiency of magnesium is enhanced by presence of - (PG197) 4) Hyperkalemia ») Metabolic alkalosi ©) Metabolic acidosis 4) Hyperatremia 3857. In idiopathic polymyositis, folowing are seen except- 8) Ocularmuseles commonly involved (PGI 97) ) Pharyngeal muscles involved . ©) Cutaneous manifestations 4) Proximal limb muscles invariably involved 3858, Drug of choice for myaesthenia gravis~ (PGI99) 2) Gallamine ') Suecinylochotine ©) D. tubocurare 4) Pyridostigmine 3859. Ture about polymyositis is (PGI99) 2) Ocular muscle involvement ) Pharyngeal involvement ©) Muscle atrophy 4) Brisk reflexes common 3860, Causes of facial palsy are ~ (PG12000) «) Bell's palsy ©) Ramsay Hunt synd ) Herpes infection 4d) Acoustic neuroma 3861. Trophic ulcers are seen in ale ~ (PGI 2000) ) Polio ) Syringomyelia ©) Leprosy 4) TB. Meningitis ” 3862. Neurofibromatosis type-I is associated with - a) B/L acoustic schwannoma (PGI 2000) it spots ) Lisch nodule ©) Posterior subcapsular lenticular cataract 3863. Myasthenia gravisisassociated with- (PGI01) 4) Decreased acetyl choline at nerve endings 8) Decreased myosin ) Nbsent troponin C 4) Decreased myoneural junction transmission 3864. Which ofthe following statements is true regarding Landry Guillian BarreSyndrome-.(PGI0i) a) Facial nerve palsy occurs ) Proximal muscle weakness 6) Areflexia 4) Pyramidal signs €) Distal muscle weakness 3865, Predominantly sensory neuropathy is/are caused by- (PG101) 4) Cisplatin b)Pyridoxine excess ©) Suramin 6) Diphther ©) Guillain-Barre syndrome 3866, Sensory motor neuropathy caused by-_(PGI02) ) DM ) Lead poisoning ‘) Arsenic +d) Leprosy ©) AIDS 3867, Inflammation of nerve seen in- (PG103) a) Leprosy ) Diabetes ©) Guilliance Barre Syndrom 4) Diphtheria 3868. Subacute combined degeneration due to to Vit.B,, deficiency mainly involves ~ (PG103) 4) Peripheral nerve ') Corticospinal tract ©) Posterior column 4) Spin cerebellar tract ©) Spinothalamic tract 3869, Amyotrophiclateral sclerosisinvolve- (PGI03) a) Anterior horn cell ') Posterior horn cell ©) Dorsal root ganglia. _4) Ventral root ganglia ©) Myoneural junction 3870. Neuropathy is not seen in- (PG103) a) Tuberculosis bsLe ©) Diabetes Mellitus 4) Polyarteritis nodosa 3871. Episodic muscular weaknessis seen in- (PG!03) a) UK ) Lambert Eaton syndrome ©) Myasthenic Gravis +d) Tuberculosis ©) Multiple sclerosis 3872. Dystrophie gene mutation leadsto- (ALIMS03) a) Myasthenia gravis b) Motor neuron disease ©) Poliomyelitis 4) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy 3873. The electromyogram (EMG) is least useful for the diagnosis of - (Karnataka 03) a) Cerebral palsy ») Spinal muscular atrophy ©) Charcot - Marie - Tooth disease 4) Myasthenia gravis 3874, Generally speaking, the distal, burning, painful dysesthesias with reduced pinprick and thermal sensation but with sparing of proprioception and * motor funetionsis seen in - (Karnataka 03) ) Small fibre neuropathy ») Large fibre neuropathy ©) Neuromuscular junction disease 4) Anterior horn cell disease 3875, Most common presenting finding of multiple sclerosis is - (UPSC 04) 4) Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia ») Optic neuritis, ©) Transverse myelitis 4) Cerebellar ataxia 3876, Which one of the following is not true in the ease of myotonic dystrophy ? (UPSC 04) a) Cardiac defects b) Cataract ©) Enlarged testis 4) Frontal baldness 3855)d_ 3856) 3857)a 3858)d 3859)bc 3860)abcd 3861)a 3862)abce 3863)d 3864)abce 386S)ab 3866)acide 3867)a,cd 3868)b,c 3869)a 3870)None 387l)abce 3872)d 3873) 3874)a_3875)b 3876)cList MEDICINE QUES. VOL-DIT 3877. A middle aged man presents with progressive 3885, Alllof the following are neurologic channelopathies atrophy and weakness of hands & forearms. On except- (Al05) examination he is found to have slight spasticity of a) Hypokalemic periodic paralysis the legs, generalized hyper-reflexia and increased +) Episodic ataxia type 1 signal in the cortico-spinal tracts on T2 weighted ©) Familial hemiplegic migraine MRI. The most likely diagnos (AlIMS 04) ©) Spinocerebellar ataxia 1 8) Mattiple scierosis 3886. Vitamin B 12 deficiency can give rise to all of the ) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis following except - (A105) ©) Subacute combined degeneration 8) Myelopathy ) Optic atrophy @) Progressive spinal muscular atrophy ©) Peripheral neuropathy d) Myopathy 3878. Which one of the foitowing is correct regarding 3887. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of Eaton-Lambertsyndrome- (AIMS 04) myasthenia gravisis- (A105) 4) It commonly affects the ocular muscle 4) Elevated serum ACh-teceptor binding antibodies b)Neostigmine is the drug of choice for this ») Repetitive nerve stimulation test syndrome ¢) Positive edrophonium test ) Repeated electrical stimulation enhances muscle 4) Measurement of jitter by single fibre power init electromyography. 4) Its commonly associated with adenocarcinoma 3888, All of the following are calcium channeJopathies, of lung except: (AIMS May 05) 3879, Antibody found in patlents of myaesthenia gravis is 4) Episodic ataxia -1 , Epithelium of tcrimal glands o. 26 ems 4) 3 oms “@3}_Caveraus Sinus has communication with Diameter of the optic diseis- (J & K 2001) 7 following structures - (PGI June 06) / 3) 0.5 mm b)1.5 mm a) Inferior pettosal.sinus, b) Orbital veins ©)2.5 mam 23.5 mm c) Prerygoid plexus 4) Sigmoid sinus Equatorial diameter ofthelensis- (/&K 2001) ©) Straight sinus a) 7mm b) 8mm @ Smooth muscle of the IRIS is developed 99mm 9} 0mm J from- (COMED 06) 13. Volume ofthe vitreous ~ (ax 2001) 2) Surface Ectoderm ) Mesoderm a)2 mi b) 3m ©) Neural Crest <4) Neural Ectoderm ce} Amt Tm Da 2b 3b 4)b Seed Te 8B 9a‘) Ie_—«e_— IY 1Haded —I)e17)H_18)H_—«19)e—-20)B_—Na_-—«22)’_-—«23)ac_ 24) ~42 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT DS ®D fy ‘Visual angle is, the angle subtended by the object Presbyopia is due to- (PG183) atthe (COMED 06) 8) Loss of elasticity of lens capsule 4) Mid point of post pole of eye b) Weakness of ciltary muscles ») Forea in the reine ©) Weakness of suspensory ligament ©) Nodal point of the lens &) Allof the above 4) Centre of the comea Contact lens is best used in - (alims 89) 8) High myopi ) Aphakia ELEMENTARY OPTICS ©) lereguiar astigmatism) High astigmatism ‘The eyein thenew bornis- (AP 85, JIPMER 86 a) Hypermetropic with regular astigmatism b) Hypermetropie Kerala 88) ©) Hypermetropic with regular astigmatism ) Myopia 2 Kappa angle isthe angle between the - (4188) a) Pupillary axis and visual axis ) Visuat axisand optical axis ©) Centre of eye-ball rotation and line of fixation 4) None of the above is correct Alpha angleis theangle between the- (4/88) a) Pupillry axis and optical axis b) Visua? axis and optical axis Thetermanisometropia indicates- (Kerala 91) 2) Refractive error b) Long vision ©) Short vision 4) Aging process Radial keratotomy sindieatedin- (4192) 2) Hypermetropia ) Astigmatism ¢) Anisometropia 4) Myopia Facultative hypermetropes manage to see because of- (ipmer 92) 4) Wrinkling of eye ») Ciliary musefe contraction ) Accomodation 6) Use of eycloplegics ‘Treatment of choice in Aphakia is- (A/IMS 92) a) Anterior Chamber 1OL, ©) Centre of eye-ball rotation and line of fixation ) Spectacles €) None ofthe above is comet 6) Contact lens Refractive condition ofthe eye atbirhis- 6) Posterior chamberJOL 4) Hypermetropia of 2D (PGI 99) Constantly changing refractory error is seen b) Myopia of 2D, in- {AlIMS 92) 6) Hypermetopia of 1) Troumaticcaurect_b)Diabeticeatanet 4) Myopia of SD ©) Morgagnian cataract d)Intumescent cataract Unitof light remitted froma surfaces -(SRMC02) Maximum refractory power ito the (Kerala) 2) Lambert by Candella a) Antetior of lens ©) Ln 4)Lumen +) Posterior surfact of lens ERRORS OF REFRACTION iS rece ae hk ne nee eee ((31,) Spectacte are prescribed to patient with ap! myopic with refractive error of 2D is - (Delhi 96) ate . > as 86, AP 94) 2) Spectacles ) Contact lens 2) One we we ‘ Saved : Dé weeks ©) Radial keratotomy d) Excimer laser Astigmatism is considered tobean- (PGI 85) a) Spherical abberation ) Curvature ametropie ©) Axial ametropia ‘Which is the common most complication of high myopia- ; (CUPGEE 95) ) Glaucoma ) Cataract ©) Haemorrhage 4) Retinal detachment Presbyopia is caused by - (CUPGEE 96) 4) Index ametropia 8) Gradual loss of plasticity ofthe lens aindieat tenses are used a 7 (PGi 85) b) Gradual opacification vibe Jens 8) Astigmatism | ryopia ) Loss of power accommodation ¢) Hypermetropia ) Presbyopia ONoe ‘Astigmatism is corrected by- (PG185) Rays of light from a distant object are focussed 8) Convex lens b) Concave Jens in rontof the retina in- ©) Cylindrical fens 4) Contact Jens a) Hypermetropia ‘Thesize ofthe eye ballin myopiais- (PGI83) ©) Aphakia a) Bigger b)Smalier ‘Total diopteric power ofeye- (Ail India 97) ©) Normal 4) Can be of any size a) 23 dioptes 6)43D ©) 1sD #58 26)b 27a 28)b 2a 30)a_31)d Ae 41d 42}6 © BJo 44a AS) ja 34)od 35)a36)d_—-37)abe 38)a ab 48)d43 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT 49, Treatment of cholce for high myopia - 60. Treatment of presbyopia- (PGI 02) 4} Radial Keratoromy GIPMER 98) a) LASIK b) Concave lens ) Glasses «) Convex lens 4) Radial keratoromy ) Contat ens 61. Refractive power of eye can be changed 2) @ Intra ocular lens implantation by- (P6102) (sy Aniscikonia is corrected with- (Kerala 97) 4) Radial keratotony b)Keratomileusis 4) Gallelio telescope —_-b) Prism ) OL LASIK ©) Cylindrical lens ) Contact lens «) Photocoagulation SI. Radial keratotomy is used asa treatment modality 62._—Refractive power of eye depends upon mainly for- (cr 97) following factor/factors - (PGI 02) 4) High astigmatism 2) Lens b) Corea by High myopia ©) Vitreous haemorrhage 4) Aq. humous ¢) Small degree of myopia «) Axial length of the eye «High bypermetropia : 63, Astigmatism is due to- (src 02) 52, Notan error of refraction is-__ (ROHTAK 97) a) Imegularity of curvature of comea «) Myopia b) Hypermetropi ») regularity of curvature of lens ¢) Presbyopia 4) Astigmatism ©) Forward displacement ofthe lens ©) None of the above 4) Backward displacement of lens 53, Lattice degeneration is seen in- __(AIIMS98)-—«G4,.-“ Which one of the following is the serious ) Myopia ) Hypermetropia complication of degenerative myopis in he eye- c) Aphakia 4) Presbyopia 2) Retinal detachment (UPSC O02) 54, The power of reduced eye is - (99) ) Vitreous liquifcation aD b)45D 6) Myopic erescent ©) 59D 4)66D 4) Posterior staphyloma 55, Astigmatism , lens used to correct the defect is - 65, Fundal picture in myopia - ipmer 03) ) Hard lens (JIPMER 99) 2) Soft exudate b) Sof lens ») Hard exudates ‘) Gas permeable lens ©) Cystoid degeneration None of the above 4) Flame shaped hemorrhages 36. A3Syear old man complains of difficulty ofnear «66. _A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daught vision) His distant vision was 6/6 without glasses) She asks for your opinion, All the following things On retinoscopy, he had +2 bilaterally) The are suitable for performing LASIK surgery dingn: (ATMS 99) EXCEPT - (4103) 2) Presbyopia 6) Ciliary spasm 2) Myopia of 4 diopters c) Hypermetropia 4) Accomodative paralysis b) Age of 15 years 57. Refractive error of the eye can be charged by - ¢) Stable refraction for 1 year a) LASIK (PGI2002) 4) Comeal thickness of 600 microns ) Redial keratotomy 67. Accomodation is maximum at the age of - ©) OL implantation : a) 25 years b)5 years (Orissa 04) Removal of erystalline lense ) 14 years 4) 30 years, «) Cyclophotocoagulation 68. Which of the following is used for treatment of 58. Radial Keratomy is used as treatment modality Myopia - ipmer 04) for- (PGI 97) 2)Nd-YAG LASER —_) Excimer Laser 4) Small degree in myopia ©) Carbamazepine @) SSRI ») Progressive non healing ulcer ‘Auisometropia means - (SaPGi05) ©) High astigmatism 2) Both the eye are not oriented inthe same parallel 4) High hypermetropia xis 2 59. Aniseikonia refers to - (Pct99) b) There is high difference of refractive errors 4) Difference inthe comeal diameter between the two eye Difference in the image size (tinal image) ) Subluxation of one of the eye €) Difference in the refractive power 4) Difference in image sizes _9) Difference in image colour 70, Pseudo papittisis seen in- (HPu0s) 8) Myopia b) Hypermetropia 2) Squint &) Presbyopia 4c Sd Ste S2)e $3)a_ SHE SS)ab Sc STabd Ba Sb Ge Gl)abed Gab 63a G4)b 65)o 66)b_ 67) GB) —GBYb_70)b44 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT ‘71, The most accepted modality of treatment of 2D 82, Soft contact lens s used - + (APPGOB) myopia ina 13 year old girl is (UPSC 05) 2) High myopia by Astigmatism 2) Spectacles b)Excimer laser ©) Presbyopia 4) Keratocpnus ©) Contact lens 4) Radial keratotomy 83, LASIK is used in - (Manipal 06) ‘72. For near point of 20 em, a hypermetrope of +4D 8) Myopia ») Hypermetropia bat in exeree accommodation af-(Sar’05) ©) Astigmatism 4) Presbyopia a 49. ©) +1000D 40D EXAMINATION OT THE EYE 73. Unequaleyepowerisknownas- (MAHEO5) 8) Anisometropia by Emmetropia 04, Wate pup reexieseenin~ (HIM 94) ©) Ametropia 4) Astigmatism a) Retinoblastoma 74. Normal eye power is- (MAHE 05) 5) Complete retinal detachment a) +6D b) 43D. a Rea tis ©) +600 o+7D ° of the above 75. Trueabout cross cylinder (PGI.June 05) 85. The image in indirect ophthalmoscopy is - (PG 85) a) Half ofthe curvature is cylindrical a) Erect, virtual magnified b) @) lens O) Ere magni ©) © lens 6) Inverted real magnifie 4) Both (+) and (-) lenses &) Erect virtual normal 76. The least adhesion of silicon oil is observed with - 86, Ultrasound is used in the eye for- (PGI 88) 8) Heparin coated PMMA IOL, V&K05) 8) Orbital tumours b) Fluorine treated TOL"S b) Endophthalmitis ©) Silican FOL’S ©) Retinal detachment 4d) Regular PMMA 4) Vitreous hemorrhage 77. Onanaverages silicon filled phakic eye produces 87. Examination of vitreous is best done by - a hyperopic shift of - VU&K05) a) Direct ophthalmoscope (ALIMS 89) a) by6D ») Indirect ophhalmoscope oD 20D ©) Slit lamp with contact lens 78, -A30year old man has 6/Svision each eye, unaided. 4) Oblique His cvcloperie Fetinoscopy is + 0.0 D sph. at 1 88. i Rene Artery angiogram, the oe injected ‘metre distance, His complaints are blurring of rough the - Kerala 90) new sprint at 30 cm, that clears up in about two 4) Peripheral veins 8) Aona ‘minutes. The most probable diagnosis is (4105) ©) Retinal artery 4) Retinal vein 8) Bypermeto ») Presbyopia 89 The distance used in direct distant ©) accommodative inertia d) Cycloplegia ophthalmoscopy is- (IPMER 91) 79, Contact lens wear is proven to bave deleterious ) 10cm b) 15cm effects on the cornea) physiology. Which of the ©) 25em 4) 100em following statements is incorrect in connection 90, Aqueous flare Is best demonstrated by-(ipmer 91) with edintactlens wear (4105) ‘Torch light 4) The level of ghicose availability in the corneal b) Comeal loupe epithelium is reduced 6) Narrow beam of Slit beam ') There is reduction in hemidesmosome density 4 Directopthalmology ae eee of CO, in the 91, Amaurotic eats eyeis not seen in~ (Al 92) ee ‘i Cataract 4) There is reduction in glucose wtlization by corneal 5 epithelium, » Cxsiiomertrae 80, Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the laucoma j following except (41 05) 4) Retrorental fbroplasia - 8) Keratoconus —_b) Herpes simplex keratitis mm ane the avestigation of choice: Ds ©) Leprosy 4) neurofibromatosis {) Posterior vitreous dislocation 81. An otherwise healthy Person who wesrs contact ») Phlegmatogemnous Retinal detachment lenses develops a small ulceration of eye. whats the «) Retinoschisis ceause- (HP 2006) 4) Central serous retinopathy 2) Acanthamoeba b) Cytomegalovirus ©) Toxocama 4) Toxoplasma Ta 7b 73a Te Bd 76d THD 78) T)a Ob 81a A2)a_ aA 85)e $6)AMl 87)b B8)a_Be We He 92)d45 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT 93. Periphery of retina is best visualised with - 104. In a patient of 20 years presenting with moving a) Retinoscopy (PGI 93) floaters diagnosis is by - (PGI 96) b) USO a) Direct ophthamoscopy ¢) Direct ophthalmoscopy ») Indirect ophthalmoscopy 4) Indirect ophthalmoscopy ©) Retinoscopy 94, Campimetry is used to mensure- _(AIIMS8I, 4) Distant direct retinoscopy a) $ Squine Delhi 93) 108, Amslers grid is used in- (P6196) ») Angle of deviation a) Detecting colour vision ¢) Patter of retina b) Retinal functional test d) Field charting ¢) Maculopathy 95. Theelectroetinogram may assist in the dizgnosis 6) Refractory errors of all of the following, except - (AP 88) 106. Indirect ophthalmoscopy can be used to view all ) Bilateral disease except - (AIMS 96) ‘b) Progression of retinal disease a) Ora serratia b) Base of vitreous c) Clinically unsuspected disease in familial ¢) Fovea centralis ) Retinal periphery degenerations 107. Alll are true about indirect ophthalmoscopy d) Complications of glaucoma Except - (PGI 97) ¢) Differentiation between peripheral and central 2) Details of fundus can be seen even with slightly retinal disease hazy media 96. Anomaloseope is used to detect - (DNB 90) 'b) Image is inverted and real a) Squint b) Retinopathy 6) Magnification is more than direct c) Congenial glaucoma d) Colour blindness ophthalmoscopy 97. Best diagnostic test for Best disease is - (AIMS 79, 6) Used for seeing peiphery of the fundus a) Dark adaptation BERG 83) 108. Not true about Macular function test is - ©) B0G 6) Goniscopy 4) Two point discrimination (AIMS 97) 98. Snellens chart is used to test - (Kerala 94) 'b) Maddox rod a) Vision b) Refraction c) Laser inferometry ©) Presbiopia 4) Colour blindness d) Retinogram 99. The best method for examination of periphery of 109, “Fincham’s test” is used to differentiate -(AP 97) retina is - (Delhi 96) a) Acute congestive glaucoma and chronic simple 4) Direct opthalmascopy Glaucoma ) Binocular indirect opthalmoscopy b) Chronic Simple Glaucoma and Iridocycyeclitis c) Goldmann perimeter ©) Acute congestive Glaucoma and cataract @) Hruby jens ) Simple Glaucoma and Cataract, 100. Retinoscopy is used for visualising the- ‘Angle of anterior chamber is visualised a) Whole retina (C.UPGEE 96) ~ (ROHTAK 97) b) Only the peripheral part of the retina * a) Slitlamp examination _b) Gonioscopy ¢) Detecting errors of refraction ©) A sean on ultrasound) CT sean d) None . e) B-scan on ultrasound 101. On retinoscopy at 1 mt distance there is no 111. All are seen in increased intracranial tension movement- (AP 96) except- (A199) a) Emmetropic. b) 1 Dimyopic a) Macular oedema ©) | Dhypermetropic d) Astigme ’) Papilloedema 102; Magnification of direct opthalmescopy is- c) Normal vision ®) Five b)Ten (AIMS 97) ) Afferent pupillary defect, ©) Fifteen ) Thirty 112, The graph of movement of the eye is called - 103, In florescin angiography of retinal vessels, dye is a) Electroretinogram (AMC 99) injected into - (Al 97) b) Electroencephalogram ) Anterior cubital vein ©) Electronystagmogram b) Angular vein d) Electrocardiogram ©) Supraorbital vein 113. Which of the following is used for treatment of 4d) Internal carotid artery myopia ~ (Jipmer 2K) 8) NAYAG laser 8) Excimer laser ¢) Argon laser d) Hormium laser 93)d 9}d 95)d_96)d_~—-9T)c_-—-9BJA_—99)b_—*100)c “IY 102)e103)a_ 104) 105) 106) 107)c 108)d 109)c110)ab 111)d 112)¢ 113)b46 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-LIT 114, A 25 year old lady suddenly develops unilateral 125, Image formed in direct apthatmoscopy s- loss of vision decreasing from 6/6 to 6/46-with il a) Real and erect (PGI 99) sustained reaction of the pupil. She complains of ) Real and inverted slight headache and some pain in the orbit witen ©) Virtual and erect fooking upward, The most likely diagnosisis ~ © Virtual and inverted a) Acute frontal sinus (UPSC 2K) 126. Coloured halo is seen in all except- (PGI 99) 2b) Acute iritis 8) Open angle glaucoma ©) Brain tumour ) Closed angle glaucoma @) Retrobulbar neuritis ©) Cataract 118, The test that would aid most in the above diagnosis 4) Any of the above is. (UPSC 2K) 127. Image seen by indirect ophthalmoscopy is - a) X-ray of the orbit 2) Inverted + Virtual (PGI 2000) ») Visual field determination . b) Brect + Virtual ‘©) Tonometry ©) Inverted + real . 4) Exophthalmometry ¢) Erect + Virtual 116, Visual acuity test isa test of - (Orissa R) 128, Amsler grid is used in - (PGs 2000 a) Light sense ') Colour sense 4) Detecting maculopathy ©) Contrast sense ) Form sense ») Opltie disc examination 117, Amsler’s grid is used to diagnose- (PGI 2K) ©) Squint a) Squiot ) Macular fimetion 4) Retinal examination €) Visual acuity 4) Pupillary defects 129, Periphery of retina is visuatized by - (PGI 02) ) Retinal function a) Indirect ophthalmoscopy 118," Hutchinsons pupil is~ (IN 89) ’) Direct ophthimoscopy a) Seen in syphilis ©) Goniccopy ) Unilateral constricted pupil 4) Contact lens ©) Irregular pupil 130, Shallow Anterior Chamber is seen in all EXCEPT- } Argyl robertson pupil 2) Old age (N03) 119, White pupillary reflex in @ child is due ») Steroid induced cataract to. (AMU95) ©) Hypermetropia 2) Retinoblastoma ») Buphthalmos &) Angle closure glaucoma ©) Iridocyelitis Dall 131. Visual acuity in infants is tested with the ielp 120. Indirect ophthalmoscopyisdonefor- (PGI 97) of (Mahara 02) a) Central retina a) Landot’s rings )'4' dot test ) Periphery ofretina 6) Perimeter 4) Slit lamp ©) Sclera 132, Patient ophthalmoplegic examination in MODY 4) Angle of ant. chamber : isdone- (APPGE D4) 121. Gonioscopy is used tostudy- (PGI-97) a) 5 yeats from diagnosis 2) Ant, chamber b)Post chamber ) 10 years from diagnosis ©) Angle of anterior chamber. d) Retina ©) At the time of diagnosis 122, Allaretrueabout indirect ophthalmoscope except- 4) 2 years from diagnosis a) Image is real and inverted (PGI97) 133. The depth of the anterior chamber of the eye is- ) Details of fundus can be seen even with slightiy a) 15mm b)20mm — (TNO) hazy media ©) 25mm 3.0mm ©) Magnification is more than direct ophthalmoscope 134, An indirect ophthalmoscope will project - 4) Used for seeing periphery of fundus a) Virtual image (COMEDK 05) 123. In retinoscopy for refractive error at 1 m we add 6) Real image 1D ifdone at distance of 66em, the addition factor ©) Upright image ~ willbe (PG1 99) ) Fiat image a2 by-ls 135, “Angry sun appearance” in fundoscopy is a 005 a5 Seatureaf- (Karnat 03) 124, Keratometer is used to assess- (PG1 99) ) Primary optic atrophy _b)Papilloedema 4) Thickness of comea _b) Refractive power ©) Papilltis «f) Orusen’s rings * ©) Astigmatism ) Curvature of comea 1d4jd U5) 116d 117) 118)None 119) ae 120) I21)e 122)e 123)b 128d I2SJe 12a 127}e 128)a 1292 1306 131)a 132)¢ 133)e 134) 135)47 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-LIT 136. Allexcept oneare tests for macular function - 147. In which of the following és intense itching a 2) Laser interferometry (MAHE 05) feature of « (JIPMER 88) 'b) Two point discrimination 2) Comeal ulcer ') Purutent conjunctivitis ©} Maddox rod test ©) Spring catarch 4) Trachoma 4) Retinal ERG electroretinogram 148, Angular conjunctivitis iseaused by- (Karn 88) 137. Best type of tonometry - (MAKE OS) a) Pneumococus 8) Electronic tonometry ») Morax axenfelds bacilli ') Indentation tonometry €) Streptococcus ‘© Applanation tonometry 4) Staphylococeus 48) Non contact tonometry 149. Bitot’s spots are seen in - (alms 88) 138. Magnification obtained with direct ophthalmoscope a) Vitamin Ddeficiency _} Vitamin A deficiency foranemmetropic patient is-__(A/IMSMay05) ©) Vitamin Edeficiency - d) Vitamin, deficiency +a) Stimes ¥) 10%imes 150. HLP. inclusion bodies in trachoma are seen to ©) 1Stimes )20times —- be+ (AP 88) 139. The magnification obtained with a direct 2) Extracelfular ») Intracytoplasmie ophthalmoscope is - (Al 06) ) Intranuclear 4) None 2) Seimes b) 10 times 151, Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by (PG/85} 6) 1stimes 4) 20 times a) TRIC b) Gonocoeci 140. True stereopsis perceived due tothe following- ©) Staphylococci 4) Pneumococei 8) Overlay of contours (AIMS 06) 152. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is seen ) Motion parallax with - (G18) ©) Bo-nasal disparity a) Adeno virus b) Staphylocoseal 4) Linear perspective. ©) Pneumococeus 4) Hemophilus £41, Slit lamp blo microscopy is constructed on the 153, ‘The pathognomic features of trachoma are all principle of - (COMED 06) except. (P6186) 2) Diffuseillumination 5) Focal illumination ) Follicle )Pepitlae 6} Retr illumination 4) Direct illumination ©) Herberts pits 4) Pannus 154, Ophthalmia nodosa (grunuloma in the selsra) is CONJUNCTIVA . seen in (Kerala 89, AL 89) 1) Caterpillar hairin the eye 142, Percentage of silver nitrate used in credes b) Granulomatous uveitis method (AIMS 87) 03% 61% 15% 4)2% 155. Pseudomembranous conjunctivitis is caused 143, Follicles are not seen in which ofthe following - by- (PGI90) 2) Spring catarth _ ((4l88) 8) Gonococcus 8) Trachoma ») Staphylococcus ©) Adeno virus. conjunctivitis ©) Streptococcus 4) Streptcococeal conjunctivitis 4) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 144, Horner ¢rantas spots are seen in - (4188) 156. “Ropy discharge” from the eye is seep in (4/91) 1) Vernal conjunctivitis * a) Phylectenular conjunctivitis ») Phylectenular conjunctivitis 'b) Swimming pool conjunctvitis ©) Angular conjunctivitis ©) Spring catarrh 4) Follicular conjunctivitis 6) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis 148, Cobblestone appearance of conjunctiva is seen 157. Allarescen is stage III trachoma except with (PGI85) a) Tarsal eptheliofibrosis (AIIMS 91) a) Trachoma ») Trachmatous pannus ') Spring catarrh c} Herbert's pits €) Purulent conjunctivitis, 4) Disappearance of Bowmans membrane 2) Angutar conjunctivitis 158. ‘Sago grain’ follicles are characteristic of- 146. Trachoma can eause- (BHU88) 2) Spring catarrh (PG178, 81) 8) Trichiasis b)Entropion ») Inclusion conjunctivitis ©) Blindness 4) All ofthe above ©) Phylectenular conjunctivitis 4) Trachoma 136d 13)e J38e 139}e 140)e Idiyb 142) 143)ad M44)a_145)b 146) 147)C 148) A149) 150) 1S1)AMl 152)¢ 153)b I54)a_155)abe 156) IsT\a_158)d48 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-lit 159, Which doesnot causehaemorthagieconjuncve> «172, Pathgnomoaicottrachomals- mer 03) 1) Adeno virus 'b) Coxackie A-24 a) Bulbar papillae b) Palpebral papillae 6) Enterovirus A-70 4) Papilloma virus, ) Bulbar follicles 4) Palpebral follicles 160, ‘The mon seve rentment fake cary stags 173, Tumembranous conjunctivitis membrane ond oftrachoma = ‘Kerala 86 in wo) 2) Penicillin locally 2) Limbus by Papebral conjunctiva b) Chleromeatin systemically 3} Bubureonuciva d)Comea c) Sulphonamides systemically 174, “Safe Strategy” has been developed for the control 6 Sotanyein locals of caro 161. Phylecten is due to - (AP 96) a) Conjunctivitis b) Trachoma, ‘)Eniogenea allergy) Exogenous ley S)Retneteenor —_ d)Oclar tuna 3} Devencraton None 175, Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobaeteriam 162, Conjunctivitis is seen in all except - (A/IMS 98) tuberculosis antigen may manifest as- (703) a) CMV ‘b) Aden 7 7 a) Iridocylitis b) Polyarteritis nodusa c) Coxsackie B-24 a) Entero 70 ¢) Phlyectenular ‘d) Giant cell arteritis: 165, Palen sae to- (P6198) 176, Sub conjunctival hemorrhage occurs inal ) Exogenous allergy _b) Endogenous allergy conditions except- (ipmer 04) 9) Vint kes 3 Fins ot $) Pune venmus congestion 164. Cobble stone appearance is seen in- (PG/ 99) ) Pertusis a) Spring catarrh b) Trachoma c) Trauma c) Phlyctenular keragjtis 4) Fascicular uleer ) High intraocular tension 165. Seen intrachoma are/is- (PGI 2000) 177. Giant Papittary Conjunctivitis is caused by - 4) Papillary hypertrophy») Follicles 8) Contact Lens wear (Karnataka 04) 3} Pumas fron) Herbert pis 0) Oval Prosbesis e) Ropy discharge c) Protruding corneal sutures 166. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by- (PG/ 2000) d) Alll of the above Nowell vin 178, Epihetaltningoeonjuctva- (PCLJune 03) ) Bacteroides ) Fungus 8) Sq. keratinized ') Sq.non keratinized 167. Staphylococcal conjunctivitis is associated with all ©) Pseudo stratified ) Columnar except (PGI OI) ) Transitional 9) Come magininsation 179, Giantpapiar conjunctivitis sen 4PPG06 >) Phlyctenular conjuctiy a) Trachoma «) Vernal conjunctivitis b) Contact lens d) Hordeolum c) Phlytenular conjunctivitis 6 Follelrconuntvs 3 Vonalkemoconinetie 168. Arit's line is seen in - (PGI 02) Ophiaiianconsirum 8) Trachoma CORNEA sAH\2) go 9 angular cenjncvis |g) eral etch 169. Parenchymatous xerosis of conjunctiva is caused 180. Hypopyon is seen in... (ALIMS 86) by (Gro, 2) Pheumococeal infection 4) Trachoma ') Fungul infection +) Vitamin A deficincy ©) Gonococcus 6) Vernal catarth 4) Allof the above 4) Phylycetenular keratoconjunctvitis 181, Dendritic ulcer is due to- (AIMS 86) ©) Alkali burns a) Herpes simplex ) Fungal infection 170. Spring eatarrh is characterised by- (PGL03) ©) Syphilis @) Phiyeten a) Herbert's pit ») Tranta’s spot 182. Commonést causative organism of corneal ulcer ©) Papillary hypertrophy - )Cilliary congestion is- (BHU 88) ¢) Follicular changes a) Pheumococci b) Streptococei 171, Angular conjunctivitis iseaused by- (SRMC02)_—_\, >) €) Staphylococci 4) Fung! a) H. influenza {$3.) Salmon patch of the cornea is seen in - (BHU 88) ©) Morax axentield bacillus ©) Retinobloastoma 4) None of the above 6) Brahnmella 159)ad 160)e, 161)a 162)a 163)b 16H)a_ I6S)abed 166)a 167)ce 168)b 169)ae I70)be ITI)e 172)¢ 173) 174} 175)¢ 176d 17d 178) 17) 180)d I81)a_182)e -183)a49 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT 184, Corneal ulceration is caused by injury to - 198. Earliestsymptom in corneal ulcer is-(/PMER 92) the..cranial nerve- (188) a) Loss of sens b) Diminished vision 8) Third »)Fifh (Fp) 2 Prete phobia Pain o) Sixth 4) Fourth 199.) Treatment of choice ih leucoma of ¢ornea is iw a) Diabetes. b) Leprosy b) Laser exicission ©) Comea! weer ) Keratoconus ©) Lamellar keratoplasty 186. The corneal recieves all its nutrition 4) Penetrating keratoplasty from- (P6185) 200. Fasicular ulcer is present in- _(JIPMER 93) 8) Comeal vessels, b) Atmosphere a) Herpes zoster ’b) Marginal ulcer ©) lis 4) Aqeous humour ©) Neuroparalytic keratitis d) Moorens ulcer '187.| What type of corneal dystrophy is associated ay) ‘Munson’s sign as seen in - (JIPMER 79, Delhi 92) with acid mucopolysaccharidosis- (PGI 89) a) Keratoconus 8) Keracogtobus ) Granular b)Lattice —* ©) Keratomalacia aAll +7) ©) Macular 4) Peripheral 202) Corneal transparency is due tall except- 2) Bacteria b)Vins——(AL89) ) Normal OT ©) Fungus a) Ricketsia ©) Hypercellular stroma 189. Ophthalmia neonatorum is commonly caused ZA © Peculiar arangment of lamella bye c190) fhe, } “Orange skin” cornea results due to-(AIIMS78,86) ) H. influenza ) Staphylococcus 2) Chaleosis ») Siderosis fo) ©) TRIC 4) Gonococeus ¢) Ammonia bum d) Mustard gas 190,) Dellen is- (Manipal 06) \, ®) Comtusions 7 4) Localized thinning of peripheral comea 104) Corneal deposits are seen in all except - ') Raised lesions in comeo limbal junction a) Reis- bucklers comeal dystrophy (Kerala 94) ©) Age related macular degeneration ») Endothelial dystrophy of fuchs 4) Marginal keratitis ©) Hunters disease 191, The colour of fuorescein staining in corneal ulcer 4) Hurler’s disease is- (AIMS 89) 205. Anterior Lenticonus is seen in - (Al 96) a) Yellow Bue a) Marfans syndrome «) Royal blue 4) Green ») Ehler Danlos syndrome 192. The following are features of herpes simplex of ) Weel-Marchessani syndrome theeye. (JIPMER 90) 4) Homocystinuria 2) Superficial punctate keratitis 206. For transplatation corneais preserved in- ») Disciform keratitis a) Modified MK medium (AIIMS 95) | 6) Dendritic ulcer ») Glycerine medium ) 4) All ©) Wet medium ((193.) Metabotically active ayer ofcorneais- (4/91) 4) None of the above U7 a) Endothelium ) Stroma (fu, Uleer serpensiscaused by- (797) ) Descemets membrane 9)Epithelium CY a Pseudomonas pyocynaeceous 194, Interstitial keratitis is seen in all except (4/91) ') Pneumococus a) Tuberculosis, ») Sarcoidosis ©) Comybacteri «) Leprosy 4) Syphilis @) Gonorthoca niesseria 195, ‘The organism that penetrates normal cornea is- 208. Neuroparalytic keratitis is caused by paralysis of - a) Pneumococcus (A191) a) Facial N ‘byTrigeminalN (MP 98) ») Pseudomonas, ©) Optic 4) OculomotorN 2) Gonococeus 209. Recurrent corneal erosions are een in-(A/IMS 98) 5 4) Chlamydia trachomatis 2) Comeal dystrophy) Keratoconus (5) Fascicular ulcer is seen in - (QIPMER 91) \ ¢) Keratoglobus 4) Pater as anomaly —. a) Phlyctenularkeratitis b) Riboflavin deficiency (210) Penetrating keratoptasty is feast effective in- J hay) zim 4) HSV keratitis a) Prerygium (IPMER 99) (/ ‘Thickness of cornea is measured by -(J/PMER 91) ) Keratoconus 4) Keratometer ) Pachymeter ©) Bullous keratopathy c) Tonometer 4) Aesthesionmeter 4) Comeal dystrophy 184)b 185)bd 186)ad 187T}e 18B)e 189)bed 190)a 191d 192) 193)a_194)None__195)e196)a 197) 198)d 199)c 200)None 2012 202}c 23}d 204}e 205ja 206)a_207)b 208)a 209)a 210)a a4.10 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES VOL-IIT 211. Asoftcontactlens wearer developed pain and itching 222, Rx of dendritic uleer- (PGI 03) of the eye and showed a reticular pattern on the a) Acyclovir b)Idoxuridine corneal epithelium the eause could be - (Orissa 98) 6) Steroid @) Tetracycline ) Comeal dystrophy 'b) Acanthamoeba ) Trychophyton canis 7 ¢) Pseudomonas 4) Recurrent 223, Herpes zoster ophthalmaticus is a predicator fa) Microscopy of corneal ulcer showed branching of- (PGI 03) / septate hyphae. The probable diagnosis(A/MS 2K) a) Leukemia b) Lymphoma ) Candida 'b) Mucor mycosis HIV 4) Disseminated. ©) Aspergillus 6) Histoplasma ©) Metastasis 213. Interstitial keratitis in an 8-year old girl can occur 224, Trueabout Keratocomus- (PGI 04) in all of the following conditions except-(UPSC 96) a) Tcurvature of comea —_b) Astigmatism a) Tuberculosis b) Leprosy, c) K-Fring cornea d) Thick comea ) Filaria ) Syphilis ©) Soft contact Jens used 214, Commonest cause of keratitis in soft contact lens 225, Thining of cornea occurs in - (uPsc 02) users is - PGI 98) 2) Megalocomea ) Acanthamoeba ) Staph aureus ) Bullous keratopathy ©) Naegleria 4) Herpes ©) Endothelial dystrophy 215. Brown skin cornea is seen in ~ (PGI 9%) d) Keratoconus Se meee Gy) Remet erp tye reat to :) Chaleosis 4) Argyrosis —~ areal EXCEPT- (St Johns 03) (6. Corneal epithelium is composed of- (PGI OL) a) Type of lesion b) Comeal anaesthesia 2) Stratified keratinzed epithelium ©) Iridocyclitis ) Purulent discharge +b) Stratified non-keratinized epithelium 227. Cornea melts without inflammation in which ©) Columnar epithelium condition- (IN 03) d) Pseudostratified epithelium @) Gout b) Sarcoidosis ©) Transitional epithelium ©) Keratomalacia 4) Rheumatoid arthritis 217. Which ofthe following s trae of dendritic uloer- 228. A patient using contact lens develops corneal a) Caused by Herpes simplex virus (PGI 01) infection. Laboratory diagnosis af acanthomoeba b) Topics! corticosteroid given suppresses the keratitis was established. The following is the best symptoms drug for treatment- (aI03) ¢) Oral acyclovir is effective in treatment a) Propamidine 4) Topical acyclovir is effective in treatment b) Neosporine ©) Heals spontaneously €) Ketoconazole 218, Treatmest for photophthaimia- (PGI 01) 4) Polyhexamethylene biguanide 4) Flush with saline 229. The thickwess of cornea is measured by b) Apply pad and bandage using - (UPSC 04) c) Topical antibiotics . ~ a) Schiotz tonometer b) Keratometer 4) Steroid eye drops. ©) Pachymeter 4d) Aesthesiometer 1) Reassurance @ ‘Which ofthe following will be the mast important |Keratomalacia is associated with - (PGI 01) adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal conrneal ulcer - /a) Measles b) Mumps ) Atropine sulphate eye ointment (alo) ¢) Rubella @) Diarthoea ») Dexamethasone eye drops €) Chicken pox ©) Philocarpine eye drops 220, Treatment of photophthalmia- (Patol) 4) Lignocaine eye drops ) Flush with saline ») Apply pad and bradage ©) Topical antibiotics, 4) Steroid drops ©) Re-assurance ‘True about keratoconus- 1) Munson sign seen ») Protrusion of anterior comea ©) Protrusion of posterior comea Fleisher’ sign positive 221. 2b 212)¢ 213)e 23)All WA)abe W5)d Wd Whe 28)d 29) 231. fed 214)a_215)All 216) 217)ad 218) bce 230) 0.1 t0 0.2 min nebular corneal opacity is treated by - a) Penetrating keratometry (aus) b) Lamellar keratectoniy- ©) Enucleation ¢) Evisceration Corneal layer responsible for deturgeseence- ) Bowman’s membrane (MAHE 05) ) Endotnetium ©) Collagen type-I 4) Keratiin sulphate 219)ad 20)bee Byb 22) 221)abd 22)abat OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-LIT Aves) Corneal curvature is quantified by (PO une 05) 243, Features of fangat ulcer - (PGI Sune 06) ) Keratometry ») Retineseopy 2) Symptoms more than signs ©) Ophthalmoscopy 4) Slit lamp b) Dry ulcer ¢) Pachymetry ) Diffuse comeal edema 234, Cifof vita’ deficiency - (PGI June 05) @) Hyphated margins 2) Color blincness ) Bitot’s spot ©) Xerophthatmia 4) Corneal opacity SCLERA ©) Accommodation defects 235. The corneal transparency is maintained by 244, Comménest cause of posterior staphyfoma is- a) Keratocytes (AIIMS NOV 05) 2) Glaucoma) Retinal detachment (71 90) ) Bowman's membrane ©) Iridocyclitis _) High myopia ¢) Descement’s membrane 245, Blue sclera is seen in - 4) Endothelium 2) Alkaptonuria ‘Which of the following statement i true regarding ') Osteogenesis imperfecta Acanthamoeba keratitis - (A105) €) Ehler ~ Danios syndrome 4) For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal 4) Kawasaki syndrome \ scraping should be cultured on a nutri ! pe Marien $22" VEAL TRA\ 'b The causative agent, Acanthamoeba isa helminth : ose norma ea sol 246, Anterior uveitis is seen in~ (PG188) ©) Kerattis due to Acanthamoeba is not seen in the ) Rheumatoid arthrt immunocompromised host. aie a 44) Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a. human 6) Ankylosing spondylitis host forthe completion ofits life -eycle. @) Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis 237, In human cornea} cransplantation, the donor tissue ©) all of the above ; es (AIMS May 05) 247, Insecondary glaucoma with uveitis, the following 4) Synthetic polymer is not used - (PG189) 'b) Donated human cadaver eyes a) Atropine 6) Pilocarpine ©) Donated eyes from live human beings ©) Epinephrine 4) Phenylephrine <6) Monkey eyes 248. Irisbombe occurs in~ /AIIMS 89) (238.) Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated a) ring symechia ») anterior synechia be (Al 06) ) posterior synechia dll 2) Negus neve 249, Sympathetic ophthalmie is due to injury ») Facial nerve oS (IPMER 90) ©) Trigeminal nerve 2) Optic nerve ») Iris and ciliary body 4) Glossopharyngeal netve ©) Comea 4) Lens 239, Which of the following is the drug of choice for 250. Treatment of uveitis with raised intra ocular treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous pensions) (AJIMS 91) fungi? (A106) a) Timolol )Pitocarpine : 2) Itraconazole b) Natamyein ©) Atropine 4) Glutocorticoids A. o Nystatin Fluconazole 251. The earliest sympton in sympathetic ophehatmitis 240), Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is ae sand a ‘\_) recessive condition ? (AI 06) Ky Feed Pieris distant vision 2) Latt ih phobia iplopia Skate eesconhy | Grama dytophy a, Drag afeholee for acutelrdoryelitsix(4/%S92) 1, Band shaped keratopathy is caused by-(41/M5 06) a) Steroids b) Acetazolamide 2) Amyloid ‘byCaleiumn ©) Atropine 4) Antibiotics . e) Monopolysaccharide d) Lipid 253. Als the drugs are used in acute anterior uveitis fa Features of vernat keratitis are- (PGiSune 06) ae Da (All india 95) a) Papillary hypertrophy a) Pilocarpine tropine ®) Foliclar hypertrophy «) Timoll 4) Proponolol ©) Herbert’ pts 254, Panuveiti involves- (AMU 95) 4) Trantra’s Spot a) Iris ___b)Choroid «Ciliary congestion. ©) Iris, ciliary body, choriod _d) None 233)a BA)bed 235d 236)d 237) 23Be 239) 2c Alb rad 243) 244)d She 246Je UN 2a 2b 2Wo}c 2ijc 2W2He 23a 2SA)e —OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-LIT 258. 256. 287. 258. 259, 260. 261. 262. 263. 264, 268, ‘The correct statement regarding the duration after which sympathetic ophthalmitis develops is- 1) 3wks 12wks after trauma’ (CUPGEE 96) ‘) Within 1wk ©) After 2 months 4) Typically at 10 days ‘One of the most common complication of iridoeyeitis is - (Karnat 96) 8) Scleritis ) Secondary glaucoma ©) Band shaped Kertopathy 4) Comeal ulcer Earliest sign of sympathetic opthatmiais- a) Circumcomeal congestion (AIMS 97) * ) Retrolental cells & flare 6) Vitreous detachment @) Aqueous flare First sign of sympathetic ophthalmitisis- (4197) a) Keratic precipitates b) Microsis 6) Acquoes fare @)Retrolental flare In sympathetic ophthalmitis injury i to the- 2) is byRetina —(PGI97) 6) Ciliary body 4) Sclera ‘A severe iridocycitis characterised by the fortnation ‘of granulomatous lesion opthalmia nodosa) occurs in 4. 98) 2) Chaleosis ) Granulomatous uveitis €) Siderosisbulbi 4) Penetration of caterpillar hair inside the eye. Acute anterior uveitis causes all except-(AIIMS 98) ) Macular oedema b) Cataract «) Glaucoma 4) Retinal detachment the ideal drug for a iguvetis- (AIMS 2K) ) Pilocarpine 'b) Lanatoprost ©) Epinephrine 4) Atropine Koeppe’s & Busaca’s nodules are characteristic of (JIPMER 2002) 8) Granulomatous uveitis 'b) Non granulomatous uveitis 6) Residual weitis 4) Recurrent uveitis, Bilateral anterior uveitis with skin dipigmentation is seen in - (AIMS 98) 8) Vogt-Kayanagi-Harada syndrome ») Fabry’s disease ¢) Alport’s disease ) Wemberg disease ‘Sympathetic ophthalmitis results dueto- (PGI97) 4) Penetrating injury of ciliary body 266. 267. 268, 269. 270. 2m. 272, 273. 274, 278. 276. In sympathetic ophthalmitis, earliest sign is- (PGI98) a) KP b) Retrolental flare ©) Aquous flare 4) Hypopion ‘Which should not be used in raised 1OT associated with uvetis- (PG199) a) Timolol by Pilocarpine ©) Artopine 4) Acetazolamide All are seen in ae. iridoeyeltis exeept -(PGI 2000) 2) Pain ') Ciliary congestion ©) Mucopurulent discharge 4) Small pu ‘The investigation of anterior uveitis for a 25 years old boy are~ (PGI 03) a) HLAB,, ) X-ray Sacroiliac joint ©) TORCH agent d) USG abdomen ©) ELSIA for HIV Uveitis is caused by - (PGI 04) a) TB. ) Staphylococcus «) Streptococcus 4) Klebsiella ©) EGoli Uveitisis seem in all except - (cMcosy a) Leprosy 'b) Ankylosing spondylitis ©) Sarcoidosis d) Reiter’s syndrome All the following are true regarding acute anterior uveitis in ankylosing spondylitis EXCEPT - a) More common in female (SGPGI05) ) Recurrent attacks occur ©) Fibrous reaction in anterior chambers 4) Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis’ of the sacroiliac joints Drug of choice for Herpes simplex Enophthalmitis is- (UPSC 05) a) Acycloy b) Vidarabine ©) Amantidine 4) Interferon Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi? (A106) 4) The intraocular pressure is increased ») Calcification of the lens is common ©) Sclera is thickened 4d) Size of the globe is reduced ‘The laser procedure, most often used for treating is neovascularization,is- (AUMS 06) 8) Goniophotocoagulation ») Laser trabeculoplasty ©) Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP) 4) Laser iridoplasty Which of the following is not prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma ? (A1/MS 06) a) Presence of retinal detachment b) Uveitis b) Size of the tumor ©) Glaucoma ©) Cytology of the tumor cells 4) Trachoma d) Presence of extraocular extension 255)a 256)b 257)b 258)a 269)abce 270)ab,c 259) 260)d 261)a 262)d 263)a 271)None 272)a 273)a 274)a 275)c 264) 265)a 266)a 267) 268)e 276)a = aS N 413 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-LIT 277, Mutton fat keratic precipitate and Busacca’s nodules is seen in - (APPGO06) 8) Granulomatous uveitis b) Non-granulomatous uveitis ©) Posterior uveitis 6) Choroiditis Function of Irisis all except ? a) Regulation of size of pupil ») Incteased depth of focus ©) Nuttition to eye ball 4) Absorption of extra amount of light GLAUCOMA 279, 278. (Manipal 06) (A188) b) 10t0 15 mmHg )221025 mm Hg correct— (AIMS 80) ‘The normal intraocular tension is— 8) 810 10mm Hg ©) 15t022mm Hg Regarding Bupthalmos, whi ) Boys affected more than girls ) Both eyes involved ©) Autosomal recessive in nature 4) Trabeculotomy is the treatment of choice 2) Allare correct In patient with acute glaucoma the prophylactic treatment for the other eye is- (A188) 4) Peripheraliridectomy —_b) Scheie’s operation ©) Anterior sclerotomy 4) Iridenclesisis, 280, 289. Coloured haloes are found in all except - a) Pigmentary glaucoma (AIMS 89) ») Acute angle closure glaucoma ©) Cataract 4) Uveitis 290. Medical treatement of glaucoma is by which of the following drags~ (A191) a) Atropine ) Pilocarpine ©) Steroids 4) None 291. The treatment of malignant glaucoma is-(ipmer 91) 8) Pilocarpine 'b) Cyclocryotherapy ©) Vitreous aspiration _d) Trabeculotomy 292. ‘Treatement of subacuteglaucoma-_(AIIMS91) 8) Trabeculectomy b) Laser Therapy ©) Peripheral Iridectomy _d) Timolol (65) Pann ata acest nt 2) Retrobulbar Injection of alcohol (Jipmer 92) b) Analgesics - ©) Trabeculotomy ) Miotics 294. Secondary glaucoma following corneal perforation isdueto- Cipmer 92) 4) Anterior synechiae formation ') Peripheral synechiae ©) Intraocutar hemorhage 4) Angle disruption 295. Frequent change of presbyopic glasses isan early 282. Ina patient predisposed to glaucoma, the drug symptoms of- (AIMS 92) Chis i) 2) Senile cataract 2) Pilearpine &) Atropine ) After cataract, €) Ecothiopate 4) Timolol ©) Open angle glaucoma 283. Coloured haloesarenotseen with- (4189) ), ) Closed angle glaucoma 2) Accommodation In acute congestive glaucoma, best prophylaxis aeeeee ee I icetivomrareis® C193) ¢) Steroid induced glaucoma 2) Laser Iridotomy 4) Phakogetic glaucoma : ) Topical steroids 284, Drugs used in glaucoma - (@Po18s) «) Trabeculectomy 2) Timoll ') Atropine 4) Surgial peripheral Iidectomy ¢) Levobunolol 4) Cartelol 297. Ratio of incidence of open angle to closed angle 285. Treatment of malignant glaucomais- (PGI88) glaucoma is- (PG193) b) Topica pilocarpine au a2 4) Vitreous aspiration 234 dail 286, Theearliestchangein glaucomais- (PG183) 298. 100 day glaucoma is seen in- (PGI 78, Dethi 92) 2) Papilloedema ‘by Hazy comea 8) Central retinal Artery occlusion «) Baring ofthe blind spot.) Sickle scotoma ') Central retinal vein occlusion 287, Nevovascualrglaucomaisseenin- (PG190) ©) Neovascular glaucoma 2) Diabetes mellius Bb) Hypertension 4) Steroid induced glaucoma ©) CRAO acrvo (/299)) The technique of oniotomy includesallexcept- 288, "Secondary glaucoma is seen in all except -(7N'90) Wi, 8) Anterior chamber airinjection (AIIMS 80) 2) Intraocular lens implantation 1) Use of contact lens ») Epidemic dropsy 6) Dilatation ofthe pupil «) WO 4) Diamox preoperatively 4) Iersttial ke 6) Insertion of knife posterior to end of Deseement’s membrane 2a 28) Whe Whe 2l)a 28) 2Wi)ac Wacd 25)acd 286)e 2Wacd 288d 289)d 2b 2W1)e 292)e 293)a-294)a_295)e 296)a_ 297)d 298) 299)e.44 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIL 300, Pathology in open angle glaucoma is - (Kerala 94) 311. Drug of choice in angle closure glaucoma is- 4) Sclerosis of trabecular mesh work a) Pilocarpine —b) Adrenaline (AIMS 98) ») Obliteration or thrombosis of angular vein ©) Timolol 4) Phenylephrine 6) Increased production of aqueous humor 4) Dislocation of lens Complication of operation for malignant glaucoma is— (Kerala 95) a) Retinal detachment _b) Vitreous prolapse ©) Cataract 4) Staphyloma 302, Treatment of choice in angle closure glaucoma is- 8) Pilocarpine byTimolo! (4196) ©) Adrenaline Physostigmine 303, Ina young myopic with chronic simple glaucoma, the drug of choice is- (Delhi 96). 8) Pilocarpine b) 1% epinephrine «) timolol 46) betoxolol haemolytic glaucoma the mecha xcept- (PG195) a) Siderosis of trabeculae ) Deposition of haemosiderin ©) RBC clogging the trabecafae 4) Inflammation 305, The most reliable provocative test for angle closure glaucoma - (AIMS 95) a) Homatropine myératc test ) Mydriatic~ miotic test ) Water drinking test ~) ) Dark room test 346.) Barliest manifestation of chronie simple glaucoma- “\ 4) Scotoma in bjerrum’sarea (AIMS 97) ) Arcuate scotoma +) Seidels Scotoma 4) Vertical step 347.) Treatment of choice for the other eye in open angle glaueéma - (Par97) 2) Trabeculectomy 5 b) Laser trabeculoplasty ©) Peripheral iridectomy, 1) Laser iridotomy 306: \Puplisareanid dilated and fixed in- (AIMS 97) 3) Acute congestive glaucoma °b) Chronic congestive glaucoma ©) POAG 4) Closed angle glaucoma 309, History ofcoloured haloes is present in allexcept- 2) Mucupurulent conjuctivitis (M4 98) » Steroid induced glaucoma ©) Phacogenic glauconta 4) Closed angle glaucoma 310, Shape of pupilin glaucoma is- (ROHTAK 97) 312, Cause for coloured haloes in angle closure glaucoma (IN 99) 4) Fluid entry into comea ») Lenticular opacities ¢) Retinal detachment 4) Vitreous hemorrhage 13. ) Treatment of choice for congenital glaucoma with corneal ulcer - (CUPGEE 99) 2) Trabeculotomy b) Goniotomy ©) Miotics 4) Ste 314, AO yearsold lady presented witha history of seeing coloured haloesin the evening, On examintaion, her intraocular pressure was normal. The diagnosis (AIMS 99) 2) Prodormal stage of acute congestive glaucoma ) Acute attack of acute congestive glaucoma €) Incipient stage of chronic congestive glaucoma Which of the following type of senile cataracts is the most notorious to produce glaucoma - 4) Incipient cataract (AIMS 2K) ») Lamellar cataract ©) Hypermanure Morgan 4) intumescent cataract cataract 316, All of the following anatomical changes will predispose to primary except a) Small comea b) Flat comea ©) Anterior chamber shallow le closure glaucoma (AIMS 2K) (CZ) © Short axial length of eye ball 17.) In a hypertensive patient with glaucoma which of the following is not used - (AIMS 2K) 4) Dipivefrine 'b) Beta blockers, ©) Alpha agonist (>) @) Laser trabeculoplasty a! pes) 318) Pain while sitting in cinema, in eye is seen in - a Sc) Acute angle open glaucoma & a) 3) Uwe is) a) Acute angle closure glaucoma» (DNB 2001) 'b} Chronic angle closure glaucoma ‘Which type of tonometer is best for measuring 1OT- a) Schiotztonometer (Kerala 01) ») Applantation tonometer (0) Pulse air tonometer 4) Intendation tonometer ‘Argon laser trabeculoplasty is used in- a) Normal ) Constricted 8) Closed angle glaucoma GIPMER 02) ©) Horizontally oval 4) Vertically oval ») Primary open glaucoma 6) Imegular 6} Neovascular glaucoma 4) Aphakic glaucoma 300)a 301)a 302) 303)¢ © 304)d 305)d_306)a_307)b 308)a 309) 310)d 311)a 312)a 313)a 314)a 315)d 316)b 327)None 318)2 319) 320)bals OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT 321, The following anti glaucoma drug increases 333, Inangle-closure glaucoma, treatment given tothe uveoscteratoutflow - (IIPMER 2002) fellow eyeis- (PGI 02) 2) Latanoprost ») Timolot 4) Pitocarpine eyedrops 4) Atropine ¢) Pilocarpine 4) Acetazolamide ¢) LASERiridectomy __d) Trabeculoptasty 322, Which one of the following procedures is most ¢) Physostigmine eyedrops likely to increase intraocular pressure of glaucoma 334, Trueabout Buphthalmos- (Pal 04) patient- (AIIMS 86) 2) Large comea b) Hab’ stra 2) Use of atropine ¢) Shallow AC Glaucoma ) Decreased pressure in jugular vein 2. 6) Medical treatment helps ©) High does of vitamin C & Topical beta blocker i the drug of choice of - 4) Dark environment 2) Angle closure glaucoma (Karnataka 03) ©) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. ») Open angle glaucoma Prophylactic peripheral iridectomy is done in - ©) Hypopyon comeat ulcer + a) Narrow angle glaucoma (@cr97) 4) Ac granulomatous uveitis ) Ac. Congestive glaucoma 336. Congenital glaucoma presentas- (71V03) ©) Congenital glaucoma 2) Microopthalmos ) Photophobia 4) Secondary glaucoma jp ©) Leveovia white reflex) d) Pain 324, Imacute congestive giaucoma, pupil is- (PG/97) (3 Most ideal drug in open angle glaucoma with 2) Oval and horizontal —_b) Oval and vertical myopia . (UPSC04) «) Cireular 4) Slit like 2) 2%pilocarpine ) 10%6 phenylephrine except- (Pat 97; & In a hypertensive patient with glaucoma which 4) Nerve fibre atrophy _b) Peripheral halo of the followingis not used (Jipmer 04) «) Vertical eup 4) Horizontal cup 2) Dipivetrine 326. In buphathalmos, lens is- (PGI 98) ») ocblocker 2) Anteropost flat by) Small 6) Alpha agonist 6) Large €) None of the above 4) Laser Trabeculoplasty G1) Intepiansscenareateey P6795 39%. Thetretment choc ofan acons 8) Subluxated lens b) Large comea is- . (SGPGr05) ¢) Smell comea <@) Big eyeball 2) Parasympathomimetic drugs 328, Malignant glaucoma is sen in (PGI 99) )Iridectomy 2) Malignancy 6) Phacoanaphylaetic ») After surgery for cataract of glaucoma 4) Phacotoxie ¢) Trauma 340. True about acute angle closure glaucoma <(PG703) Z\ 9 Thrombosis 4) Pupilvetically oval) Increased LO.P (ey Photophobia in an infant could de due to-(PG/ 99) ©) AC. deep 4) AC. shallow 8) Buphthalmos byLid coloboma «) Painful eye c) Cataract 4) Any ofthe above 341. A.35 year old female comes to the eye casualty rstsign seen in open angle glaucoma * With history of severe eye pain, redness and 2) Areuate scotoma (PGI 2000) diniinution of vision. On examination the visual ») Extension above blind spot acuity is 6/60, there is cireumcorneal congestion, ©) Roene’s nasal step corneal oedema and a shallow anterior chamber, €) Siedelsscotoma ‘Which ofthe following is the best drug of choice- 331. Ryofprimary open angle glaucoma - 2) Atropine ointment (AIMS NOV 05) 2) Timolol maleate ») LV. Mannitol ) Atropine ©) Ciprofloxacin eye drops ©) Acctazolamide @) Besamethasone eye drops ~) 4) Prostagladin anaiogue 342, Which of the following drugs is contraindicated /332,) Haab's striae are seen in - (a1 02) ina patient with history of sulfa allergy presenting a) Angle-losure glaucoma with an acute attack of angle closure ») Infantile glaucoma glaucoma (AIMS NOV 03) 6) Stargardt disease 2) Giycerol b)Acetazolamide 4) Diseiform keratitis ©) Mannitol @) Latanoprost ©) Leber's disease 321)ae 322)d 323)b 335)b 336)b337)c 324)b 325) 32a 327)c 328) 329)a 330)b 331)acd 332)b 333)¢ 334)abd +, 338)a 339) 340)abde 341) 342)OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT 416 343, Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness ? (A106) a) Latanoprost b) Timoto! 6) Brimoniing 4) Dorzolamide 344. Which ofthe following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle giaucoma? (4/06) 8) Latanoprost ’)Brimonidine ©) Acetazolamide @)Dorzolamide LENS 345. Snow flake cataract is seem in -(AIIMS 86, AI 88) a) Diabetes, ) Galactosaemia ‘a »\o) Trauma 4) Rubella : i46. \Which of the following is not correct about the cataract in cases of galactosemia -(A//MS 80, 85) 4) It is most often central ») Itis zonular or lamellar «) Involve the embryonal and foetal nuclei 6) Ispolar ©) Treatmer lactose free diet 347, Ideal site for intraoceutar lens implantation is- a) Anterior tothe pupil (AIMS 87) ) Behind the comea 6) In the lens capsule 77d) Behind the lens capsule . Lens capsuleis thinnest at the- (AIMS 87) _/a) Centre anteriorly b) Laterally ©) Superior pole 4) Posteriorly 349, Development cataract is sen in- (PGI87) a) Rubella b) Galactosemia ©) Mongolian idioey 4) Cretinism : ) All 350. Unilateral aphakia can be corrected by-(PGI87) a) Spectacles ) Contact lens ©) Tutra cular implants) Keratophakia ©) Bpikeratophakia 351. What is chaleosis - (AIMS 86, AI88) 4) Reaction due to copper of foreign body in the ) Reaction due to time ©) Type of cataract 4) Blood staining of the comea 352. The lens derives its nutrition from the - ) Aqueous (PGI 86, Al 88) ») Form the sclera 6) Vitreous 4) None of the above (53. )Rosette cataract isseen due to- (PGI 86, 4/88) 355, Vision is diminished in day light in which type of cataract (PGI88) a) Peripheral b) Central ) Hypermature 4) Concussion 356, Cataract isseen with - (PGI88) ) Galactosemia ')Congential rubella ©) Toxoplasmosis 4) Allofthe above 387. Zonular cataractis- (PG188) ) Bilateral ) Stationary ¢) Autosomal dominant 4) Association with hypocalcemia 358. ‘True diabetic cataractare- (PGI 84) 4) Seen in young patients : ») Seen in elderly patients mostly ©) Snow flake cataract 4) Zonular cataract ‘The commonest type of cataract in children : (PGI 84) a) Snow flake cataract) Lamellar cataract. ©) Morgagnian catact _—_d) Sunflower eataract 360, Contact lenses are made out of- (PGI 84) a) HEMA, b)PGA ©) Teflon PMMA. (63), The commonest pe of cataract in adults is- (PGI 84) a) Nuclear cataract b) Cortical cataract ©) Morgagnian cataract d) None of the above ‘The side effects of lens implant surgery is ) Vitreous hemmorthage b)Olaucoma (PGI 83) & ©) Iridocyettis €) Panophthalmits & Cataract is associated with- (P6188) 2) Pseudo muscular hyperophy b) Myotonia congenita «) Myotonie dysiophy SE Caines ') Primary pulmonary hypertension b) Hypoparathyroidism ©) IDDM 4) Myotonie dystrophy (AIMS 89) 366, Intraocular len is contraindicated in - 2) Young diabetics“ (UIPMER 90) &) One eyed 6) Overt comeal dystrophy 4) All ofthe above &) Oil drop cataract is séen in - (Korale 90) a) Hunters syndrome b) Galactosemia 79) Steroid therapy Rubella 67. Rider’s cararact is seen in- 2) Trauma ') Copper foreign body aig) ©) Diabetic 4) Hyperparathyroidism C7 4) Blue dot cataract & ‘Sun flower catacract is seen in - (AIIMS 86) a) Trauma 'b) Chaleosis . c) Anterior capsular cataract c) Diabetes d) Hyperthyroidism d) Coronary cataract 343)e 3d) 34S)a_346)d_34)e 348)d_MD)e SSO)AN 351)a_352)a_353)a_35H)b 355) 356)d 357)All 358)ac 359) 360)ad 361)b 362)c>b 363)c 364) 365) 366) 367) : iis asstOPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIt 368. Lens develops from (91) 8) Mesoderm b)Eetodenm c) Endoderm 4) Any of the above 369, The latest technique in cataract surgery in using - (Kerala 91) Qh Meroscope Daser » ©) UV light DIR rays (y’ 310. Which of the following is a feature of Zonular cataract (HPAHER 91) 2) No loss of vision +) Pigmented cataract 6) Riders <8) Hypermaturity Which isnot feature of complicated cataract 2) Sutra invironment (AIIMS 91) 1) Axial spread «) Polychromatic lustre i (ZX ® Originates from posterior contex [2) Mentcommon typeof eatratfloving ain ) is (693) 4) Posterior subcapsular 6) Anterior subcapsular 6) Teardrop cataract 4) Diffuse cataract 373. Which isnot associated with zonularcataract= a) Diabetes B)IUGR. (PGI 93) ©) Rickets Dental abnormalities 374, Commonest indication of intraocular implant is (Delhi 93) 2) Diabetic cataract ') Unilateral cataract c) Complicatedeataract_d) Dislocation of ens 375, Lens hasa respiratory quotient of -(A//MS80,83) al Ho6 ) 07 409 376. Polychromatic luster i sen in-(PGi 80, Delhi 92) a) Complicated cataract, ») Diabetes mellitus ©) Post irradiation cataract 2D Consevital cataract . 677.) A baby with bitaterat complete cataracts - \ a) Ig best treated by aspiration (PGI80, 81) of the first cataract at about 4 months by Is best treated by repeated needlings of the frst lens at about 9 months ©) Should ideally have one eye left untouched for some years. ) May contain viable vim in the Jens if there has been maternal rubella Advantage of extracapsular extraction aver intracapsular extraction include- (PGI80, 84) a) Less comeat endothetiat cell foss ») Less vitreous loss ©) Better corrected snellen vistal acudity in ‘uncomplicated cases ©) Lower incidence of cystoid macular oedema ¢) Faster surgical procedure 378. 368)b 369)b 370)e 382)¢ 383)e 31l)a 37)a 373)a pe 379, 381, 382, 386, 389, 390, 374) 375)a 3760 384) 385)d_ 386)ad 387)d 388)b 389)a Lens develop from - (Kerala 94) 2) Coelomic epithelium —_)Endoderm ©) Surface ectoderm ) Mesoderm Modern criteria for cataract operation is IPMER 95) a) Maturation of cataract) Loss of vision ©) Complications d) Al of the above (Cataract in a new born is~ (Kerala 95) a) Zonuiar b)Nuclear ©) Snow flake 4) Cortical Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of- 2) Glucose b) Galactose (N95) ©) Sorbitol 4) Fructose Vossius ring 1) Chaleosi ») Siderosis ) Lens concussion 4) Pseudomonas infection Steroid cataractis- a) Anterior polar —_b) Posterior subcapsular ©) Nuclear 4) Zonular Soft contact lens leads to all of following problem except- (Delhi 96) 4) Acanthamoeba keratitis +) Comeal vascularization ©) Papiliae formation ) Follieutosis Cause of early onset cataract - a) Diabetes metfitus b) Smoking, ©) Hypertension 4) Recurrent episodes of diarrhoea « Cataract is responsible for what percentage of seen in - (4196) (A196) (Deihi 96) blindness in india (Deli 95) a) 6% 155% ©) 50% d) 75% Most common complication of extracapsular cataract surgery is- PGIIS, a) Retinal detachment +) Opacifiction of posterior capsule €) Vitreous haemorrhage 4) None Dislocation of lens is seen in - (PGI 95) a) Retinoblastoma) Medulloblastoma ©) Neuroblsatoma _d) None of the above ‘Method followed to decrease post-op infection in cataract surgery (PGI 96) ) Pre-op antbiot ») Intra op amtibioties ©) Post op subconjuctival gentamicin injection 4) Post op IV antibiotics 377) 378)bd 379)c 380) 381)a 390)e4.18 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-LIT extraction except- (P6197) a) Immature cataract ‘b) Subluxated and dislocated lens ©) Mature catarectin the age group of 30-45 yrs ) Mature cataract in age group above 45 yrs. 401. Commonest typeof cataract a) Blue dot ) Zonular ©) Cupuliform 8 Cuneiform Dislocation of lens is seen in - a) Trachoma ©) Homocystinur (PGI 98) (PGI 98) ») Diabetes mellitus 4) Tumer's syndrome 392, Treatmentofcongenitaleataract-(PG197) 403. ‘All are indications of intracapsular cataract 2) Needing and aspiration extraction except 6198) ) Extracapsular extraction 4) Mature cataract in age group above 45 years 6) Intacapsulr extraction b) Immature cataract 4) Cryotherapy 6) Subluxated and dislocated lens 393. Uniocular polyopia is seen in which stage of }) Mature cataract in age group of 30-45 years cataract~ (AP 97) (404. /Christmas tree cataract is seen in- (PGI 99) 2) Incipient ) Itumescent > 4) Down's syndrome —-b) Rubella ) Mature 4) Hypermature ©) Myotonie dystrophy d) Diabetes 394. Andy presents with history of photophobia, red 405. Complications of soft contact lens area/e- ness of the eye and watering.She is wearing soft 4) Giant papillary conjunctivitis contact lens. Her case was identified to be one of 1 Follculosis extended wear syndrome.The most appropriate «) Comeal vascularization managements (IIMS 2K) 4) Comeal erosion 2) Prescribe another contact lens «) Acanthomeba keratt ®) Removed the lens and send culture from the lens «406. Common complications of 1OL lens are 6) Give antibiotics and cyclopegics except (PGI 2000) 4) Remove contact lens for 24 hrs 2) Comeal dystrophy) Glaucoma 395, Inpatient, highest visual morbidity is seen i 6) Anisocoria @) Macular edema 2) Nuslear cataract (IPMER 2001) 407. Leaving the capsule behind ineataract surgery is b)Intumescem cataract advantageous because t- aro) ¢) Posterior subcapsular 2) Prevents cystoid macular edema 4) Anterior subcapsular cataract ) Decreases endothelial damage 396. Which of the following is not associated with ¢) Progressively improves vision phen (PSC) €) Decreases chance of retinal detachement Santeria «) Desreases cates of endo rolonged corticosteroid th 408. Safective complication in eutaract operation can A pena etre wee bedecraty PGI 01) ae ; b)Intracamarel instillation of antibiotics at the end 97) Subluxation ofthe lens is seen in all accept - ) 4) Martan's syndrome (Kerala 97) of the operation he ee «) Intraoperative antibiotics ie fae 4) Preoperative antibiotics «) Lowe syndrome «) Post operative oral antibiotics 4) Homocystinuria 409. Cataractiscaused by allexcept- (PGI 01) 398, Intraocular lens has advantage over glassesin- Ultaviokeraaaien to MARL a) Better field of vision @a157) 6) Infared radiation —_d) Microwaveradiaton ) Beter accommodation «) Ionizing radiation 6) Better under water vision for swimmer 410. ‘Beststefor 1OL implantation - eeaton) {No chromatic abberation 2) RIS ') Capsular bag 6) Allof the above 6) Ant, chamber 4) Suleus 398, Most common eataractin new born s- (PGI 98) ©) Pupillary area = a) Zonular ) Morganism 411. In preoperative assessment of cataract patient 6) Ant polar a) Post. polar following isto bedone- (Pci 03) 4) Good vision in dim light and elumsey in day lights 2) Axial ength of comes seen in= (P6198) ) Comeal thickness 2) Cortical cataract) Morgagnian catarct ¢) Keratometry c) Nuclearestaract_d) Steroid induced cataract 4) Thickness ofthe lense ¢) Comeal curvature 39l)e 392)a 393)a 384) 39S)c 396) 397) 398)e 389)a Ae 40I)a 02)\e 403) 404)e 405) 406}e -407)abde 408)ad 409) 410)b 411)ce419 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IT 412, Modern FOLis made up of - (PGt 03) ©) The best age to operate him to get the best visual 4) Acrylic acid ») PMMA + results is four years PML 4) Silicon 4) The eye is already lost, oly cosmetic corrections ©) Glass is required 413, Cataract isevaluated by- (PGI 03) 422, A soft contact lens user present to you with p 4) Gonioscopy ») Tonometry watering, photophobia and a white spot in the €) Stereoaquity 4) Contrast centre of cornea. What will be your initia! {\ © Clour vision ‘management~ (AIMS 04) (ina. \ Treatment of paciatriceataract- (PG104 a) Start frequent antibiotic eye drops after Nes 2) Needle aspiration discontinuing the contact lens ) Discission ») Pad and bandage the eye for 12 hours ©) Intra-ocular lens implentation ©) Frequent instillation of artificial tears 4) Lensectomy 4) Topical non steriodal anti inflammatory drugs ©) Phacoemulsification (NSAIDS) 415; Commonest cause ofcataract- (PGI 04) 423, A.5Syear old patient complains of decreased distance 2) Hereditary »)DM vision. However, now he does not require his near ) Trauma 4) Age related ‘lasses for near work. The most likely eause :) e) Radiation a) Posterior subcapsular cataract. (A/IMS NOV.05) (416) What is the most important complication of ) Zonular cataract / Anterior Chamber fenses - (Kerala 03) c) Nuclear sclerosis 4) Glaveoma ') Hyphaema 4) Anterior subcapsular cataract ©) Subluxation 4) Retinal detachment wiv laser is used in the management of after 417, Second sight phenomenon isseenin- (703) cataracts- (AIISS May 05) a) Nuclear cataract ') Cortical cataract a) Argon b) Krypton 6) Senilecataract 4) ridocyclitis ©) NEYAG Excimer 418, A child has got a congenita} cataract involving 425, Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxations of ‘the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated - a) Immediately (4103) ) At2 months of age ¢) At | year of age when the globe becomes normal sized 4) After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital tite Fens is seen in - (A106) 1) Marfan’s syndrome _b) Homocystinuria, ©) Hyperinsulinemia 4) Ocular trauma In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery - (AI 06) a) Fuch’s heterochromic cyclti Knee comes nol ») Juvenile rheumatopid arthritis 9, | Recovery in eataract surgery is fastest with which ©) Psoriatic arthritis (TY ofthe following - (Mahara 02) 4) Reiter’s syndrome a) CE WECCE* 427. Which of the following is the most important ©) Phacoemulsfication ECE with IC] factor in the prevention of endophthalmitis in 420. A 56 year old patient presents after 3 daya of cataract surgery = (AlIMS 06) cataract surgery with a history of increasing pain 8) Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine and diminution of vision after am initial ') One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery improvement. The most likely ease would be- ©) Trimming of eyelashes 4) Endopithaimits (alIMs 03) 4) Use of intravitreal antibiotics » After cataract 428, The crystalline lens derives its nourishment ¢) Central retinal vein occlusion from- (AIMS 06) Retinal detachment 2) Blood vessels b) Connective tissue 421, 4 2 weeks old child presents with unilateral ¢) Aqueous and vitreous d) Zonules cataract. Which of the following statement 429, Before TOL implantalion the following are done represents the best management advice - (4/04) for the estimation of refractory power of 48) The best age to operate him to get the best visual » 1OL- (PGI June 06) results is four weeks 2) Keratiometry ») Axial length ') The best age to operate him to get the best visual ¢) Lens thickness 4) Comeal thickness results is four months €) Comeal diameter ADabd A13)abe 414)bede 415d 416)a AITa 418) 419je 420)a 42I)a_422)a_ 423) 42H) 425) 426)b 42a 428)e 429)ab420 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIt 430, Ideal place for implantation of intraocutar lens in RETINA cataract operation is- (Manipal 06) a) Anterior >) Bag in posterior 441, Chorioretinitisis caused commonly by- (4136) ) tris, 4) In the sclera a) Syphilis 1. Keratoconus is best treated with...fens (TN'90) b) Congenital toxoptasmosis a) Cylindrical Spherical ©) Histoplasma ©) Comex o Nal 4) Contact 4) Gonorrhoca - v 442. Sudden visual loss is due to - (alls 87) VITREOUS a) Central retinal artery occlusion b) Central retinal vein occulsion 432, Vetreous hemorrhage isseenin- _(PGI90) ©) Papilloedema a) Coat’s disease b) Bale’s disease 4) Papili i 2 byCRAG ha 443. Visual loss in diabetic retinopathy is due to~ Vitreous opacities may be due to- m a) Cataract formation (PGI 87, A1 88) a) Herpetic keratouveitis b) Posterior uveitis ) Back ground retionopathy ©) Hyaloid asteroides —_d) High myopia ©) Proliferetive retinopatiy 434, Vitreous hemorrhage in young adult 4) Obstructive gluaucoma indicates - UIPMER 95) ¢) Vitreous hemorrhage a) Retinal detachment __b) Glaucoma 444, Retrolental fibroplasia occurs in - ©) Eales disease @) Chorio retinitis 8) Mature infants (PGI 87, Kerala 87) 435, Vitreous hemorrhage is not seen is - (KERALA 96) 'b) Premature infants 2) Hypertension b) Eales disease 6) Intra uterine growth retardation ©) Trauma ) Diabetes mellitus @) Post mature €) Vitreous degeneration 445, The aim of the treatment in retinal detachment is~ 436, Snow ball opacity in vitreous tsseen- (PGI03) 4) Drainage of subretinal uid (A139) a) Pars planitis ») Sarcoidosis ») Encirclage . ©) Juvenile RA 4) Taxoplasmosis ©) Repairof defect €) Fuch’s lesion 4) Keep the retina in place 437, ‘A vioous aspfrate has Been colleen ise 446, The earliest change wotieed in hypertensive ngency at9 pan. vi a retinopathy is- (AIMS 85) Ce se eens asey regarding the Sey a) Soft exudate b) Arteriolar spasm, storage o : : ¢} Venospasm 4) Hard exudate a) The sample should be kept at 4°C 447. Retinal detachment is seen in (AIMS 84) ') The sample should be incubated at 37°C 2) Diabetes, b) High myopia ) The sample should be reftigerated in deep freezer ) Malignant melanoma _) All of the above The sample should be refrigerated for the 448. Panphotocosgulation of retina is donein -(PGI 88) ee ene a) Diabetes mellitus gest size of intravitreal C,F, of 0.3 mlis reached ERSRSaE 5 " anos >) Retinitis pigmentosa eens b) 48 hrs ¢) Retinal detachment Ths a5 days €) Bales disease ; . 459, Themost common cause of vireo hemorshage 7. Charaterile faire of alabese retinopathy in adultsis - (A106) ee 2) Retinal hole b) Trauma 3) Bard exudate b) Soft exudate ©) Hypertension 4) Diabetes ¢) Microaneurysms 4) Amblyopia 440. Which one of the following statements, concerning 450, ‘The following is false about retinitis pigmentosa- persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) a) Night blindness (PG189) is not true? (aliogs06) ») Constriction of visual fields a) itis generafly unifaterat c) Retinal thinning, b) Visual prognosis is usually good 0) All ©) Itmay caleify 451, Premature babies can have the fotiowing- (PG189 4) Itis most easly differentiated from retinoblastoma by the presence of exophthalmos or cataract 3) Buphthalmos b) Retinopathy ©) Increased incidence of myopia 4) Persistent hyaloid artery 430)b 431)d 432)abe 433)bod 434) 435)e 436)ab 437)a 438)¢ 439)4 A40)bcd 441)be Hace 4ajb 445}c H6}b 447} 448)n 449)C 450)¢ aarjad 431)421 OPHTHALMOLOGY QUES. VOL-IIT 452. Painless sudden visual loss is seen in all except - a) CRAO (IN 90) b) Retinal detachment ¢) Retrobulbar neuritis 4) Angle closure glaucoma 453. Earliestchange in diabetic retinopathy is- (AIMS a) Hard exudate b) Softexudate 89) ©) Dot hemorrhage 4) Microaneurysm 454, Simple retinal detachment is dueto- (A/IMS 89) a) Tumour ') Choroidal hemorrhage c) Exudativeretinitis ) None cl 455, Ring scotoma is seen in- (aro1 ) Glaucoma b) Retinitis pigmentosa ©) Sympathetic ophthalmia 4) Vitreous haemorrhage 456, Retinal detachment is preceeded by- (N91) 4) Floaters and flashes) High myo ©) Trauma 4) All ofthe above 457. Which is not seen in retinitis pigmentosa - (4/92) a) Pale waxy optic dise ») Attenuated vessels ) Bone corpuscles pigmentation ) Central serous retinopathy 458. Which of the following is true of diabetic retinopathy - (alms 92) 4) Determines prognosis of disease ») Seen only in uncontroled diabetes ©) Always associated with hypertension 4) Incidence increases with duration of disease 459, Sudden increase in blood sugar in diabetics caus GIPMER 93) 8) Myopia ») Presbyopia ©) Anisonetropia 4) Hypermetropia 460. Visible retinal arterial pulsation is seen in GIPMER 93), a) CRVO b)CRAO :) Raised 1OT 4) Normal eye 461. ‘a’ wavein ERG corresponds to activity of- a) Cones (GIPMER 93) ) Pigment epithelium 6) Nerve bundle layer d) Rods 462. Resucitation time of the human retina following ischaemia is- (GIPMER80, DXB 91) ) 30 minutes 45 minutes 6) 1 to2 hours 4) 15¢020 minutes ©) 8 minutes 463. Purtscher’s retinopathy results from (A1IMS 80, a) Head injuries ©) Trichiasis ')Chest injuries 86) 4) All ofthe above 464, 465. 466. 467. 468, 469. 470. 4m. 472. 473. 474. 452)ed 453)d 454)d 455)b 456d 457d 458)d 4590 466}c A6T)b 468)b 469)b470)c A7I)a Retinal detachment is seen in all except- a) Senile retinoschisis (Kerala 94) +b) Diabetic retinopathy ¢) Lattice retinal degeneration 4) Salzmanns nodular dystrophy ©) None of the above In laser therapy for retinal disease laser affects which layer of retina - (Kerala 95) a) Layer of rods and cones. b) Pigment layer ©) Innerplexiformlayer Nerve fibre layer ‘The most important cause of moderate visual loss in diabetic is- (Delhi 96) ) Retinal detachment _—_b) Vitreous hemorrhage ©) Maculopathy 4) Macalar ischemia Ina 5 year old child with IDDM the first fundus jon should be done- (Delhi 96) ) Immediately b) After 5 years ©) After 10 years 4) Only when symptomatic (visual loss) Photoretinitis is due to - (AP 96) a) Uttravoilet rays ‘Infrared rays ©) X-rays 4) Gamma rays Black floaters in diabetes mellitus indicates - a) Vitreous detachment (PGI96) ») Vitreous haemorrhage ©) Non proliferative retinopathy @) Maculopathy In recently reconised IDDM patient examination of fundusis done at- (PGI 96) a) Immediately b) At year ©) At 5S year 4) None of the above For prevention of retrolental fibroplasia O, should be- (P6196) 2) 30-40% ¥)50-60% ©) 20-30% 4) 70-80% Exudate retinal detachmentis seen in- 4) Proliferative retinopathy(DM) (JIPMER 98) ') Toxemia of pregnancy ©) Tumour of choroid «d) Hypertension ‘The primary aim in retinal detachment surgery is- 4) Closure ofthe break CMP. 98) b) Encirclage 6) Drainage of subretinal fluid 4) Removal of vitreous Commonest caiise of loss of vision in non- proliferative diabetic retinopathy is- _ (AIMS 99) a) Vitreous heamorrhage 'b) Macular edema ©) Detachment of retina 4) Subretinal haemorrhage 460)¢ 461)ad 462)¢ 463) 464)d 465) 4M)bed 473)a_474)b