Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
c) Endomysium
d) Fasicle
e) Fascia
2) A muscle connection with a flat, fibrous tissue is called a(n):
a) Origin
b) Insertion
c) Reference reversal
d) Tendon
e) Aponerosis
3) What type of muscle contraction is taking place when muscle resistance is higher than
muscle tension, thus the muscle remains at the same length?
a) Reflexive contraction
b) Tonic contraction
c) Phasic contraction
d) Isometric contraction
e) Isotonic contraction
4) The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of naming based on:
a) Action or Function
b) Body region
c) Attachments
d) Shape or size
e) Heads or tendons
5) All of the following are specific types of muscle fiber organizations EXCEPT:
a) Fusiform
b) Pennant
c) Quadrilateral
d) Rhomboid
e) Triangular
6) In muscle function, what opposes the prime mover?
a) Antagonist
b) Agonist
c) Fixator
d) Synergist
e) Opponent
7) All of the following are types of deep fascia EXCEPT:
a) Retinacula
b) Fibrous sheath
c) Intermuscular septa
d) Neurovascular sheath
e) Fatty layer
d) Electrolytes
e) Platelets
2) Once interstitial fluid has been pushed into special capillaries, it is called:
a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Lymph
d) Platelets
e) Plasma
3) What chamber of the heart first receives oxygenated blood?
a) Right ventricle
b) Right atrium
c) Left ventricle
d) Left atrium
4) After blood leaves the right ventricle, what structure does it enter next?
a) Pulmonary artery
b) Left atrium
c) Right atrium
d) Aorta
e) Pulmonary trunk
5) What layer of the heart is considered visceral?
a) Myocardium
b) Pericardium
c) Endocardium
d) Epicardium
e) Cardium
6) What great vessel receives blood from the arms?
a) Superior vena cava
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Aorta
d) Greater vena cava
e) Lesser vena cava
7) What type of tissue is the tunica media made of?
a) Endothelium
b) Smooth muscle
c) Connective
d) Skeletal muscle
e) Cardiac muscle
8) Baroreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. They are responsible
for sensing:
a) CO2 changes
b) O2 changes
c) Vasoconstriction
d) Vasodilation
e) Pressure changes
9) Certain vessels of the eye, kidney, and endocrine glands have standard endothelial
cells but holes for the movement of molecules. These vessels are called:
a) Venules
b) Sinusoid
c) Fenestrated capillary
d) Continuous capillary
e) Vasa vasorium
10) During an abdominal procedure, a surgeon ligates (cuts) the single terminal arterial
branch to an organ. This organ will:
a) Anastomose
b) Backup from collateral circulation
c) Become a vascular shunt
d) Remain intact
e) Necrose (die)
11) Lymphatic vessels are drained from:
a) The inferior vena cava (IVC)
b) The superior vena cava (SVC)
c) Arteries
d) Capillaries
e) Veins
12) All lymph from the body drains to the thoracic duct except the:
a) Right arm
b) Right leg
c) Left arm
d) Left leg
e) Abdomen
13) Movement of lymph through the lymphatic system involves all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Contraction of muscles
b) Lymph node dilation
c) Respiratory movement
d) Arterial pulsation
e) Smooth muscle in the vessels
c) Superiorly
d) Inferiorly
e) Superficially
11) The connection of a dorsal root and ventral root form a:
a) Rootlet
b) Ganglion
c) Spinal nerve
d) Gray matter
e) White matter
12) Sensory impulses enter the ____ root and motor impulses exit the ____ root.
a) Ventral; Ventral
b) Dorsal; Dorsal
c) Ventral; Dorsal
d) Dorsal; Ventral
e) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
6) Parasympathetic GVE fibers enter the spinal cord via ____ roots and exit the spinal
cord via ____ roots.
a) Dorsal; Ventral
b) Ventral; Dorsal
c) Dorsal; Dorsal
d) Ventral; Ventral
e) Depends on reflex
7) Referred pain is radiated from an organ to a dermatome because the brain cannot
differentiate ____ from _____.
a) General somatic afferents (GSA) from general visceral efferent (GVE)
b) General somatic afferents (GSA) from general somatic efferent (GSE)
c) General visceral afferents (GVA) from general somatic efferent (GSE)
d) General visceral afferents (GVA) from general visceral efferent (GVE)
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 10 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
c) T3
d) DSA
e) CT
6) What type of imagining uses radioactive dye to show where glucose is most used and
thus to determine the metabolic state of a tissue?
a) Digital subtraction angiography
b) Magnetic resonance imaging
c) Computed tomography
d) Positron emission tomography
e) Digital subtraction angiography
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 11 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
6) The vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen of the atlas and descends the
cervical column passing through transverse foramen of all cervical vertebrae EXCEPT:
a) C7
b) C6-C7
c) C5-C7
d) C4-C7
e) C3-C7
7) During a practical exam, you are given a black bag with a single vertebra inside and
asked to identify the vertebra. You feel normal transverse processes and a small spinous
process. You also feel a bony prominence arising perpendicular to the anterior (body)
surface of the vertebra. What is the most likely answer?
a) Atlas
b) Axis
c) C7
d) Typical thoracic
e) Typical lumbar
8) Concentric lamellae are part of the ____ and the fibers of each layer runs ____ to the
next layer.
a) Annulus fibrosus; Perpendicular
b) Annulus fibrosus; Parallel
c) Nucleus pulposus; Perpendicular
d) Nucleus pulposus; Parallel
9) A disc herniation of the nucleus pulposus comes out to the side because what structure
blocks a direct posterior hernia?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Anterior longitudinal ligament
c) Posterior longitudinal ligament
d) Cauda equina
e) Filum terminale
10) Which ligament is the most likely to be damaged in a whip-lash injury when the
driver of a car is hit from behind?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Anterior longitudinal ligament
c) Posterior longitudinal ligament
d) Cruciform ligament
e) Alar ligament
11) Which of the following locations (articulations) is responsible for the largest portion
of rotational “no” movement of the head?
a) Atlanto-occipical
b) Atlanto-axial
c) C2-C3
d) C6-C7
e) C7-T1
12) A 19-year-old female presents two days following an automobile accident. She
indicates that she had a stiff neck that has since receded, but now she claims her neck
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 12 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
feels “loose”. Physical exam reveals excessive rightward rotation of the head and atlas.
What ligament has most likely been damaged?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Anterior longitudinal ligament
c) Posterior longitudinal ligament
d) Cruciform ligament
e) Alar ligament
13) What ligament holds the dens against the atlas?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Anterior longitudinal ligament
c) Posterior longitudinal ligament
d) Cruciform ligament
e) Alar ligament
14) In what region could vertebra slide over each other and lock without breaking the
articular facets?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
e) Coccyx
15) Which of the following would be most at risk if there was stenosis of the
intervertebral foramen or spondylophyte growth into the foramen?
a) Vertebral arteries
b) Vertebral veins
c) Spinal nerves
d) Joints of Luschka
e) Alar ligament
16) In the lumbar region, the pars interarticularis is on the ____ and in the cervical region
it is on the ____.
a) Lamina; Pedicle
b) Pedicle; Lamina
c) Lamina; Lamina
d) Pedicle; Pedicle
17) In an oblique radiograph of the lumbar spine, what makes the eye of the “Scotty
dog”?
a) Par interarticularis
b) Lamina
c) Pedicle
d) Inferior articular process
e) Superior articular process
18) Which of the following is a defect of the pars interarticularis with vertebral
displacement?
a) Spondylolysis
b) Spondylolisthesis
c) Osteocytes
d) Hangman fracture
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 13 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
e) Jefferson fracture
19) The Jefferson fracture involves cervical vertebra ____ and the hangman fracture
involves cervical vertebra ____.
a) 1; 1
b) 2; 2
c) 1; 2
d) 2; 1
e) 1; 7
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 14 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
e) Latissimus dorsi
6) How many ribs does serratus posterior (superior or inferior) attach to?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
7) In the anatomical variation of the transverse cervical artery, a superficial cervical
artery would arise from the thyrocervical trunk going to the ____ muscle and a
descending scapular artery would arise from the subclavian artery going to the ____
muscle.
a) Rhomboid; Serratus posterior superior
b) Rhomboid; Trapezius
c) Trapezius; Serratus posterior superior
d) Serratus posterior superior; Rhomboid
e) Trapezius; Rhomboid
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 15 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
a) Splenius capitus
b) Iliocostalis
c) Longissimus
d) Semispinalis
e) Spinalis
6) Which of the following muscles is NOT a direct border of the suboccipital triangle?
a) Rectus capitis posterior major
b) Rectus capitis posterior minor
c) Obliquus capitis superior
d) Obliquus capitis inferior
7) Which of the following moves the skull but does not have an attachment on the skull?
a) Rectus capitis posterior major
b) Rectus capitis posterior minor
c) Obliquus capitis superior
d) Obliquus capitis inferior
8) The vertebral artery is within the suboccipital triangle, which is innervated by posterior
rami of what vertebral nerve?
a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C4
e) C5
9) What muscle is pierced by the greater occipital nerve?
a) Rectus capitis posterior major
b) Rectus capitis posterior minor
c) Splenius capitis
d) Obliquus capitis
e) Semispinalis capitis
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 16 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
d) 8
e) 9
4) What spinal cord segments have enlargements?
a) Cervical and thoracic
b) Thoracic and lumbar
c) Cervical and lumbar
d) Lumbar and sacral
e) Thoracic and sacral
5) A disc herniation at the level of L4-L5 will most affect which spinal nerve?
a) L3
b) L4
c) L5
d) S1
e) S2
6) What part of the spinal cord would be affected with a compression fracture at the L3
vertebra?
a) L1
b) L2
c) L3
d) L4
e) The spinal cord is not affected
7) Where is the most consistent location of the artery of Adamkiewicz?
a) T8
b) T10
c) L2
d) L4
e) S2
8) How many venous channels are usually seen in the spinal cord?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
e) None
9) In the venous drainage of the spinal cord (Batson’s plexus), where is the most common
location of valves?
a) Liver
b) IVC/SVC
c) Azygous
d) Head
e) There are no valves
10) Which of the following spaces contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
a) Epidural
b) Subdural
c) Subarachnoid
d) Subpial
11) At what level does the dura mater end?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 17 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
a) T8
b) T10
c) L2
d) L4
e) S2
12) Lumbar punctures can have severe consequences such as cranial herniation (leading
to coma) in a patient with increased intracranial pressure. What level is common for
inserting the lumbar puncture needle in an adult, measured at the iliac spines and entering
into the lumbar cistern?
a) T12
b) L2
c) L4
d) S2
e) S4
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 18 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
5) Shoulder dislocations are most commonly ____ and can affect the ____ nerve, which
is near the site of dislocation.
a) Anterior; Radial
b) Posterior; Radial
c) Anterior; Ulnar
d) Posterior; Ulnar
6) Which of the following is NOT a shoulder muscle of the rotator cuff?
a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus
c) Teres major
d) Subscapularis
7) A carpenter presents with complaints of difficulty carrying objects. When the patient
carries paint buckets, the buckets constantly bump into his knees. What muscle is most
likely affected?
a) Subclavius
b) Subscapularis
c) Supraspinatus
d) Teres major
e) Teres minor
8) 180 degrees of shoulder abduction normally consist of ____ degrees of glenohumeral
(GH) joint motion and ____ degrees of scapulothoracic (ST) joint motion, a ratio of ____.
a) 90; 90; 1 to 1
b) 120; 60; 2 to 1
c) 60; 120; 1 to 2
d) 135; 45; 3 to 1
e) 45; 135; 1 to 3
9) Which of the following is/are found within the quadrangular space of the shoulder?
a) Posterior circumflex humeral artery
b) Circumflex scapular artery
c) Axillary nerve
d) A & C
e) B & C
10) Which of the following is found in the triangular interval (not triangular space) of the
shoulder?
a) Deep brachial profunda artery
b) Circumflex scapular artery
c) Radial nerve
d) A & C
e) B & C
11) Which of the following is true regarding the superior transverse scapular ligament?
a) The suprascapular artery and nerve run above the ligament
b) The suprascapular artery and nerve run under the ligament
c) The suprascapular artery runs above and the nerve runs below the ligament
d) The suprascapular artery runs below and the nerve runs above the ligament
12) A patient presents some time after a football injury to the side. They are having
difficulty washing behind their ears. The patient is asked to push against a wall with their
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 19 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
hands and their right scapula “wings” out. Which of the following is most likely
involved?
a) Pectoralis minor, medial pectoral nerve, roots C6-C8
b) Pectoralis minor, medial pectoral nerve, roots C8-T1
c) Serratus anterior, long thoracic nerve, roots C3-C5
d) Serratus anterior, long thoracic nerve, roots C5-C7
e) Pectoralis major, medial and lateral pectoral nerves, roots C5-T1
13) A patient presents with a shoulder injury after fall off of a motorcycle. Upon
examination, the shoulder appears to step-off from the normal shoulder line. Palpation
reveals a popping sensation as the joint shifts. An x-ray is scheduled to confirm the
dislocation. Which of the following is most likely?
a) Anterior shoulder dislocation
b) Posterior shoulder dislocation
c) Grade 1 acromioclavicular joint separation
d) Grade 2 acromioclavicular joint separation
e) Grade 3 acromioclavicular joint separation
14) A medical student compresses and blocks her axillary artery while sleeping on her
side. Which of the following arteries provides an alternate route (anastomosis) to get
blood flow past the shoulder joint?
a) Dorsal scapular artery
b) Suprascapular artery
c) Transverse cervical artery
d) Circumflex scapular artery
e) Subclavian artery
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 20 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 21 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
5) A patient with cardiac angina feels referred pain on the medial portion of their
forearm. What nerve root is involved?
a) C5
b) C6
c) C7
d) C8
e) T1
6) What nerve root corresponds to the outside deltoid region, also known as the
“regimental patch” region?
a) C5
b) C6
c) C7
d) C8
e) T1
7) What nerve accounts for sensation on the top of the hand (posterior aspect) between
the thumb and first two fingers?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
8) A 33-year-old male presents two weeks following a motorcycle crash with a chief
complaint of limited functional use of his right arm. Physical exam reveals a right arm
that is adducted and internally rotated with some flexion of the wrist. History reveals that
during the accident he landed on the upper right shoulder and neck, sustaining significant
skin abrasions to the area of his right lateral neck down to his acromion process. Which
of the following is most likely?
a) Erb-Duchenne Palsy
b) Dejerine-Klumpke Palsy
c) Parsonage-Turner Syndrome
d) Hand of Benediction
e) Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
f) Volkmann Contracture
g) Dupuytren Contracture
9) A young child presents with history of weakness of the left arm after traumatic birth.
Questioning reveals birth started with the left arm and it was pulled to aid in birth.
Currently, the child shows flexion and supination of the elbow, extension of the wrist,
hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, and flexion of the interphalangeal
joints with the “claw hand” posture. What nerve roots are likely involved?
a) C5-C6
b) C6-C7
c) C7-C8
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 22 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
d) C8-T1
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 23 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 24 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
d) Brachioradialis
e) Brachialis
4) A patient presents with damage to tendons of his right forearm. The clinician asks the
patient to touch their left thumb and left pinky together and slightly flex their wrist. The
maneuver enhances visualization of which of the following, whose function is minor and
can be used to replace the damaged tendons of the other forearm?
a) Flexor digitorum superficialis
b) Flexor carpi ulnaris
c) Flexor carpi radialis
d) Pronator teres
e) Palmaris longus
5) Injury to the median nerve would affect which of the following muscles?
a) Biceps brachii
b) Flexor carpi ulnaris
c) Supinator
d) Pronator quadratus
e) Brachioradialis
6) A patient is asked to flex their wrists and put the tops (posterior aspect) of their hands
together for 90 seconds. After a positive test, surgery is scheduled to make a transverse
incision through the flexor retinaculum. This will relieve pressure on what nerve passing
through this structure?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
7) Which of the following extends the pinky finger only?
a) Extensor carpi radialis longus
b) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
c) Extensor digitorum
d) Extensor digiti minimi
e) Extensor carpi ulnaris
8) Which of the following is found at the elbow and works to extend the elbow?
a) Abductor pollicis longus
b) Extensor pollicis brevis
c) Extensor pollicis longus
d) Extensor indicis
e) Supinator
f) Anconeus
9) A patient presents after falling off a skateboard onto an outstretched hand. The
clinician presses into the anatomic snuff box near the thumb and pain is felt. An MRI is
scheduled of the scaphoid bone and measures are made to prevent avascular necrosis.
What tendon lies in the middle of the area that was palpated?
a) Abductor pollicis longus
b) Extensor pollicis brevis
c) Extensor pollicis longus
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 25 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
d) Extensor indicis
e) Extensor carpi radialis
10) Prior to performing a puncture for an arterial blood gas sample, the clinician performs
an Allen test to ensure patency to the superficial palmar arch of the hand. What two
arteries contribute to this arch?
a) Anterior interosseous and deep radial
b) Superficial radial and Superficial ulnar
c) Deep ulnar and anterior interosseous
d) Anterior and posterior interosseous
e) Radial recurrent and superficial ulnar
11) Which of the following best describes the distribution of a common palmar digital
(superficial) artery?
a) Lateral aspect of middle finger and lateral aspect of ring finger
b) Medial aspect of middle finger and medial aspect of ring finger
c) Lateral aspect of middle finger and medial aspect of ring finger
d) Medial aspect of middle finger and lateral aspect of ring finger
e) Lateral and medial aspect of middle finger
12) What nerve runs between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
13) What nerve runs deep, piercing the supinator muscle?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
14) The ulnar nerve runs between the two heads of what muscle?
a) Extensor carpi radialis longus
b) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
c) Extensor digitorum
d) Extensor digiti minimi
e) Extensor carpi ulnaris
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 26 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
c) Herpetic whitlow
d) Cellulitis
e) Flexor tendosynovitis
3) A 40-year-old male presents with lost function of the left ring finger. History reveals
presence of a tender bump on the palm which has progressed and now pulls the ring
finger into flexion. Which of the following is the most likely?
a) Erb-Duchenne Palsy
b) Dejerine-Klumpke Palsy
c) Parsonage-Turner Syndrome
d) Hand of Benediction
e) Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
f) Volkmann Contracture
g) Dupuytren Contracture
4) Which of the following is NOT a muscle of the thenar eminence?
a) Lumbrical
b) Opponens pollicis
c) Abductor pollicis brevis
d) Flexor pollicis brevis
e) Adductor pollicis
5) The dorsal and palmar interossei move fingers away from midline, centered around
what digit?
a) Digit 1
b) Digit 2
c) Digit 3
d) Digit 4
e) Digit 5
6) Most of the fingers are supplied by what artery?
a) Radial artery of the superficial palmar arch
b) Ulnar artery of the superficial palmar arch
c) Radial artery of the deep palmar arch
d) Ulnar artery of the deep palmar arch
7) The palmar branch of the median nerve travels through the carpal tunnel.
a) True
b) False
8) What nerve provides sensation over the region of the anatomic snuff box?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
9) A bicyclist presents with deficits of the hand. The clinician suspects Guyon canal
syndrome. What nerve passes through the tunnel of Guyon?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 27 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
e) Ulnar nerve
10) A patient presents with a claw-like appearance of the hand. When asked to hold a
piece of paper between their finger and thumb, they flex their thumb at the
interphalangeal joint (Froment sign). Which of the following nerves is likely damaged?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
11) A patient presents with deficits of the hand. When asked to hold their arm out parallel
to the ground, they are unable to move their fingers to the ceiling (wrist-drop). What
nerve is likely damaged?
a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
12) A patient presents with deficits of the hand. When asked to make a fist, they are only
able to fully flex digits 4 and 5 (Hand of Benediction). Which of the following nerves is
most likely damaged?
a) Proximal radial nerve
b) Distal radial nerve
c) Proximal median nerve
d) Distal median nerve
e) Proximal ulnar nerve
f) Distal ulnar nerve
13) A patient presents with inability to extend their fingers. The patient states they were
throwing an opponent during a Judo competition and the opponent did not let go, thus
pulling hard on the patient’s outstretched arm. Examination reveals loss of sensation
along the medial aspect of the arm and an inability to span the fingers. Which of the
following is most likely?
a) Erb-Duchenne Palsy
b) Dejerine-Klumpke Palsy
c) Parsonage-Turner Syndrome
d) Hand of Benediction
e) Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
f) Volkmann Contracture
g) Dupuytren Contracture
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 28 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 29 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
b) Synovial condyloid
c) Synovial hinge
d) Synovial plane
e) Synovial ellipsoid
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 30 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
6) A patient presents with radial deviation, minor clawing of the hand, and loss of
sensation over the 5th digit. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?
a) Proximal radial nerve
b) Distal radial nerve
c) Proximal median nerve
d) Distal median nerve
e) Proximal ulnar nerve
f) Distal ulnar nerve
7) A volleyball player presents after trying to block a spike and jamming their finger (as
shown). The clinician believes the extensor digitorum tendon was hyperextended. Which
of the following is most likely?
a) Trigger finger
b) Mallet finger
c) Swan-neck finger
d) Boutonnière finger
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 31 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
b) Psoas major
c) Gracilis
d) Rectus femoris
e) Sartorius
3) Which of the following adductors of the thigh is innervated by the obturator nerve as
well as the sciatic nerve?
a) Adductor longus
b) Adductor magnus
c) Adductor brevis
d) Pectineus
e) Gracilis
4) Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the pubic ramus near the pubic
tubercle?
a) Gracilis
b) Pectineus
c) Adductor brevis/longus
d) Adductor magnus
e) Sartorius
5) Which of the following is NOT enclosed in the femoral sheath within the subinguinal
hiatus?
a) Femoral vein
b) Femoral artery
c) Femoral nerve
d) Femoral lymph nodes
6) Which of the following makes up the roof of the femoral triangle?
a) Inguinal ligament
b) Sartorius
c) Adductor longus
d) Tensor fascia lata
e) Pectineus
f) Iliopsoas
7) Which of the following does NOT leave the femoral triangle through the saphenous
hiatus?
a) Lacuna lymphatica
b) Great saphenous vein
c) External pudendal artery
d) Superficial epigastric artery
e) Superficial circumflex iliac artery
8) Femoral hernias are more commonly seen in women.
a) True
b) False, inguinal canal hernias are more commonly seen
9) What muscle makes up the lateral border of the femoral triangle?
a) Inguinal ligament
b) Sartorius
c) Adductor longus
d) Tensor fascia lata
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 32 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
e) Pectineus
f) Iliopsoas
10) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the external iliac artery?
a) Obturator artery
b) Popliteal artery
c) External pudendal artery
d) Deep femoral artery
e) Superficial circumflex iliac artery
11) Which of the following arteries forms an anastamotic ring around the femoral neck?
a) Artery of ligamentum capitis femoris
b) Descending geniculate artery
c) Ascending branch of medial circumflex femoral artery
d) Ascending branch of lateral circumflex femoral artery
e) Perforating femoral arteries (I, II, III)
12) Which of the following arteries is NOT matched correctly with its origin from the
lumbar plexus?
a) Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerve, L1
b) Genitofemoral nerve, L1-2
c) Lateral curaneous femoral nerve, L1-2
d) Femoral nerve, L2-4
e) Obturator nerve, L2-4
13) What nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscle?
a) Superior gluteal nerve
b) Inferior gluteal nerve
c) Obturator nerve
d) Femoral nerve
e) Genitofemoral nerve
14) What nerve innervates the gluteus minimus muscle?
a) Superior gluteal nerve
b) Inferior gluteal nerve
c) Obturator nerve
d) Femoral nerve
e) Genitofemoral nerve
15) Which of the following potentially absent muscles can be found on the posterior
abdominal wall?
a) Palmaris longus
b) Plantaris
c) Peroneus tertius
d) Pyrimidalis
e) Psoas minor
16) Which of the following muscles does NOT attach (insert) onto the greater trochanter?
a) Piriformis
b) Gluteus maximus
c) Gluteus medius
d) Gluteus minimus
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 33 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
17) Which muscle (muscle tendon) can be found between the superior and inferior
gemellus muscles?
a) Quadratus femoris
b) Obturator externus
c) Obturator internus
d) Piriformis
e) Gluteus medius
18) Which of the following muscles does NOT attach (originate) onto the ichial
tuberosity?
a) Gracilis
b) Biceps femoris
c) Semitendinosus
d) Semimembranosus
19) Pes anserinus (“goose’s foot”) is a term for the facial nerve as well as the leg.
Regarding the leg, which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the pes anserinus
(superficialis)?
a) Sartorius
b) Gracilis
c) Semitendinosus
d) Semimembranosus
20) Which of the following describes the root levels of the sciatic nerve?
a) L4-S1
b) L4-S3
c) L5-S2
d) S1-S3
e) S2-S4
21) Which of the following is most likely to be compressed by the piriformis muscle
(piriformis syndrome)?
a) Posterior cutaneous femoral nerve
b) Superior gluteal nerve
c) Inferior gluteal nerve
d) Pudendal nerve
e) Sciatic nerve
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 34 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
c) Pubic symphysis
d) Posterior superior iliac spine
e) Iliac crest
3) Which of the following bones has a surface called sustentaculum tali?
a) Talus
b) Cuboid
c) Calcaneus
d) Navicular
e) Cuneiform
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 35 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
b) Semimembranosus
c) Semitendinosus
d) Gastrocnemius
e) Soleus
7) Which geniculate artery supplies most of the cruciate ligaments?
a) Medial superior geniculate artery
b) Lateral superior geniculate artery
c) Median geniculate artery
d) Medial inferior geniculate artery
e) Lateral inferior geniculate artery
8) What landmark can be used to find the dorsalis pedis artery for palpation?
a) Medial to extensor hallucis longus tendon
b) Lateral to extensor hallucis longus tendon
c) Posterior to medial malleolus
d) Posterior to lateral malleolus
e) Superior to medial malleolus
9) Which of the following describes the neurovascular structures of the popliteal fossa
from lateral to medial?
a) Vein, artery, nerve
b) Vein, nerve, artery
c) Nerve, artery, vein
d) Nerve, vein, artery
e) Artery, nerve, vein
10) What nerve accounts for sensation between the first two toes?
a) Sural
b) Deep peroneal
c) Medial plantar
d) Superficial peroneal
e) Tibial
11) Which of the following is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve?
a) Abductor hallucis
b) Flexor hallucis longus
c) Quadratus planae
d) Flexor digitorum brevis
e) Lumbricles
12) Which of the following form the plantar arch?
a) Lateral plantar artery and deep medial plantar artery
b) Lateral plantar artery and superficial medial plantar artery
c) Anterior tibial artery and posterior tibial artery
d) Dorsalis pedis artery and peroneal artery
e) Medial malleolar artery and lateral plantar artery
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 36 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
c) Knee joint
d) Ankle joint
e) Tarsometatarsal joints
2) Which of the following hip ligaments is the strongest ligament in the body?
a) Iliofemoral
b) Ishiofemoral
c) Pubofemoral
d) Liagementum teres capitis femoris
3) Which of the following is attached to the medial meniscus?
a) Tibial collateral ligament
b) Fibular collateral ligament
c) Anterior cruciate ligament
d) Posterior cruciate ligament
e) Ligamentum patellae
4) Which of the following attaches from the lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle
to the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia?
a) Tibial collateral ligament
b) Fibular collateral ligament
c) Anterior cruciate ligament
d) Posterior cruciate ligament
e) Medial meniscus
5) Excessive anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur indicates damage to which of
the following?
a) Tibial collateral ligament
b) Fibular collateral ligament
c) Anterior cruciate ligament
d) Posterior cruciate ligament
e) Medial meniscus
6) When the knee is flexed, the ____ are relaxed and the ____ are taut.
a) Cruciate ligaments; Collateral ligaments
b) Collateral ligaments; Cruciate ligaments
c) Cruciate ligaments; Menisci
d) Menisci; Collateral ligaments
e) Collateral ligaments; Menisci
7) When one’s legs are bent out laterally at the knee (bowlegged) it is described as:
a) Genu valgum
b) Genu rectum
c) Genu varum
8) Which of the following is NOT a component of the deltoid ligament?
a) Anterior tibiotalar ligament
b) Posterior tibiotalar ligament
c) Tibionavicular ligament
d) Tibiocalcaneal ligament
e) Calcaneofibular ligament
9) Damage at the Lisfranc joint line is seen in automobile accidents, military personnel,
runners, and contact sports. What joint line is this?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 37 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
a) Calcaneocuboid joint
b) Ligamentum bifurcatum
c) Intermetatarsal joint
d) Tarsometatarsal joint
e) Subtalar joint
10) Laxity in which of the following ligaments would most lead to pes planus (flatfoot)?
a) Long plantar calcaneocuboid
b) Short plantar calcaneocuboid
c) Plantar calcaneonavicular
d) Calcaneofibular
e) Deltoid
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 38 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
d) L4
e) L5
6) What cutaneous innervation level covers the back of the thigh and leg?
a) S1
b) S2
c) S3
d) S4
e) S5
7) What cutaneous innervation level covers the big toe?
a) L1
b) L2
c) L3
d) L4
e) L5
8) The superficial vein that is found on the anterior aspect of the medial malleolus is the:
a) Small saphenous
b) Popliteal
c) Great saphenous
d) Anterior tibial
e) Posterior tibial
9) A patient presents with pain down the lateral side of the left calf, decreased sensation
on the skin between the 1st and 2nd toes, and weakness on heel walking. The most likely
cord level compromised is:
a) L4
b) L5
c) S1
d) S2
e) S3
10) A patient presents with decreased patellar reflex and weakness on hip flexion against
resistance. The most likely compromised nerve is the:
a) Obturator
b) Femoral
c) Tibial
d) Sural
e) Common fibular
11) During the stance phase of gait, which of the following groups of muscles would be
least active?
a) Dorsi flexors
b) Flantar flexors
c) Hip flexors
d) Evertors
e) Hip extensors
12) Of the six actions that occur at the hip joint, which muscle group would be least
active in providing stability to the lower extremity during the stance phase of gait?
a) Abductors
b) Adductors
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 39 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
c) Flexors
d) Extensors
e) Medial rotators
13) Which muscle of the medial compartment of the thigh also crosses the knee joint?
a) Adductor magnus
b) Sartorius
c) Gracilis
d) Semitendinosus
e) Adductor longus
14) Which muscle of the anterior compartment also flexes the hip
a) Articularis genu
b) Vastus lateralis
c) Tensor fascia lata
d) Sartorius
e) Adductor longus
15) Which muscle functions to unlock (flex) the knee from full extension?
a) Vastus medialis
b) Vastus lateralis
c) Gastrocnemius
d) Popliteus
e) Semitendinosus
16) Which tendon helps to give support to both the lateral longitudinal and transverse
arches of the foot?
a) Tibialis anterior
b) Tibialis posterior
c) Flexor hallucis longus
d) Flexor digitorum longus
e) Fibularis longus
17) The ability to sit down gracefully on the toilet is due in part to paradoxical relaxation
of the:
a) Gluteus maximus
b) Piriformis
c) Tibialis anterior
d) Biceps femoris
e) Iliopsoas
18) The part of the foot and ankle where inversion occurs is the:
a) Forefoot
b) Midfoot
c) Hindfoot
d) Medial malleolus
e) Lateral malleolus
19) Which muscle helps eversion of the foot but does NOT pass around the lateral
malleolus?
a) Tibialis anterior
b) Extensor hallucis longus
c) Fibularis brevis
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 40 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
d) Fibularis tertius
e) Soleus
20) Stroking the skin on the lateral side of the foot is activating sensory fibers from which
cord level?
a) L4
b) L5
c) S1
d) S2
e) S3
21) The major blood supply of the deep structures of the foot is the:
a) Dorsalis pedis artery
b) Medial plantar artery
c) Anterior tibial artery
d) Lateral plantar artery
e) Popliteal artery
22) The hip joint is most easily dislocated if the femur is fully:
a) Flexed
b) Extended
c) Adducted
d) Abducted
e) Medially rotated
23) A carpenter presents after falling three meters and landing on the balls of his feet. He
now complains of a sharp pain in the plantar aspect of his foot, especially on toe-off. He
probably has contusion of which structure?
a) Tendon of the abductor hallucis longus
b) Sesamoid bones in the flexor hallucis brevis
c) Common plantar digital nerves from the lateral plantar nerve
d) Fibularis longus tendon
e) Adductor hallucis tendon
24) Spasm in which muscle is most likely to mimic sciatic pain?
a) Quadratus femoris
b) Piriformis
c) Gastrocnemius
d) Gluteus medius
e) Iliopsoas
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 41 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
b) CT
c) MRI
d) SPECT
e) Bone scan
3) When looking an AP x-ray of the foot, there appear to be two white structures on the
first toe. Which is the most likely?
a) Bursitis
b) Osteophytes
c) Sesamoid bones
d) Gouty calcification
e) Hammer toe
f) Hallux valgus
James Lamberg
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 42 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
AnswerKey 1) B 1) E 6) E
Gen #1 2) C 2) C 7) B
1) A 3) D 3) D 8) C
2) D 4) E 4) B 9) E
3) E 5) D 5) C 10) C
4) B 6) A 6) A 11) E
5) C 7) B 7) B 12) C
6) C 8) E 8) A
7) D 9) C 9) C Anat #5
8) B 10) E 10) B 1) E
9) A 11) D 11) B 2) B
10) E 12) A 12) E 3) A
11) C 13) B 13) D 4) C
14) A 5) A
Gen #2 Gen #6 15) C 6) D
1) C 1) C 16) A 7) C
2) A 2) C 17) C 8) B
3) E 3) B 18) B 9) D
4) B 4) E 19) C 10) D
5) D 5) D 11) C
6) C 6) A Anat #2 12) D
7) A 7) C 1) E 13) E
8) B 2) C 14) D
Gen #3 9) A 3) B
1) B 10) B 4) A Anat #6
2) D 11) C 5) D 1) E
3) E 12) D 6) D 2) D
4) C 7) E 3) F
5) A Gen #7 4) B
6) C 1) C Anat #3 5) B
7) D 2) D 1) E 6) A
8) D 3) C 2) E
9) C 4) C 3) A Anat #7
10) B 5) B 4) C 1) B
11) A 6) A 5) D 2) B
7) D 6) B 3) D
Gen #4 7) D 4) A
1) C Gen #8 8) A 5) E
2) E 1) B 9) E 6) A
3) D 2) E 7) C
4) C 3) C Anat #4 8) A
5) B 4) A 1) B 9) D
6) A 5) B 2) B
7) E 6) D 3) D Anat #8
4) C 1) A
Gen #5 Anat #1 5) C 2) E
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 43 -
Gross Anatomy – Part 1 14Mar2009
3) C 5) D 3) C 18) B
4) A 6) C 19) D
5) C 7) E Anat #18-19 20) C
6) A 8) A 1) B 21) D
7) D 9) B 2) C 22) A
8) C 3) A 23) B
9) B Anat #13 4) E 24) B
10) C 1) E 5) D
11) D 2) D 6) E Anat #22
3) C 7) C 1) C
Anat #9 4) D 8) B 2) E
1) B 5) C 9) D 3) C
2) E 6) E 10) B
3) C 7) B 11) C
4) E 12) A
5) D Anat #14
6) D 1) C Anat #20
7) D 2) E 1) B
8) F 3) B 2) A
9) B 3) A
10) B Anat #15-16 4) D
11) D 1) C 5) C
12) D 2) E 6) B
13) C 3) B 7) C
14) E 4) E 8) E
5) C 9) D
Anat #10-11 6) D 10) C
1) B 7) A
2) B 8) A Anat #21
3) G 9) B 1) C
4) E 10) A 2) C
5) C 11) D 3) E
6) B 12) C 4) E
7) B 13) B 5) C
8) C 14) A 6) B
9) E 15) E 7) E
10) E 16) B 8) C
11) C 17) C 9) B
12) C 18) A 10) B
13) B 19) D 11) C
20) B 12) E
Anat #12 21) E 13) C
1) C 14) D
2) B Anat #17 15) D
3) C 1) B 16) E
4) D 2) E 17) A
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 44 -