A320 Questionnaire1

TRTO
AIRBUS A-320 FAMILY SYSTEMS & EQUIPMENTS FLIGHT CREW QUESTIONNAIRE
ATA 20 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 20 - AIRCRAFT GENERAL Page 1 of 3 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 20-1 - Aircraft wing span (A 321) is:

A. B. C. 32.1 m 34.1 m 35.1 m
ATA 20-2 - The minimum theoretical pavement width for 1800 (A321) turn is:
A. B. C. 27.6 m 25.9 m 28.9 m
ATA 20-3 - The steering angle isand the effective turn is

A. ...75..70. B. ...70..75
ATA 20-4 - Which VHF antenna is located on lower fuselage?

A. B. C. VHF 1 VHF 2 VHF 3
ATA 20 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 20 - AIRCRAFT GENERAL Page 2 of 3 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 20-5 - Unpressurized Areas are:

A. B. C. The Cabin and the cockpit Nose gear bay, Tail Cone, Avionic compartments Nose gear bay, Air conditioning compartments, Main gear bay, Tail cone, Radome
ATA 20-6 - The constraint in a turn on ground for the A321 is:
A. B. C. the tail the wings the nose
ATA 21 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 21 - AIRCOND/ PRESS/VENTILATION Page 1 of 16 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 21-1 - In case of COND HOT AIR FAULT the RAM AIR pushbutton should be pressed:
A. B. C. At any altitude when the Ap is less than 1 psi and FL below 100. Only when the op is less than 1 psi and FL below 100. Only when the Outflow Valve is fully opened.
ATA 21-2 - What happens in case of failure of the Primary Channel of the Pack Controllers?
A. B. C. The Secondary Computer operates in backup mode and regulation is not optimized. The Secondary Computer takes over. Pack is lost.
ATA 21-3 - What happens in case of failure of the Secondary Channel of the Pack Controllers?
A. B. C. No effect on Pack Regulation, backup mode is lost. Pack is lost. The Primary Computer operates in degraded mode and regulation is not optimized.
ATA 21-4 - What happens in case of failure of the Primary and Secondary Channel of the Pack Controllers?
A. B. C. Pack outlet temperature is controlled between 5C and 30C by the anti-ice valve. The pack flow is fixed at the previous setting. The packs outlet temperature is controlled at 15C by the pack flow control valve
ATA 21-5 - Pack Flow may be selected from:

A. B. C. The cockpit. The cabin. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 21-6 - Packs operating on engine bleed : if pressure is too low and cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied:
A. B. C. The minimum idle must be manually increased. The minimum idle automatically increases. In any case, flight idle is sufficient.
ATA 21-7 - Which is the "MAX NORM CAB ALT"?

A. B. C. 9550 350 ft. 8000 250 ft 8000 ft
ATA 21-8 - Which is the max negative p for the cabin?

A. B. C. 0 psi. - 1 psi. - 2 psi.
ATA 21-9 - Is it possible to simultaneously use conditioned air from Packs and LP Ground Unit ?
A. B. C. Yes. No. Yes, provided the air supply is confirmed to be free from contamination.
ATA 21-10 - Bleed air supplied from the APU and PACK FLOW selector in position LO, the pack flow is:
A. B. C. Automatically selected HI. Automatically selected NORMAL. Has to be manually selected NORMAL.
ATA 21-11 - Once set to ON the Air Conditioning Packs operate:

A. B. C. Automatically and independently of each other. Manually and independently of each other. Automatically, PACK 1 as a master, PACK 2 as a slave.
ATA 21-12 - When the RAM AIR pushbutton switch is set to ON the RAM air inlet will open:
A. B. C. In any case. Provided DITCHING is not selected. p < 1 Psi and DITCHING is not selected.
ATA 21-13 - Conditioned Air is distributed to:

A. B. C. Cockpit, Cargo Bays, and Cabin. Cockpit, Fwd and Aft Cabin. Cockpit, Avionics Bay, Cabin.
ATA 21-14 - The PACK pushbutton FAULT light illuminates amber when:
A. B. C. the pack flow control valve disagrees with the selected position. in case of compressor outlet overheat or pack outlet overheat. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 21-15 - Temperature Regulation is automatic and is controlled by:

A. Zone Controller. B. PACK 1 and 2 Controllers.
C. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 21-16 - When the RAM AIR pushbutton is set to ON, the Outflow Valve:
A. Closes. B. Opens at any time. C. Opens partially (about 50%) provided that is under automatic control and Op is less than 1 psi.
ATA 21-17 - The Pack Flow Control Valve closes automatically in case of
A B. C. Compressor outlet overheat, pack outlet overheat, engine fire pushbutton released, engine start, DITCHING pushbutton switch pressed, upstream pressure below minimum. Bleed valve failure, Pack Outlet Overpessure. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 21-18 - When the APU is supplying the PACKs and any Zone Temperature demand cannot be satisfied the Pack Controller, to increase Air Flow, sends a demand signal ....
A B. C. ...to the Zone Controller. ...to the APU Electronic Control Box ( ECB). ...to the Pack Flow Control Valve.
ATA 21-19 - When the DITCHING pushbutton switch is set to ON a closure signal is sent to:
A. B. C. Outflow valves, Pack Flow Control Valves. Ram Air Inlet, Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract Valves. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 21-20 - In normal operation, pressurization is:

A. B. C. Fully automatic. Manually controlled. Both A and Bare correct.
ATA 21-21 - A/c in flight with Press. Controller 1 in use, if it fails:

A. B. C. Manual Control must be used An automatic transfer to Controller 2 will occur. The Controller 2 must be manually selected.
ATA 21-22 - The Outflow Valve is powered by:

A. B. C. One of two electric motors. One of three electric motors. Three mechanically linked electric motors.
ATA 21-23 - During ground operation, the Outflow Valve is:

A. B. C. Fully open. Fully closed. Positioned according to FMGS demands.
ATA 21-24 - To check the position of the Outflow Valve it is necessary to call up the ECAM:
A. B. C. COND page. BLEED page. CAB PRESS page.
ATA 21-25 - Two identical, independent, Automatic Digital Pressurization Controllers are used for system control:
A. One controller is active, one is standby. B. Both controllers are monitored by FMGC. C. Controller 1 is used during odd flights and Controller 2 during even flights.
ATA 21-26 - Which controller generates Cabin Altitude and Pressure signals for ECAM when the Cabin Press. System is manually operated ?
A. B. C. Both. n. 1. n. 2.
ATA 21-27 - When the RAM AIR pushbutton switch is set to ON, the Outflow Valve will partially open when:
A. B. C. p > 1.5 psi. p < 0,5 psi. p < 1 psi.
ATA 21-28 - The purpose of the Safety Valves is to avoid:

A. B. C. Excessive positive differential pressure. Excessive negative differential pressure. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 21-29 - The Safety Valves are operated:

A. B. C. Electrically. Hydraulically. Pneumatically.
ATA 21-30 - When LANDING ELEVATION is set to AUTO, the LANDING ELEVATION is sent to the controller from:
A. B. C. FMGS. FCU. ADIRS.
ATA 21-31 - When MODE SEL is set to MANUAL, the Outflow Valve is controlled by signals sent via Controller 1 or 2.
A. B. True. False.
ATA 21-32 - On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the Outflow Valve indicator change to amber if:
A. Not fully closed. B. Fully open in flight.
C. Fully open on ground.
ATA 21-33 - On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the Safety Valves indication change to amber when:
A. B. C. Both Safety Valves are fully open. Either Safety Valve is not closed. Both Safety Valves are fully closed.
ATA 21-34 - On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the Cabin Altitude indication change to red when Cabin Altitude is:
A. B. C. > 14,000 ft. > 8,500 ft. >9,550 ft.
ATA 21-35 - Following a CAB PR SYS 1 FAULT:

A. B. C. MASTER CAUTION is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the crew. System 2 must be selected by the crew. System 2 takes over automatically without any crew action.
ATA 21-36 - Cabin pre-pressurization starts at:

A. B.
C.
Engine Start. Take-Off power selection. Lift-Off.
ATA 21-37 - In case of excessive positive differential pressure the Safety Valves open at:
A. B. C. 8.06 psi. 8.6 psi. 6.8 psi.
ATA 21-38 - The Outflow Valve can be manually controlled:

A. B. C. By the V/S CTL toggle switch on the CAB PRESS CTL panel in any condition. By the MODE SEL, when in MANUAL and the V/S CTL toggle switch on the CAB PRESS CTL panel. By FMGS entries only.
ATA 21-39 - Is it possible to condition the aircraft on ground with the Packs switched OFF?
A. B. C. No. Yes: a GND Conditioning Power Unit can be fed into the MIXER UNIT via the LP GND CONNECTOR. Yes: a GND Air Power Unit can be connected to the HP GND CONNECTION in to the MIXER UNIT.
ATA 21-40 - After starting the first engine the Pack Flow Control Valves ...
A. B. C. ... open again immediately. ... remain closed for 30 sec. ... open after 60 sec.
ATA 21-41 - If an air conditioning truck is connected to the LP GND inlet, how can you regulate the temperature in the aircraft?
A. B. C. The regulation must be done on the air conditioning truck. The zone temperature selectors must be adjusted accordingly. The temperature can be controlled on the FWD ATT panel.
ATA 21-42 - In case of both packs failure or to remove smoke, the cockpit and cabin can be ventilated ..
A. B. C. by opening the RAM AIR inlet. by opening the cockpit windows. by opening the APU BLEED
ATA 21-43 - Trim Air Valves are modulated:

A. B. C. Electrically by the Zone Controller. Hydraulically by the Zone Controller. Pneumatically by the Zone Controller.
ATA 21-44 - The pack compressor outlet temperature indication on the ECAM BLEED page become amber If temperature goes above..
A. B. C. 80 C 230 C 265 C
ATA 21-45 - The AFT Cargo Vent. Controller automatically stops the extraction fan when...
A. B. C. ...on the ground or in flight with differential pressure less than 1 psi. ... in flight with differential pressure more than 1 psi. ...the AFT cargo smoke detection units detects smoke.
ATA 21-46 - If CPC 2 is active, in order to switch to CPC 1 (not allowed in normal condition):
A. B. C. Press MODE SEL pushbutton twice. Press MODE SEL pushbutton to MANUAL. Press MODE SEL pushbutton, wait 10 sec. and press it again.
ATA 21-47 - How does the Cabin Pressure behave during taxiing to the RWY?
A. B. C. The Cabin Pressure is increased, to prevent a door from opening accidentally. Cabin and outside pressure are identical, because the outflow valve is fully open. It goes to 100 ft below the field elevation for passengers comfort.
ATA 21-48 - CAB PR SYS 1 FAULT appears on the E/WD. How is the Cabin Pressure controlled now?
A. B. C. With a failure of one CPC the Cabin Pressure must be controlled in the MANUAL MODE. CPC 2 automatically takes over the Pressure Control. You switch to CPC 2 by pushing the MODE SELECTOR pushbutton twice.
ATA 21-49 - AIR PACK OVHT during flight. Is it possible to recover the PACK ?
A. B. Yes, after ECAM action performed and if the PACK FAULT amber light extinguishes on the PACK pushbutton. No, the PACK may be recovered only on ground by maintenance.
ATA 21-50 - CAB PR SYS 1(2) 1+2 FAULT: Operational informations concerning the manual control of the A/C pressurization are given:
A. B. C. On the AOM (ch 7. CONDITIONAL PROCEDURES). On the ECAM STATUS page. On the PERFORMANCE CHART.
ATA 21-51 - In case of VENT AVNCS SYS FAULT...

A. B. C. ...on PFD the grey background on speed, altitude and heading scales is removed. ...on ND the WEATHER RADAR image is removed. Both A and B are correct
ATA 21-52 - When the HOT AIR FAULT light is on ...

A. B. C. ...the Trim Valves close. ...the Valves open. ...the Valves remain in the last selected position.
ATA 21-53 - AIR CONDITIONING on ground

A. B. You can use simultaneously the Packs and the LP Ground Unit, there are no limitations. It is prohibited to use conditioned air simultaneously from Packs and the LP Ground Unit.
ATA 21-54 - If an AIR CYCLE MACHINE fails is it possible operate the affected pack ?
A. B. Yes, is possible to operate in Heat Exchanger Cooling mode and the pack flow is reduced. No, pack is lost.
ATA 21-55 - In which ECAM page are the Avionics Ventilation system indications shown?
A. B. C. Only in the CAB PRESS page. In the inflight CRUISE page. Only in the BLEED page.
ATA 21-56 - The Pack Flow Control Valves during Engine start...
A. B. C. must be select OFF. automatically close. operate according to the Crossbleed selector position.
ATA 21-57 - On which ECAM page can the Pressurization system indications be found?
A. B. C. Only the CAB PRESS page BLEED page. The inflight ECAM CRUISE page and the CAB PRESS page.
ATA 21-58 - Placing the EXTRACT pushbutton to OVERRIDE:

A. B. C. The Extract Fan will continue to run. The Extract Fan will stop. The Avionics Ventilation system goes into opened circuit configuration.
ATA 21-59 - Placing the BLOWER pushbutton to OVERRIDE:

A. B. The Extract Fan will continue to run. The Avionics Ventilation system goes in the open circuit configuration (closed configuration when the skin temperature is below the threshold)
ATA 21-60 - Placing both the EXTRACT and the BLOWER pushbuttons to OVERRIDE:
A. B. C. The Extract Fan continues to run and air flows from air conditioning system and then overboard. The Avionics Ventilation system goes in the Open Circuit Configuration on ground and then in the closed configuration when airborne. The Avionics Ventilation system goes into Closed Circuit Configuration.
ATA 22 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 22 - AUTOFLIGHT Page 1 of 21 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 22 - 1. LVR MCT flashing white message (in the left part of the FMA) means:
A - Throttles are not in MCT position , the a/c is flying in engine out condition. B - Throttles are not in MCT position, the a/c is in engine out condition, the speed is above GREEN DOT.
ATA 22 - 2. LVR CLB flashes white on FMA if the throttles are not in CL position when:
A - The a/c is above the altitude of thrust reduction (both engines running). B - The a/c is at lift-off. C - The landing gear is retracted.
ATA 22 - 3. A/THR active, ASYM amber message in the FMA means:

A - Only one thrust lever is set out of Climb Detent (both engines running). B - Asymmetric power is established due to FADEC malfunction. C - Asymmetric power is established due to TLA resolver fault.
ATA 22 - 4. After a FLEX T/0, in case of an engine failure to select MCT....

A - The throttle lever selection in FLX / MCT is automatic. B - is necessary to move the throttle levers from FLX / MCT detent to TOGA or CL detent then back to FLX / MCT position. C - A/THR should be disconnected then reactivated.
ATA 22 - 5. In flight, if the A/THR instinctive disconnect p/b is pressed for more than 15 seconds:
A - The A/THR functions including alphaFLOOR are definitively lost. B - The A/THR functions are definitively lost except alphaFLOOR. C - The A/THR should be reactivated by pushing the FCU A/THR pushbutton.
ATA 22 - 6. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled in order to have AP/FD and approach capabilities MODES to be displayed on the FMA
A - One Flight Director must be switched ON with the relevant FD pushbutton. B - Both Flight Directors must be switched ON with the relevant FD pushbutton. C - After setting the Takeoff thrust the MODES automatically will appear in the FMA.
ATA 22 - 7. The SRS pitch reference guidance law is...

A - V2+10 in normal engine configuration,- the current speed or V2, whichever is greater, if the FMGS detecs an engine failure. B - Attitde protection to reduce aircraft nose-up during takeoff (18 or 22.5 max in case of windshear) Flight path angle protection that ensures a minimum vertical speed of 120 ft/m C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 22 - 8. Autopilot engaged. When the a/c speed reaches the high speed protection trigger point ...
A - ... the pitch attitude will increase until speed is reduced in order to regain the target speed. B - ... the pitch attitude is maintained and thrust is automatically reduced to idle. C - ... the pitch attitude will increase until speed is reduced to VMO/MMO.
ATA 22 - 9. Which of the following symbols indicates the "ECON Speed range" during descent?
A - Two half magenta triangles. B - Amber double dash. C - One half cyan triangles.
ATA 22 - 10. Which speed will your FMGC command after passing the acceleration altitude?
A - SRS-Speed (V2 + 10). B - Flap or Slat Retraction Speed. C - Initial Climb Speed.
ATA 22 - 11. The FMGS contains the following units...

A - ...2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 ECAM - 1 FCU. B - ...2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 1 FCU. C - ...2FMGC 2 MCDU 2 FAC 2 ECAM.
ATA 22 - 12. On ground, at the a/c electrical power up, the MCDU will automatically display:
A - A/C STATUS page. B - INIT A page. C - DATA INDEX page.
ATA 22 - 13. During an ILS Approach, two A/Ps may be engaged at a time...
A - After APPR pushbutton is pressed and illuminated. B - When a/c is stabilized at G/S interception altitude. C - As soon as the LOC has been intercepted.
ATA 22 - 14. Prior to takeoff, in order to preset a 233 HDG is necessary:

A - Pull HDG Knob to disarm NAV Mode, set HDG 233 and press the HDG Knob. B - Turn HDG Knob, set HDG 233 and pull the HDG Knob. C - Turn HDG Knob, set HDG 233, and pull HDG Knob when ATC clears to turn to 233.
ATA 22 - 15. Control of the a/c can be AUTOMATIC or MANUAL. Guidance of the a/c can be MANAGED or SELECTED. If the a/c has : MANAGED GUIDANCE - MANUAL CONTROL - SELECTED SPEED it means that:
A - FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purposes. The pilot flies using the SIDE STICK. Speed is adjusted in the FCU window (Knob has been pulled). B - The Autopilot follows the F-PLN. The pilot sets the necessary data for longitudinal and lateral control of the a/c. The TARGET SPEED is computed and displayed by the FMGC.
ATA 22 - 16. In case of failure of FMGC 1 and 2 after NAV selection on both RMPs:
A - VOR, ILS and ADF Receivers I and 2 can be tuned through RMP 1. B - VOR, ILS and ADF Receivers 1 can be tuned through RMP 1. C - RMP 1 controls VOR/DME, ILS and ADF Receivers 1; RMP 2 controls VOR/DME, ILS and ADF Receivers 2.
ATA 22 - 17. If the a/c is in NAV mode, in order to exit a manually inserted holding:
A - use the CLR key. B - HOLD is automatically cancelled when overflying the fix. C - press the key next to "IMM EXIT" prompt.
ATA 22 - 18. For a/c position determination, FMGC uses data from:
A - DME, VOR or ILS Systems. B - 3 ADIRS, 2 GPS (if installed) C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 22 - 19. In flight, following a manual position FMGC updating:

A - It is also necessary to update the IRS position. B - An IRS cannot be updated during a/c motion. C - The IRS position is automatically updated by the FMGC
ATA 22 - 20. Which of the following action doesn't disengage the EXPEDITE mode
A - Pressing the EXPD pushbutton. B - Pulling the SPD knob. C - Pulling the ALT knob.
ATA 22 - 21. Which are the Basic Modes of the AP/FD?

A - Pitch and Roll. B - V/S and HDG. C - ALT and NAV.
ATA 22 - 22. if the a/c is in clean configuration, in NORMAL LAW, and the FAC detects a too high ANGLE OF ATTACK..
A - STALL WARNING activates. B - THR LK flashes on FMA. C - FLOOR function activates.
ATA 22 - 23. During an ILS APPROACH, Land 3 Fail Passive (also called CAT 3 SINGLE) if one engine fails below 100 feet RA, due to landing capability downgrading you must execute a Go Around even if RWY is in view:
A - True. B - False.
ATA 22 - 24. During an ILS APPROACH the NAV MODE will be disengaged at:
A - Glide Slope Capture. B - Localizer Capture. C - Both A and Bare correct.
ATA 22 - 25. Is it possible to display FD bars and FPV at the same time, for crosschecking on different PFDs.
A - Yes. B - No.
ATA 22 - 26. Setting the Thrust Levers to idle will disconnect the A/THR. A/THR will be reactivated:
A - As soon as the Thrust Levers position is changed. B - When the A/THR pushbutton is pressed. C - Provided the Thrust levers are in the A/THR active range and A/THR pushbutton is pressed.
ATA 22 - 27. In which of the cases listed below, A/THR does not disconnect ?
A - When the two thrust levers are set to idle position. B - Pressing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU. C - When the aural warning announces RETARD!.
ATA 22 - 28. The LOC p/b, on the FCU, is pressed to ARM the LOC MODE. This mode is used for:
A - Tracking a VOR BEAM during an approach. B - Performing a Non-Precision Approaches: VOR-ADF-R NAV. C - Approaching on an ILS with no G/S.
ATA 22 - 29. What does a triple click mean, during an ILS approach:
A - A level 3 warning to the crew. B - A primary failure is occurring, prepare for Go Around. C - Landing Capability Downgrading Warning.
ATA 22 - 30. The active F-PLN is erased when...

A - The pilot calls the A/C STATUS page. B - The wheels touch the runway at landing. C - The a/c has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing.
ATA 22 - 31. Following a Dual Engine Generator Failure, Emergency GEN supplies the a/c:
A - FMGC 1 is available. B - FMGC 2 only is available. C - Both FMGCs are available.
ATA 22 - 32. When the two YAW DAMPER functions are engaged:
A - YAW DAMPER 1 has priority, YAW DAMPER ACTUATOR 2 is slaved. B - YAW DAMPER 2 has priority, YAW DAMPER ACTUATOR 1 is slaved. C - YAW DAMPER 1 and 2 are active, the two actuators are pressurized.
ATA 22 - 33. The FMGC internal test is automatically performed:

A - On ground, at electrical power up. B - In case of discrepancy between 2 computers. C - In flight when a failure occurs.
ATA 22 - 34. During a coupled ILS approach in which case are AP/FD, A/THR and LANDING CAPABILITIES totally lost?
A - Failure of 2 RAs. B - Failure of 2 IRSs or failure of 2 ADRs. C - Failure of 2 ILSs.
ATA 22 - 35. The parameter used by the FAC to trigger the ALPHAFLOOR mode is:
A - A/c Minimum Speed. B - A/c Angle of Attack (AOA). C - A/c vertical speed.
ATA 22 - 36. Rudder Travel Limitation is a function of:

A - FAC only. B - FAC in NORMAL LAW and ELAC in ALTERNATE LAW. C - ELAC only.
ATA 22 - 37. The FMGC functions are:

A - Flight Guidance and Flight Envelope Protection. B - Flight Management and Flight Envelope Protection. C - Flight Management and Flight Guidance.
ATA 22 - 38. The TRIM function of the FAC is:

A - A PITCH TRIM. B - A RUDDER TRIM. C - An AILERON TRIM.
ATA 22 - 39. In flight, in case of temporary loss of electrical power on FAC 2, FAC 2 pushbutton FAULT comes on and:
A - It will be automatically reset. B - It can be manually reset.
ATA 22 - 40. The Auto Flight System (AFS) computers are:

A - FMGC and ELAC. B - FMGC and SEC. C - FMGC and FAC.
ATA 22 - 41. With API and AP2 not engaged, FD1 and FD2 engaged and A/THR active:
A - FMGC1 Controls Engine 1, FMGC2 Controls Engine 2. B - FMGC1 Controls both Engines. C - FMGC2 Controls both Engines.
ATA 22 - 42. In normal operation, with both MCDU showing the same page, a modification made by the pilot on MCDU1 is sent to MCDU2:
A - Via FMGC1. B - Via FMGC1 and FMGC2. C - Via FMGC1, FMGC2 and RMP2.
ATA 22 - 43. The FLIGHT GUIDANCE performs the following functions:

A - AUTOPILOT command, FLIGHT PLAN management, AUTOTH RUST command. B - AUTOPILOTcommand, PERFORMANCE prediction and optimization, FLIGHT PLAN management. C - AUTOPILOT command, FLIGHT DIRECTOR command, AUTOTHRUST command.
ATA 22 - 44. The position of the aircraft, used in the FLIGHT PLAN is computed by:
A - FG part of the FMGC. B - FM part of the FMGC. C - The DMC.
ATA 22 - 45. The FLIGHT DIRECTORS are engaged:

A - By pressing the FD p/bs on the FCU. B - Automatically whenever FMGC powers up.
ATA 22 - 46. By selecting a mode on the FCU. With Autopilot engaged, the Rudder is normally controlled by:
A - The FMGC. B - The FAC. C - The ELAC.
ATA 22 - 47. In normal FMGS mode of operation...

A - ...only one FMGC can operate at a time. B - ... FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC 2 is in standby. C - ... FMGCs operate according to master/slave principle.
ATA 22 - 48. The FCU allows:

A - Modification of the FLIGHT PLAN of FM part. B - Selection of FG function modes. C - Selection of RADIO-NAV frequencies.
ATA 22 - 49. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, the A/THR mode:
A - Can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU. B - Depends on the AP Lateral Mode. C - Depends on the AP Vertical Mode.
ATA 22 - 50. While the aircraft is in flight, with A/THR disconnected and thrust levers on CLB detent, if the FLOOR conditions are met:
A - A/THR automatically arms, but is not active. B - A/THR automatically activates and controls the engines to CLB THRUST. C - ALPHAFLOOR messages appears and A/THR automatically activates setting the engines to TO/GA THRUST.
ATA 22 - 51. The FAC computes rudder travel limit:

A - Only at low speed. B - Only in case of ELAC failure. C - At any time.
ATA 22 - 52. With AP engaged in LAND MODE, the YAW DAMPER actuator is controlled by:
A - A Dutch Roll damping order computed by the FAC. B - A turn coordination order computed by the FAC. C - An AP yaw order computed by the FMGC, via the FAC.
ATA 22 - 53. On the second line of the vertical modes (2nd column) of the FMA:
A - ALT can be only in green or magenta. B - ALT in blue indicates that ALT MODE is active. C - ALT in blue indicates that ALT MODE is armed.
ATA 22 - 54. With the thrust levers in the CLB detent if A/THR disconnects due to a failure, the engines thrust:
A - Equals CLB thrust limit. B - "THR LK" flashes amber on the FMA and thrust is frozen at its level prior to disconnection. C - Corresponds to the thrust levers angle position.
ATA 22 - 55. When TAKE-OFF mode is engaged:

A - A/THR automatically activates. B - A/THR automatically arms but is not active. C - A/THR does not automatically activates.
ATA 22 - 56. During ILS APPROACH, with AP/FD, LAND illuminates green on FMAs when Radio Altitude is below:
A - 200 feet. B - 700 feet. C - 400 feet.
ATA 22 - 57. During TAKE-OFF and GO AROUND, the speed window on the FCU displays:
A - The speed manually inserted by the crew into the FCU and the light is out. B - The speed manually inserted by the crew into the MCDU and the light is illuminated. C - Dashes and the dot are illuminated white: managed speed such as V2 or memorized VAPP are automatically used by the FMGS.
ATA 22 - 58. The AP/FD lateral managed modes are:

A - NAV, HDG, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK. B - HDG, NAV, APPR, LOC, GA TRK. C - NAV, APPR NAV, LOC*, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK, GA TRK, LAND, ROLL OUT.
ATA 22 - 59. On ground, the A/THR arming:

A - Is automatic at the engagement of the take off modes of the FDs (or provided at least one FD is on). B - It must be carried out manually by the crew before take off. C - It's performed automatically upon the second engine start.
ATA 22 - 60. Climbs and descents are always restricted by:

A - the altitude manually selected on the FCU. B - the aircraft weight calculated by the FMGC. C - FLIGHT PLAN (T/C) and (T/D) points.
ATA 22 - 61. In flight, the FMGS position is automatically updated...

A - ...using data from the selected NDB, VOR or DME stations. B - ...whenever a DME station is selected by the pilot. C - ...by the DMEs through the autotuning function and from GPS if installed.
ATA 22 - 62. Which is the function of the LOC pushbutton ?

A - To arm LOC and GS mode if an ILS App has been selected. B - To arm capture and track a VOR radial. C - Provided the required conditions are fulfilled, it arms, captures, and track a localizer beam independently of the glide path beam.
ATA 22 - 63. Pressing the APPR pushbutton....

A - ... LOC and GS mode become armed if an ILS App has been selected. B - ...the speed is reduced to the manoeuvering speed for the current configuration. C - ... LOC mode only become armed.
ATA 22 - 64. What does the asterisk symbol (*) beside the LOC indicate?
A - Attention, the LOC signal cannot be received. B - LOC capture mode is engaged. C - The intercept angle is too large.
ATA 22 - 65. the "temperature at destination" on the PERF APP page is entered in the FMGS
A - ... for the automatic temperature cabin regulation. B - ... as a reminder for you. C - ... to refine the computation of the descent profile (ISA model).
ATA 22 - 66. If after having inserted a company route the message "NOT IN DATA BASE" appears is necessary
A - ...check the actual database validity. B - ...ask Dispatch to give you anew Standard Flight Plan. C - ...enter a city pair( four letter ICAO airport code) into the FROM/TO boxes.
ATA 22 - 67. When in the INIT A page the city pair option is used, the CRZ FL/TEMP must be entered ...
A - ...so the engines CLB THR is not exceeded. B - ...otherwise the correct predictions will not be available on ground. C - ...so you will receive the correct cabin temperature.
ATA 22 - 68. The FM position is updated to the runway threshold position during takeoff....
A - ...automatically when the Take Off power is set. B - ...manually by inserting the threshold coordinates into the MCDU. C - ...manually by switching on the IRS 3.
ATA 22 - 69. What is the significance of the FIGURE OF MERIT?

A - It defines the type of navaid. B - It indicates the distance to a navaid when the navaid is not equipped with DME. C - It indicates the range at which the navaid can be autotuned by the FMGC.
ATA 22 - 70. Which of these conditions must be fulfilled in order to activate the SEC F-PLN ?
A - If in NAV mode the active and secondary flight plan must have a common active leg. B - Selecting HDG/TRK if the active and secondary flight plan dont have a common active leg. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 22 - 71. After having inserted the HDG/TRK preset function, the following changes on the FMA will occur...
A - ... none B - ...the NAV-MODE is disarmed. C - ...the RWY TRK mode is activated.
ATA 22 - 72. Prior to takeoff how is possible to cancel the HDG/TRK preset mode and arm the NAV mode?
A - By pulling the HDG / TRK selector knob. B - By pressing the HDG / TRK selector knob. C - By pressing the TRK / FPA p/b.
ATA 22 - 73. The windshear detection function is provided:

A - During T/O from lift-off up to 1300 ft, with at least CONF 1 is selected. B - During Approach from 1300 ft to 50 ft; with at least CONF 1 selected. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 22 - 74. During taxiing instrument CK, both FDs ON, the FMA displays "2FD2" on both PFDs
A - This is the normal configuration with 2 FDs ON. B - The FMGC 1 is not valid, but it could be possible to recover it. C - The FMGC 1 is not valid and definitively lost.
ATA 22 - 75. In a CAT 3 DUAL approach the FMGC 1 is always the master
ATA 22 - 76. The number of FMGS modes of operation are

A - Two ( Dual and Single mode). B - One (Dual mode) C - Three (Dual, Single and Independent mode).
ATA 22 - 77. Which are the degraded modes of FMGS ?

A - Indipendent and Single mode. B - Alternate mode and Direct mode. C - Independent and Alternate mode
ATA 22 - 78. The F/Ds Bars disappear from the PFD when...
A - ... pitch attitude exceeds 25UP, 13DN. B - ..."TOO STEP PATH" message appears on MCDU. C - ...pitch attitude exceeds 30UP, 15DN.
ATA 22 - 79. If "INDIPENDENT scratchpad:
OPERATION"
message
appears
on
MCDUs
A - Entries on one MCDU are transmitted only to the onside FMGC and affect only onside EFIS and RMP. B - Entries on one MCDU are transmitted to both FMGCs, but they must be x-checked. C - Entries on one MCDU are transmitted to the onside FMGC, but there are no effects on EFIS and RMP.
ATA 22 - 80. A white message "PLEASE WAIT" is displayed on both MCDU scratchpads:
A - FMGCs are computing some predictions. You may use MCDUs as usual. B - One FMGC have had a transient failure and a resynchronization is in progress; you may not use MCDUs while the message is displayed.
ATA 22 - 81. Why the accuracy navigation check must be periodically performed despite of accuracy "HIGH" is display on PROG page ?
A - Because the autotuned VORIDME used by FMGCs may be different from the VOR/DME used for en route navigation. B - Because "HIGH" or "LOW" messages is related to an FM position accuracy based upon the estimated position error (EPE) criteria.
ATA 22 - 82. The optimum target speed, ECON SPD/MACH is the basis of the managed speed profile. Select the correct statement:
A - For Climb, Cruise and Descent ECON SPD is computed before initiation of the flight phase and is frozen when the related flight phase becomes active. B - ECON SPD is computed only for climb phase as soon as ZFW and FUEL weight values are inserted in the INIT B page. C - For Climb and Descent ECON SPD is computed before the initiation of the flight phase and is frozen when flight phase becomes active; for Cruise is continuously updated according current weather conditions and FLT-PLN modifications.
ATA 22 - 83. Optimum flight level shown in the PROG indicates the most economic flight level for a given:
A - Actual Weight. B - Cost Index and actual weight C - Cost Index, actual weight and weather data.
ATA 22 - 84. With DES mode engaged extending the speed brakes
A - Doesn't necessarily increase the descent rate It does so only if the a/c is above the profile. B - Increases the descent rate only when the descent is initiated before the TOD C - Increases the speed up to the max economy speed range value.
ATA 22 - 85. If the V2 speed is not inserted into the perf T/O page ...
A - ...the SRS mode will be replaced by a flight path angle protection that ensures a min V/S of 250 ft/min. B - ...the SRS mode will be available at a speed determined by the FAC C - ... the SRS mode will not engage for takeoff five seconds after lift off , V/S mode will engage.
ATA 22 - 86. Engine failure at T/O below engine out acceleration altitude: the a/c will stop climb automatically at ENG OUT ACC ALT inserted in the PERF T/O page
A - Correct. B - Wrong: the ENG OUT ACC ALT inserted in PERF T/O page is used for display purposes only,as reminder. C - Only if the a/c is flying on an Eng.Out SID (EOS).
ATA 22 - 87. Prior to takeoff the ATC request you to maintain a particular climb speed. Select the correct statement.
A - At ACC ALT select the requested speed by turning and pulling the speed selector knob. B - Insert the requested speed in the MCDU PERF CLIMB page : at acceleration altitude AP/FDs and A/THR modes will automatically manage in order to achieve the new target speed. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 22 - 88. Before descent a Mach and Speed are preselected in the MCDU DES page, ECON SPD reverts to AUTO SPD. During the descent the target speed on the PFD speed scale will be indicated by:
A - A cyan triangle. B - Two magenta half triangles in DES mode or magenta triangle in OP DES or V/S - FPA. C - A magenta triangle in all descent modes.
ATA 22 - 89. When the AP is engaged, the rudder trim knob is inoperative..
A - True B - False
ATA 22 - 90. The VERTICAL DEVIATION can be monitored ...

A - ... On PROG page when NAV mode is engaged, during descent and approach. B - ...On PFD altitude scale, indicated by a magenta dot. C - ... Both A and B are correct.
ATA 22 - 91. The wind entries on MCDU are referenced to...

A - ...TRUE NORTH. B - ...MAGNETIC NORTH. C - ...TRUE NORTH, except on PERF APP page where the wind is MAGNETIC NORTH referenced.
ATA 22 - 92. One of the condition that inhibits the Alpha floor protection is ...
A - Engine out when slats/flaps are extended (conf 1 or above) B - FMGC 1 or FMGC 2 failure C - SFCC 1 or SFCC 2 failure
ATA 22 - 93. In case of failure of one IRS, each FMGC, for position computation, uses:
A - The two remaining IRSs. B - The RADIO position and the BIAS vector. C - Onside IRS or IRS 3.
ATA 22 - 94. The ESTIMATED POSITION ERROR (EPE) computed by FMGS is an estimate of how much the FM position has drifted. lt's compared to the position accuracy criteria and the result of comparison is displayed on the PROG page as "HIGH" or "LOW" accuracy.
ATA 22 - 95. The "TOO STEEP PATH AHEAD" amber message on MCDU appears when...
A - FM predicts that the descent segment between two constraint waypoints is impossible to fly at the planned descent speed with half speedbrakes extended. B - In the next segment the descent path is too steep and the speed may reach MMO or VMO.
ATA 22 - 96. At transit stop fast realignment of the ADIRS is mandatory all the times.
A - When one or more ADIRS have a residual GS greater than 5 Kts. B - Only when all three ADIRS have more than 5 Kts of residual GS.
ATA 22 - 97. When in CLB mode, if an ALT CSTR is predicted as missed, the target speed will be automatically modified by the FMGS in attempt to match it.
A - True B - False
ATA 22 - 98. The COST INDEX assumed by the FMGC to compute ALTERNATE trip fuel and time is
A - A value between 8 and 30, according to the FL. B- 0 C - The value inserted in the PERF pages.
ATA 22 - 99. In order to fly an ECON SPD/MACH corresponding to the LRC value is necessary
A - to insert a COST INDEX derived from a graph on the FMGS pilot's guide .(O.M./B Vol. 4) B - to use selected SPD/MACH according to the cruise control chart.
ATA 22 - 100. FMGS 1. The position accuracy criteria, definited for various areas, is displayed on PROG page in terms of HIGH or LOW accuracy. Select the correct values.
A - En route : 3,41 NM,Terminal :2,07 NM,Approach : VOR/DME 0,61 NM Other cases : 0,36 NM. B - En route : 2,07 NM,Terminal :3,41 NM,Approach : VOR/DME 0,36 NM Other cases : 0,61 NM C - En route : 0,61 NM,Terminal : 2,07 NM,Approach : VOR/DME 0,61 NM Other cases : 3,41 NM
ATA 23 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 23 - COMMUNICATIONS Page 1 of 6 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 23 - 1 - In normal operation, RMP1 is dedicated to:

A. B. C. VHF 1 tuned on Company frequency. VHF 1 tuned on ATC frequency. VHF 2 tuned on ATC frequency.
ATA 23 - 2 - If you select VHF 2 on RMP 1, the SEL light illuminates on:
A. B. C. RMP 1 only. RMP 2 only. RMP 1 and RMP 2.
ATA 23 - 3 - To activate the VOICE RECORDER before Engine Start you have to press:
A. B. C. The GROUND CONTROL pushbutton. The CVR ERASE pushbutton. The CVR TEST pushbutton.
ATA 23 - 4 - After pressing the MECH transmission key on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is possible to speak to...
A. B. C. ...ground Mech through the Handset. ...ground Mech via the Handmike (regardless Push to Talk position) ...ground Mech via the Boomset or Oxygen Mask (regardless INT/RAD switch position) and via the the handmike ( pressing the push to talk)
ATA 23 - 5 - In order to erase CVR recording you have to...

A. B. C. ...push the CVR ERASE pushbutton once. ...push the CVR ERASE pushbutton for more than 2 seconds in flight. ...push the CVR ERASE pushbutton for more than 2 seconds, provided the a/c is on the ground and the PARKING BRAKE is ON.
ATA 23 - 6 - The Flight Interphone System allows flight crew members to communicate ...
A. B. C. ...among themselves and with the ground Mechanic. ..with the Cabin Attendant. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 23 - 7 - In order to receive ATIS information using a VOR frequency is necessary...

A. B. C. ...to select "ON VOICE" pushbutton on the Audio Control Panel and to press (knob out) the related VOR reception knob. ...to select "ON VOICE" pushbutton only. ...select "RAD" only.
ATA 23 - 8 - How can you cancel the green light of the "ON VOICE" pushbutton ?
A. B. C. By pressing the "ON VOICE" pushbutton again. By pressing the VOR Reception knob. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 23 - 9 - What is the function of the RESET pushbutton on the Audio Control Panel (ACP)?
A. B. C. To restart system operation. To cancel the previous selections. To cancel any lighted call legend.
ATA 23 - 10 - When using the OXY MASK or BOOM HEADSET, if the INT/RAD key is set to INT will the interphone background noise be heard when using the SIDESTICK P.T.T. for radio transmissions?
A. B. Yes. No.
ATA 23 - 11 - In order to hear the identification of a BEACON tuned through the MCDU or through the STBY/NAV mode is necessary...
A. B. C. ...to press the corresponding reception knob on ACP. ...to press the ON VOICE pushbutton on ACP ... Both A and B are correct.
ATA 23 - 12 - Can you hear the Voice Recorder Test signal through the cockpit Loudspeakers, with the Parking Brake released?
A. B. Yes. No.
ATA 23 - 13 - If RMP 2 fails:

A. B. C. All COM Systems can be controlled by any other RMP. Only VHF2 frequencies can not be controlled. C. The whole system is inoperative.
ATA 23 - 14 - Is it possible to transmit on VHF and the P.A. at the same time?
A. B. C. Never, Yes by pressing the RAD TOGGLE switch and the P.A. key. Yes by using the STICK PRESS TO TALK command and the P.A. key.
ATA 23 - 15 - When you select CAPT 3 on the Audio Switching Panel:

A. B. C. The captain uses the 3rd occupant headset. The 3rd occupant uses captain equipment. The captain uses his acoustic equipment and the 3rd occupant ACP.
ATA 23 - 16 - If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, the SEL light illuminates white:

A. B. C. On RMP 2. On RMP 1. On RMP 1 and 2.
ATA 23 - 17 - If RMP 1 fails, the crew can ...

A. B. ...switch OFF RMP 1, then use RMP 2. ...use the overhead Panel Audio Switching in CAPT 3.
ATA 23 - 18 - The Cockpit Voice Recorder is energized, on ground as soon as the aircraft electrical network is supplied but only for 5 minutes. It starts again as soon as:
A. B. C. GND CTL is ON. One engine is running. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 23 - 19 - What is the main purpose of the RMP?

A. B. C. To tune Comm. Radio Frequencies. To tune NAV AIDS when the MCDU has failed. Both A and are correct.
ATA 23 - 20 - On the RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls:

A. B. C. The power supply to the RMP. Only the STBY NAV function of RMP. Only the COM function of RMP.
ATA 23 - 21 - STBY NAV has been selected by using the NAV key:
A. B. C. VHF tuning function is lost on this RMP. VHF is still available but only the last tuned frequency can be used. NAV key doesn't affect the Radio Comm Frequency Tuning.
ATA 23 - 22 - The Radio Communication Systems of the A320 family a/c are
A. B. C. 2 VHF COM systems, 3 optional HF COM systems, 1 SELCAL system. 3 VHF COM systems, 2 optional HF COM systems. 2 VHF COM systems, 1 optional HF COM system, 2 SELCAL systems.
ATA 23 - 23 - State the location of the EVAC COMMAND switches:

A. B. C. Purser station and cabin attendant AFT left. Purser stations and pilot overhead panel. Pilot overhead panel and all cabin attendant station.
ATA 23 - 24 - What happens if the EVAC COMD pushbutton on the PURSER EVAC PNL is pressed when the master selector on the EVAC CONTROL PANEL is in the CAPT position?
A. B. C. EVAC signals are activated in the cabin only. All EVAC signals are activated. Evac signal can be activated in the cockpit only.
ATA 23 - 25 - Is the EVAC alert activated when the COMMAND pushbutton on the EVAC purser panel is pressed ?
A. B. C. Yes, at any time. Yes, but only on ground. Yes, provided the cockpit EVAC switch is in the CAPT and PURS position.
ATA 23 - 26 - In case of Captain ACP(1) failure

A. B. Captain will use F/O ACP. Captain wil use the third ACP, provided the AUDIO SWITCHING is selected on CPT 3 position.
ATA 23 - 27 - During Emergency Electrical Configuration which VHF COM is supplied ?

A. B. C. VHF COM 1. VHF COM 2. VHF COM 3.
ATA 23 - 28 - When using NAV Key on RMP

A. B. C. Auto tuning of Radio-Aids is still available. Auto tuning capability of Navaids is removed from both FMGS. Auto tuning capability of Navaids is removed from the onside FMGS only.
ATA 24 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 24 - ELECTRICAL Page 1 of 9 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 24 - 1 In normal configuration, how is the DC ESS BUS supplied?

A. B. C. From TR 1. From ESS TR. From TR 2.
ATA 24 - 2 AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by:

A. B. C. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. EMERGENCY GENERATOR.
ATA 24 - 3 DC BAT BUS can be supplied by:

A. B. C. DC BUS 1 or Batteries. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or Batteries. DC BUS 2 or Batteries.
ATA 24 - 4 On the EMER ELEC PWR panel, a FAULT light illuminates under the RAT & EMER GEN label. What does it mean?
A. B. C. EMERGENCY GENERATOR is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered EMERGENCY GENERATOR is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered (above 100 Kts) or DC BAT BUS is not powered. EMERGENCY GENERATOR is supplying power but AC ESS BUS is not powered.
ATA 24 - 5 In case of failure of TR1 and TR2, both DC BUSES and DC BAT BUS are lost. Where is the DC ESS BUS connected?
A. B. C. To the BATTERY I To the HOT BUS 2. To the ESS TR.
ATA 24 - 6 In cold aircraft configuration (no AC and no DC supply), where can the Batteries Voltage be checked?
A. B. C. On the ECAM ELEC page. On the ELEC Overhead Panel. There is no indication.
ATA 24 - 7 BUS TIE contactors when closed enable AC BUS 1 and 2...
A. B. C. ...to be supplied by any one of the Eng Generators, by APU Generator or by External Power. ..to be supplied by APU Generator or by External Power only. ..to be connected in parallel.
ATA 24 - 8 In flight,with Batteries only, the AC ESS SHED BUS and the DC ESS SHED BUS are lost:
A. B. C. Yes, at any a/c speed. No. As soon as the a/c speed drops below 100 Kts
ATA 24 - 9 In flight the STATIC INVERTER works:

A. B. C. When a/c is on Batteries only regardless of BAT 1 and BAT 2 pushbuttons position. When a/c is on Batteries only and BAT 1 and BAT 2 pushbuttons are both ON. When one Main Generator fails.
ATA 24 - 10 Recommended Minimum Battery Voltage before APU start is:

A. B. C. 25.5 V. 27.5 V. 22 V.
ATA 24 - 11 On ground what happens if the "RAT & EMER GEN " MAN ON push button is pressed in ?
A. B. C. The RAT extension occurs. The EMERGENCY GENERATOR activates. Nothing.
ATA 24 - 12 The STATIC INVERTER transforms the DC power from the BATTERY 1 into:
A. B. C. 1 KVA Single Phase 115V. 400 Hz AC power. 10KVA Three Phase 115/200 V. 400 Hz AC power. 10KVA Single Phase 115V. 400 Hz AC power.
ATA 24 - 13 In flight, in case of LOSS OF ALL MAIN GENERATORs and EMERGENCY GENERATOR not running, the STATIC INVERTER supplies:
A. B. C. APU and ENG START + AC ESS BUS. ENG START + AC ESS BUS + AC ESS SHED BUS. ENG START + AC ESS BUS.
ATA 24 - 14 The External Power has priority over the APU GEN when EXT PWR pushbuttonis ON:
A. B. Yes. No.
ATA 24 - 15 GEN 1 and GEN 2, when operating, have priority over APU GEN:
A. B. Yes. No.
ATA 24 - 16 A/c in flight with APU available. If one ENG GENERATOR fails, the failed generator is replaced by:
A. B. C. The APU GENERATOR. The other ENG GENERATOR. The EMERGENCY PWR INVERTER.
ATA 24 - 17 In flight, in case of LOSS OF ALL MAIN GENERATORs and EMERGENCY GENERATOR not running, the DC ESS BUS is supplied by:
A. B. C. HOT BUS 2. ESS TR. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 24 - 18 When the a/c speed is below 50 knots the static inverter is activated if nothing but the batteries is supplyinc electrical power to the aircraft...
A. B. C. ...provided both BAT pushbutton switches are in AUTO position ...provided BAT 1 or BAT 2 p/b switch is in AUTO position ...regardless of BAT land BAT 2 pushbutton switch position.
ATA 24 - 19 Generators are sometimes connected in parallel.

A. B. C. True. False. True, but only with the APU.
ATA 24 - 20 A/c in flight. In case of LOSS OF MAIN GENERATORs...

A. B. C. ...the RAT is automatically extended and powers the Yellow Hydraulic System which drives the EMERGENCY GENERATOR (provided Nose L/G is UP). ...the RAT is extended and mechanically connected to the EMERGENCY GENERATOR. ...the RAT is automatically extended and powers the Blue Hydraulic System which drives the EMERGENCY GENERATOR.
ATA 24 - 21 If AC BUS 1 fails the AC ESS BUS is supplied by:

A. B. C. EMER GEN. AC BUS 2 using AC ESS FEED pushbutton switch. STATIC INVERTER.
ATA 24 - 22 In case of LOSS of all MAIN GENERATORs, EMERGENCY GENERATOR not running, the AC ESS BUS is supplied by:
A. B. C. BATTERY 1 by means of the STATIC INVERTER. BATTERY 2 by means of the STATIC INVERTER. DC ESSENTIAL BUS by means of the ESS T/R.
ATA 24 - 23 A/c in flight.When one Generator only is operative...

A. B. C. ...Main Galley is automatically shed. ...Secondary Galley is automatically shed. ...All Galleys are shed.
ATA 24 - 24 Is it possible to reconnect the IDG in flight?

A. B. Yes. No.
ATA 24 - 25 In order to disconnect the IDG, the pushbutton switch should be pressed:
A. B. C. For no more than 3 seconds. For no more than 5 seconds. For more than 3 seconds.
ATA 24 - 26 When GEN 1 or GEN 2 is selected OFF:

A. B. The generator field is de-energized and the line contactors opens. The generator field is still energized and the line contactors opens.
ATA 24 - 27 The green EXT PWR pushbutton AVAIL light is ON when

A. B. The EXT PWR is plugged in and parameters are normal. The a/c network is supplied.
ATA 24 - 28 During the cockpit safety inspection, in order to check the battery voltage, the BAT pushbuttons must be in
A. B. AUTO Position. OFF Position.
ATA 24 - 29 The BAT FAULT light comes ON when:

A. B. C. Battery Voltage <25. Battery pushbutton is set to OFF in flight. Charging current increases at an abnormal rate.
ATA 24 - 30 In flight or in ground with BATTERIES ONLY the STATIC INVERTER is supplied by:
A. B. C. HOT BUS 1 and HOT BUS 2. HOT BUS 1. DC BAT BUS.
ATA 24 - 31 What's the purpose of a TR unit ?

A. B. C. A TR Unit is an overload protection for the systems. A TR Unit converts AC to DC. A TR Unit ensures a very constant voltage for sensitive electronic equipment.
ATA 24 - 32 What is the purpose of the STATIC INVERTER?

A. B. C. The STATIC INVERTER reverses the phases to supply the AC ESS BUSSES. The STATIC INVERTER takes over if the ESS TR Unit fails. With a failure OF ALL GENERATORS the STATIC INVERTER changes DC in AC current.
ATA 24 - 33 After loss of all main generators when the EMER GEN is running the following DC BUSSES are supplied.
A. B. C. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC ESS BUS. DC ESS BUS. BATTERY BUS.
ATA 24 - 34 On ground when the electrical system is initially powered by EXT PWR or by APU GEN the AC ESSENTIAL BUS is supplied...
A. B. C. ...directly from the AC BUS 1. ...from both BATTERIES by means of the STATIC INVERTER. ...from BATTERY 1 by means of the STATIC INVERTER.
ATA 24 - 35 ELEC GEN 2 FAULT message on the EWD is shown in case of

A. B. C. Protection trip initiated by associated GCU Opening of line contactor (except if the GEN p/b switch is selected OFF). Both A and B are correct.
ATA 24 - 36 In flight when the RAT automatically extends:

A. B. C. The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized but the EMERGENCY GEN does not run. The Green Hydraulic System is pressurized and the EMERGENCY GEN runs. The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized and the EMERGENCY GEN runs.
ATA 24 - 37 The RAT is capable of supplying the EMER GEN down to

A. B. C. 100 kt. 125 kt. 140 kt. (new type of RAT 100Kt)
ATA 24 - 38 ELEC EMER CONFIG & EMER GEN not running. Is it possible to start the APU ?
A. B. C. Yes, on ground only, below 100 kt. It's not possible in flight. Both A and B are correct.
ATA 24 - 39 Smoke Configuration. Are fuel pumps still electrically connected ?

A. B. No, the engines are in suction feed. Yes, fuel pumps are connected upstream of GEN 1 line contactor.
ATA 25 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 25 - EQUIPMENT Page 1 of 4 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 25 - 1 - The following equipment must be checked for presence and integrity before each flight
A. B. C. infant life vest infant life vest, demo kit, extension seat belt infant life vest, demo kit
ATA 25 - 2 - The smoke hood ensures the eyes and respiratory system protection of a crew member
A. B. C. when fighting a fire and in case of smoke or noxious gas emission in case of cabin depressurization Both A and B are correct.
ATA 25 - 3 - The pre-flight check on the Halon 1211 is: Needle in green band and safety pin installed
A. B. C. False Safety pin must be removed True
ATA 25 - 4 - When a fire extinguisher is installed on its holder the safety pin must be inserted in the safety pin hole in the cockpit extinguisher while it must not be inserted in the passenger cabin extinguishers.
A. B. True False
ATA 25 - 5 - The Drager Oxycrew is ready for use if the seal visible through the window is..
A. B. C. green yellow white
ATA 25 - 6 - The smoke hood furnish an effective time of use of

A. B. C. 20 min 30 min 22 min
ATA 25 - 7 - The number of slide-raft is :

A. B. C. 4 6 8
ATA 25 - 8 - The escape slide of the doors L3/R3 and L2/R2 can be used in a ditching as floating devices?
A. B. C. Yes, as they are slide-rafts No Yes
ATA 25 - 9 - In case of an emergency evacuation with the nose gear collapsed or up all slides are usable.
A. B. True False
ATA 25 - 10 - The basic functions of a switch in "PRESSED IN" position are

A. B. C. ON, AUTO, OVRD, OFF ON, AUTO, OVRD, OPEN
ATA 25 - 11 - The basic functions of a switch in "RELEASED OUT" position are

A. OFF, MAN, ALTN B. ON, MAN, SHUT C. OFF, MAN, ALTN, SHUT
ATA 26 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 26 - FIRE PROTECTION
Page 1 of 8
Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 26-1 - Which additional external warnings are activated in case of an APU FIRE on ground only?
A - An external horn warning. B - A fire bell warning. C - APU FIRE light and an external horn warning.
ATA 26-2 - Which systems are tested through the"TEST' p/b on the Eng and Apu Fire Panel ?
A - The Fire Detection System. B - The Extinguishing System. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 26-3 - Illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE indicates:

A - A Smoke has been detected in the Generator 1 bay. B - A fire has been detected in the avionics compartment. C - Smoke has been detected in the avionics compartment ventilation duct.
ATA 26-4 - Any Agent pushbutton is active when:

A - The related ENGINE FIRE pushbutton switch is pushed in and released out. B - The corresponding DISCH light is ON. C - ENGINE FIRE pushbutton switch is ON.
ATA 26-5 - An APU FIRE, on ground, is normally extinguished...

A - ...from the APU FIRE PANEL. B - ... automatically. C - ...from the External Power Panel.
Page 2 of 8
ATA 26-6 - How can a thermal discharge of the APU FIRE BOTTLE be detected when no Electrical Power is connected:
A - By the FDU. B - By the ECAM. C - By the Red Disc Indicator.
ATA 26-7 - How many Fire Sensing Elements does the APU Fire Detection System comprise?
A - Three. B - Two. C - One.
ATA 26-8 - Which systems are isolated when the APU FIRE pushbutton is released out?
A - Fuel, Electrical. B - Air, Electrical. C - Fuel, Air, Electrical..
ATA 26-9 - Which of the following are monitored for protection against fire or smoke?
A - Engines, APU, aft cargo, lavatories and avionics bay B - Engines, APU, aft cargo,wheel well, lavatories and avionics bay. C - Engines, APU, forward and aft cargo, lavatories and avionics bay
ATA 26-10 - When the APU FIRE pushbutton is released out...

A - ...the APU Generator is deactivated. B - ...the APU Generator is disconnected. C - ...the APU Generator is still energized.
Page 3 of 8
ATA 26-11 - Is it necessary to press the APU SHUT OFF switch on the External Power Panel in case of APU FIRE Auto Extinguishing on ground ?
A - Yes, at any time. B - No, it doesn't affect the auto extinguish. C - Only to confirm that APU has shut down automatically and silence the external warning horn.
ATA 26-12 - Where are the Engine Fire Detectors located?

A - On the Pylon, the Fan and the Core sections. B - On the Core and the Gearbox. C - On the Fan and the Turbine.
ATA 26-13 - When one ENG FIRE p/b is released out its engine is isolated from the following a/c system:
A - FUEL, AIR, ELEC B - FUEL, AIR, HYD C - FUEL, AIR, ELEC, HYD
ATA 26-14 - When an ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out:

A - The Squib lights come ON. B - The Squib lights remain OFF. C - The Squib lights flash red.
ATA 26-15 - The ENGINE and APU FIRE Protection Systems include:
A - 2 FIRE Extinguishing Bottles for each Engine -1 FIRE Extinguishing Bottle for the APU. B - 1 FIRE Extinguishing Bottle for each Engine - 1 FIRE Extinguishing Bottle for the APU. C - 2 FIRE Extinguishing Bottles for the Engines - 2 FIRE Extinguishing Bottles for the APU.
Page 4 of 8
ATA 26-16 - If an APU FIRE warning occurs on ground, ...

A - ... you must immediately discharge a fire extinguisher bottle. B - ... you must discharge both agents after 10 seconds. C - ... the fire extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged after 3 seconds.
ATA 26-17 - Eng 1 LOOP B fails and LOOP A of the same engine detects a fire. Select the correct statement.
A - The unaffected loop still protects the aircraft B - Fire Detection is assured only if you switch to LOOP A. C - The Fire Detection Unit can no longer initiate a fire warning.
ATA 26-18 - How is the extinguisher discharge bottle operated ?

A - Electrically. B - Pneumatically. C - Hydraulically.
ATA 26-19 - Which of the following are monitored for protection against fire or smoke?
A - Engines, APU, aft cargo, lavatories and avionics bay B - Engines, APU, aft cargo,wheel well, lavatories and avionics bay. C - Engines, APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, lavatories and avionics bay
ATA 26-20 - How is possible to recognize that engine fire condition still exist ?
A - By the ENG FIRE light in the pushbutton and the FIRE light on the pedestal B - Only by the ENG FIRE light in the pushbutton. C - By the illumination of the SQUIB light.
Page 5 of 8
ATA 26-21 - If an APU FIRE TEST is performed while the APU is running...
A - ...the APU continues to operate normally but, in case of need, the automatic shutdown of the APU on ground, will not occur while the test is in progress B - ...it shuts down automatically C - ...the test is inhibited.
ATA 26-22 - How many loops are checked in each engine during test?
A - 1 Loop. B - 2 Loops. C - 3 Loops.
ATA 26-23 - Are the AGENT pushbuttons active when the related ENG FIRE pushbutton is in the IN & GUARDED position?
A - No. B - Yes. C - Yes, but only when the engine has actually fire conditions.
ATA 26-24 - After an APU fire warning the APU FIRE light extinguishes. It means that:
A - The APU fire condition no longer exist. B - The APU MASTER SW has been switched OFF.
ATA 26-25 - In flight, in the event of a cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke
A - Extinguishing is automatic at any time. B - Extinguishing is automatic only while on the ground. C - The Crew must press the appropriate DISCH switch.
Page 6 of 8
ATA 26-26 - ENG FIRE in flight. Prior to operate the AGENT 1 discharge, a 10 second delay must be observed after engine shutdown, because ...
A - ... the fire can be confirmed again. B - ...AGENT I needs 10 seconds to operate. C - ...the extinguishing agent can work more effectively.
ATA 26-27 - Pressing the ENG FIRE pushbutton (on the Eng Fire Panel) causes the closure of:
A - The LP fuel Shut Off Valve. B - The Fuel LP Valve and the HP Valve (due to LP Valve Closure). C - The Fuel HP Valve.
ATA 26-28 - Batteries AUTO, APU OFF, EXT PWR not available. Pressing the APU FIRE TEST pushbutton...
A - ...APU FIRE pushbutton iluminates red. B - ...APU FIRE pushbutton illuminates red,SQUIB & DISCH lights ON C - ...APU FIRE pushbutton illuminates red SQUIB & DISCH lights ON CRC +Master Warning + APU FIRE warning on ECAM It
ATA 26-29 - Smoke Detection Systems are installed in:

A - The Avionics Bay and the Cargo Compartment. B - The Avionics Bay, the Cargo Compartment and the Lavatories. C - The Avionics Bay, the Cargo Compartment, the Lavatories and the Galleys.
ATA 26-30 - Lavatory Smoke Detectors send warning signals...

A - ...direcly to the ECAM and to the nose Interphone Panel. B - ...via SDCU (Smoke Detection Control Unit) to the FWC and to the CIDS. C - ...via SDCU (Smoke Detection Control Unit) to the SDAC and to the CIDS.
Page 7 of 8
ATA 26-31 - SMOKE REMOVAL proced.: which is the maximum speed for window opening ?
A - 180 kt. B - 200 kt. C - 220 kt.
ATA 26-32 - Cargo compartment smoke detector test. After depressing the CARGO SMOKE TEST pushbutton once...
A - ...the red SMOKE light and the amber DISCH It come on. B - ....the red SMOKE light comes on once and the amber DISCH It comes on twice. C - ...the red SMOKE light turns on twice and, and display the ECAM warning ,turns in the amber DISCH light
ATA 26-33 - When smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct...

A - ...the BLOWER FAULT light illuminates. B - ...the EXTRACT FAULT light illuminates. C - ...both BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT on the Ventilation panel light up.
ATA 27 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 27 - FLIGHT CONTROLS Page 1 of 16 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 27-1 - The "Pitch DIRECT LAW" is:

A - A Load Factor Demand with no protection. B - A direct "stick-to-elevator" relationship. C - A direct "stick to elevator" relationship with AUTOTRIM operation.
ATA 27-2 - FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS are:

A - 2 ELACs - 2 SECs - 3 FACs. B - 2 ELACs - 3 SECs - 2 FACs. C - 3 ELACs - 2 SECs - 2 FACs.
ATA 27-3 - If ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 fail:

A - The elevator and horizontal stabilizer are controlled by SEC I or 2. B - Pitch Trim Control is provided by the FACs. C - Pitch Trim Control can only be achieved from the Trim Wheel.
ATA 27-4 - If FAC 1 and FAC 2 fail:

A - The Rudder can always be controlled from the pedals. B - The Rudder Control is provided by the RUDDER TRIM rotary selector only. C - The Rudder Control is provided by SEC 3.
ATA 27-5 - ELEVATORS, AILERONS, SPOILERS are:

A - Hydraulically actuated and mechanically controlled. B - Electrically actuated and hydraulically controlled. C - Hydraulically actuated and electrically controlled.
ATA 27-6 - Rudder is electrically controlled for:

A - Yaw damping and rudder Trim. B - Yaw Damping, Turn coordination and Rudder trim. C - Yaw Damping only.
ATA 27-7 - Which is the correct statement ?

A - Spoilers 1 to 5 act as Ground Spoiler B - Spoilers 1-2-3 act as speed brake C - Spoilers 3-4-5 act as roll spoilers
ATA 27-8 - The LOAD FACTOR protection limits are

A - + 2,5 G to - 1 G FLAPS AND SLATS RETRACTED. B - + 2 G to 0 G FLAPS AND SLATS RETRACTED. C - + 2 G to -1G SLATS EXTENDED AND FLAP RETRACTED.
ATA 27-9 - Which computer normally controls the Elevators and the Stabilizer?
A - ELAC 1. B - ELAC 2. C - SEC 2.
ATA 27-10 - In which condition the THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) is not available?
A - After Yellow and Green Hydraulic System failure. B - None. The THS is always available manually. C - After Blue Hydraulic System failure.
ATA 27-11 - How many Hydraulic Motors drive the screw jack of the Stabilizer?
A - 2. B - 3. C - 1.
ATA 27-12 - How many Electric Motors can control the Hydraulic Motor of the Stabilizer?
A - 1. B - 2. C - 3.
ATA 27-13 - If neither ELAC 1 or ELAC 2 are available, Pitch Control is automatically transferred to:
A - SEC 1 or SEC 2. B - SEC 1 or SEC 3. C - SEC 3.
ATA 27-14 - In NORMAL LAW, the FLIGHT MODE changes to FLARE MODE when the a/c in landing passes:
A - 50 ft. B - 100 ft. C - 75 ft.
ATA 27-15 - During landing as the aircraft descend through 30 ft:

A - The pitch attitude is memorized. B - The pitch attitude is progressively reduced to 2 NOSE DOWN. C - The FLARE MODE disengages.
ATA 27-16 - A pilot can any time reactivate a deactivated STICK by momentarily pressing ...
A - ... the take over pushbutton on the deactivated STICK. B - ...the take over pushbutton on the active STICK. C - .. the take over pushbutton on either STICK.
ATA 27-17 - In ROLL NORMAL LAW, the Bank Angle Protection limits the bank angle to:
A - 45. B - 33. C - 67.
ATA 27-18 - The ROLL NORMAL LAW provides combined control of the:
A - Ailerons + Spoilers 2 to 5 + Rudder. B - Ailerons + Spoilers 2 to 5. C - Aileron + Rudder + All the Spoilers.
ATA 27-19 - If ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 fail:

A - Roll Control is provided by Ailerons only. B - Roll Control is provided by Ailerons and Spoilers. C - Roll Control is provided by Spoilers only.
ATA 27-20 - Which signals cause rudder pedal movement?

A - Turn Coordination Signals. B - Yaw Damping Signals. C - Rudder Trim Signals.
ATA 27-21 - If SFCC 1 fails....

A - ... SFCC2 takes over assuring normal operations. B - ...Flaps and Slats operate at half speed. C - ...Slats and Flaps are partially operative.
ATA 27-22 - When ALTERNATE LAW WITH REDUCED PROTECTIONS is active, the PITCH ATTITUDE protectior is:
A - Degraded. B - Lost. C - Still available.
ATA 27-23 - If CONF. 0 is not selected after Takeoff, the Flaps automatically retract at :
A - 180 kt. B - 210 kt. C - V2.
ATA 27-24 - If you are flying at an ANGLE OF ATTACK greater than a PROT what happens when you release the STICK?
A - Angle of attack returns to a floor. B - Angle of attack returns to a PROT. C - Angle of attack remains at a MAX.
ATA 27-25 - When ALTERNATE LAW WITHOUT REDUCED PROTECTIONS is active, the PITCH ATTITUDE and ANGLE OF ATTACK protections are:
A - Degraded. B - Lost. C - Still available.
ATA 27-26 - When ALTERNATE LAW is active, the YAW DAMPING function is:
A - Available (damper authority is limited to 5 rudder deflection). B - Lost. C - Degraded.
ATA 27-27 - How many Hydraulic Systems actuate the Rudder?

A - 1. B - 2. C - 3.
ATA 27-28 - Which surfaces act as Roll Spoilers?

A - Spoilers 2 to 5. B - All Spoilers. C - Spoilers 1 to 3.
ATA 27-29 - In ALTERNATE LAW, the "FLIGHT MODE" change to "DIRECT LAW' when:
A - Landing Gear is selected Down or at the selection of Flaps 2 if LGCIU 1 + 2 FAULT. B - Landing Gear is selected Down. C - Passing 50 ft.
ATA 27-30 - When both STICKs are moved in the same or opposite direction:
A - Both pilot inputs are algebraically added. B - The left STICK has a priority. C - The surface movement is proportional to the last STICK deflected.
ATA 27-31 - SLATS SYS 1 FAULT on the EWD means:

A - SFCC 1 has failed. B - The Slat Channel of one SFCC has failed. C - Both SFCC Channels have failed.
ATA 27-32 - With DOUBLE HYDRAULIC FAIL (Y + G) before Landing Gear Extension the FLIGHT CONTROL LAW is:
A - PITCH ALTERNATE. ROLL DIRECT. YAW MECHANICAL B - PITCH ALTERNATE. ROLL DIRECT. YAW DIRECT. C - PITCH DIRECT. ROLL DIRECT. YAW MECHANICAL.
ATA 27-33 - In NORMAL LAW, the STALL WARNING is activated:

A - AOA corresponding to STALL WARNING cannot be reached in NORMAL LAW. B - When a MAX is reached. + C - When a PROT is reached.
ATA 27-34 - The PITCH NORMAL LAW provides:

A - LOAD FACTOR + ANGLE OF ATTACK + HIGH SPEED + PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTIONS. B - LOAD FACTOR PROTECTION + PITCH ATT. PROTECTION + LOW SPEED STABILITY. C - LOAD FACTOR + PITCH ATTITUDE + HIGH SPEED PROTECTIONS.
ATA 27-35 - Which of the following functions is carried out by the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS?
A - Maintaining a safe flight envelope. B - Simulation of artificial feel for the SIDESTICKs. C - Conversion of Rudder Pedal inputs into Electrical Control Signals for the Rudder.
ATA 27-36 - The FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS can operate in the following different laws
A - NORMAL LAW, ALTERNATE LAW, BACK UP LAW. B - NORMAL LAW, ALTERNATE LAW, DIRECT LAW. C - AUTOMATIC LAW, GROUND LAW, FLIGHT LAW.
ATA 27-37 - The pitch trim wheel can, mechanically control the THS only when
A - The yellow or green hydraulic system are pressurized B - At least one hydraulic system is pressurized C - The autotrim function is not available
ATA 27-38 - In case of Electrical Control failure an extended spoiler...

A - ...retains its last position. B - ...retracts and remains retracted. C - ...it is pushed down partially by air loads.
ATA 27-39 - In case of GREEN+BLUE HYD systems failure pitch is controlled by:
A - Both Elevators and the Stabilizer. B - The right Elevator and the Stabilizer. C - The left Elevator and the Stabilizer.
ATA 27-40 - In case of TOTAL ELECTRICAL POWER LOSS, none of the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS are powered. Is the YAW DAMPER still operative?
A - Yes, with the Green YAW DAMPER servo actuator. B - Yes, with the Yellow YAW DAMPER servo actuator. C - No.The YAW DAMPER is inop.
ATA 27-41 - You initiate a turn by moving the SIDESTICK. Which control surfaces are affected?
A - Ailerons, Roll spoilers, Rudder and THS. B - Ailerons, Roll spoilers and Elevators. C - Ailerons and Roll spoilers.
ATA 27-42 - While flying manually in a 25 bank turn, if speed is reduced is it necessary to trim the aircfraft?
A - No, AUTO TRIM will take care of things. B - Yes. AUTO TRIM is only available when at least one Autopilot is engaged. C - No, but a light pitch up input must be applied as long as you are in the turn.
ATA 27-43 - If in NORMAL LAW during a turn at a bank angle greater than 33 the sidestick is released...
A - ...the aircraft maintains the current bank. B - ...the aircraft reduces the bank angle automatically to 33 (positive spiral stability). C - ...the aircraft reduces the bank angle to 0 (positive spiral stability).
ATA 27-44 - According to a side stick deflection the sidestick controller set the elevator and THS to maintain...
A - ...an Attitude proportional to stick deflection. B - ...a Load Factor proportional to stick deflection and independent of speed. C - ...a Pitch Rate proportional to stick deflection.
ATA 27-45 - After climbing with MCL (no A/THR) you level off. If Thrust is not reduced...
A - ...on reaching the selected cruising speed, autothrust engages and takes over speed control. B - ...the Overspeed Warning activates. The A/THR will automatically engage. C - ...High Speed Protection activates at VMO +6 kt . Pitch increases automatically and VMO or MMO is maintained.
ATA 27-46 - In NORMAL LAW flight mode, the SIDE STICK commands a LOAD FACTOR demand. In which of the following situations the SIDE STICK commands an ANGLE OF ATTACK directly ?
A - At bank angle > 33. B - After the Stall Warning has been activated. C - When the ANGLE OF ATTACK protection activates.
ATA 27-47 - In which LAWs there are no active protections?

A - NORMAL LAW. B - ALT LAW (reduced protections). C - DIRECT LAW.
ATA 27-48 - Which Flight Control Surfaces are available with all flight control computers failed (MECHANICAL BACK UP)?
A - The right Elevator, the THS and the Ailerons. B - All surfaces operated by the Green Hydraulic System. C - THS and Rudder.
ATA 27-49 - The left SIDESTICK is not reacting anymore. The left red SIDESTICK priority light is illuminated. What's going on now?
A - Your SIDESTICK has an electrical fault. B - The TAKE OVER pushbutton on the right SIDESTICK is being pressed and now has priority. C - An Autopilot is engaged.
ATA 27-50 - A/c in flight. Flaps lever is moved from 0 to 1. Which Slats/Flaps configuration is achieved?
A - 1. B - 1 + F. C- 0
ATA 27-51 - FLAPS lever has been moved from 1 to 0. In the E/WD A-LOCK blue message is flashing . Select the correct statement.
A - The Slats cannot retract because the associated SFCC has failed. The Flaps have retracted normally. B - The Slats and Flaps are locked in CONFIG 1 + F because your airspeed is too low. C - The Slats cannot retract because the ANGLE OF ATTACK is too high or the airspeed is to low. The Flaps have retracted normally.
ATA 27-52 - If the SPEED BRAKE lever is not set in the armed position, the Ground Spoilers fully deploy automatically after landing...
A - ... when ground condition is sensed and both thrust levers are at idle. B - ... only when both main landing gear struts are compressed, at least one thrust lever is in reverse and the other is at idle. C - ... only when either main landing gear strut is compressed, at least one thrust lever is in reverse and the other is at idle.
ATA 27-53 - What does the flashing amber SPEED BRK message on EWD mean?
A - Speed brakes have a fault. B - Speed brakes are extended and one engine N1 is above 50%. C - Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at zero.
ATA 27-54 - You are flying manually in level flight then slowly reduce the thrust. How does the aircraft react?
A - The aircraft maintains altitude, pitch increases and the stabilizer trims automatically to compensate. B - The aircraft pitches down, goes into descent and tries to maintain speed. C - The a/c load factor decreases and stabilizes at zero.
ATA 27-55 - The HIGH and LOW SPEED Stability that may be available in ALTERNATE LAW...
A. ... will not allow the Pilot to stall the Aircraft. B. ... will not allow the Pilot to exeed VMO + Ms. C. ... can be overridden by the Pilot, and so is possible to exceed VMO, MMO and Stall Speed.
ATA 27-56 - Can you overpower the automatic pitch-up when the HIGH SPEED PROTECTION is active ?
A - Yes, pilot input always has priority. B - No, that wouldn't be full protection. C - Yes, if both SIDESTICKs are moved full forward.
ATA 27-57 - You are in manual flight (A/P and A/THR OFF). After descent, you LEVEL OFF, release the sidestick but leave the power at IDLE.The aircraft...
A - ...maintains altitude until reaching the V a PROT speed, then goes automatically into descent. B - ...maintains altitude (and trims) until reaching theV a MAX speed. C - ... maintains altitude (and trims) until the stickshaker activates.
ATA 27-58 - In order to fly a steep turn (45) maintaining constant altitude is necessary...
A - ... deflect the SIDESTICK to the side and simultaneously pull back. B - ... hold the SIDESTICK to the side only. C - ... bank to 45 and then release the SIDESTICK to neutral.
ATA 27-59 - When the a/c is in NORMAL LAW -GROUND MODE...

A - The SIDESTICK inputs, both ROLL and PITCH, are limited by the attitude protection. B - The SIDESTICK inputs are limited in ROLL by the Roll Protection. C - The SIDESTICK inputs directly command the Flight Control surfaces.
ATA 27-60 - RUDDER TRIM : Select the correct statement.

A - FAC 1 and FAC 2 simultaneously drive Rudder Trim motors 1 and 2. B - FAC 1 controls the single trim motor. C - FAC 1 drives Rudder Trim with motor N 1, FAC 2 with motor N 2 remains synchronized as back-up.
ATA 27-61 - With a Single Hydraulic System Failure the Flight Control Law is:
A - NORMAL. B - ALTERNATE. C - DIRECT.
ATA 27-62 - If the Green Hydraulic System is lost, Slat operation is:
A - NORMAL. B - SLOW. C - LOST.
ATA 27-63 - If the Green System is lost, Flap operation is:

A - SLOW. B - NORMAL. C - LOST.
ATA 27-64 - According to the flight control check during the taxi procedure guide , select the correct statement.
A - PF checks his sidestick deflections on his PFD; PNF checks the correct movements of the control surfaces on ECAM F/CTL page. B - PNF checks PF sidestick deflections on his PFD and checks the correct movement of control surfaces on ECAM F/CTL page. C - PNF checks PF sidestick deflections on PFD; PF checks the correct movement of control surfaces on ECAM F/CTL page.
ATA 27-65 - A/c in flight with the Autopilot engaged:

A - The RUDDER TRIM rotary switch operates at the speed of one degree per second to Maximum deflection of +/- 20. B - The RUDDER TRIM rotary switch is not active. C - Both the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch and the RUDDER TRIM reset pushbuttons are inoperative.
ATA 27-66 - FLOOR PROTECTION function is active

A - From lift off to touch down. B - From lift off to 100 ft RA before landing. C - From 5 sec after lift off to 50 ft RA.
ATA 27-67 - Which is the max operating altitude with Slat or Flap extended ?
A - No limitations. B - 20.000 ft. C - 16.000 ft.
ATA 27-68 - Pitch control is achieved ...

A - ...Electrically by ELAC 2 / ELAC I (SEC 2 or SEC 1 in case of both ELAC fault), mechanical control is given by cables from the pitch trim wheel. B - ... Electrically by ELAC 2 / ELAC 1 (SEC 1 or SEC 3 in case both ELAC fault), mechanical control is given by cables from the pitch trim wheel. C - ... Electrically by ELAC 2 / ELAC 1 (SEC 2 or SEC 3 in case of both ELAC fault), mechanical control is given by cables from the pitch trim wheel.
ATA 27-69 - Roll Control. In case of double ELAC failure

A - All ailerons revert to the damping mode. B - You have to use rudder for turns. C - All ailerons are controlled by SEC 1 or SEC 2.
ATA 27-70 - Yaw Control. The pilot can use conventional rudder pedal to control the rudder...
A - ...always. B - ...in DIRECT LAW only C - ...in MECHANICAL BACK-UP only.
ATA 27-71 - Speed Brakes Control.The speed brakes extension is inhibited if...
A - ...SEC 1 and SEC 3 have a fault. B - ...the BANK ANGLE PROTECTION is active. C - ...SEC 1 and SEC 2 have a fault.
ATA 27-72 - The ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW consist of

A - A PITCH ALTERNATE LAW with no protections except load-factor protection and without Auto trim, a ROLL DIRECT LAW and a with a YAW MECHANICAL. B - A PITCH ALTERNATE LAW without protections and with Autotrim, a ROLL DIRECT LAW and a YAW ALTERNATE LAW. C - A PITCH DIRECT LAW, a ROLL DIRECT LAW and a YAW MECHANICAL CONTROL.
ATA 27-73 - ALTERNATE LAW : the Pitch Control in the "FLIGHT MODE" is...
A - ...A direct stick to elevator relationship. B - ...A Load Factor demand. C - ..An Angle of Attack demand.
ATA 27-74 - The Roll DIRECT LAW uses...

A - ...the Ailerons and all the Roll Spoilers. B - ...the Ailerons and and the Spoilers 3 and 5. C - ...all the Roll Spoilers if the Ailerons have failed.
ATA 27-75 - The speed brake extension is inhibited when... (A321)

A - ...flaps are in configuration FULL B - ...flaps are in configuration 3 or FULL C - ...flaps are in configuration 2
ATA 28 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 28 - FUEL Page 1 of 7 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 28- 1 - How many pumps are there in each wing fuel tank?
A - Two Fuel Pumps in each wing tank. B - , There is no Fuel Pump because tanks are air pressurized. C - One Fuel Pump in each tank.
ATA 28- 2 - Normally, where can you check the fuel quantity of each tank?
A - On ECAM UPPER DISPLAY B - On ECAM LOWER DISPLAY (Fuel page only) C - On both ECAM UPPER and LOWER DISPLAYS.
ATA 28- 3 - At which fuel quantity is the L/R WING TK LO LVL warning triggered on the ECAM?
A - Below 500 kg B - Above 900 kg C - Below 750 kg
ATA 28- 4 - How many channels are used in the fuel computation system?
A - 3 channels simultaneosly. B - 2 channels simultaneosly. C - 1 channel active, 1 channel standby.
ATA 28- 5 - Where is the VENT SURGE tank located?

A - Outboard of each wing tank. B - Between the inner and outer section of each wing tank. C - On each side of the center tank.
ATA 28- 6 - What is the minimum fuel quantity for Takeoff ?

A - 750 kg. B - 1500 kg. C - 2000 kg.
ATA 28- 7 - How is possible to check that FUEL QUANTITY INDICATION (FQI) is in degraded mode?
A - FQ INDICATION is boxed amber. B - FQ INDICATION is dashed across the two last digits but it is impossible to determine which side is affected. C - On the UPPER ECAM display the FOB indication is displayed with two dashes across the two last significant digits. ECAM FUEL page must be called up to check which tank is affected.
ATA 28- 8 - Amber FAULT light illuminates on WING TANK PUMP pushbutton when:
A - The delivery fuel pressure drops. B - Pump is not energized. C - Wing tank quantity below 750 kg (1650 Ib).
ATA 28- 9 - Amber FAULT light illuminates on MODE SEL pushbutton when:
A - The delivery fuel pressure drops. B - Center tank has more than 250 kg and any Wing Tank has less than 5000 kg. C - The two Center Tank pumps are selected OFF.
ATA 28- 10 - What is the maximum allowed wing fuel unbalance ?

A - 750 kg. B - 1500 kg. C - 1320 kg when the heavier tank content is full.
ATA 28- 11 - Fuel feed sequence . Tanks are emptied in the following sequence (A320).
A - Center tank, outer tanks, inner tanks. B - Outer tanks, inner tanks, center tank. C - Center tank, inner tanks, outer tanks.
ATA 28- 12 - FOB (Fuel on Board) boxed amber on FUEL ECAM page means:
A - The quantity shown is fully usable. B - FUEL QUANTITY indicator is inaccurate. C - Both CTR TK transfer valves fail in closed position.
ATA 28- 13 - What is the purpose of the capacitance probes?

A - To measure the fuel level. B - To measure the fuel temperature. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 28- 14 - APU fuel is supplied by:

A - ENGINE fuel pump(s) only. B - APU fuel pump only. C - Either one..
ATA 28- 15 - What does the FAULT amber light illuminated in the CTR TANK XFR pushbutton indicate?
A - Delivery pressure is too high. B - Associated WING TANK overflows. C - Delivery pressure drops.
ATA 28- 16 - A 2% additional space has been provided in each fuel tank ...
A - ...for cooling purpose. B - ...for fuel expansion without spillage. C - ...to protect the tanks against overpressure.
ATA 28- 17 - The ENGINE LOW PRESSURE (LP) valves are closed by:
A - ENGINE FIRE pushbutton or X-FEED pushbutton. B - ENGINE FIRE pushbutton or MODE SELECTOR pushbutton in manual. C - ENGINE FIRE pushbutton or the ENGINE MASTER SWITCHES.
ATA 28- 18 - When the WING TANK pumps pushbutton is set to OFF the FAULT light is:
A - Inhibited. B - Illuminated when delivery pressure drops. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 28- 19 - What is the meaning of the ON white light on the CROSS FEED pushbutton?
A - The valve is fully open. B - The valve is commanded open. C - The valve is in transit.
ATA 28- 20 - What is the meaning of the OPEN green light on the CROSS FEED pushbutton ?
A - The valve is commanded open. B - The valve is fully open C - The valve is in transit.
ATA 28- 21 - The APU fuel pump is ...

A - ... displayed on the ECAM FUEL page. B - ... not displayed on any page. C - ... displayed on the ECAM APU page.
ATA 28- 22 - On ECAM FUEL page the indication of either wing tank quantity is pulsing. This indicates that...
A - ...the related level is 1500 kg higher than the other WING TK level. B - ...the related FUEL QUANTITY indication is inaccurated. C - ...the related level is 1500 kg lower than the other WING TK level..
ATA 28- 23 - How long it takes to completely refuel the tanks ?

A - 5 minutes. B - 1 hour. C - 20 minutes..
ATA 28- 24 - Fuel foaming induced in climb becomes insignificant

A - After 30 min above FL 300. B - Above FL 300. C - After 30 min at constant FL.
ATA 28- 25 - After refueling RH wing tank contains 4000 kg, LH wing tank 2500 kg. Is it possible to takeoff ?
A - Yes, the asymmetry is within the limitation B - No. Some fuel must be transferred to empty tank.
ATA 28- 26 - Fuel feed sequence . Tanks are emptied in the following sequence (A321).
A - Center tank first ; wing tanks then. B - Wing tanks first ; center tank then.
ATA 28- 27 - The purpose of the suction valves is to allow engines to be fed by gravity if the wing tank pumps fail. They are closed by pumps pressure during normal operations.
A - False. B - True.
ATA 28- 28 - FUEL X FEED VALVE FAULT

A - A. If valve fails open, maintain fuel balance with selective use of pumps. B - If valve fail close, and if unable to mantain acceptable balance, land as soon as possible. C - . Both A and B are correct.
ATA 28- 29 - After refueling RH wing tank contains 4300 kg, LH wing tank 2750 kg. Is it possible to takeoff ?
A - Yes, the asymmetry is within the limitation B - No. Some fuel must be transferred to LH wing tank.
ATA 28- 30 - What is the maximum allowed fuel unbalance quantity for the inner tanks?
A - 750 kg. B - 1500 kg when the heavier tank content is full. C - 1320 kg when the heavier tank content is full.
ATA 28- 31 - FOB (Fuel on Board) boxed amber on FUEL ECAM page means:
A - The quantity shown is fully usable. B - FUEL QUANTITY indicator is inaccurate. C - CTR TK PUMPS failed or swiched off or both XFR VALVES fail to open when inner tanks at low level.
ATA 28- 32 - The fuel transfer valves from outer to inner tank...
A - ...open when inner tank fuel reaches the low level( about 750 kg ). B - ... may open during steep descent or accelerations and decelerations with more than 750 kg of fuel in each inner tank. C - Both A and B are corect.
ATA 29 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 29 - HYDRAULIC Page 1 of 10 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 29-1 - Normal Hydraulic Power is provided by:

A - Engine Driven Pumps for all systems. B - Engine Driven Pumps for GREEN and YELLOW, ELEC PUMP for BLUE, ELEC PUMP for YELLOW. C - ELECTRIC PUMPS for BLUE and YELLOW, ENGINE DRIVEN PUMPS for GREEN.
ATA 29-2 - In flight, if the BLUE ELEC PUMP fails the Blue System:
A - Is lost. B - Can be recovered by the RAT. C - Can be recovered by the PTU.
ATA 29-3 - With both engines stopped, how is it possible to pressurize the Green System?
A - By the GREEN ENGINE PUMP. B - By the YELLOW ENGINE PUMP and the PTU. C - By the YELLOW ELECTRIC PUMP and the PTU.
ATA 29-4 - On ground the Blue System normally is pressurized when:

A - The APU is running. B - One engine is running. C - EXT POWER is available.
ATA 29-5 - Engine 2 drives:

A - The Blue System. B - The Green System, C - The Yellow System Pump and then pressurizes Green System via the PTU .
ATA 29-6 - The Yellow System comprises:

A - One Engine Driven Pump, one Electric Pump, one Hand Pump. B - One Engine Driven Pump, two Electric Pumps. C - One Engine Driven Pump, one Hand Pump and the RAT.
ATA 29-7 - In flight, the Blue Hydraulic System can be supplied by:
A - The RAT and the Electric Pump. B - The Engine Driven Pump. C - The PTU (Power Transfer Unit).
ATA 29-8 - The RAT is automatically extended in case of:

A - Loss of AC BUS 1 and BUS 2 and speed above 100 Knots. B - Blue Hydraulic Pump Failure. C - Can only be extended manually.
ATA 29-9 - The Priority Valves operate in case of:

A - High hydraulic pressure in the Green System. B - Low hydraulic pressure. C - High hydraulic pressure in the Green and Yellow Systems.
ATA 29-10 - The Fire Shutoff Valves cut off

A - The Blue and Yellow Systems. B - The Yellow and Green Systems. C - The Green and Blue Systems.
ATA 29-11 - In case of BLUE ELEC PUMP failure, when the RAT MAN ON pushbutton is pressed:
A - The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized by the RAT. B - The Emergency Gen supplies electrical power. C - The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized and the Emergency Gen runs.
ATA 29-12 - The Hydraulic Reservoirs are pressurized:

A - From the Pneumatic System. B - From PACKS 1 and 2. C - From ENG 1 HP BLEED AIR or from the Cross Bleed Duct.
ATA 29-13 - In case of RESERVOIR OVERHEAT the fault light of the faulty system stay on:
A - For 30 seconds. B - Continuously. C - As long as the overheat is detected.
ATA 29-14 - On ground and before engine start, with BLUE PUMP AUTO and AC Power available, the BLUE PUMP ...
A - ...Is automatically energized. B - ...Is energized when the BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton is pressed. C - ...cannot be energized when the engines are both not running.
ATA 29-15 - The Blue System operates:

A - The Flaps. B - The Slats. C - The Flaps and the Slats.
ATA 29-16 - The POWER TRANSFER UNIT (PTU) is:

A - Reversible between Blue and Yellow Systems. B - One way between Green and Yellow Systems. C - Reversible between Green and Yellow Systems.
ATA 29-17 - When extended in flight, the RAT pressurizes:

A - The Green System. B - The Yellow System and the Green System via the PTU. C - The Blue System.
ATA 29-18 - The Yellow System operates:

A - The left and right Elevator. B - The left Elevator only. C - The right Elevator only.
ATA 29-19 - The Yellow System may be powered by:

A - The ENG 1 Hydraulic Pump. B - The ENG 2 Hydraulic Pump; the Yellow Electric Pump or the PTU. C - The ENG 2 Hydraulic Pump; the Yellow Electric Pump or the RAT.

A - The Flaps. B - The Flaps and Slats. C - The Slats.
ATA 29-21 - During first engine start the PTU is:

A - Automatically running. B - Automatically tested. C - Inhibited.
ATA 29-22 - The RAT can be restowed:

A - In flight. B - On ground only. C - On ground and in flight.
ATA 29-23 - In flight the RAT can be extended:

A - Only manually. B - Manually or automatically. C - Only automatically.
ATA 29-24 - Is it possible to transfer hydraulic fluid from Green to Yellow or Yellow to Green System?
A - No. In any case B - Yes at any time throught the PTU C - Yes, throught the PTU, when the differential pressure between the two systems is greater than 500 psi and both engines are running.
ATA 29-25 - The FIRE SHUTOFF Valve closes when:

A - The MASTER Switch is set to OFF. B - The FIRE pushbutton is released out. C - Automatically if a fire is detected.
ATA 29-26 - The Green System operates:

A - Reverser 1. B - Reverser 2. C - Both.

A - Reverser 1. B - Reverser 2. C - Both.
ATA 29-28 - On ground with the BLUE ELEC PUMP pushbutton set to AUTO, the circuit is energized if:
A - One battery is on AUTO. B - Ground Electrical power is ON. C - One engine is running or the BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton has been pressed.
ATA 29-29 - If the Blue System is lost, Slat operation is:

A - Normal. B - Slow. C - Lost.
ATA 29-30 - If Blue System is lost, Flap operation is:

ATA 29-31 - When is the PTU inhibited?

A - During the second engine start. B - In case of an engine failure. C - When the cargo doors are operated by the yellow electric pump.
ATA 29-32 - A/c on ground, engines not running. With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP pushbutton set to OFF and CARGO DOOR Manual Selector Valve set to OPEN or CLOSE. Select the correct statement:
A - The Flaps are not powered. B - The Flaps operate at half speed. C - The engine 2 reverser is not powered.
ATA 29-33 - If the Yellow System is lost, Slat operation is:

ATA 29-34 - If the Yellow System is lost, Flap operation is:

ATA 29-35 - The Engine 2 Fire Valve is between the Yellow Reservoir and:
A - The Eng 2 Hydraulic Pump. B - The Yellow Electric Pump. C - The Yellow Hand Pump.
ATA 29-36 - In case of single Hydraulic System LOW PRESS:

A - The MASTER WARN light comes ON. B - The MASTER CAUTION light comes ON and the single chime sounds. C - A local warning only comes on.
ATA 29-37 - In case of HYD B (G or Y) RSVR LO AIR PR the hydraulic system affected is:
A - Definitively lost. B - May be recovered after descending to a lower altitude. C - May be recovered by increasing the engines thrust.
ATA 29-38 - With Green Hydraulic System lost:

A - The Landing Gear extension is normal. B - The Landing Gear retraction is normal. C - The Landing Gear must be extended by gravity.
ATA 29-39 - With the Green Hydraulic System lost:

A - The Nose Wheel Steering is lost. B - The Nose Wheel Steering is operative. C - The Nose Wheel Steering operates in ALTERNATE.
ATA 29-40 - With the Green Hydraulic System lost, the braking system is:
A - NORMAL. B - ALTERNATE. C - MANUAL (Antiskid is not available).
ATA 29-41 - PTU in AUTO, the PTU automatically runs:

A - If the Blue Hydraulic System is lost. B - When differential pressure between Green and Yellow system is more than 500 psi. C - As soon as a differential pressure between Green and Yellow System is detected.
ATA 29-42 - With only the Green Hydraulic System remaining, the AUTO PILOT function is:
A - Available with AP 1. B - Lost. C - Available with AP 2.
ATA 29-43 - With only the Green Hydraulic System remaining, the Horizontal Stabilizer is:
A - Available. B - Lost. C - Operated at half speed.
ATA 29-44 - With Green and Yellow Hydraulic Systems lost, manual Pitch Trim is:
A. Fully available. B. Lost. C. Operated at half speed.
ATA 29-45 - What is the purpose of the System Accumulators?

A - To serve as an energy storage unit in case of a pump failure. B - To compensate pressure fluctuation in the system. C - To assure Reverse Systems operations.
ATA 29-46 - In case of a HYD B ELEC PUMP LO PR warning during flight ...
A - ... the RAT is automatically deployed. B - ... the RAT cannot be deployed. C - ... the RAT remains in its stowed position.
ATA 29-47 - When the PTU is inoperative you may pressurize the Yellow System by means of ...
A - ... the Yellow Hand pump. B - ... the YELLOW ELEC PUMP. C - ... the RAT.
ATA 29-48 - Why the PTU performs a power transfer from the Yellow to the Green Hydraulic System during engine start ?
A - Because the PTU pushbutton was pushed Off. B - Because when the Yellow System is under pressure the PTU will always perform a power transfer. C - Because both ENG MASTER switches are ON and a differential pressure between the two hydraulic systems is detected.
ATA 29-49 - After an HYD G or B or Y RSVR OVHT, is it possible to recover the hydraulic system ?
A - Not in flight. B - Yes, when an ECAM memo is displayed on the EWD to advise pilots that the temperature is in the normal range. C - Yes, when the FAULT light on the related ENG or ELEC pump is extinguished.
ATA 29-50 - Which is the normal operating pressure of hydraulic pumps ?

A - 3000 psi 200. B - 3000 psi 150. C - 3000 psi 250.
ATA 30 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 30 -ICE & RAIN PROTECTION Page 1 of 7 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 30-1 - In case of Electrical Power Supply loss, in flight, the Engine Anti-Ice Valves
A - Remain in the last selected position. B - Open automatically. C - Close automatically.
ATA 30-2 - When an engine is started:

A - Window heating comes ON automatically. B - Window heating comes ON automatically when the second engine is started. C - Window heating comes ON when the relative switch is pressed.
ATA 30-3 - The Window Heat Computer provides two heating levels for the windshield:
A - High power when above 20000 ft, low power below 20000 ft. B - High power in flight, low power on ground. C - High power in icing conditions, low power in other conditions.
ATA 30-4 - Pitot Heating operates:

A - At a low level on ground and normal power in flight. B - In flight only. C - On ground above 80 kt.
ATA 30-5 - The WING Anti-Ice pushbutton switch ON blue light comes on:
A - When the anti-ice valves open automatically. B - When the pushbutton switch is set to ON and no fault is detected. C - When the fault light goes off.
ATA 30-6 - Is it possible, on ground, to manually turn the Window heating ON ?

A - No, it comes automatically ON when the external temperature is < 5C. B - Yes, before engine start, by the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton. C - No, it comes automatically ON when the external temperature is < 2C.
ATA 30-7 - Electrical Heating is provided for the protection of:

A - PITOTS, AOA PROBES and STATIC PORTS. B - PITOTS and STATIC PORTS. C - PITOTS, STATIC PORTS, TAT PROBES and AOA PROBES.
ATA 30-8 - What happens when you set the WING ANTI-ICE push button switch to ON, on the ground?
A - The Wing Anti-Ice Valves open for 30 seconds then CLOSE. B - The Wing Anti-Ice Valves do not OPEN. C - The Wing Anti-Ice Valves remain OPEN.
ATA 30-9 - The Engine Nacelle Anti-Ice is provided by...

A - ..air bleed from high pressure compressor. B - ...air bleed from low pressure compressor. C - ...electrical power.
ATA 30-10 - When Engine Anti-Ice is selected ON:

A - Continuous ignition is selected ON. B - The associated pack is closed. C - Both conditions are automatically achieved.
ATA 30-11 - When an Engine Anti-Ice Valve is open:

A - The N2 of the associated engine decreases. B - N1 limit is automatically reduced. C - There are no N1 limit and N2 changes.
ATA 30-12 - The Engine Anti-Ice Valve closes automatically if

A - Air is not available (engine not running). B - High Air Pressure is detected. C - Low Air Temperature is detected.
ATA 30-13 - How can you check that Engine Anti-Ice has been selected ?
A - With the ON blue light on the associated engine push button + "ENG A. ICE" on the ECAM MEMO display. B - With the ON light on the associated engine push button + "ENG A. ICE" on the ECAM ENG page.
ATA 30-14 - The maximum speed to use the Windshield Wipers is:
A - 200 kt. B - 250 kt. C - 230 kt.
ATA 30-15 - After selecting the relevant pushbutton switch in AUTO position the TAT Probe Heating...
A - ... is OFF on the ground and will automatically turn ON at Lift Off. B - ...operates at low level after engine start and then to normal power after Lift Off. C - ...operates in Low Heat until manually selected to HIGH.
ATA 30-16 - The WIPERS can operate

A - at LOW and HIGH speed or intermittent on some airplane. B - only at one speed. C - at LOW, MEDIUM and HIGH speed.
ATA 30-17 - When turned off the wipers...

A - ...are out of view. B - ...are in view. C - ...are out of view after pressing the relevant pushbutton.
ATA 30-18 - The WING ANTI-ICE Shutoff Valves close automatically in case of:
A - Engine failure. B - Loss of Electrical Power Supply or leak detection during normal operation. C - Cross Bleed Valve fault when WING ANTI-ICE is used.
ATA 30-19 - The Slats protected by hot air supplied from the Pneumatic System are:
A - Slats 1, 2, 4. B - Slats 2, 3, 4. C - Slats 3, 4, 5.
ATA 30-20 - Where do the Wing Anti-Ice indications appear on the ECAM?
A - ANTI-ICE appears in white on the ECAM BLEED page when the Wing Anti-Ice pushbutton is pressed B - A green arrow appears on the ECAM BLEED page when the Wing Anti-Ice pushbutton is pressed any the valve is open. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 30-21 - The Wing Anti-Ice Pressure Control Shutoff valves are controlled by:
A - 1 WING ANTI-ICE pushbutton. B - 2 WING ANTI-ICE pushbuttons. C - Automatically.
ATA 30-22 - Which air source supplies the engine Anti-Ice System?
A - Bleed Air from the Pneumatic System. B - APU Bleed Air. C - Compressor Bleed Air from the respective engine.
ATA 30-23 - The aircraft is on ground, the engines are off. The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton switch is in AUTO. How are the cockpit windows heated?
A - With NORM power. B - With LOW power. C - Not at all.
ATA 30-24 - Which indications show that the WING Anti-Ice System is ON?
A - ECAM BLEED page and ENG 1+2 BLEED pushbutton switch. B - WING Anti-Ice pushbutton switch, ECAM BLEED page and MEMO Message. C - ECAM ENG page, WING Anti-Ice pushbutton switch and MEMO Message.
ATA 30-25 - In case of an electrical failure the Engine Anti-Ice Valve...

A - ..opens. B - .. closes. C - ...remains in its current position.
ATA 30-26 - Wing Anti-Ice pushbutton is ON. If the system detects a leak during normal operation:
A - The Wing Anti-Ice control valves partially close. B - The Wing Anti-Ice control valves automatically close.
ATA 30-27 - What happens when you push the ENG Anti-Ice pushbutton ?
A - Only the engine intake will be heated. B - The engine intake is heated, the idle speed is increased and continuous ignition is activated. C - Continuous ignition is activated and the Pack Flow is increased.
ATA 30-28 - In case of suspected significant ice accumulation on non de-iced parts...
A - V APP must not be lower than VLS + 5 and the landing distance multiplied by 1.1 B - land conf 3 , V APP must not be lower than VLS + 10 and the landing distance multiplied by 1.15 C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 30-29 - When either Engine Anti-Ice Valve is open, the N1 limit...
A - ...is automatically increased. B - ...is automatically reduced. C - ...is not affected.
ATA 30-30 - In case of an electrical failure the Wing Anti-Ice Valves...

A - ...open. B - ... close. C - ... partially close.
A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 31 INDICATIONS & RECORDING
ATA 31 Page 1 of 8 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 31-1 - In case of PFDU failure, the PFD image will be transferred to the NDU:
A - Automatically. B - Either manually or automatically. C - Manually.
ATA 31-2 - What is the basic role of the DMCs?

A - Generation of Audio Warnings. B - Generation of Amber Warnings. C - They generate the images to be displayed on DUs.
ATA 31-3 - Which are the correct position for the PFD and ND?
A - The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard. B - The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard. C - The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.
ATA 31-4 - The "CHECK ATT" amber messages appear on both PFDs at the same time.
A - True B - False.
ATA 31-5 - The FACs calculate Speed Trend and VLS. During the Approach the Trend Vector and VLS shown on the PFD indicate:
A - Speed value at the next 10 seconds and 1,23 Vs 1G of the current configuration. B - Speed value at the next 15 seconds and 1,23 Vs 1G of the current configuration. C - Speed value at the next 10 seconds and 1,3 Vs 1G of the current configuration.
ATA 31-6 - VLS indication is inhibited:

A - During first 10 seconds after lift-off. B - With Speed Brakes extended. C - In both cases.
ATA 31-7 - VLS, F, S, shown on PFD are computed by the FACs according to the position of SLATS or/and FLAPS. Is the above statement correct?
A - True B - False C - Only the VLS.
ATA 31-8 - The Amber Altitude Window appears, flashing

A - When a/c goes below MDA. B - When a/c deviates from its selected Altitude or selected FL. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 31-9 - If the UPPER ECAM DISPLAY is lost, the ENGINE WARNING DISPLAY is automatically transferred to the LOWER ECAM DISPLAY; if the SYSTEM DISPLAY is required...
A - ...the corresponding ECAM DISPLAY selector must be switched OFF. B - ...the relevant SYSTEM pushbutton must be pressed and held. C - ..s it is automatically displayed.
ATA 31-10 - The RA gives height on PFD:

A - At the bottom of the Attitude Sphere. B - On the Altitude Scale. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 31-11 - Select the correct statement:

A - DMC1 supplies data to PFD1 - PFD2. B - DMC1 supplies data to PFD1 - ND1 - E/WD. C - DMC1 supplies data to ND1 - ND2.
ATA 31-12 - The FD BARs flash when

A - Reversion to the AFS BASIC MODES occurs or change of selected altitude is performed when ALT mode is engaged. B - Loss of LOC or G/S in LAND MODE; loss of LAND MODE or at the first AP or FD engagement C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 31-13 - During TAKE-OFF the FMA shows SRS, what is the order of horizontal FD BAR?
A - Climb at V2 + 10 in normal engine configuration. B - Climb at V2 in normal engine configuration. C - Climb at V2 + 10 in engine out condition.
ATA 31-14 - AFS is in TRK-FPA mode. The inertial FPV (Flight Path Vector) symbol shown on PFD is....
A - ... red. B - ... green. C - ... cyan .
ATA 31-15 - Optional data (WPT ; VOR.D ; NDB...) when necessary can be displayed on ND ...
A - ..in ROSE VOR mode only. B - ...in PLAN, in ARC and in ROSE NAV mode C - ...in PLAN and in ROSE ILS mode
ATA 31-16 - When Radar is selected ON the following data may be shown on ND:
A - TILT Angle. B - TILT Angle + Calibration Mode. C - Calibration Mode.
ATA 31-17 - Which computer generates the red warnings?

A - FWC. B - DMC. C - SDAC.
ATA 31-18 - One of the reason for "MAP NOT AVAIL" message to be displayed is:
A - MCDU failure. B - A/c position delivered by FMGC is not valid. C - Engines not running.
ATA 31-19 - If a DMC fails (corresponding DU shows a diagonal line), it is possible to replace
A - DMC 1 or 2 with DMC 3 by EIS DMC switching selector. B - ATT 1 or 2 with ATT 3 by ATT switching selector. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 31-20 - What will be displayed on the ECAM Display Units?

A - PFD and ND information as a BACK-UP. B - The Weather Radar Messages and System Information C - Engine Parameters, Warnings, Systems informations and Status
ATA 31-21 - If FD1 fails ...

A - PFD 1 automatically displays FD 2 orders B - FD bars flash for a few seconds than are removed. C - FD bars flash for a few seconds than are frozen to the last position.
ATA 31-22 - The "ALT" indication colour on FMA is magenta when

A - The current altitude is the CRZ FL. B - The ALT must still be set to CRZ FL. C - The target altitude is an ALT CSTR (altitude constraint).
ATA 31-23 - A Magenta symbol representing a " D "enclosed in a circle indicates...

A. ...where the speed will automatically be reduced to Green Dot Speed in NAV mode. B. ..where the Approach Phase must be manually activated.
ATA 31-24 - If the ECAM control panel fails the CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC, and ALL pushbuttons remain operative.
A. True. B. False
ATA 31-25 - FWS SDAC 1+2 FAULT (Amber) on the EWD. Informations available from ECAM are...
A - ...all System pages except the STATUS page. B - ...red Warnings; for example, ENG FIRE. C - ...no System pages, only the STATUS page.
ATA 31-26 - FWS FWC 1+2 FAULT (Amber) on the EWD. Why doesn't the MASTER CAUTION light illuminate and why doesn't the single chime sound?
A - This refers to a Memo Message. B - We only have MASTER CAUTION on the STS page. C - Because both FWCs have failed, no warnings can be initiated.
ATA 31-27 - What does "SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE" mean ?

A - The IRSs have not reached complete alignment. B - The F-PLN entered in captain's FMGC has not been transferred into copilot's FMGC. C - Single FMGC operation when the two EFIS control panels are not set at the same RANGE & MODE.
ATA 31-28 - The selected HDG is shown only on the FCU and on the ND
A - True B - False
ATA 31-29 - In ROSE NAV MODE with VOR 1 selected, the ND displays:
A - Deviation Bar, Selected Course and the Bearing Pointer. B - Bearing Pointer only. C - Deviation Bar and Selected Course only.
ATA 31-30 - In ROSE ILS MODE, what ILS information does the ND display?
A - G/S and LOC scales. B - Deviation Bar and Selected Course. C - Deviation Bar, Selected Course, G/S and LOC Scales.
ATA 31-31 - In the event of no ADF1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND:
A - The Bearing Pointer goes out of view and ADF FLAG is displayed. B - The Bearing Pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by red crosses. C - The Bearing Pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by frequency.
ATA 31-32 - On the ND, in the event of VOR receiver failure:

A - The red VOR 1 (2) FLAG is displayed. B - The VOR BEARING becomes red. C - The VOR BEARING flashes.
ATA 31-33 - Which electrical bus should supply the clock?

A - DC BAT BUS. B - DC ESS BUS. C - BAT HOT BUS.
ATA 31-34 - Why is important to check the clock?

A - Both pilots must have the exact time. B - The clock is the TIME DATA INFO for several systems. C - Time is sent to CFDIU.
ATA 31-35 - What is the meaning of a diagonal line on a CRT ?

A - Electrical supply is good and corresponding DMC failed. B - The relevant DU has failed. C - The relevant DU is not powered.
ATA 31-36 - How many levels of warning have been defined ?

A - Three levels. B - Two levels. C - One level.
ATA 31-37 - Can we listen a FWC generated message trough the loudspeaker even if they are switched OFF?
A - No B - Yes
ATA 31-38 - The types of failure are

A - Independent, primary and secondary. B - Independent, single and dual. C - Independent, alternate and primary.
A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA - 32 LANDING GEAR
ATA 32-1 - The Braking System modes of operation are:

A - NORMAL with Anti-Skid; ALTERNATE with Anti-Skid; Parking Brake. B - NORMAL or ALTERNATE with Anti-Skid.; ALTERNATE without Anti-Skid; Parking Brake. C - NORMAL with or without Anti-Skid; ALTERNATE without Anti-Skid; Parking Brake.
ATA 32-2 - The ANTI-SKID and NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch is set to OFF. Select the correct statement.
A - Green and Yellow Hydraulic Systems supply pressure to the brakes. B - Yellow Hydraulic System supplies pr essure to the brakes C - Differential braking through the pedals is no longer available.
ATA 32-3 - Maximum speed for Landing Gear retraction (VLO RET) is:
A - 200 kt. B - 220 kt. C - 250 kt.
ATA 32-4 - The NOSE WHEEL STEERING is powered:

A - By the Green Hydraulic System. B - By the Yellow Hydraulic System. C - By the Green or Yellow Hydraulic Systems.
ATA 32-5 - The NOSE WHEEL STEERING is available if

A - Aircraft ground speed is less than 70 kt. B - The Nose Landing Gear Doors are closed. C - All Landing Gear Doors are closed.
ATA 32-6 - The Nose Wheel Steering cylinder receives...

A - ...mechanical inputs from the Rudder Pedals. B - ...electric inputs from the BSCU. C - . ...both A and B are correct.
ATA 32-7 - The nose wheel steering receives orders from rudder pedals if ...
A - ...the aircraft ground speed is below 130 kt. B - ...the aircraft ground speed is below 70 kt. C - ...the aircraft is on ground and at least one engine is running.
ATA 32-8 - The Hand Wheels in the cockpit provide a Nose Wheel Steering Angle of:
A - 85 up to 70 kt. B - 75 up to 20 kt. C - 75 up to 70 kt.
ATA 32-9 - When both Handwheels are operated simultaneously, the order signals...
A - ...from the first Pilot acting have priority. B - ...coming from the Captain have priority. C - ...are algebraically added.
ATA 32-10 - The pushbutton installed on either Steering Handwheel...

A - ...when pushed prevents the onside rudder pedal orders from going to the BSCU. B - ...when pushed deactivates the other Handweel and allows Pilots to take full control. C - ...when pushed prevents both rudder pedals orders from going to the BSCU.
ATA 32-11 - Nose Wheel Steering by Rudder Pedals is limited to an angle of :

A - 6 under all circumstances. B - 6 depending on a/c ground speed. C - 6 depending on a/c airspeed.
ATA 32-12 - L/G position is indicated

A - on the Landing Gear indicator Panel, on the ECAM and by a visual indicator on each wing. B - on the Landing Gear indicator Panel, on the ECAM and on the Overhead Panel. C - on the Landing Gear indicator Panel and on the ECAM.
ATA 32-13 - Nose Wheel Steering is available from the Handwheels if:
A - A/c speed is below 70 kt, both engines are running and the towing lever is in normal position with the a/c on ground. B - A/c speed is below 75 kt, the A/SKID & N/W STRG is ON, both engines are running and the towing lever is in normal position with the a/c on ground. C - A/c speed is below 70 kt one engine is running, the A/SKID & N/W STRG is ON , the towing lever is in normal position and the a/c is on ground.
ATA 32-14 - Hydraulic Pressure to the Landing Gear is supplied up to:

A - 280 kt. B - Any speed. C - 260 kt.
ATA 32-15 - After T/O the Left Main Gear Shock Absorber is stuck in compressed position:
A - The Gear can be safely retracted under all circumstances. B - The Gear can be safely retracted only after checking the Steering Handwheel centered position. C - The Gear can not be retracted.
ATA 32-16 - When is the Landing Gear gravity extension automatically inhibited?
A - It is never automatically inhibited. B - When the speed is more than 260 kt. C - When the speed is more than 250 kt.
ATA 32-17 - ECAM WHEEL page : the first line shows green triangles (gear down), the second line shows no triangles. Select the correct statement.
A - The Landing Gear is down and locked. B - The Landing Gear is down but not locked. C - The Landing Gear is not down.
ATA 32-18 - During an approach you get MASTER WARNING and ECAM message : "L/G GEAR NOT DOWN". The reason is:
A - L/G not downlocked when Flaps at 3 and both Radio Altimeters failed. B - L/G not downlocked when Flaps at 3 and Radio Height lower than 750 ft. C - Both A and B are correct
ATA 32-19 - The brakes are actuated by two independent systems, pressurized by the:
A - BLUE and GREEN Hydraulic System. B - YELLOW and GREEN Hydraulic System. C - BLUE and YELLOW Hydraulic System.
ATA 32-20 - The Alternate Brake System uses:

A - The YELLOW Hydraulic System. B - The Hydraulic Accumulator (if pressurized). C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 32-21 - When Brake System is supplied by the Yellow Brake Accumulators only the mode of operation is...
A - ...NORMAL BRAKING (with Anti-Skid). B - ... ALTERNATE BRAKING (with Anti-Skid). C - ...ALTERNATE BRAKING (without Anti-Skid).
ATA 32-22 - If the a/c is in flight and the Parking Brake set to ON, the "PARK BRK" ECAM MEMO is diplayed..
A - ...In Green. B - ...In Amber. C - ...In Blue.
ATA 32-23 - The Anti-Skid produces maximum braking efficiency by...

A - ...Comparing the average main gear wheels speed with the greater of either main landing gear wheel speed. B - ...Comparing each main gear wheel speed with a/c reference speed furnished by the ADIRUs. C - ...Comparing the average main gear wheels speed with a/c reference speed furnished by the ADIRUs.
ATA 32-24 - Following a failure of ADIRS 1 and ADIRS 3...

A - ...the Anti-Skid is still available. B - ...the Anti-Skid is not available. C - ...the Anti-Skid doesn't disactivate at low speed.
ATA 32-25 - With the GREEN Hydraulic System available, you find the "A/SKID & N/W STRG" switch in OFF position:
A - Braking is NORMAL without Anti-Skid, Nose Wheel Steering is lost. B - Braking is ALTERNATE without Anti-Skid, Nose Wheel Steering is normal. C - Braking is ALTERNATE without Anti-Skid, Nose Wheel Steering is lost.
ATA 32-26 - When the Brake mode of operation is ALTERNATE, Autobrake is...
A - ...Still available with Anti-Skid. B - ...inoperative. C - ...Still available without Anti-Skid.
ATA 32-27 - The Landing Gear can be extended by:

A - Green Hydraulic System or Mechanical Gravity Extension. B - Green Hydraulic System or Yellow Hydraulic System in stand by. C - Green Hydraulic System or Yellow Hydraulic System in stand by or Mechanical Gravity Extension.
ATA 32-28 - Automatic braking is initiated by:

A - Reverse thrust selection during both landing and aborted takeoff. B - Ground Spoilers extension. C - Reverse thrust selection during aborted takeoff.
ATA 32-29 - After landing when the ground spoiler retract the Auto Brake...
A - ...remains armed. B - ...disarms C - ...will disarm as soon as the flight Crew applies enough deflection to the brake pedal.
ATA 32-30 - The Brakes and Accumulators Pressure Indicator shows pressure:
A - From the Yellow Hydraulic System. B - From the accumulators only. C - From both Yellow Brake System and Brake Accumulators.
ATA 32-31 - The AUTO BRK legend is flashing green for 10 seconds on the ECAM WHEEL page. Select the correct statement.
A - Auto Brake has been disengaged. B - Auto Brake has failed. C - Auto Brake has to be selected for Takeoff.
ATA 32-32 - On the ECAM WHEEL page a GREEN ARC appears on the hottest wheel ...
A - ...when one brake temperature exceeds 100C. B - ...regardless of the brake temperature. C - ...when one brake temperature exceeds 300C.
ATA 32-33 - When the Auto Brake operates, it will be disarmed if...
A - ...the speed drops under 72 kt. B - ...enough deflection is applied on one pedal in MED or LO mode or both pedals in MAX mode. C - ...enough deflection is applied on one pedal in MED, LO or MAX mode.
ATA 32-34 - During a takeoff as soon as the a/c exceeds 100 kt one Brake temperature rises to 300C. The ECAM "BRAKES HOT" warning is displayed
A - As soon as the condition is detected. B - After Lift Off. C - After landing gear retraction.
ATA 32-35 - On the ramp with APU running, Parking Brake is set ON. The "PARK BRK" ECAM MEMO is shown :
A - In green. B - Nothing at all. C - In yellow.
ATA 32-36 - After a Landing Gear Gravity Extension, is it possible to restore normal Landing Gear operation?
A - In flight only, if Green Hydraulic Pressure is available. B - Both in flight and on the ground, if Green Hydraulic Pressure is available. C - No, in any case.
ATA 32-37 - The Landing Gear Indicator Panel receives the informations from microswitches and proximity detectors connected to:
A - LGCIU 1. B - LGCIU 2. C - Both LGCIUs.
ATA 32-38 - The red arrow, near the Landing Gear Lever comes on if
A - The Landing Gear is not downlocked when the a/c is in landing configuration . B - The Landing Gear is not uplocked after retraction. C - The Landing Gear is in downbound transit.
ATA 32-39 - The "UNLK " legend on LDG GEAR indicator Panel, comes on red if:
A - The Gear is not locked in the selected position. B - The Gear is extended by gravity and the doors are not closed. C - The Gear is extended normally and the doors are not closed.
ATA 32-40 - The max speed with Landing Gear extended (VLE) is:
A - 300 kt / M.70. B - 280 kt / M.67. C - 260 kt / M.60.
ATA 32-41 - The max speed at which the Landing Gear may be extended is:
A - 260 kt. B - 250 kt. C - 240 kt.
ATA 32-42 - Which ADRs close the Safety Valve of the Green Hydraulic Supply when speed > 260 kt ?
A - ADRs 1 and 2. B - ADRs 1 and 3. C - ADRs 2 and 3.
ATA 32-43 - What is the maximum tire speed ?

A - 205 kt (ground speed) . B - 195 kt (ground speed ). C - 185 kt (ground speed ).
ATA 32-44 - How many turns are necessary to extend the Landing Gear by gravity using the handcrank?
A - 10 turns clockwise. B - 5 turns clockwise. C - 3 turns clockwise.
ATA 32-45 - With A/SKID & NW STRG switch OFF...

A - ... steering is possible by the Rudder Pedals only. B - ...NOSE WHEEL STEERING is lost. C - ...steering is possible by Handwheels only.
ATA 32-46 - Why is the Nose Wheel Steering inoperative after gravity extension?
A - Because no hydraulic pressure is available for N/W STEERING. B - Because the gear lever is not Down. C - Because both BSCUs are no longer powered.
ATA 32-47 - After touchdown, at first the Autobrake in LO mode is not braking. What should you do now?
A - Brake on your own. B - Wait, braking begins after 4 seconds. C - Recycle the autobrake.
ATA 32-48 - In case of a rejected takeoff at 60 knots the following occurs

A - Full power braking from autobrake without ground spoiler extension. B - The Autobrake will not operate. C - Full power braking from autobrake with full ground spoiler extension.
ATA 32-49 - In case of Blue+Yellow Hydraulic Systems inoperative, the Auto Brake is:
A - Lost. B - Available. C - Alternate.
ATA 32-50 - In case of Green Hydraulic System inoperative, the Anti Skid is:
A - Lost. B - Limited to 1000 psi Brake Pressure. C - Operative on the Yellow Hydraulic System.
ATA 32-51 - During a static takeoff if the parking is ON when first engine is set to T/O Power the "PARK BRK" ECAM MEMO...
A - ... is displayed green. B - ... is not displayed. C - ... is displayed amber.
ATA 32-52 - In case of L/G LGCIU 1+2 FAULT...

A - ...Both Autopilots are inoperative. B - ...Both Autopilots are fully operative. C - ...Both Autopilots are operative in LAND mode only
ATA 32-53 - If you extend the landing gear by gravity extension, the gear doors :
A - Remain in open position. B - They always close. C - They close only after selecting L/G lever down if the green hydraulic system is operative.
ATA 32-54 - What does the Autobrake DECEL light indicate?

A - Airplane deceleration is 50% of the selected rate. B - Airplane deceleration is 75% of the selected rate. C - Airplane deceleration is 80% of the selected rate
ATA 32-55 - What does the green "N/ W STRG DISC" memo message mean ?
A - The STEERING selector is in towing position and we are ready to start Push Back. B - The a/c can not be moved because the Nose Wheel is centered. C - The STEERING selector is in towing position and at least one engine is running.
ATA 32-56 - In case of single LGCIU failure...

A - ...both engine reversers are inoperative. B - ...the reversers are not affected. C - ...the onside engine reverser is inoperative.
ATA 32-57 - What does the Accumulators Pressure indicator show ?

A - Pressure in the Green brake accumulator. B - Pressure in the Yellow brake accumulators. C - Pressure in the Blue brake accumulator.
ATA 32-58 - Max brake temperature admitted for T/O is :

A - 300 C B - 260 C C - 280 C
ATA 32-59 - During a takeoff as soon as the a/c exceeds 100 kt one Brake temperature rises to 300C. The ECAM "BRAKES HOT" warning is displayed
A - As soon as the condition is detected. B - After Lift Off. C - After landing gear retraction.
ATA 32-60 - If the parking brake is activated and no yellow hydraulic pressure or brake accumulator pressure is available , the normal braking system...
A - ...can be applied via the brake pedals B - ...can be recovered only after releasing the parking brake C - ...is not available
ATA 33 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 33 LIGHTS Page 1 of 2 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 33 - 1 - The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT, RETURN TO SEAT and EXIT signs come ON when:
A - The appropriate switches are ON. B - The appropriate switches are OFF and Excessive Cabin Altitude is detected. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 33 - 2 - With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, Cabin Emergency Lights and EXIT signs automatically come on when:
A - AC BUS 1 or DC SHED ESSENTIAL BUS fails. B - AC BUS 2 fails. C - AC ESSENTIAL BUS fails
ATA 33 - 3 - Aircraft in takeoff position NO SMOKING signs in AUTO. When do the signs extinguish after takeoff ?
A - The signs remain ON until the corresponding switches are selected OFF. B - All signs remain ON until the aircraft is clean. Someone has to do all the washing. C - NO SMOKING signs extinguish according with CIDS.
ATA 33 - 4 - The Emergency Lighting system ...

A - ... can be switched on from the Purser panel, independent of the cockpit controls. B - .. can be switched on from the Purser panel but it is dependent of the cockpit controls. C - ... can be switched on from the 1 right panel independent of the cockpit controls.
ATA 33 - 5 - RWY TURN OFF lights on, NOSE light in T.O.; after Take-Off, you forget to switch these lights off. What happens you?
A - RWY TURN OFF lights and NOSE lights extinguish automatically when the Landing Gear is retracted. B - NOSE lights extinguish automatically. RWY TURN OFF lights remain on during the whole flight. C - RWY TURN OFF and NOSE switches are magnetically held and return automatically to OFF when aircraft is airborne.
ATA 34 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 34 - NAVIGATION Page 1 of 7 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 34-1 - If the ATC mode selector is set to STBY with the a/c on ground
A - Selected ATC transponder is electrically supplied and operate. B - Both ATC transponder are electrically supplied but do not operate . C - Selected ATC transponder is electrically supplied but do not operate
ATA 34-2 - On ATC Control Panel, the XPNDR FAIL Light comes on if:
A - Selected transponder fails. B - System 1 and 2 has failed.
ATA 34-3 - In case of dual FMGC failure, selection of Radio Navigation Frequencies is possible with:
A - RMP 1 only. B - RMP 1 and 2 only. C - RMP 1, 2 and 3.
ATA 34-4 - Can you select VOR 2 frequency with RMP 1?

A - Yes. B - No.
ATA 34-5 - Is STBY/NAV Tuning possible on RMP-3?

A - Yes. B - No.
ATA 34-6 - What does it mean if the ADR fault light comes on, on the ADIRS CDU?
A - A fault is detected in the AIR DATA reference part. B - The air data output is disconnected. C - The PITOT TUBE Heating System is not supplied.
ATA 34-7 - In which EFIS modes do you get no Radar images on the ND?
A - ARC mode, NAV mode. B - NAV mode, PLAN mode. C - PLAN mode.
ATA 34-8 - What happens when the ATT HDG and AIR DATA SELECTORs, on the pedestal mounted switching panel, are set to NORM?
A - ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1, ND1.. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2, ND2. B - ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1, ND1 and DDRMI. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2, ND2. C - ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2.
ATA 34-9 - You press ALIGN IRS prompt on INIT A page. On the ADIRs CDU the ALIGN lights flash but no message is displayed on the CDU:
A - The system can only be used in ATT mode. B - The system is unable to enter NAV mode to compute coordinates: switch it OFF. C - Make a second PRESENT POSITION entry.
ATA 34-10 - Tuning of VOR/DME and ILS are provided by:

A - Automatic Tuning. Manual Tuning. BACK UP tuning. B - Automatic Tuning. Manual Tuning. C - Automatic Tuning. BACK UP Tuning.
ATA 34-11 - The ALIGN LIGHT flashes:

A - No PRESENT POSITION entry after 10 minutes, or, difference between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds 10 of Latitude or Longitude. B - In case of IR Alignment fault. . C - Both A and Bare correct.
ATA 34-12 - ADIRU 3 can supply information to:

A - DMC 1 and DMC 3 only. B - DMC 1 and DMC 2 only. C - DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3.
ATA 34-13 - AIR DATA modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRUs from:
A - All PITOT probes and STAT probes. B - The PITOT probes only. C - The STAT probes only.
ATA 34-14 - The BARO correction or reference selected is sent on each ADIRU via:
A - The master FMGC. B - The FCU. C - The RMPs.
ATA 34-15 - In normal operation the ADIRUs are initialized using information from:
A - The ADIRS CDU. B - The FMGS. C - The FCU.
ATA 34-16 - If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:

A - Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA SELECTORs to CAPT 3. B - Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA SELECTORs to F/O 3. C - Set ATT HDG selectors to CAPT 3, AIR DATA selector to F/O 3.
ATA 34-17 - What information does the IRS require to compute the a/c position?
A - The elevation. B - The Latitude and Longitude. C - The true heading.
ATA 34-18 - Any Standby Instrument should only be powered by battery and/or PitotStatic Pressure:
ATA 34-19 - FMGS. If in CLB mode, if an ALT CSTR is present and is predicted as missed, the target speed will be modified by the FM in attempt to match it.
ATA 34-20 - Where does the ADIRU 3 receive its information from?
A - From the CAPT probes. B - From the STBY probes and the CAPT TAT probe. C - From the F/O probes.
ATA 34-21 - The electric standby horizon normally draws current from the ...
A - ....BATTERY HOT BUS 1. B - ... DC ESS BUS. C - ...BATTERY HOT BUS 2.
ATA 34-22 - What happens to the standby horizon if the DC ESS BUS fails?
A - The correct indication remains for several hours. B - The correct indication remains for about 5 minutes. C - The correct indication remains for 2 minutes.
ATA 34-23 - The FMGC 1 has failed. Autotuning of VOR receiver 1 is not longer possible:
ATA 34-24 - Where can you read the DME Distance?

A - Always in the ND, independent of the ADF/VOR bearing selector. B - Only in the ND. The ADF/VOR bearing elector must be in VOR position. C - Always in the DDRMI.
ATA 34-25 - In normal condition the ILS for the approach runway is selected by ...
A - ... the pilot (Manual Tuning). B - ... FMGC (Autotuning). C - ... Manual Tuning on the RMP.
ATA 34-26 - An ILS tuned on the RAD NAV page appears ...
A - ... immediately in the PFD, in every case. B - ... in the PFD after pressing the ILS push button. C - ... always in the ND and PFD after pressing the ILS push button.
ATA 34-27 - ILS 2 receiver FAULT. In which PFD and ND is the failure indicated?
A - In F/O PFD and F/O ND. B - In F/O ND and CPT PFD. C - In F/O PFD and CPT ND.
ATA 34-28 - BACK UP tuning is used when ...

A - ... an FMGC fails. B - ... both FMGCs or all MCDUs fail. C - ... an MCDU fails.
ATA 34-29 - NAV RA 2 FAULT. What happen to the radio altitude indication in F/O PFD?
A - The radio altitude indication disappears on F/O PFD. B - The radio altitude in F/O PFD will be supplied by Radio Altimeter 1. C - The last Radio Altitude value remains on the PFD, and starts flashing.
ATA 34-30 - Even If both cockpit LOUD SPEAKERS are switched off, GPWS warning will sound.
A - True B - False.
ATA 35 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 35 - OXYGEN Page 1 of 3 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 35-1 - When the Mask is used with the selector at 100% position it is supplied with...
A - ...diluted oxygen on demand. B - ...undiluted oxygen on demand. C - ...undiluted oxygen continuous flow.
ATA 35-2 - A thermal discharge of the crew oxygen bottle is indicated by:
A - THERMAL DISCHARGE message on ECAM. B - The Green Overboard Disch indicator missing. C - The Red Overboard Disch Indicator missing.
ATA 35-3 - In the Passenger Oxygen System, a Chemical Oxygen Generator, once activated delivers oxygen for:
A - 30 minutes, if only one mask is in use. B - 5 minutes, if all masks are used. C - 15 minutes, regardless of the number of the masks used.
ATA 35-4 - In case of need the passenger oxygen masks will drop out:
A - Only by actuation of a switch on the overhead panel . B - Automatically if the Cabin Pressure Altitude exceeds 14.000 ft or by Cabin Attendant action. C - Automatically if the Cabin Pressure Altitude exceeds 14.000 ft or by Flight Crew action.
ATA 35-5 - The oxygen for the cabin oxygen system is ...
A - ...produced by chemical generators. B - ...contained in a high pressure composite cylinder.
ATA 35-6 - How many Oxygen Masks are installed in a PSU above a row of 3 passengers seats ?
A - One. B - Three. C - Four.
ATA 35 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 35 - OXYGEN Page 2 of 3 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 35-7 - The flight crew smoke hood (Drager) furnish an effective time of use of :
A - 30 min. B - 10 min. C - 20 min.
ATA 35-8 - Where does the oxygen in the cockpit come from?
A - It is produced by chemical generators. B - It is stored in a high pressure composite cylinder located in the Avionics Compartment. C - From the portable oxygen bottle in the cockpit.
ATA 35-9 - OXY indication, on DOOR/OXY ECAM page, normally green, becomes amber when
A - Pressure below 400 psi; LOW OXY PRESS is detected. B - OXY CREW SUPPLY pushbutton is OFF. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 35-10 - Test of oxygen masks has to be performed :

A - Before each flight. B - Before the first flight of the day.
ATA 35-11 - The first item of EMERGENCY DESCENT is

A - CREW OXY MASK/DILUTER SEL...................................ON/NORMAL: B - THR LEVERS....................................................................IDLE
A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 36 - PNEUMATIC
ATA 36-1 - ENGINES and APU are both running. If Apu Bleed Valve is selected ON...
A - ...ENGINE Bleed Valves close, X Bleed Valve closes, APU Bleed Valve opens. B - ...ENGINE Bleed Valves open, X Bleed Valve opens, APU Bleed Valve closes. C - ...ENGINE Bleed Valves close, X Bleed Valve opens, APU Bleed Valve opens.
ATA 36-2 - To provide external pneumatic power to start engine 2 the following switching is required:
A - Pneumatic X-BLEED : AUTO. B - Pneumatic X-BLEED : OPEN. C - ENGINE BLEED switches : ON.
ATA 36-3 - High Pressure Air sources are:

A - ENGINE 1 and 2 Bleed Systems, APU load compressor, HP ground connection. B - . ENGINE 1 and 2 Bleed Systems. C - ENGINE 1 and 2 Bleed Systems or APU load compressor.
ATA 36-4 - Pneumatic System operation is controlled and monitored by:

A - One Bleed Monitoring Computer, the overhead cotrol panel and the ECAM B - Two Bleed Valve Computers, the overhead cotrol panel and the ECAM. C - Two Bleed Monitoring Computers, the overhead cotrol panel and the ECAM.
ATA 36-5 - The Bleed Valve is...

A - ... pneumatically operated and electrically controlled. B - ...electrically operated. C - .. pnueumatically controlled.
ATA 36-6 - At low engine speed when the pressure and temperature of the IP air are too low ...
A - ...IP Valve closes. B - ...HP Valve opens, IP stage closes. C - ...the system bleeds air from the HP stage and maintains it at 36 4 psi
ATA 36-7 - If the Bleed Valve closes, the HP Valve...

A - . ...opens automatically. B - ...closes automatically. C - ... remains in its last position.
ATA 36-8 - Bleed air temperature regulation is achieved by a precooler which regulates and limits the temperature at:
A - 150C. B - 85C. C - 200C.
ATA 36-9 - Bleed Air from the engines is:

A - Cooled in an air to air Heat Exchanger by using cooling air bleed from the engine fan section. B - Not cooled prior to being used by the systems. C - Only cooled in air conditioning part.
ATA 36-10 - The Cross Bleed Valve is controlled...

A - ... pneumatically. B - ...electrically. C - ...hydraulically.
ATA 36-11 - The Crossbleed Valve is controlled by 2 electric motors

A - One for automatic mode, and one for manual mode. B - Both for automatic mode. C - Both for manual rode.
ATA 36-12 - If an air bleed leak is detected within the right wing, the following valves are automatically closed
A - ENG 2 Bleed Valve and APU Bleed Valve. B - Wing Anti-Ice Valve and X-Bleed Valve. C - ENG 2 Bleed Valve and X-Bleed Valve.
ATA 36-13 - In case of wing leak detection, If the APU bleed is open and if the leak concerns the left wing, it automatically closes (except during engine start).
A - False. B - True.
ATA 36-14 - A Pylon leak signal causes:The bleed valve on the related side to close automatically ;The FAULT light for the related engine on the AIR COND panel to come on.
ATA 36-15 - In case of a BMC failure...

A - ...the other BMC takes over and ensures the ECAM warnings. B - ...pneumatic system is lost.
ATA 36-16 - In case of BMC 1 failure BMC 2 takes over and ensures APU BLEED LEAK and ENG BLEED LEAK for both engines.
A - True B - False
ATA 49 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 49 - APU Page 1 of 6 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 49-1 - APU manual shutdown in the cockpit may be controlled by...
A - ...APU MASTER switch pushbutton and APU FIRE pushbutton switch. B - ...APU MASTER switch pushbutton. C - ...APU FIRE pushbutton switch and APU SHUT OFF pushbutton.
ATA 49-2 - When the APU is running, the APU FUEL PUMP ...
A - ... runs when Tank Pumps pressure is not sufficient. B - ... runs all the time. C - .. runs only in flight.
ATA 49-3 - When APU MASTER Switch is selected ON:

A - Blue ON light comes on. APU System is supplied and APU starts at 95%, AVAIL light comes ON. B - Blue ON light comes on. APU System is supplied. APU Starts as soon as the START pushbutton is pressed and APU air intake flap opens.
ATA 49-4 - The demand on the APU BLEED AIR system is met
A - By ECB (N% adjustment). B - Not controlled. C - By APU BLEED VALVE which operates as Shut Off Valve.
ATA 49-5 - APU N % indication becomes amber on ECAM APU page, when:
A - N > 107%. B - N > 102%. C - N > 99%.
ATA 49-6 - The APU EGT indication becomes red on ECAM APU page, when:
A - EGT > 715C (APU Running). B - EGT > 1038C (APU Running). C - EGT > 682C (APU Running ) or EGT > 982C (during APU Start).
ATA 49-7 - On ground, APU supplies:

A - Electrical Power + Hydraulic Power. B - Electrical Power + Bleed Air. C - Electrical Power.
ATA 49-8 - APU Air Bleed Extraction for Wing Anti-Ice is permitted:
ATA 49-9 - The APU is supplied from the:

A - Left fuel feed line B - Right fuel feed line C - Center fuel feed line.
ATA 49-10 - In a manual shutdown sequence, if the a/c was using APU Bleed Air, the APU...
A - ...stops immediately. B - ...keeps running for 4 minutes. C - ... keeps running for a cooling period of 120 sec.
ATA 49-11 - AVAIL green light illuminates on START pushbutton switch when:
A - External Power is disconnected. B - APU N reaches 95%. C - APU Electric Power is used.
ATA 49-12 - How many APU starter attempts are allowed ?

A - 3 attempts then a cooling period 60 min must be observed. B - APU starter system has no limitations.
ATA 49-13 - Besides the MASTER switch on the cockpit APU Panel, APU Shut Down is possible by:
A - Pushing the APU FIRE pushbutton. B - Pressing APU SHUT OFF pushbutton on External Interphone Panel. C - Either A or B.
ATA 49-14 - When the APU MASTER switch is released OUT, a normal APU Shut Down occurs:
A - After a time delay, in all cases. B - After a time delay if the APU Bleed Air was in use. C - Without time delay, in all cases.
ATA 49-15 - After setting APU MASTER Switch pushbutton to ON...

A - ...APU Starts. B - ... ECB is electrically supplied. C - ...air intake Flap Closes.
ATA 49-16 - The APU Air Intake Flap is open...

A - ...only on ground. B - ...only in flight. C - ...anytime the APU MASTER switch is ON.
ATA 49-17 - Why does the APU continue running after the MASTER switch has been set OFF?
A - Normal operation. The shutdown sequence begins with a phase of thermal stabilization for the APU. B - MASTER SW failure. The APU can only be shutdown using the APU FIRE switch. C - Normal operation. The APU will not shut down until the APU GEN is switched OFF.
ATA 49-18 - The aircraft is on ground with the APU running, if the ECB fails...
A - ...the APU continues running in a stable condition. B - ...The APU runs into an uncontrolled overspeed condition. C - ...The APU shuts down automatically.
ATA 49-19 - If LOW OIL LEVEL is steady amber on the APU ECAM page....
A - ...shutdown APU. B - ...continue flight, change APU at next possible maintenance stop. C - ...order oil refill; the remaining oil allows normal APU operation for the next 10 hours.
ATA 49-20 - APU Air bleed extraction in flight for Engine start up is permitted up to ...
A - ...20.000 ft B - ...15.000 ft C - ...25.000 ft
ATA 49-21 - APU Air bleed extraction in flight for TWO air conditioning pack is permitted up to
A - 15.000 ft B - 22.500 ft C - 20.000 ft
ATA 49-22 - When the AVAIL green light on the APU START pushbutton sw is ON ...
A - The APU N is above 95%, Bleed Air and Generator are available. B - The APU N is above 95 %, Bleed Valve has opened automatically to supply Air Conditioning. C - The APU is up to speed, ECB takes over full regulation above 95% speed.
ATA 49-23 - APU EMER SHUT DOWN message is shown on E/WD when
A - APU SHUT OFF pushbutton on External Pwr Panel is pushed. B - APU FIRE pushbutton in the cockpit is pushed or an APU fire is detected on ground. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 52 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 52 -DOORS Page 1 of 3 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 52-1 - If an Escape Slide fails to inflate automatically:

A - It must be inflated by manual activation. B - It may be used as a manually held escape slide. C - Both A and Bare correct.
ATA 52-2 - The red manual inflation handle of the FWD and AFT cabin door escape slides is located...
A - ...at the right hand side of the girt extension B - .. at the left hand side of the girt extension C - ...on the right hand side of upper door frame
ATA 52-3 - At the gate, the RED light flashes under the door window if :
A - Slide is armed and engines are running. B - Engines are stopped, slide is disarmed and cabin is pressurized. C - Engines are running and slide is disarmed.
ATA 52-4 - How many Escape Ropes are in the cockpit?

A - 2 Escape Ropes - 1 over each window. They can be used through the left or right window. B - 2 Escape Ropes. Each of them must be used only through the relevant window. C - 3 Escape Ropes for the 2 cockpit crew members, the extra one is for the observer.
ATA 52-5 - How are the main cargo doors operated?

A - All cargo doors are hydraulically operated. B - All cargo doors are manually operated.
ATA 52-6 - The cockpit door:

A - Can only open into the cockpit. B - Can only open into the cabin. C - Normally opens into the cockpit but can be forced open in either direction.
ATA 52 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 52 -DOORS Page 2 of 3 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 52-7 - The cargo doors are operated by...

A - ...the Yellow hydraulic system. B - ...the Yellow hydraulic system before engine startand the Green hydraulic system after engine start. C - ...the Blue hydraulic system.
ATA 52-8 - If you open from the outside a door with slide armed, slide will :
A - Slide will disarm and door will open. B - Door will open and slide will inflate.
ATA 52-9 - How many cabin entrance, overwing emergency exits and cargo doors are on the A-320?
A - Four cabin, two overwing and two cargo. B - Four cabin, four overwing and three cargo. C - Two cabin, four overwing and three cargo.
ATA 52-10 - The white light "SLIDE ARMED" on the cabin doors illuminates when
A - the slide has properly inflated and is safe for use. B - The control handle is operated with the slide armed. C - the main cabin door has not been properly closed.
ATA 52-11 - The red manual inflation handle of the CABIN EMERGENCY EXITS type C escape slides is located...
A - .. at the right hand side of the girt extension B - ..at the left hand side of the girt extension C - ..on the right hand side of upper door frame
ATA 70 A320 FAMILY QUESTIONNAIRE FLIGHT CREW TRAINING ATA 70 - POWER PLANT Page 1 of 9 Edition: 1 Revision: 0
ATA 70-1 - On ground, the start sequence is automatically aborted...

A - ...only in case of Hot Start or Hung Start. B - . ...only in case of no Light Up. C - ... in case of Hot Start, Hung Start, Stall or no Light Up.
ATA 70-2 - When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?

A - TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 800 feet AGL. B - TO 800 feet AGL, LND below 1500 feet AGL.
ATA 70-3 - What is the EGT LIMIT at starting?

A - 890C. B - 790C. C - 635C.
ATA 70-4 - On ground the automatic start sequence is

A - LP fuel valve opens, start valve opens, ignition starts, HP fuel valve opens, when N2>43%: start valve close, ignition stops, pack valve re-opens if another engine do not start within 30 seconds B - Start Valve opens, Ignition starts when N2 > 16%, Start Valve closes and Igniter OFF when N2 > 50% C - Start Valve and HP Fuel Valve open when N2 > 22%, Start Valve closes when N2 > 50%.
ATA 70-5 - What is the minimum starting Oil Temperature?

A. - 40C. B. - 10C. C. 0C.
ATA 70-6 - What is the minimum Oil Quantity (ECAM Indications)?

A - 5 Qts + estimated consumption (0.5 Qts/h). B - 9,5 Qts + estimated consumption (0.5 Qts/h). C - 11 Qts + estimated average consumption .(0.3 Qts/h).
ATA 70-7 - What is the Maximum N2?

A - 105%. B - 102%. C - 100%.
ATA 70-8 - Can the engines be overboosted in the TOGA position?

A - .No, because the EIU is responsible for monitoring N1 and N2. B - No, because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and HMU fuel flow adjustments. C - Yes, if the autothrust function is not active.
ATA 70-9 - The engines are in the manual mode provided the autothrust function is...
A - Not armed. B - Armed and not active. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 70-10 - The FADEC has two channels.

A - Both active B - One active and one in standby C - Channel 1 for eng. 1 and channel 2 for engine 2
ATA 70-11 - In Manual Thrust mode, when the Thrust Levers are positioned between the CL detent and Idle:
A - Each position of the Levers corresponds to an EPR value. B - N1 value corresponds to CL N1. C - N1 value corresponds to Idle N1.
ATA 70-12 - In order to cancel FLOOR or TOGA LK thrust is necessary

A - FLOOR action cannot be cancelled. B - . to disconnect the A/THR. C - . to disengage both FDs
ATA 70-13 - The HP Fuel Shut-Off Valves closure is directly commanded by ...
A - ...the MASTER switch at OFF position. B - . ...the ECU. C - ...the HMU.
ATA 70-14 - Is the engine still supplied in case of Fuel Filter Clog ?
A - Yes. By using the fuel coming from the IDG Cooling tank line. B - Yes. By by-passing the Fuel Filter (By-Pass Valves). C - No. The engine stops.
ATA 70-15 - CRANKING may be manually selected by setting:

A - The ENG MODE selector to CRANK and the MASTER switch to ON. B - ENG MASTER switch to OFF, ENG MODE selector to CRANK and ENG MAN Start push button to ON. C - Same as B with ENG MASTER switch ON.
ATA 70-16 - During an automatic start sequence, the Pack Valves close when:
A - IGN/START is selected. B - APU Bleed is set to ON and IGN/START is selected. C - The ENG MASTER switch is set to ON with IGN/START selected.
ATA 70-17 - During an automatic start sequence:

A - Start Valve closes at N2 > 43%. B - Start Valve closes at N2 > 45%. C - Start Valve closes at N2 > 50%.
ATA 70-18 - Thrust Reversers are actuated by:

A - Hydraulic Actuators: GREEN for ENGINE 1 -YELLOW for ENGINE 2. B - Hydraulic Actuators: GREEN for BOTH ENGINEs. C - Hydraulic Actuators: BLUE for ENGINE 1 -YELLOW for ENGINE 2.
ATA 70-19 - The FADEC automatically selects continuous ignition in the following cases:
A - Wing Anti-Ice ON and ENGINE FLAME OUT. B - . In Flight Restart or ENGINE FLAME OUT or EIU failure. C - ENGINE FLAMEOUT or EIU FAILURE or ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON.
ATA 70-20 - The Oil is cooled by...

A - ...the Engine Fuel/Oil Heat exchanger. B - ...the Air/Oil Heat exchanger. C - ...Both A and B are correct.
ATA 70-21 - ENG SHUT DOWN must be performed detecting one of the following:
A - ECAM ENG 1(2) OIL LO PR B - Oil Pressure indication below 16 psi and pulsing . C - ECAM ENG 1(2) OIL LO PR + Oil Pressure < 60 psi
ATA 70-22 - In Autothrust Mode (Autothrust function active) the thrust computed by the FMGC is limited:
A - to the value corresponding to the thrust lever position (TLA), unless the FLOOR mode is activated. B - to CL N1 during climb and cruise phases. C - By the FMGC itself.
ATA 70-23 - The thrust reverser deployment requires

A - One FADEC channel operating with its associated throttle reverse signal. Right and left main gear compressed signals from the corresponding LGCIUs. B - Trust lever angle (TLA) reverse signal from at least one SEC. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 70-24 - REV appears in green on the EPR Indicator when:

A - The Thrust Levers are set to Full Reverse Sector. B - The Reverse Doors are fully deployed. C - . The Thrust Lever position is in the IDLE Reverse Sector.
ATA 70-25 - A/THR can be armed on ground

A - by pushing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU while the thrust lever are out of the active range. B - by setting both thrust levers beyond the CL detent, or at least one lever beyond the MCT detent. C - by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.
ATA 70-26 - At Take-Off, as soon as the power is set (FLEX or TOGA):

A - The ATS function is armed provided the A/THR p/b on FCU is pressed in. B - The ATS function is active. C - The ATS function is armed but not active.
ATA 70-27 - The idle setting on the aircraft is capable of modulating due to certain conditions. During descent, what might cause the IDLE N1 setting to increase?
A - The slats are extended. B - The engine antice ON. C - A and B.
ATA 70-28 - Verification that Autothrust (A/THR) is active can be made by:.
A - watching the automatic movement of the thrust levers.. B - only when the thrust levers are set at TOGA. C - only by looking at column five of the FMA.
ATA 70-29 - When the ENG MODE selector is turned to IGN START ...
A - ...the Packs automatically reduce the air flow. B - ...the APU Bleed valve closes. C - ...the Pack valves close automatically.
ATA 70-30 - Automatic engine start. When N2 > 43%...

A - the Start Valve closes, the Ignition remains ON. B - the Start Valve closes, the Ignition switches OFF. C - the Start Valve opens, the Ignition switches OFF.
ATA 70-31 - To open the Reverse Blocker door the following conditions must be fullfilled
A - Ground spoilers armed and Thrust Lever in Reverse Idle. B - Both Main Gear compressed, Thrust Lever in Reverse Idle. C - Either Main Gear compressed, Thrust Lever in Reverse Idle.
ATA 70-32 - In case of ENG 1 REVERSE UNLOCKED in flight...

A - ...the FADEC shuts down the engine. B - ...the FADEC regulates the engine at 30%N1 C - ...the FADEC regulates the engine at idle.
ATA 70-33 - The maximum altitude for ENGINE RELIGHT in flight is

A - 27.500 ft. B - 30.000 ft. C - 35.000 ft.
ATA 70-34 - After an unsuccessful restart attempt in flight, a waiting period of 30 seconds must be observed prior to a new attempt
A - So that the batteries can be recharged. B - The FADEC needs time to cool off. C - To allow ventilation of combustion chamber
ATA 70-35 - Other than for feeding the engines, what else is the fuel used for?
A - To cool the IDG oil. B - To cool the ENGINE oil. C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 70-36 - After setting Takeoff thrust the ECAM System Display shows
A - The WHEEL page until GEAR UP. B - The F/CTL page. C - The ENG page.
ATA 70-37 - How many idle modes does FADEC provide ?

A - One only : Thrust idle. B - Two modes : Modulated idle and Approach idle. C - Three modes : Modulated , Approach and Reverse idle
ATA 70-38 - When modulated idle is selected ?

A - In flight, when the flaps are retracted (flaps lever at position 0) B - On ground, provided reverse is not selected C - Both A and B are correct.
ATA 70-39 - When approach idle is selected ?

A - In flight when the Slats are extended. B - When Approach Phase is activated.
ATA 70-40 - Where is the thrust reduction altitude found and is the number always the same?
A - Column four, row three of the FMA; it will always be 1500 B - TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU; it can be modified C - PROG page of the MCDU; it can be modified in order to meet constraints
ATA 70-41 - What is required for the FADEC to compute a reduced thrust setting?
A - A FLEX temperature must be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.. B - Nothing, it is an automatic function of the FADEC. C - A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU..

A320 Questionnaire1

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AIRBUS A-320 FAMILY SYSTEMS & EQUIPMENTS FLIGHT CREW QUESTIONNAIRE

ATA 20-1 - Aircraft wing span (A 321) is:

ATA 20-3 - The steering angle isand the effective turn is

ATA 20-4 - Which VHF antenna is located on lower fuselage?

ATA 20-5 - Unpressurized Areas are:

ATA 21-5 - Pack Flow may be selected from:

ATA 21-7 - Which is the "MAX NORM CAB ALT"?

ATA 21-8 - Which is the max negative p for the cabin?

ATA 21-11 - Once set to ON the Air Conditioning Packs operate:

ATA 21-13 - Conditioned Air is distributed to:

ATA 21-15 - Temperature Regulation is automatic and is controlled by:

C. Both A and B are correct.

ATA 21-20 - In normal operation, pressurization is:

ATA 21-21 - A/c in flight with Press. Controller 1 in use, if it fails:

ATA 21-22 - The Outflow Valve is powered by:

ATA 21-23 - During ground operation, the Outflow Valve is:

ATA 21-28 - The purpose of the Safety Valves is to avoid:

ATA 21-29 - The Safety Valves are operated:

C. Fully open on ground.

ATA 21-35 - Following a CAB PR SYS 1 FAULT:

ATA 21-36 - Cabin pre-pressurization starts at:

Engine Start. Take-Off power selection. Lift-Off.

ATA 21-38 - The Outflow Valve can be manually controlled:

ATA 21-43 - Trim Air Valves are modulated:

ATA 21-51 - In case of VENT AVNCS SYS FAULT...

ATA 21-52 - When the HOT AIR FAULT light is on ...

ATA 21-53 - AIR CONDITIONING on ground

ATA 21-58 - Placing the EXTRACT pushbutton to OVERRIDE:

ATA 21-59 - Placing the BLOWER pushbutton to OVERRIDE:

ATA 22 - 3. A/THR active, ASYM amber message in the FMA means:

ATA 22 - 4. After a FLEX T/0, in case of an engine failure to select MCT....

ATA 22 - 7. The SRS pitch reference guidance law is...

ATA 22 - 11. The FMGS contains the following units...

ATA 22 - 14. Prior to takeoff, in order to preset a 233 HDG is necessary:

ATA 22 - 19. In flight, following a manual position FMGC updating:

ATA 22 - 21. Which are the Basic Modes of the AP/FD?

ATA 22 - 30. The active F-PLN is erased when...

ATA 22 - 33. The FMGC internal test is automatically performed:

ATA 22 - 36. Rudder Travel Limitation is a function of:

ATA 22 - 37. The FMGC functions are:

ATA 22 - 38. The TRIM function of the FAC is:

ATA 22 - 40. The Auto Flight System (AFS) computers are:

ATA 22 - 43. The FLIGHT GUIDANCE performs the following functions:

ATA 22 - 45. The FLIGHT DIRECTORS are engaged:

ATA 22 - 47. In normal FMGS mode of operation...

ATA 22 - 48. The FCU allows:

ATA 22 - 51. The FAC computes rudder travel limit:

ATA 22 - 55. When TAKE-OFF mode is engaged:

ATA 22 - 58. The AP/FD lateral managed modes are:

ATA 22 - 59. On ground, the A/THR arming:

ATA 22 - 60. Climbs and descents are always restricted by:

ATA 22 - 61. In flight, the FMGS position is automatically updated...

ATA 22 - 62. Which is the function of the LOC pushbutton ?

ATA 22 - 63. Pressing the APPR pushbutton....

ATA 22 - 69. What is the significance of the FIGURE OF MERIT?

ATA 22 - 73. The windshear detection function is provided:

ATA 22 - 76. The number of FMGS modes of operation are

ATA 22 - 77. Which are the degraded modes of FMGS ?

ATA 22 - 79. If "INDIPENDENT scratchpad:

ATA 22 - 90. The VERTICAL DEVIATION can be monitored ...

ATA 22 - 91. The wind entries on MCDU are referenced to...