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Multiple-choice questions:
1. Which of the following statement is true?
Every Indian registered aircraft is required to possess a current & valid C of A.
C of A is necessary even if the aircraft is flown in the vicinity of departing
aerodrome for the purpose of test for renewal of C of A.
It is the responsibility of the manufacturer and DGCA to ensure that the aircraft
has a valid C of A.
All above statements are true.
8. Which type of maintenance process is suitable for components not affecting the
safety of Aircraft?
a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition maintenance
c) (a) and (b) are correct d) Condition monitoring
9. Which type of maintenance would you suggest for the servicing of fuel control
unit?
a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition c) Condition monitoring
d) Any other special type of maintenance process which, is specially designed for
FCU
11. What is the %of dispatch reliability of an organization having conducted 5277
flights out which 134 flights are delayed for more than 15 minutes?
a) 2.54% b) 6.8% c) 98.46% d) None of the above
12. Organization, which need not to send the data on mechanical delay of the flights
a) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator c) Private Operator
d) Other than (a) is correct
.
13. Mark the correct sentence, if any
a) Private operators should furnish data regarding dispatch reliability every 06
months.
b) Scheduled operators furnish emergency landing data to RAWO/Sub-RAWO
every month.
c) Non-scheduled operators & training aircraft operator would furnish
information regarding dispatch reliability every 03 months to RAWO/Sub-
RAWO.
d) All are correct statements.
16. Calculate IFSD rate for the PT-6A-42 Engine sl.no.PCE 30105, for a particular
duration, when aircraft is operated for 500 flight hours, the above mentioned
engine is met with IFSD for 6 times
a) 0.012 b) 0.006 c) 0.024 d) None of the above
21. The nationality and registration markings shall be painted on the Indian
regd. aircraft as per
a) Rule 62 b) Rule 134 c) Rule 37 d) Rule 48
37. CAR section 2, Series B Part II is issued vide (Preparation of CCL & ECL)
Aircraft rule
a) 7B b) 133A c) 50 d) 15
40. Rule, which governs the preparation of cockpit and emergency checklist, is
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42. Which manual gives the information about the inoperative system when or where
required to be replaced
a) QC Manual b) Maintenance Manual
c) Engineering Organization Manual d) None of the above
44. Aircraft requiring two or more crewmembers must follow the procedure of
___while using cockpit checklist
a) Challenge and response b) Reading and performing
c) Following action by action d) None of the above
45. State the rules which governs the defect reporting, recording, investigation,
rectification, and analysis
a) 60 b) 59 c) 5 d) All the above are correct
49. What is the periodicity of forwarding fleet performance report by the operators
other than scheduled operator?
a) One month b) Six month c) Four months d) none of the above
51. What is the duration of preserving aircraft component associated with the major
defects?
a) One month b) Fort night c) Two months d) None of the above
54. What are the documents, which give detailed information about fleet
performance, engine statistics and analysis?
a) AAC 4 of 2002 b) AAC 5 of 2001
c) AAC 5 of 2002 d) AAC 5 of 2003
55. An operator may face service difficulties on account of defects malfunction and
shall be reported to manufacturers / designers
a) At the earliest b) As in (a) with in 7 days of occurrence
c) As in (a) not later than two week of occurrence d) None of the above
56. What is the duration within which the major defects investigation to be completed
a) 6 months of its occurrence b) 4 months of its occurrence
c) 3 months of its occurrence d) none of the above
58. The operator operating public transport aircraft should record in the flight report,
Defects observed by the crew during pre-flight prior to the take off
Record special reports with all details regarding incidents
Flight sectors of short duration, where the aircraft is unable to obtain stabilized
cruise conditions of flight, recording of parameters, may be omitted
All the above are correct
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59. Pilot of an Operator of public transport, observed a defect during flight, but not
entered in PDR then,
a) AME need not to rectify the defect till, the defect report for the previous
flight is filled and signed by the crew.
b) AME should ask the crew with regard to defect and rectify at the earliest
c) AME will release the aircraft, by invoking the provision of MEL
d) A and C are correct
60. Name the operator, who can afford to record the defect observed by the flight
crew in a register
a) Scheduled Operator b) Non-scheduled operator
c) Other than public transport operator d) A or B is correct
62. Operator of non-public transport aircraft, when flying out station away from
parent base, the defect observed shall be recorded in
a) Journey logbook b) As in (a) column X
c) As in (a) column XII d) As in (a) Column XI
65. Periodicity for the evaluation of the collected data from the in flight instrument
reading / recording is
a) Two months b) Three months c) Quarterly d) None
66. Name the instrument reading, which is not considered, for analytical study of in
flight instrument
a) Voltmeter reading b) EGT c) Propeller rpm d) EPR
73. Reliability monitoring unit will gather information from the primary sources like
a) Shop findings b) Bench check reports
c) Sampling Inspections d) All the above
76. Alert notices will be issued by..…to all concerned persons and a report shall be
forwarded on….. of every month
a) QCM and 25th b) RMU & 25th
th
c) QAM & 25 d) None of the above
78. Name the operator and the duration regarding development of monthly graphic
display covering operating experience for at least
a) Scheduled operator and one month b) Non-schedule operator and one month
c) Private operator and three months d) none of the above
79. All the graphic display regarding operators experience shall be preserved for a
period of
a) One year b) Three years c) Five years d) None of the above
80. Following changes to bring the alert value under control need not have the prior
approval of DGCA
a) Service time decrease in schedule b) Data analysis method
c) Data collection system d) All the above
82. Name the type of IFSD need not to be used in computing operator’s shut down
rate
a) Critical shut downs b) Non-critical shut downs for training
c) Non-critical shut downs for test d) B and C are correct
83. State the rule that lays down the requirements for grant of approval to an
organization
a) Rule 133A b) Rule 133 B c) Rule 133 C d) None of the above
84. DGCA Hqs. will receive the operators report regarding exceeding of alert value
from
a) QCM b) RMU in QC dept.
c) Accountable Manager d) none of these
86. If an operator’s engine reliability index is above alert value, then he will
ground all his aircraft and analyze the problem
ask the engine manufacturers to rectify
prepare a corrective programme & submit to RAWO
overhauls all affected engines
88. Initial periods for component TBO’s in respect of state govt. aircraft shall be
approved by
a) DGCA Hqs b) RAWO where operator is located
c) Aviation adviser to the state govt. d) None of the above
92. If you are having an organization for carrying out inspection of components by
magnetic particle method, the organization shall seek approval in ___ category
a) A Category b) C Category
c) D Category d) None of the above
93. Separate approval in category in “F” is required for the organization approved
for___ if he wants to establish a store
a) D category b) G Category
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
101. Organization located in India seeking approval shall submit application in form
a) CA 182 B b) CA 182 C c) CA 182 D d) None of the above
104. Name of the manual, which shall reflect the scope of the approval
a) QC manual b) QA manual
c) Maintenance system manual d) None of the above
105. The storage and handling procedures for Electro static device components are
detailed in …… for guidance
a) AAC 5 of 2000 b) ACC 4 of 2000
c) AAC 6 of 2001 d) None of the above
116. For an operator who carried out his first in house audit of the year in June, the
next audit can be carried out in
a) Next year July b) November c) September d) One audit is sufficient
117. Who will ensure that necessary corrective action is taken promptly on the
observations made by audit team during spot checks and internal audit?
a) Accountable manager b) QA Manager
c) QC Manager d) Nodal Officer
119. Quality control and Quality assurance manual of Indian airlines will be approved
by
a) RAWO b) Sub-RAWO where IA Head Office is based
c) DGCA Head quarters d) None of the above
123. Name the manual that contains the procedure for use spares under a pool
agreement
a) Maintenance system manual b) Aircraft Manual
c) Engg. Organization Manual d) None of the above
124. A list containing current life of every major component shall be reflected in
a) QC manual b) QA manual c) EO Manual d) None of above
126. Kingfisher Airlines will start scheduled airlines operation from April 2005 with
Airbus A-320 aircraft. They have an approved QCM who has 10 years experience
in A-320 aircraft. Their inspection schedules shall be approved by
a) QCM b) Sub-RAWOc) DGCA HQs. d) none of these
130. Organizations seeking approval in Cat D shall have to meet the requirements laid
down in
a) CAR Series E Part VII b) CAR Series E Part II
c) CAR Series E Part I d) CAR Series E Part IV
134. Organizations approved in Cat E will issue a voucher to the customer with each
consignment of aviation fuel delivered by it into an aircraft in order to certify
a) Quantity b) Quality c) Airworthiness requirements d) none of these
135. Release notes shall be preserved by approved stores organizations for at least
a) Ten years b) Five years c) Two years d) One year
136. Rule____ specifies that applicants who have passed a course from DGCA
approved institute will be granted one year relaxation in total aeronautical
experience for grant of AME license.
a) 60 b) 61 c) 62 d) 63
140. The quantity of unusable fuel is to be determined if not available in the flight
manual before
a) C of A renewal b) Type certification of aircraft
c) Complete overhaul of aircraft d) All of the above
141. Fuelling operations shall be stopped whenever jet efflux of turbo-propeller engine
is with in
30 mtrs from refueling point/refuelling eqpt. / vent
As in a) within 15 mtrs.
As in a) within 43 mtrs.
None of these.
142. Who will furnish the fuelling company personnel with information regarding
correct procedure of fuelling and precautions to be observed for a type of aircraft?
a) QCM of the fuelling company b) The manufacturer
c) Aircraft operator d) none of these
143. To prevent water remaining in the tanks all the filters should be purged once in
a) 02 weeks b) Every week c) Every month d) Every day
147. Recorded data such as fuel flow Vs TAS in case of jet engine public transport
aircraft shall be evaluated against
a) Alert values suggested by operator b) Alert values approved by DGCA
c) Alert values every month d) All are correct
149. Barrelled AVGAS if remains unused for ___ period should be lab tested before
use.
a) Six weeks b) Six months c) Six years d) none of these
150. In checking the aircraft wheels for high temperature the wheels shall be
approached from the
a) Front & back c) Left side or right side
c) Top side d) No such restrictions
Essay type questions: (Marks)
01. What are the conditions for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition? (03)
02. What is the objective of airworthiness directorate? (02)
03. What is critical shut down? (02)
04. What are the conditions for employing a foreign AME before he certifies an aircraft?
(03)
05. What recommendations does the airworthiness authority give when adverse trends are
observed in any operator’s maintenance standards? (04)
06. What is the aim of safety oversight programme? (02)
07. Name examples of at least 05 situations that indicate negative trends in maintenance
standards? (04)
08. Through which statutory/regulatory documents does the DGCA ensure the Safety
oversight of an operator? (03)
09. Write short notes on conditions for using MEL? (03)
10. What does preamble of MEL contain? (04)
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13. What is the content of the report, which an operator shall submit to RAWO within 24
hours in case of a mechanical delay of 15 minutes or more for dispatch? (05)
14. What details does the fleet performance & engg. statistics report of a scheduled
operator contain and at what periodicity shall they prepare it? (05)
15. Name at least 03 defects classified as group I defects? (03)
16. List out at least 03 defects classified as group II defects? (03)
17. What are the primary sources of information for maintenance control by reliability?
(04)
18. Briefly explain the action to be taken if any system of an aircraft is above alert value.
(05)
19. What changes in maintenance control reliability method will require prior approval of
DGCA? (05)
20. What shall the RAWO do when any operator’s engine reliability index is above alert
value? (03)
21. What corrective programme will be undertaken by the operator when his engine
reliability index is above alert value? (04)
22. At what periodicity will the average fuel and oil consumption of LA engine be
entered in engine logbook? (03)
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23. List out the input parameters for on condition maintenance of piston engines (10)
24. What factors will be kept in view while determining proven service life of an
aircraft/component? (07)
25. Under which conditions can an operator apply for upward revision of maintenance
periods/TBO’s? (03)
26. Define briefly the categories in which DGCA grants approval to aviation
organizations and the scope of each category. (06)
27. Who can become an Accountable Manager and explain his duties briefly? (04)
28. Write short notes on QCM. (03)
29. Who needs a nodal officer and what are his qualification and experience
requirements? (03)
30. List out the manuals required to be prepared by the organizations seeking approval
and who approves them? (06)
31. What is the content of Engineering organization manual? (03)
32. Write any 05 points to be covered in MSM. (05)
33. What is the requirement for approval remaining valid? (04)
34. What is release note? Who can issue release notes? Write distribution of release
notes. (05)
35. What is rejection note? Who can issue rejection notes? Write the distribution of
rejection notes (05)
36. What changes in the organization shall be notified to DGCA by AO? (03)
37. Write briefly the contents of QC manual. (04)
38. What is the difference between bonded stores and quarantine stores? (04)
39. What is the qualification requirement for CI of an AME school? (03)
40. What documents are required in a night halt station? (04)
41. Briefly explain the method of determination of unusable fuel in case of light aircrafts
below 5700 Kgs. AUW. (04)
42. What are the conditions for refuelling an aircraft with passengers on board? (03)
43. What is the grade of filter required for AVGAS and ATF tank installations? (04)
44. What are the occasions when the sampling of fuel should be carried out from a tank
or sump? (03)
45. What are the checks to be carried out on a new hose to be used on fuel installations?
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(03)
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