COLLEGE OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY

MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS AND ETHICS

FINAL EXAMINATION

Name ____________________________________________ Rating

_____________________________
Schedule ________________________________________ Date of
Examination___________________

I. DIRECTION. Selection the ONE lettered answer or completion that

is BEST in each case.

_____1. This law mandates the Department of health to oversee and monitor
the integration, coordination and supervision of all drug rehabilitation,
intervention, after-care and follow-up programs, projects and activities
as well as the establishment, operation, maintenance and
management of privately-owned drug treatment rehabilitation centers
and drug testing networks and laboratories throughout the country, in
coordination with DSWD and other agencies.
A. RA1517 B. R.A. 9165 C. RA7719 D. RA4486
_____2. What government agency is designated as the National Reference
Laboratory for Environmental and Occupational Health, Toxicology and
Micronutrient Assay and shall assure the competence, integrity and
stability of drug testing centers nationwide.
A. RITM B. BHFS C. East Ave. Med Center D. San Lazaro
Hospital
_____3. This government agency is mandated to formulate and establish the
standards for regulation of hospitals, clinics and other health facilities
and to enforce standards that shall be the basis of issuance of
license/accreditation of a facility.
A. RITM B. BHFS C. East Ave. Med Center D. San Lazaro
Hospital
_____4. Which of the following are the tasks of the BHFS:
1. Develop policies and guidelines on establishment, operation and
monitoring of drug testing laboratories
2. Conduct accreditation of all private and government drug testing
laboratories
3. Conduct training of DOH regulatory officers
 4. Conduct research and development on drug testing and other
related activities
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____5. Which of the following are the tasks of NRL:
1. Train technical staff of drug testing laboratories
2. Assist DOH designated agencies in the conduct of accreditation of
confirmatory laboratories for drug testing and in the evaluation of
test kits and reagents
3. Promote quality assurance program in all drug testing laboratories
4. Resolve conflicting/challenge results among confirmatory
laboratories
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____6. Which of the following are the minimum qualifications of the head of
a screening laboratory for drug testing?
1. Licensed physician certified by the Philippine Board of Pathology
2. With two years experience in analytical toxicology
3. Trained in laboratory management and quality assurance program
4. Licensed chemist with Master’s degree
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
______7. In case where a drug-testing laboratory is a division of a clinical
laboratory, it may be headed by:
1. License physician 3. Medical technologist
2. Chemist 4. Pharmacist
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____8. The analyst for a drug testing laboratory must be a registered:
1. Chemist 3. Medical technologist
2. Laboratory technician 4. Physician
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____9. Which of the following are the training requirements for the head of
the drug testing laboratory?
1. Theory and practice of the drug testing procedures used in the
laboratory
2. Chain of custody, reporting, and record keeping
3. Review and interpretation of test results
4. Quality assurance program
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____10. An analyst for drug testing must have training in all of the
following, except?
A. Analytical methods and procedures
B. Maintenance of chain of custody
 C. Dangerous drugs regulations and policies
D. Specimen integrity and security
_____11. Given the following personnel in drug testing laboratory, which of
the following function to verify the completeness of CCF?
A. Analyst C. Authorized specimen collector
B. Head of the laboratory D. owner of the drug testing
laboratory
_____12. Which of the following are persons who are not authorized to collect
specimen:
1. Employer of the client 3. Complainant
2. Investigator at the crime scene 4. Administrator of the
establishment

A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____13. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Screening laboratory shall have at least 20 square meters in floor
area and 15 square meter work area.
B. Screening laboratory shall have at least 30 square meters in floor
area and 20 square meter work area.
C. Screening laboratory shall have at least 30 square meters in floor
area and 15 square meter work area.
D. Screening laboratory shall have at least 20 square meters in floor
area and 1 square meter work area.
_____14. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 60sqm in floor area and
30 sqm work area.
B. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 60sqm in floor area and
40 sqm work area.
C. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 40sqm in floor area and
30 sqm work area.
D. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 40sqm in floor area and
20 sqm work area.
_____15. A drug testing laboratory of whatever category shall have within its
premise an area which can accommodate at least how many
prospective clients at a given time?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10
_____16. Which of the following specimen and collection device do not
match?
A. Urine: 10 mL capacity polyethylene container
B. Scalp hair: 200mg capacity plastic bag
C. Saliva: screw capped 30ml capacity polyethylene container
D. Blood: 10mL capacity plain test tube
_____17. Collection of specimen for drug testing at a temporary/remote
facility can only be conducted at the following locations/conditions:
 1. Workplace 2. School 3. Jail 4. Rehabilitation
center
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____18. Collection of specimen for all mandatory drug testing shall be done
at permanent facility except for:
1. Crime scene 2. Jail 3. Post accident 4. School
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____19. For remote collection, drug testing laboratory must secure a permit
from BHFS prior to the scheduled activity for at least:
A. 5 days B. 10 days C. 15 days D. 20 days
_____20. For mandatory drug testing the specimen is:
A. Blood B. scalp hair C. tissues D. urine

_____21. Which of the following specimen and minimum quantity do not

match?
A. Blood: 5ml C. scalp hair: 100mg
B. Saliva: 1ml D. urine: 60ml
_____22. Which of the following conditions is allowed for unobserved
specimen collection for drug testing?
1. Physically unable to go to the laboratory
2. Involve in crime scene
3. Involve in post-accident
4. Critically ill
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____23. Which of the following are the causes of specimen rejection for
drug testing?
1. Absence of ID in the specimen
2. Tampered seal
3. Insufficient quantity of specimen
4. No authorized specimen collector’s name in the specimen
container
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____24. Which of the following is the cause of specimen rejection for drug
testing?
A. Discrepancies of the laboratory name and address
B. Date and time of collection is not indicate
C. Failure of the authorized specimen collector to sign the CCF
D. Unmarked reason for test
______25. In drug testing, the test must be cancelled by the head of the
laboratory when:
 A. Client signature is missing on the form
B. Client provided a comment that the client refused to sign the
form
C. The analyst failed to sign the CCF for a specimen reported as
negative
D. Incomplete data elements
______26. A drug testing laboratory must retain a specimen that was
reported as either positive, adulterated, substituted or invalid for a
minimum of:
A. 5 days B. 15 days C. one year D. two
years
______27. A drug testing laboratory may retain a specimen that was reported
as either positive, adulterated, substituted or invalid for a
maximum of:
A. 5 days B. 15 days C. one year D. two
years
_____28. All of the following are analytical methods used for screening of
drug except:
A. EIA B. EMIT C. GC-MS D. TLC
_____29. The screening laboratory must keep specimens with a negative
results for a minimum of:
A. 5 days B. 15 days C. one year D. 2 years
_____30. For criminal case-related drug testing, the confirmatory result
should be released within how many day/s after the submission of
the specimen?
A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 4 days

_____31. For confirmatory testing, the results must be released within a

maximum of:
A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days d. 4 days
_____32. Which of the following conditions denote that the urine is
adulterated?
1. The nitrite concentration is confirmed to be greater than or
equal to 500ug/L
2. The pH is less than 3 or greater than or equal to 11
3. The specimen contains an exogenous substance
4. The specimen contains an endogenous substance at a
concentration greater than what is considered a normal
physiological concentration
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____33. Which of the following conditions denote that the urine is
substituted?
 1. Creatinine concentration is more than 442umol/L
2. Creatinine concentration is less than 442umol/L
3. Specific gravity is greater than 1.002
4. Specific gravity is less than 1.002
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____35. Which of the following are indicators that the urine specimen is
diluted?
1. The creatinine concentration is more than 1768umol/L
2. The creatinine concentration is less than 1768umol/L
3. The specific gravity is more than 1.003
4. The specific gravity is less than 1.003
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____36. In drug testing, the urine specimen is invalid when:
1. Adulterated, substituted and diluted
2. Improperly collected, handled and stored
3. Improperly documented
4. such do not meet the criteria for a substituted or invalid result
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____37. Which of the following analytes may be determined in a validity
test on a urine specimen?
1. Creatinine 2. Specific gravity 3. pH 4. Nitrite
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____38. What laboratory form reflects the actual movement between
individuals or movement to/from temporary storage that are used
for handling specimen?
A. Memorandum for Records C. Evidence of Review
B. Chain of Custody D. Confirmatory worksheet

_____39. In drug testing, all specimen submitted shall have a corresponding

laboratory result issued within:
A. 1 day C. 10 days
B. 5 days D. 15 days
_____40. This is the second analytical procedure performed on a different
aliquot of the original specimen to identify and quantify the
presence of a specific drug/metabolite.
A. Screening test C. cancelled test
B. Confirmatory test D. validity test
_____41. The test used to determine if a specimen is adulterated, diluted or
substituted.
 A. Screening test C. cancelled test
B. Confirmatory test D. validity test
_____42. A sample with a known drug concentration or an accredited drug
free sample used to evaluate the ability of a laboratory to test a
specimen for drugs and/or metabolites.
A. Calibrator C. blind sample
B. Aliqout D. Control
_____43. When a specimen is either adulterated, substituted, or contain a
drug/metabolite, the DOH-accredited laboratory must report it as:
A. Negative C. non-negative
B. Positive D. reconfirmed
_____44. This is the result reported when a laboratory is able to corroborate
the original result reported to the head of the laboratory.
A. Negative C. non-negative
B. Positive D. reconfirmed
_____45. This is the test used to differentiate a negative specimen from one
that requires further testing for drugs or drug metabolites.
A. Screening test C. cancelled test
B. Confirmatory test D. validity test
_____46. The drug test certificates on tests performed by accredited drug
testing centers shall be valid for:
A. One month C. six months
B. Three months D. one year
_____47. Which of the following must be submitted for application for
accreditation of a drug testing laboratory?
1. Letter of endorsement to the Bureau Director
2. DTI registration
3. Floor plan
4. Quality control program
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____48. Application for renewal of accreditation shall be filed within how
many days before the expiration date?
A. 30 days C. 90 days
B. 60 days D. 120 days
_____49. Which of the following acts are considered as violations of the IRR
on Drug Testing Laboratories?
1. Issuance of fraudulent drug test results
2. Refusal to allow survey
3. Failure to refer the positive screening result to a confirmatory
laboratory
4. Conviction of the owner or manager for any criminal offense
committed even not incident to the operation of the
laboratory.
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
 B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____50. All test results for drug testing shall bear the signature of the:
1. Analyst 2. Owner of the lab 3. Head of the lab 4. Donor
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____51. Under Section 7 of the Administrative Order 118B, s.1992, the
person responsible for the training program for medical technology
interns should be a:
A. Licensed physician certified by the Philippine Board of Pathology
B. Chief Medical Technologist
C. Clinical Coordinator
D. Dean
_____52. For every 1 registered medical technologist in each section, the
number of interns allowed should not exceed:
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
_____53. All clinical laboratories shall be monitored regularly and shall be
inspected every:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 5 years D. 3
years
_____54. The license to operate a clinical laboratory shall be suspended or
revoked when the following acts are committed:
1. Operation without a registered medical technologist
2. Change of ownership without informing BHFS
3. Refusal to allow inspection
4. Gross negligence
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____55. Which of the following is not a function of a Dean of the College of
Medical Technology?
A. Initiating faculty development program
B. Preparing teaching load
C. Recommending appointment of faculty members
D. Administer general policies of the University
_____56. Who among the following can teach medical technology
professional subjects:
1. RMT without master’s degree
2. RMT with master’s degree and 1 year clinical experience
3. RMT with 1 year experience in training medtech interns
4. Licensed physician with minimum of 2 years clinical practice.

A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____57. During the internship training program, the intern must render at
least 250 hours in all of the following sections, except?
A. Clinical Chemistry C. Blood Banking
B. CM and Para D. Microbiology
_____58. In histopathology, how many number of hours must an intern
render during internship?
A. 54 hours B. 170 hours C. 250 hours D. 300
hours
_____59. The ratio of textbook to students should be:
A. 1:5 B. 1:10 C. 1:15 D. 1:20
_____60. The ratio of clinical coordinator to interns should be:
A. 1:20 B. 1:30 C. 1:40 D. 1:50
_____61. Which of the following is not a qualification of a clinical coordinator?
A. Registered medical technologist
B. Bonafide member of PAMET and PASMETH
C. Must have one year clinical experience
D. Must have a master’s degree
_____62. In the evaluation of the performance of interns, which of the
following should be applied in computing grade?
A. 40% examination, 60% clinical performance
B. 60% examination, 405 clinical performance
C. 30% examination, 70% clinical performance
D. 70% examination, 30% clinical performance
_____63. Under section 13 of the guidelines and procedures for the
implementation of CPE programs, this shall refer to the gathering of
professionals which shall include among others, conferences,
symposia or assemblies for round table discussions.
A. Seminars C. fellowship
B. Conventions D. In service training
_____64. Under section 13 of the guidelines and procedures for the
implementation of CPE programs, this shall refer to the gathering of
professionals which shall include among others, workshops,
technical lectures or subject matter meetings, non-degree training
courses and scientific meetings.
A. Seminars C. fellowship
B. Conventions D. In service training
_____65. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to
gain CPE credit units. As a participant he should be given credit
units equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____66. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to
gain CPE credit units. As a speaker he should be given credit units
equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____67. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to
gain CPE credit units. As a panelist he should be given credit units
equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____68. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to
gain CPE credit units. As a facilitator he should be given credit units
equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____69. A medical technologist earned master’s units in medical
technology, he applied for renewal of his license, his 12 earned
master’s units must be credited with an equivalent credit of:
A. 12 units B. 6 units C. 24 units D. 30 units
_____70. A medical technologist earned PhD units in medical technology, he
applied for renewal of his license, his 12 earned PhD units must be
credited with an equivalent credit of:
A. 12 units B. 6 units C. 24 units D. 30 units
_____71. A medical technologist recently graduated his Master’s in Medical
Technology. When he will renew his license, his completion of the
degree must be equivalent to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 45
credit units
_____72. A medical technologist recently graduated his PhD in Medical
Technology. When he will renew his license, his completion of the
degree must be equivalent to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 45
credit units
_____73. A medical technologist recently had his externship for 3 years.
When he will renew his license, his externship must be equivalent
to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 10
credit units
_____74. A medical technologist recently finished his research in molecular
genetics. When he will renew his license, his completion of the
research must be equivalent to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 10
credit units
_____75. In renewing medical technology license, the number of units earned
for the past 3 years must be at least:
A. 20 units B. 40 units C. 60 units D. 90
units
_____76. A document to be given a CPE credit units at the time of
application, the document must cover a period not to exceed:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years
_____77. In filing for application to take the Board examination, which of the
following statements is not true?
A. Filing should be done personally
B. Documents must include photocopy of Certificate of Live Birth
C. Marriage contract must be submitted if applicable
D. Applications with incomplete documents are not accepted.
_____78. This term shall refer to the status of a successful examinee in a
licensure examination who, for failure to comply with certain
requirement/s, said successful examinee shall not be registered as
such unless the deficiencies are completed.
A. Temporary special permit C. Deferred
B. Notice of Admission D. Integration
_____79. In the revised matrix for the Licensure examination for medical
technology, which of the following sub-topics constitute at least
45% by weight:
A. CSF B. urine C. feces D. quality control
_____80. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for medical
technology, microbiology and parasitology constitute 20% with
weight specified as:
A. 70% microbiology, 30% parasitology
B. 30% microbiology, 70% parasitology
C. 50% microbiology, 50% parasitology
D. 80% microbiology, 20% parasitology
_____81. The PAMET was originally organized on:
A. Sept. 15, 1963 C. June 21, 1969
B. Sept. 15, 1969 D. June 21, 1970
_____82.
_____90. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for medical
technology, blood banking and serology constitute 20% with weight
specified as:
A. 70% blood banking, 30% serology
B. 30% blood banking, 70% serology
C. 50% blood banking, 50% serology
D. 80% blood banking, 20% serology
_____91. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for medical
technology, endocrinology and toxicology is specified with that
percentage of the total questions in clinical chemistry?
A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 16%
_____92. The deadline for filing of application for licensure examination
should is not later than __________ before the first day of
examination.
A. 10 days B. 20 days C. 30 days D. 45 days
_____93. The program of examination shall be issued by the board at least
______ before the start of the examinations.
A. 10days B. 20 days C. 30 daysd. 45 days
_____94. Under normal circumstances, examinees arriving late may be
admitted if the tardiness does not exceed:
A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 10
minutes
_____95. As provided in the regulatory laws of the PRC, the Board shall not
register any person who is:
1. Convicted by a court of any offense 3. Unsound mind
2. Guilty of immoral conduct 4. With incurable
disease
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____96. A foreign professional licensed in his country to practice his
profession may be allowed to practice his profession in the
Philippines. This is called:
A. Consultancy C. Reciprocity
B. Unconditional recognition D. Treaty of professions
_____97. A person certified and registered with the Board as qualified to
assist a medical technologist and/or qualified pathologist in the
practice of medical technology.
A. Medical laboratory technician C. Medical laboratory aide
B. Phlebotomist D. Histopathologic
technician
_____98. The Council of Medical Technology Education is composed of:
1. A representative of the Deans of Schools of MedTech
2. President of PAMET
3. Member of the Board
4. CHEd representative
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____99. Who formulate and recommend approval of refresher course for
applicants who shall have failed the Board Examination for the third
time?
A. PAMET C. PASMETH
B. Board D. Council of MedTech Education
_____100. Which of the following is not a function of the Council of MedTech
Education?
A. Recommend minimum required curriculum C. inspect medtech
schools
B. Certify admission to internship D. administer oath
____101. It is a registry of all medical technologists in the Phil. who were
given certificates of registration.
A. Board Registered Record C. Roster of Medical
Technologists
B. Certified Med Tech Record D. Medical Technology
Registry
____102. Successful examinees are required to take a ___ oath before
entering the practice of Medical Technology.
A. PAMET B. professional C. PRC D.
Hippocratic
_____103. RA 5527 was made effective on-
A. June 21, 1969 C. July 21, 1969
D. September 21, 1969 D. January 1, 1969
_____104. An examinee obtained the following ratings in the licensure exams;
what is the rating of the examinee ?
Clin Chem = 80 Clin Micros = 82 BB- Serol = 75
Hematology = 70 Micro – para = 72 Histopath an MT laws =
78

A. 75.4 B. 76.17 C. 73.2 D.

78.0

_____105. Based o n the above ratings, which of the following conditions is /

are violated :
1. General rating must be 75 % or higher
2. No rating below 50% in any of the major subject
3. Has not failed in more than 60% in the major subjects according to
relative weights

A. 1 and 3 B. only 3 C. 1 and 2 D. none of the provisions violated

____106. A requirement for the licensure examination is proof of Filipino
citizenship; which of the following is accepted:
A. Transcript of Records from the school B. baptismal certificate
C. Birth certificate issued by the NSO D. Birth certificate from
the Local Registry
_____107. A registered medical technologist shall conduct himself/ herself a
reputation of ___.
A. reliability, honesty and integrity B. fairness, honesty and confidence
C. absolute reliability and accuracy D. being a professional
_____108. Information acquired in the course of work of a medical
technologist should be treated as
A. accurate B. both accurate and precise C. fair and valid D.
strictly confidential
______109. Which of the following functions can be performed by the med lab
technician as well as the reg med tech ?
1. collection and preservation of the specimen
2. preparation and standardization of reagents and standards
3. histopathand cyto- technique
4. clinical laboratory quality control
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1, 2,3
and 4
_____110. Which of these is NOT true of the characteristics of a medical
technologist:
A. performs the work of a med technologist as defined in the practice
of medical technology
B. graduated from the course of medical technology or public health
C. registered with the Board of Medical Technology
D. serves as head of the clinical laboratory
_____111. The licensure examinations for medical technologists is held-
A. March and October C. March and September
D. February and September D. June and December
_____112. Certificate of registration as Med Tech is issued to-
A. anyone who passed the MT licensure examination
B. anyone who applies for the certificate
C. licensure exam passer with 21 years of age or over
D. one who has taken the licensure exam 3 times
_____113. The Executive officer of the Board of Medical Technology is-
A. PRC Chair C. Board of Med Tech chairperson
B. Secretary of the Board D. Associate Commissioner of PRC
_____114. The Board of Medical Technology is composed of:
A. a pathologist as chair and three medical technologists as members
B. a pathologist as chair and a medical technologist as member
C. a medical technologist as chair, a pathologist and another med tech
as members
D. a pathologist as chair and two med techs as members
_____115. To qualify as member of the Board of Med Tech, one must have
practiced the profession for not less than –
A. 5 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. 15 years
_____116. A school of medical technology is granted permit and recognition
by-
A. Technical Committee for MT Education C. CHED
B. PRC D. PRC and CHED
_____117. Which of the requirements would be considered in order for a
laboratory to be approved for training of medical technology interns:
1. license to operate as tertiary laboratory
2. with adequate staff
3. with appropriate facilities and specimens for testing
4. with training program

A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. only 1
_____118. Who of the following is the chair of the Technical Com for MT
Education :
A. Pres. of PASMETH C. Pres. of PAMET
B. PRC commissioner D. Member of the Board of
MT
_____119. Which of these is NOT an illegal practice of med technology:
 A. part time teaching in a college of MT while engaged in fulltime
work as med tech in a hosp
B. placing RMT at the end of one’s name when registered as med lab
technician
C. using a suspended license
D. working in a lab which is not headed by a pathologist
_____120. A clinical laboratory is exempt from obtaining a license if-
A. it is fully automated
B. it does only routine lab tests
C. the lab tests are done solely for the patients of the physician

D. it is based in a government hospital

_____121. To which of the following shall apply the license requirement and
other revised regulations of the clinical laboratory law?
1. private clinical laboratories – hospital based
2. private laboratories- non-hospital based
3. government laboratories- hospital based
4. rural health units doing only acid fast bacilli microscopy and
malaria screening
CHOICES:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
_____122. Which of the following tests is NOT done in a secondary category-
laboratory ?
A. FBS, BUN, creatinine C. T3,T4, TSH by EIA methods
B. quantitative platelet count D. blood cell morphology
_____123. Records of anatomic and forensic pathology is kept in the
laboratory (for) __?
A. 5 years minimum C. 10 years minimum
B. 10 years maximum D. indefinitely or permanently
_____124. The following are confirmatory methods for HIV antibody testing,
EXCEPT:
A. Radioimmunoprecipitationassay C. enzyme
immunoassay
B. Western Blot D. Immunofluorescence assay
_____125. Who of the following is qualified to head a Blood Bank ?
A. clinical pathologist
B. anatomic pathologist
C. chief medical technologist who has undergone training in BB
practice
D. RMT with Master’s degree, with specialty in immunohematology and
blood transfusion medicine
____126. Existing laboratories are inspected __ ?
A. every year B. every 2 years C. every 5 years D. any time as
necessary
_____127. The staff permitted to perform HIV testing must be-
 A. RMT in the Phil C. ASCP registered (USA)
B. holder of MS degree and RMT D. trained and accredited by the
DOH
_____128. The term of office of appointment of the PRC Commissioners is-
A. 5 years with reappointment C. 7 years with reappointment
B. 7 years without reappointment D. 10 years without reappointment
_____129. The National Blood Services Act serves to provide ___ blood and
blood products.
1. adequate 2. Safe 3. affordable 4. equitable distribution
of supply of-
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1,2, 3 and 4
_____130. Change in the location of a laboratory shall be informed to the DOH
at least -
A. 15 days before transfer C. 15 days after transfer
B. 30 days after transfer D. any time right after transfer
_____131. Blood units tested positive for blood-borne diseases should be
disposed off within-
A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours
_____132.Whose function is it to monitor the performance of schools in
licensure examination and publish the results of these in a
newspaper of nationwide circulation ?
A. PRC C. CHED
D. Professional Regulatory Boards D. Technical Committee
_____133. ProLabis a tertiary, privately owned laboratory whose main lab is
situated in Makati. It has branch labs in -
1. E. Rodriguez Ave., Quezon city, tertiary category
2. Binondo, Manila, tertiary category
3. Taft Ave., Pasay City, secondary category
Which of these would require a license to operate ?
A. only the main lab in Makati C. main lab plus the two tertiary
branch labs
B. main lab plus the secondary category lab D. main labs plus
all the branch labs
____134. In its function to establish and maintain a high standard of
admission to the practice of the profession, the PRC has the ff
functions, EXCEPT:
A. administer and conduct the licensure examination
B. prepare the syllabi of examinations
C. approve results of examination and release of the same
D. to impose penalty upon any examinee violating the rules and
regulations governing
licensure examinations.
____135. It is the objective of the RA 7719 to phase out commercial blood
banks up to the year-
A. 1996 B. 1998 C. 2000 D. 2004
_____136. Which of these are considered violations in the operation of a
clinical laboratory ?
1. operating without a license
2. no registered medical technologist employed
3. gross negligence resulting to detrimental effect on the public served
4. failure to pass the quality control proficiency one time
CHOICES: A. only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1,
2, 3 and 4
_____137. Which of the following statements is NOT true:
A. The closure order of the DOH upon a laboratory can be overruled
by a restraining order of a competent court of law.
B. A license may be revoked, suspended or modified in full or in part
as a result of Inspection by the DOH.
C. Any person who operates a lab illegally is subject to fine or
imprisonment or both.
D. The DOH may seek assistance from the police or NBI for the
closure order of a clinical laboratory.
_____138. Whose signatures are seen in the certificates of registration of a
professional ?
1. Chair and members of the Board
2. Chairperson of the PRC
3. Commissioners of the PRC
4. Secretary of the Boards
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
_____139. The PRC shall have the power/ function to
A. appoint the members of the various Boards
B. recommend to the Pres. of the Phil for appointment members of
the various Boards C. remove from Office any member of the
Boards
D. determine the compensation of the various Boards
_____140. The former Chairperson of the PRC was replaced by the new and
present one based on one disqualification. Which one is it ?
A. at least 5 years of executive or managerial experience
B. at least 40 years of age
C. holder of a valid certificate of registration or professional license
issued by the PRC
D. past Chairperson / member of any PRC Board.
_____141. The syllabi or tables of specification for the subjects in medical
technology licensure examination shall be prepared in consultation
with the-
A. academe B. PASMETH C. Technical Committee D.
PAMET
_____142. A member of the Board rigs the licensure examination results.
What are the penalties he/ she may suffer ?
1. dismemberment from the Board
 2. absolute and perpetual disqualification from holding any public
office
3. fine of P50,000 – P100,000
4. imprisonment of 4 to 6 years
CHOICES: A. only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
______143. A corporate body which allows anyone in his employ who is not a
registered medical technologist / med lab technician to practice
medical technology is violating___ of R.A. 5527
A. Sec. 15 B. Sec. 20 C. Sec. 29 D. Sec. 31
______144. In Northern Luzon, the regional offices of the PRC are located in:
A. Baguio City, TuguegaraoCity and Santiago City
B. Baguio City, Laoag City, Tuguegarao and Santiago City
C. Baguio City, Tuguegarao City, Dagupan City and Santiago City
D. Baguio City and Tuguegarao City
______145. The physical facilities of the clin lab and of the blood bank shall
be required to be /have-
1. good ventilation, adequate lighting
2. adequate space
3. adequate water supply
4. clean and safe
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____146.The filing for application for licensure examination shall be done by
–
A. examinee himself/ herself
B. registrar of the school where examinee graduated
C. representative of review center
D. representative of a group of examinees
_____147. HIV testing accreditation by the DOH is required –
1. of the laboratory that will perform the testing
2. of the RMT to perform the testing
3. of the reagents to be used in testing
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2
and 3
_____148. What must be the top priority consideration in the operation of the
clin laboratory ?
A. client/ patient satisfaction C. doctors requesting lab tests

B. kinds of lab tests D. lab personnel

_____149. Documents required to be submitted with the application for
examination includes-
1. transcripts of records2. birth certificate from NSO 3. marriage
contract from
married female applicant 4. certificates of internship
CHOICES: A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
_____150. Skills of the manager required in the ability to conceptualize and
apply the management process, systematize work flow, making
decisions and communicating with coworkers.
A. people skills B. organizational C. technical skills D.
managerial
_____151. The structure of the organizational plan in the laboratory indicates
supervision is a linear system providing for direct vertical link from
the top management to the lowest level worker; this is referred to
as –
A. scalar principle C. unity of command
B. exception principle D. span of control
_____152. Management is defined as the process of coordinating and
implementing the conditions of-
1. stated mission and vision 2. authority and direction 3. optimal
use of resources 4. responsibility and accountability
CHOICES: A. 1 only B.1 and 2 C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
_____153. If the manager of the laboratory attends a conference, which of the
following parties does he represent ?
1. owners of the company 2. employees 3. doctors 4.
clients
CHOICES: only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2,3
and 4
_____154. A good objective is characterized to be of the following, EXCEPT
A. be clearly defined and understood C. has strict time period to be
attained
B. obtainable and realistic D. reduce expenses and
wastes
_____155. In Maslow’s hierarcy of needs motivation theory, what consists the
highest level ?
A. physiological B. esteem C. self-actualization D.
social
_____156. Bloods for transfusion shall be screened for the following viruses,
EXCEPT-
A. CMV B. HTLV-1 C. HIV-1 and 2 D. Hepatitis B
and C
_____157. The following are functions of the Board of MT, EXCEPT
A. conduct licensure exams C. conduct investigation involving
RMTs
B. administer professional oath D. approve schools and trainings for
MT education
_____158. A refresher course shall be required of an examinee who shall have
failed the licensure examination for –
A. 2 x B. 3x C. 4x D.nth x
_____159. Effective accounting system provide information –
1. for planning and controlling of current operations
 2. for special decision and long-term plan
3. for external reporting to stockholders, govt and other parties
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
_____160. In a hospital set- up, which of these is a profit-center ?
A. laboratories B. pharmacy C. OPD D. nursing
wards
_____161. Which is a feature of fixed cost ?
A. not directly affected by test volume C. may be counted as
overhead expense
B. usually supportive in nature D. dependent on workload
and volume
_____162. Which of the motivational theories supports the belief that the
perceived expectancy from the effort will actually be realized.
A. McClelland’s achievement motivation C. Vroom’s expectancy
B. Adam’s equity D. Skinner’s reinforcement
_____163. Job description for an employee among other items also include:
1. baseline for the performance tasks
2. employee’s interactions with people
3. how the position integrate into the entire organization
4. working condition
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 an 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2,
3 and 4
_____164. Agency which is responsible for licensing and accreditation of the
laboratory :
A. BFAD B. BRL C. BHFS D. NRL
_____165. Criterion- reference examinations are used in order to determine :
A. competency of an examinee according to a predetermined standard
B. validity of a test
C. status of one examinee compared to the whole group
D. accuracy of an examination
_____166. Mc Gregor’s X and Y theory advocates :
A. equal pay for equal work
B. a pyramid of attainable goals for satisfaction at work
C. respect for the worker and acknowledgement of his/ her ability to
perform a task
D. collective bargaining
_____167. The four essential functions of a manager are:
A. staffing, decision- making, cost analysis, evaluating
B. directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
C. planning, organizing, directing, controlling
D. innovating, designing, coordinating, problem- solving
_____168. Which of the following accounts for the largest portion of the direct
cost of a laboratory ?
A. reagents B. general supplies C. technologist labor D.
instrument depreciation
_____169. Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of lab
worker’s shift in order to prevent spread of bloodborne pathogens ?
A. remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat
B. disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands
C. disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove coat
D. remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area
______170. Records of a patient’s test results may not be released without
consent to anyone outside the clin lab except to the :
A. family of the patient C. HMO
B. physician who ordered the test D. employer of patient
______171. A new employee’s performance is to be evaluated at the end of
his/ her probationary period, and must relate to :
A. person’s job description C. verbal instruction given

B. wage and salary policies D. recruitment practices

_____172. The Chairman and members of the Board shall hold office for:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years
_____173. The Chairman and members of the Board must be in the practice
of medical technology or laboratory medicine for a least:
A. 5 years B. 10 years C. 15 years D. 20 years
_____174. The Chairman and members of the Board must not be a member
of any medical technology school for at least_______ prior to
appointment.
A. One year B. two years C. 3 years D. 5 years
_____175. What agency is tasked to conduct specialty examination for
medical technologists?
A. PASMETH B. PAMET C. PRC D. CHEd
_____176. In the practice of medical technology, registration is not required
for:
1. Licensed physician 3. Medtechs in USAir Force
2. Medtech from other countries4. Laboratory Technician
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____177. The government agency that approves laboratory for accreditation
as training laboratories for medical technology students is:
A. CHEd B. DOH C. PRC D. NRL
_____178. In the Code of Ethics, a medical technologist can accept a second
job only when there is:
A. No conflict of interest C. No contract allowed
B. Approval of employers D. Available time
_____179. An examinee who failed to obtain a passing grade may be
certified as a medical laboratory technician if the rating obtained is:
A. 65% or less C. 70% or better
B. On the discretion of the Board D. on the discretion of PRC
_____180. The Chairman of the PRC holds the following position in the
Council of Medical Technology Education as stipulated in PD1534:
 A. Secretary C. Vice Chairman
B. Chairman D. Treasurer
_____181. The certificate of registration issued to a professional who passed
the board examination is signed by:
A. Board chairman and members
B. PRC chairman and Board members
C. Board chairman and members and PRC Chairman
D. PRC chairman and Board chairman
_____182. The official from the PRC that announces the examinees who
passed the Board Examination in a profession is the:
A. Secretary of the commissioner C. Chairman of the
Board
B. Associate Commissioner D. Chairman of PRC
_____183. All information acquired by the medical technologist in his/her
work is strictly confidential and can be divulged only to the:
A. Clinical supervisor C. attending physician
B. Laboratory intern D. patient’s relative
_____184. Drs. Baron Karl Humboldt, William Welch, Burden Sunderson,
William Occam had something in common; which of the ff is it ?
A. brought the practice of laboratory medicine to the Phil.
B. used laboratory investigations / findings to establish diagnosis of
disease
C. first practiced laboratory medicine in America
D. bacteriologists
_____185. The Father of PAMET:
A. Crisanto G Almario C. Nardito Moraleta
B. Charlemagene Tamondong D. Felix B. Asprer
_____186. The PAMET has been existent for __ years:
A. 50 B. 35 C. 43 D. 26
_____187. Which of these is NOT expected to be seen in a secondary clin.
laboratory ?
A. biosafety cabinet c. spectrophotometer
B. hematocrit centrifuge D. clinical sterilizer
_____188. Which of these is NOT performed in a secondary category of a
clinical laboratory ?
A. blood typing C. analysis of toxic drugs and elements
B. glucose, cholesterol, urea tests D. CBC, urinalysis, fecalysis
_____189. A registered med lab technician can perform-
A. histopath and cytotechniques C. specimen
collection and processing B. preparation of reagents for use in the
laboratory D. quality control
______190. The med tech course requires an internship in an accredited clin
lab for a period of-
A. 6 months B. a semester C. 2 semesters
D. 12 months
______191. The President of the Philippines____ the Board of Medical
Technology
1. recommends 2. appoints 3. removes from the position4. (is) the
Executive Officer
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. only 4 D. 1, 2 and 3
_____192. The roles of the pathologist in the practice of medical technology /
laboratory medicine:
A. chairman of the Board of MT C. head of the clinical laboratory
B. both A and C D. neither of these
_____193. In areas where there are no pathologists, the lab may be headed
by a physician who has undergone training in laboratory
management for at least
A. 3 months B. 1 month C. 6 months D. 12
months
_____194. Ms. Marian Tantingco was appointed to the Board of MT; which of
the ff qualified her for the position?
A. ASCP certified*
B. have been in clinical practice as med technologist for more than 20
years
C. had experience as a member of the faculty of UST in medical
technology
D. an active member of the PAMET
_____195. Classify the category of clinical laboratory of the Pangasinan
Medical Center:
1. hospital-based 2. non-hospital based
a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary
CHOICES: A. 1c B. 2a C. 2b D. 1c
_____196. The laboratory requests are construed as consultations between-
A. pathologist and the patient C. pathologist and attending
physician
B. attending physician and patient D. pathologist and
medical technologist
_____197. It is NOT a function of the Technical Committee for MT Education:
A. approve schools of medical technology
B. recommend refresher course for the licensure exam
C. approve the curriculum for med technology
D. regulate the practice of medical technology
_____198. What are evaluated or checked by the representatives of the DOH
during inspection of the laboratory:
1. premises and facilities
2. pertinent records
3. quality assurance program implementation
4. validity of licenses
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 3 and 4
_____199. The laboratory fees/ charges for tests done in the laboratory
includes-
 1. cost of reagent 2. cost of quality control 3. cost of testing

4. professional fees of physician for special procedures

CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
_____200. The members of the Board are recommended for appointment to
the Office of the Pres.of the Phil by
A. PAMET B. PSP C. PRC D. PASMETH
_____201. Who shall be allowed to engage in the practice of medical
technology ?
1. one who has passed the licensure examination for med tech
2. one who holds a current and valid license
3. one who is physically and mentally healthy
4. one who has trained in methods of laboratory medicine
CHOICES: A. only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
_____202. Which of these is NOT included in the field of study of Clinical
Pathology ?
A. Forensic pathology C. Toxicology and therapeutic drug
monitoring B. Immunology- Serology D. Microbiology

_____203. A school, college or university is recognized to offer the BS Medical

Technology program by
A. CHED C. Technical Committee for MT Education
B. PRC and CHED D. DOH and CHED
_____204. The clinical laboratory shall ensure adequate and appropriate
safety provisions for
1. lab personnel 2. clientele 3. work
environment
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and
3
_____205.
_____206.
_____207. The penalty for revocation of license of the medical technologist is
implemented only when there is-
A. the vote of the PRC chair C. 3/3 votes of the
members of BMT
B. 3 members of BMT and the PRC chair D. 2/3 votes of the members
of BMT
_____208. Which of the following should be informed in writing to the DOH
about the clinical laboratory :
A. new head of the clin lab C. additional med
technologist
B. purchase of new equipment D. additional new test
_____209. A separate license aside from the clinical lab license, is required for
the
 1. blood bank 2. performance of HIV
testing
3. performance of dangerous/ abused drugs 4. clinical research lab
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4
_____210.
_____211. To ensure safety and avoid risks to health, the laboratory should
provide for adequate and efficient
A. waste management C. personal protective equipment
B. program for safety D. all of these
_____212. Defined practice of med technology includes the following,
EXCEPT?
A. examination of body fluids and tissues by various methods
B. blood banking procedures
C. clinical research
D. teaching in the AHSE curriculum
_____213.
_____214. The certificate of registration is refused to be issued to one who
has-
A. failed the licensure examination C. incurable disease
B. TB D. schizophrenia
_____215. The clinical laboratory shall be accredited for training of med tech
interns by-
A. DOH B. PRC C. CHED D. Tech Committee for
MT Education
_____216. To be seen / displayed in a conspicuous place in the laboratory are
the following:
1. license to operate
2. license to perform special tests (e.g. HIV)
3. certificates of registration of med techs/ med lab techns
4. Board of Pathology certification of the pathologist
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1,2 and 3 D.
1,2,3 and 4
_____217. The appointment of the Board of MT for a term consists of
A. 5 years B. 6 years C. 3 years
D. 4 years
_____218.
_____219.
_____220. Internal quality control program for the clinical laboratory includes
the following:
1. use of quality control materials and QC charts
2. proper maintenance of equipment
3. provide appropriate and standard lab methods, reagents and
supplies, and equipment
4. documented continuous competency and proficiency assessment
of the lab staff
 CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3
and 4 _____221. The Chair of the Technical Committee for Med Tech
Education:
A. President of PAMET C. Director of CHED’s Division on Programs
and Standards
B. President of PASMETH D. A member of the Board of Med Tech
_____222. The laboratory report (result) bears the signature (s) and name(s)
of-
A. medical technologist B. pathologist C. both A and B D.
either A or B
_____223. The practice of medical technology is defined in what section of
RA5527?
A. Section 1 B. section 2 C. section 3
D. section 4
_____224. Section 7 of RA5527 contains:
A. Qualification of Examiners C. Composition of the Board
B. Functions of the Board D. Removal of the
Board Members
_____225. Which of the following did not serve as President of PAMET?
A. Zenaida Cajucom C. Shirley Cruzada
B. Norma Chang D. Agnes Medenilla
_____226. Which of the following did not serve as President of PASMETH?
A. Norma Chang C. Nini Lim
B. Rodolfo Rabor D. Shirley Cruzada
_____227. Which of the following parties does the manager represent?
A. Financial C. organizational
B. Computer D. technical
_____228. Management is the _______ of coordination and implementation of
the mission, authority, resources and accountability.
A. Task B. Process C. Responsibility D. Job
_____229. What is the first phase of the management process?
A. Setting objectives C. gathering feedback
B. Directing D. Planning
_____230. What phase of management process does the manager together
the necessary resources and people and develop an organizational
structure to put the formal plan into action?
A. Directing C. Organizing
B. Planning D. Controlling
_____231. What phase of management process involves the day-to-day tasks
of running the laboratory according to the management plan?
A. Directing C. Organizing
B. Planning D. Controlling
_____232. Which management function is responsible for monitoring the
standards and feedback mechanisms set in place when objectives
were established during the planning stage?
A. Directing C. Organizing
 B. Planning D. Controlling
_____233. This applies to the branch of management that focuses on the
directing of a group of people toward a designated goal.
A. Motivation C. Behavioral modification
B. Leadership D. Attitude
_____234. This applies to the branch of management that deals with what
makes individuals act the way they do.
A. Motivation C. Behavioral modification
B. Leadership D. Attitude
_____235. Which manager will be participatory in their leadership style?
A. Theory X managers B. Theory Y managers
_____236. Which management function is leadership considered the
fulfillment of?
A. Planning C. Directing
B. Organizing D. Controlling
_____237. To qualify for the licensure examination, one has to have
completed the BSMT course. What is the proof of completion of the
required course?
A. Board rating C. Internship Grades
B. Official Transcript of Records D. Grade Evaluation form
_____238. Taking the ___ administered by the Board of MT, the new med
tech is formally ushered/ admitted into the practice of the
profession.
A. board B. oath C. license D. certificate of
registration

_____239. The Clinical Laboratory Law is Republic Act No. ___.

A. AO59 B. RA4688 C. RA5527 D. RA1517
_____240. The Blood bank law is:
A. AO59 B. RA4688 C. RA5527 D. RA1517
_____241. What Administrative order of DOH repealed AO118B s1992?
A. AO59 B. AO 0011 s.2007 C. EO119 D. AO48
s2003
_____242. The classification of the clinical laboratories based on institutional
character is contained in the:
A. AO59 B. AO 0011 s.2007 C. EO119 D. AO48
s2003
_____243. The license of the clin lab is issued by ___( agency under the
DOH ):
A. BHFS B. RITM C. NRL D. BRL
_____244. The required space for a primary clin laboratory should at least
be ___ sq. meters.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60
_____244. The required space for a secondary clin laboratory should at
least be ___ sq. meters.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60
_____244. The required space for a tertiary clin laboratory should at least
be ___ sq. meters.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60
_____245. Refers to a program in the laboratory to provide updating and
enhancement of skills and competence to the staff.
A. Professional devt C. monitoring and evaluation
B. performance analysis D. quality indicator
_____246. The Medical Technology Week is celebrated every ___wk of
___(month).
A. first, sept C. third, sept
B. second, sept D. fourth, sept
_____247. The certificate of registration is issued only to a successful
examinee upon the age of ___.
A. 18 B. 21 C. 22 D. 20
_____248. It is a registry of all medical technologists in the Phil. who were
given certificates of registration.
A. Board Registered Record C. Certified Med Tech Record
B. Roster of Medical Technologists D. Medical Technology Registry
_____249.

_____250.
_____251.
_____253.
_____254.
_____255.
_____256.
_____257.
_____258.
_____259.
_____260.

_____261. To qualify as member of the Board of Med Tech, one must have
practiced the profession for not less than –
A. 5 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. 15 years
_____262. A school of medical technology is granted permit and recognition
by-
A. Technical Committee for MT Education B. CHED C. PRC D.
PRC and CHED

_____263.
_____264.
_____265. Which of these is NOT an illegal practice of med technology:
A. part time teaching in a college of MT while engaged in fulltime work
as med tech in a hosp
B. placing RMT at the end of one’s name when registered as med lab
technician
 C. using a suspended license
D. working in a lab which is not headed by a pathologist
_____266. A license is revoked when the vote(s) by the members of the Board
of Medical Technology consist(s) of :
A. 1 out of 3 B. 2 out of 3 C. 3 out of 3
D. 4 out of 4

267- 274: use choices in the right column

____267. Revised R and R governing the collection, processing and A.

R.A. 1517
provision of human blood and the establishment B.
A.O. 59 s 2001
and operation of blood banks. C. R.A.
8981
____268. National services act of 1994. D. A.O. 57
s 1989
____269. R and R governing the establishment, operation E.
R.A. 7719
and maintenance of clinical laboratories in the F.
R.A. 4688
Philippines. G. A.O. 55
s. 1989
____270. R and R governing the accreditation of laboratories H.
E.O. 102 s. 1999
performing HIV testing.
____271. PRC Modernization Act of 2000

____272. Clinical Laboratory Law

____273. Blood Bank Law

____274. Redirecting the Functions and Operations of the DOH

_____275. Which of the following is not a service capability of a Blood

Collection Unit:
A. Issuance of whole blood C. Distribution of whole blood
B. Transport of whole blood D. none of these
_____276. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a
Category A non-hospital based from a Category A hospital-based
blood bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. blood collection
B. Health education and counseling D. compatibility
testing
______276. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a
Category B non-hospital based from a Category B hospital-based
blood bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. blood collection
B. Health education and counseling D. compatibility
testing
_______277. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a
Category A hospital based from a Category B hospital-based blood
bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. resolution of
incompatibilities
B. Health education and counseling D. compatibility
testing
______278. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a
Category A non-hospital based from a Category B non-hospital-
based blood bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. storage of blood
products
B. Provision of whole blood D. distribution of all blood
products
______279. The head of a blood bank must be a licensed physician with at
least _____ months of training in blood banking services.
A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
______280. The medical technologist in a blood bank must be licensed with
____ months of job experience in blood bank services.
A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
______281. The combination of activities necessary for every blood service
facility to ensure quality blood products and quality blood services
for their patients, donors, fellow employees, hospitals, doctors, the
community, and the regulatory agencies.
A. Continuous Quality Improvement C. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control D. Proficiency Testing
_____282. This is an external evaluation of performance by the use of
unknown test samples.
A. Continuous Quality Improvement C. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control D. Proficiency Testing
_____283. A blood service facility with capability to recruit and screen blood
donors, collect, process, store, transport and issue blood for
transfusion and provide information and/or education on blood
transmissible diseases.
A. Blood Bank C. Blood Bag
B. Blood Center D. A and B are correct
_____284. A method which documents the performance abilities of the
personnel performing the various tasks within the blood service
facility.
 A. Competency assessment C. Internal quality
assessment
B. External quality assessment D. Standard operating
procedure
_____285. The enumeration of steps in a procedure. A set of documents or
detailed protocols of procedures performed within the
laboratory/blood bank which should be compiled in a manual.
A. Competency assessment C. Internal quality
assessment
B. External quality assessment D. Standard operating
procedure
_____286. This is the assessment of performance done by the staff within the
Blood Station Facility.
A. Competency assessment C. Internal quality
assessment
B. External quality assessment D. Standard operating
procedure
_____287. This is the sequestration of materials and blood products, whether
physically or by a system, while awaiting a decision on their
suitability for further processing or use.
A. Validation C. External control
B. Quarantine D. Decontamination
_____288. A procedure that shows that a piece of equipment or process does
what it is supposed to do. It assures that a process will consistently
produce a product according to requirements.
A. Validation C. External control
B. Quarantine D. Decontamination
_____289. This refers to an agreement to testing which is obtained after
informing the blood donors of processes involved in blood donation,
including testing and reporting of positive test results.
A. Competent C. Quality
B. Informed consent D. Validation
_____290. Records that should be retained for indefinite period include:
1. Written consent 3. Status of deferral
2. Medical history 4. ABO and Rh types
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____291. Records that should be retained for 5 years in a BSF includes:
1. Technical manuals 3. Proficiency testing survey
2. ABO and Rh types 4. Biosafety manual
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____292. Records of all laboratory screening tests on blood samples of
donors who are temporarily deferred should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____293. Records of notification for transfusing facility of previous receipt of
units from donors subsequently found positive for HIV should be
retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____294. Records of severe adverse reactions to donation or transfusion
should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____295. Records of voluntary blood donors who have been temporarily
deferred for the protection of the potential recipient should be
retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____296. Records of storage and inspection of blood and blood components
should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____297. Records of Quality Control and Quality Assessment should be
retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____298. MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY IS DEFINED BY _____________ AS THE
APPLICATION OF THE PRINCIPLES OF NATURAL, PHYSICAL, AND
BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES TO THE PERFORMANCE OF LABORATORY
PROCEDURES WHICH AID IN THE DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT OF
DISEASES.
A. Fagelson B. Heinemann C. John Bernard Henry D.
Davidson
_____299. He CONSIDERS MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY TO BE THAT BRANCH OF
MEDICINE CONCERNED WITH THE PERFORMANCE OF THE
LABORATORY DETERMINATIONS AND ANALYSES USED IN THE
DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT OF DISEASE AND IN THE
MAINTENANCE OF HEALTH.
A. Fagelson B. Heinemann C. John Bernard Henry D.
Davidson
_____300. This is considered as the oldest laboratory procedure.
A. red blood cell count C. urinalysis
B. Hemoglobin assay D. autopsy

THE THREE MINUTE TEST

(only those with high IQ will finish this within 3 minutes)
1. Read everything before doing anything
2. Put your name in the upper right hand corner of the paper.
3. Circle the word “name” in the second sentence.
4. Draw five (5) small squares in the upper left hand corner of this paper.
5. Put an X in each square mentioned in number 4.
6. Put a circle around each square
7. Sign your name under the title of this page.
8. After the title, write “yes,yes,yes”
9. Put a circle around sentence number 7.
10. Put an X in the lower left hand corner of this page
11. Draw a triangle around the X you just made.
12. On the back of this page, multiply 70 x 30.
13. Loudy callyour first name when you get to this point in the test.
14. If you think you have carefully followed directions, called out “I have”.
15. On the reverse side of this paper, add 107 and 278.
16. Punch three small holes in your paper with your ballpen point here _____
17. If you are the first person to get this far, call out loudly “ I am the leader in following
instructions”
18. Underline all even numbers on the left side of this page.
19. Count in your normal speaking voice from 1 to 10.
20. Now that you have finished reading everything, do only sentences one and two.