1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country? A. first three B.

first four C. first five D. first six E. None of the above Answer: A 2. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. Whatrouting algorithm is being used? A. hot potato routing B. flooding C. static routing D. delta routing E. None of the above Answer: A 3. The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate for a communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to A. 0.003 B. 0.009 C. 0.991 D. 0.999 E. None of the above Answer: B 4. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device A. Router B. Bridge C. Repeater D. Modem Answer: B 5. Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same time? A. Contention B. Collision C. Synchronous D. Asynchronous E. None of the above Answer: B 6. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60 new subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. 255.240.0.0 B. 255.248.0.0 C. 255.252.0.0 D. 255.254.0.0 E. 255.255.255.255 Answer: D 7. What are the most commonly used transmission speeds in BPS used in data communication? A. 300 B. 1200 C. 2400 D. 9600 E. None of the above Answer: D 8. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network? A. 127.0.0.1 B. 255.0.0.0 C. 255.255.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. None of the above Answer: D 9. Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation? A. modem B. protocols C. gateway

D. multiplexer E. None of the above Answer: A 10. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN? A. Slower data transmission B. higher error rate C. interference of transmissions from different computers D. All of the above Answer: D 11. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) A. allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts B. provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and the InternetProtocol Software on another C. reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to individual application programs and take action to correct the problem D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 12. Your company has a LAN in its downtown office and has now set up a LAN in the manufacturing plant in the suburbs. To enable everyone to share data and resources between the two LANs, what type of device(s) are needed to connect them? Choose the most correct answer. A. Modem B. Cable C. Hub D. Router Answer: D 13. The term 'duplex' refers to the ability of the data receiving stations to echo back a confirming message to the sender. In full duplex data transmission, both the sender and the receiver A. cannot talk at once B. can receive and send data simultaneously C. can send or receive data one at a time D. can do one way data transmission only E. None of the above Answer: B 14. How many hosts are attached to each of the local area networks at your site? A. 128 B. 254 C. 256 D. 64 E. None of the above Answer: B 15. Which of the following technique is used for fragment? A. a technique used in best-effort delivery systems to avoid endlessly looping packets B. a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from a higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame C. one of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller pieces for transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram size D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: C 16. Contention is A. One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of devices B. a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal C. the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same time D. a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications service among stations attached to the network E. None of the above Answer: C 17. Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect hits of transmitted data by receiving A. 100 photons B. 200 photons C. 300 photons D. 400 photons E. None of the above Answer: B

18. Satellite-Switched Time-Division Multiple Access (SS/TDMA) is A. the method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any time. B. a medium access control technique for multiple access transmission media C. a form of TDMA in which circuit switching is used to dynamically change the channel assignments D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: C 19. When you ping the loopback address, a packet is sent where? A. On the network B. Down through the layers of the IP architecture and then up the layers again C. Across the wire D. through the loopback dongle E. None of the above Answer: B 20. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from one machine to another? A. FTP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. RPC E. None of the above Answer: C 21. Which of the following device is used to connect two systems, especially if the systems use different protocols? A. hub B. bridge C. gateway D. repeater E. None of the above Answer: C 22. The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because A. they produce large volume of data B. they contain clock recovery circuits C. they transmit the data with stop and start bits. D. they operate with a larger bandwidth E. None of the above Answer: B 23. A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a central computer is A. bus network B. star network C. ring network D. Point-to-point network E. None of the above Answer: B 24. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol allows an application program on one machine to send a datagram to an application program on another machine? A. UDP B. VMTP C. X.25 D. SMTP E. None of the above Answer: A 25. A remote batch-processing operation in which data is solely input to a central computer would require a: A. telegraph line B. simplex lines C. mixed-band channel D. All the above E. None of the above Answer: B 1. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is A. a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level physical hardware address B. a TCP/IP high level protocol for transferring filesfrom one machine to another C. a protocol used to monitor computers

D. a protocol that handles error and control messages E. None of the above Answer: D 2. If you get both local and remote echoes, every character you type will appear on the screen A. once B. twice C. three times D. never E. None of the above Answer: B 3. What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID, assuming a default subnet mask? A. 192 B. 192.168.10 C. 0.0.0.5 D. 51 E. None of the above Answer: B 4. The slowest transmission speeds are those of A. twisted-pair wire B. coaxial cable C. fiber-optic cable D. microwaves Answer: A 5. A noiseless 3 KHz Channel transmits bits with binary level signals. What is the maximum data rate? A. 3 Kbps B. 6 Kbps C. 12 Kbps D. 24 Kbps. Answer: B 6. Carrier is A. One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of devices B. a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal C. the condition when two or more sections attempt to use the same channel at the same time D. a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications service among stations attached to the network E. None of the above Answer: B 7. What can greatly reduce TCP/IP configuration problems? A. WINS Server B. WINS Proxy C. DHCP Server D. PDC E. None of the above Answer: C 8. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is _____. A. equal to the remainder at the sender B. zero C. nonzero D. the quotient at the sender Answer: B 9. Which of the following statements is correct for the use of packet switching? A. the subdivision of information into individually addressed packets in conjunction with alternative routing arrangement enabled the transmission path to be altered in the event of congestion or individual link failure B. the employment of additional intelligence within the network enabled more sophisticated error control and link control procedures to be applied C. by employing wide bandwidth circuits for the trunk networks substantial economies through extensive sharing of capacity could be achieved. D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 10. A front-end processor is A. a user computer system B. a processor in a large-scale computer that executes operating system instructions

C. a minicomputer that relieves main-frame computers at a computer centre of communications control functions D. preliminary processor of batch jobs. E. None of the above Answer: C 11. What is the port number for NNTP? A. 119 B. 80 C. 79 D. 70 Answer: A 12. Eight stations are competing for the use of a shared channel using the 'Adaptive tree Walk Protocol'. If the stations 7 and 8 are suddenly become ready at once, how many bit slots are needed to resolve the contention? A. 7 slots B. 5 slots C. 10 slots D. 14 slots Answer: A 13. Usually, it takes 10-bits to represent one character. How many characters can be transmitted at a speed of 1200 BPS? A. 10 B. 12 C. 120 D. 1200 E. None of the above Answer: C 14. To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use A. a coaxial cable B. a dedicated line C. a ground station D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: A 15. Internet-like networks within an enterprise. A. Intranets B. Switching alternating C. Inter organizational networks D. Extranets Answer: A 16. How many bits internet address is assigned to each host on a TCP/IP internet which is used in all communications with the host? A. 16 - bits B. 32 - bits C. 48 - bits D. 64 - bits E. None of the above Answer: B 17. With an IP address of 100, you currently have 80 subnets. What subnet mask should you use to maximize the number of available hosts? A. 192 B. 224 C. 240 D. 248 E. 252 Answer: E 18. Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly? A. wideband channel B. voice band channel C. narrowband channel D. broadband channel E. None of the above Answer: C 19. Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers? A. communications software

B. protocol C. communications hardware D. access to transmission medium E. All of the above Answer: E 20. Which of the following does not allow multiple users or devices to share one communications line? A. doubleplexer B. multipplexer C. concentrator D. controller E. None of the above Answer: A 21. The geostationary satellite used for communication systems A. rotates with the earth B. remains stationary relative to the earth C. is positioned over equator D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 22. Telecommunication networks frequently interconnect an organization with its customers and suppliers. Select the best fit for answer: A. Bandwidth alternatives B. Switching alternating C. Inter organizational networks D. Extranets Answer: C 23. The packets switching concept was first proposed A. in the late 1980s for the Defense Ministry of US. B. in the early 1960s for military communication systems, mainly to handle speech C. in the late 1950s for Defense Ministry of US D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: B 24. The _____ houses the switches in token ring. A. transceiver B. nine-pin connector C. MAU D. NIC E. None of the above Answer: C 25. What device separates a single network into two segments but lets the two segments appear as one to higher protocols? A. Switch B. Bridge C. Gateway D. Router Answer: B

1. Which of the following refers to the terms "residual error rate"? A. the number of bit errors per twenty four hours of continuous operation on an asynchronous line B. The probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error detection scheme is used C. the probability that one or more errors will be detected when an error detection mechanism is used D. signal to noise ratio divided by the ratio of energy per bit to noise per hertz E. None of the above Answer: B 2. Which of the following summation operations is performed on the bits to check an error-detecting code? A. Codec B. Coder-decoder C. Checksum D. Attenuation Answer: C

3. The research and development department at your office has been experimenting with different technologies to help improve the performance of the network. One group has been examining the use of a broadband network versus a based band network. Select the correct statement about broadband and baseband. A. Broadband networks carry several channels on a single cable, whereas in a baseband network several cables carry one channel B. Baseband networks carry a single channel on a single cable, whereas broadband networks carry several channels on a single cable C. Baseband refers to local area networks, and broadband refers to wide area networks. D. Baseband operates at a standard bit rate, whereas broadband may operate at different rates as needed E. Broadband and baseband refer to the different frequencies at which infrared operates then transmitting signals in certain conditions Answer: B 4. An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted is known as A. Frame check sequence B. Error detecting code C. Checksum D. flow control E. None of the above Answer: A 5. The cheapest modems can transmit A. 300 bits per second B. 1,200 bits per second C. 2,400 bits per second D. 4,800 bits per second E. None of the above Answer: A 6. Computers cannot communicate with each other directly over telephone lines because they use digital pulses whereas telephone lines use analog sound frequencies. What is the name of the device which permits digital to analog conversion at the start of a long distance transmission? A. Interface B. Modem C. Attenuation D. Teleprocessor E. None of the above Answer: B 7. What is the usual number of bits transmitted simultaneously in parallel data transmission used by microcomputers? A. 16 B. 9 C. 8 D. 4 E. None of the above Answer: B 8. The receive equalizer reduces delay distortions using a A. tapped delay lines B. gearshift C. descrambler D. difference engine E. None of the above Answer: A 9. Four routers have to be interconnected in a point-to-point Network. Each pair of root us may connect by a high-speed line, a medium speed line or a low speed line. Find the total number of topologies. A. 12 B. 81 C. 48 D. 729 Answer: D 10. A network consists of eight NT servers. You are planning to move servers to different segments of your network, what utility should be used at each server to determine which server generates the most traffic? A. NBTSTAT B. NETSTAT.EXE C. Performance Monitor D. Network Monitor E. ARP.EXE Answer: D 11. Sending a file from your personal computer's primary memory or disk to another computer is called

A. uploading B. downloading C. logging on D. hang on E. None of the above Answer: A 12. What is the name of the software package that allows people to send electronic mail along a network of computers and workstations? A. Memory resident package B. Project management package C. Data communication package D. Electronic mail package E. None of the above Answer: C 13. The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction at a time is A. simplex B. duplex C. half duplex D. multiplex E. None of the above Answer: C 14. HMP (Host Monitoring Protocol) is: A. a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level physical hardware address B. a TCP/IP high level protocol for transferring files from one machine to another. C. a protocol used to monitor computers D. a protocol that handles error and control messages E. None of the above Answer: C 15. Which of the following is a voice band channel? A. Telephone line B. Telegraph line C. Coaxial cable D. Microwave systems E. None of the above Answer: A 16. A 8-Mbps token ring has a token holding timer value of 10 msec. What is the longest frame (assume header bits are negligible) that can be sent on this ring? A. 8000 B frame B. 80,000 B frame C. 8 x 105 bit frame D. 10,000 B frame Answer: D 17. Data are sent over pin _____ of the EIA-232 interface. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. All of the above Answer: A 18. To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use A. a coaxial cable B. a dedicated line C. a ground station D. All of the above Answer: A 19. Demodulation is a process of A. converting analog to digital signals B. converting digital to analog signals C. multiplexing various signals into one high speed line signals D. performing data description. Answer: A 20. Internet-like networks between a company and its business partners. Select the best fit for answer:

A. Bandwidth alternatives B. Switching alternating C. Inter organizational networks D. Extranets Answer: D 21. An example of an analog communication method is A. laser beam B. microwave C. voice grade telephone line D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 22. Which of the following layer protocols are responsible for user and the application programme support such as passwords, resource sharing, file transfer and network management? A. Layer 7 protocols B. Layer 6 protocols C. Layer 5 protocols D. Layer 4 protocols E. None of the above Answer: A 23. What frequency range is used for FM radio transmission? A. Very Low Frequency : 3 kHz to 30. kHz B. Low Frequency : 30 kHz to 300 kHz C. High Frequency : 3 MHz to 30 MHz D. Very High Frequency : 30 MHz to 300 MHz E. None of the above Answer: D 24. Transmission of computerized data from one location to another is called A. data transfer B. data flow C. data communication D. data management E. None of the above Answer: C 25. Compared to analog signals, digital signals A. allow faster transmission B. are more accurate C. both (a) and (b) D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: C 1. FDDI is a A. ring network B. star network C. mesh network D. bus based network E. None of the above Answer: A 2. An anticipated result from multiprogramming operations is: A. reduced computer idle time B. the handling of more jobs C. better scheduling of work D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 3. A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a A. bus network B. ring network C. star network D. All of the above E. None of the above

Answer: C 4. If delays are recorded as 10 bit numbers in a 50 router network, and delay vectors are exchanged twice a second, how much bandwidth per fill duplex line is occupied by the distributed routing algorithm? A. 500 bps B. 1500 bps C. 5 bps D. 1000 bps Answer: D 5. HOSTS file entries are limited to how many characters? A. 8 B. 255 C. 500 D. Unlimited E. None of the above Answer: B 6. Demodulation is the process of A. converting digital signals to analog signals B. converting analog signals to digital signals C. combining many low speed channels into one high speed channel D. dividing the high-speed signals into frequency bands E. None of the above Answer: B 7. Which of the following statement is incorrect? A. The Addresses Resolution Protocol, ARP, allows a host to find the physical address of a target host on the same physical network, given only the target IP address. B. The sender's IP - to- physical address binding is included in every ARP broadcast; receivers update the IP-to-Physical address binding information in their cache before processing an ARP packet. C. ARP is a low-level protocol that hides the underlying network physical addressing, permitting us to assign IP-addresses of our choice to every machine. D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 8. You are working with a network that has the network ID 192.168.10.0. What subnet should you use that supports up to 25 hosts and a maximum number of subnets? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 E. 255.255.255.252 Answer: B 9. Which of the following best illustrates the default subnet mask for a class A,B, and C Network? A. 0.0.0.0, 0.0.0.1, 0.0.1.1 B. 255.255.255.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.0.0.0 C. 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0, 255.255.255.255 E. None of the above Answer: C 10. Modulation is the process of A. converting analog signals to digital signals B. converting digital signals to analog signals C. Multiplexing various signals into high speed line signals D. performing data encryption. Answer: B 11. Devices interconnected by the LAN should include A. Computers and terminals B. mass storage device, printers and plotters C. bridges and gateways D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D

12. What are the data transmission channels available for carrying data from one location to another? A. Narrowband B. Voice band C. Broadband D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 13. On a class B network, how many hosts are available at each site with a subnet mask of 248? A. 16,382 B. 8,190 C. 4,094 D. 2,046 E. 1,022 Answer: D 14. Which of the following technique is used for encapsulation? A. a technique used in best-effort delivery systems to avoid endlessly looping packets. B. a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from a higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame. C. One of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller pieces for transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram size D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: B 15. You are working with three networks that have the network IDs 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0. What subnet mask can you use to combine these addresses into one? A. 255.255.252.0 B. 225.255.254.0 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.252 Answer: A 16. With an IP address set starting with 150, you currently have six offices that you are treating as subnets. Plans are in place to open 10 more offices before the end of the year. What subnet mask should you use to satisfy the needed number of subnets and maximize the number of hosts available at each site? A. 192 B. 224 C. 240 D. 248 E. 252 Answer: D 17. A machine that connects to two or more electronic mail systems and transfers mail messages among them is known as A. Gateways B. mail gateway C. bridges D. User Agent E. None of the above Answer: B 18. If digital data rate of 9600 bps is encoded using 8-level phase shift keying (PSK) method, the modulation rate is A. 1200 bands B. 3200 bands C. 4800 bands D. 9600 bands E. None of the above Answer: B 19. Error detection at a data link level is achieved by A. bit stuffing B. cyclic redundancy codes C. Hamming codes D. equalization Answer: B 20. When the computer provides the manager with a multiple choice of possible answers, the prompting technique is A. question and answer B. form filling

C. open-ended question D. menu selection E. None of the above Answer: D 21. Which network topology is considered passive? A. Cross B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh E. Bus Answer: E 22. If a firm wanted to transmit data from 1,000 punched cards to a remote computer, they would use a(n) A. POS terminal B. data collection terminal C. batch processing terminal D. intelligent terminal E. None of the above Answer: C 23. Which address is the loopback address? A. 0.0.0.1 B. 127.0.0.0 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 255.255.255.255 E. None of the above Answer: C 24. Error rate is A. an error-detecting code based on a summation operation performed on the bits to be checked. B. a check bit appended to an array of binary digits to make the sum of all the binary digits. C. a code in which each expression conforms to specific rules of construction, so that if certain errors occur in an expression, the resulting expression will not conform to the rules of construction and thus the presence of the errors is detected. D. the ratio of the number of data units in error to the total number of data units E. None of the above Answer: D 25. Intranets and extranets can use their network fire walls and other security features to establish secure Internet links within an enterprise or with its trading partners. Select the best fit for answer: A. Network Server B. Virtual Private Network C. Network operating system D. OSI Answer: B 1. Which of the following identifies a specific web page and its computer on the Web? A) Web site B) Web site address C) URL D) Domain Name 2. Which of the following terms applies to all the webpages for Amazon.com? A) Top-level domain B) Web site C) Web site address D) Web domain 3. Software, such as Explorer and Firefox, are referred to as _____. A) Systems software B) Utility software C) Browsers D) Internet tools 4. Which following ISP is free? A) CompuServe B) AOL C) NetZero D) MSN

5. If you wanted to be part of an online community that creates an educational web site that allows its members to add to or change its information, what type of web site would you need? A) Educational or .edu B) Social networking site C) Wiki D) Web 2.0 6. If you wanted to create a broadcast that could be downloaded from the Internet, what would you create? A) IBroadcast B) EShow C) Podcast D) ICast 7. When data moves from one set of major connections to another on the Internet, we call these connections the Internet _____. A) Pathway B) Backbone C) Communications system D) Routers 8. When internet data leaves your campus, it normally goes to a(n) ______ before moving toward its destination. A) Internet backbone B) Network access point C) Base station D) Communication system 9. MCI and AT&T are examples of which of the following? A) Social networks B) Communications systems C) Internet service providers D) Mobisodes 10. What type of telecommunications hardware allows you to access the web? A) Browser B) Modem C) FTP protocol D) IRC ANSWERS: 1 D 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 C 6 C 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 B

1. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels. A) B) C) D) Protocol Medium Signal All the above

2. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______. A) Medium B) Protocol C) Message D) Transmission 3. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______of a network. A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) Feasibility 4. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue. A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) All the above

5. Which topology requires a central controller or hub? A) Mesh B) Star C) Bus D) Ring 6. Which topology requires a multipoint connection? A) Mesh B) Star C) Bus D) Ring 7. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) automatic 8. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) automatic 9. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) primary D) secondary 10. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) primary D) secondary 11. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) half-simplex 12. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together. A) IMPs B) host computers C) networks D) routers 13. This was the first network. A) CSNET B) NSFNET C) ANSNET D) ARPANET 14. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field? A) ITU-T B) IEEE C) FCC D) ISOC 15. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies. A) Forums B) Regulatory agencies C) Standards organizations D) All of the above 16. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic signaling specifications? A) EIA B) ITU-T

C) D)

ANSI ISO

17. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. A) TCP/IP B) NCP C) UNIX D) ACM 18. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) All of the above 19. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) None of the above 20. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) none of the above 21. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) all of the above 22. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above 23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above 24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network. A) Data flow B) Mode of operation C) Topology D) None of the above 25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology. A) mesh B) ring C) bus D) all of the above 26. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings. A) MAN B) LAN C) WAN D) none of the above 27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world. A) MAN B) LAN C) WAN D) none of the above

28. ________ is a collection of many separate networks. A) A WAN B) An internet C) a LAN D) None of the above 29. There are ______________ Internet service providers. A) local B) regional C) national and international D) all of the above 30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication. A) forum B) protocol C) standard D) none of the above 31. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard. A) RCF B) RFC C) ID D) none of the above Answer Medium Message Reliability Security Star Bus simplex simplex point-to-point multipoint full-duplex IMPs ARPANET FCC Forums EIA TCP/IP Syntax Semantics Timing all of the above point-to-point multipoint Topology all of the above LAN WAN An internet all of the above protocol RFC 1. Which of the following companies developed MS Office 2000? A. Microsoft B. Corel C. Novell D. Lotus Answer: A 2. Which of the following is not a part of a standard office suite? A. Word Processor B. Data base C. Image Editor D. File Manager Answer: D 3. Which of the following is the Word Processor in MS Office? A. Word Star B. Word Pad C. Word D. Word Perfect Answer: C

4. Which of the following is not a special program in MS Office? A. Office Art B. Clip Art C. Word Art D. Paint Art Answer: D 5. Which is an animated character that gives help in MSOffice? A. Office Worker B. Office Assistant C. Comic Assistant D. None of these Answer: B 6. In which way does MS Office provide help? A. Whats This B. Office Assistant C. Help Menu D. All of the above Answer: D 7. Which input device cannot be used to work in MSOffice? A. Scanner B. Light Pen C. Mouse D. Joy Stick Answer: D 8. Which of the following is not a standard MSOffice Edition? A. CE B. Advanced C. Standard D. Professional Answer: B 9. MSOffice 2000 included a full-fledged Web designing software called ___ A. MS Word B. Front Page Express C. FrontPage 2000 D. None of these Answer: C 10. Which of the following are valid Minimum and Maximum zoom sizes in MSOffice? A. 10, 100 B. 20, 250 C. 10, 500 D. 10, 1000 Answer: C 11. Which type of files cannot be navigated using ClipArt browser? A. AVI B. BMP C. WAV D. MP3 Answer: D 12. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS Office? A. Office 4 B. Office 97 C. Office 98 D. Office 2000 Answer: C 1. An application that executes on separate PCs like this is called a(n) __________ application. A) enterprise B) distributed C) tier D) global 2. The most popular commercial DBMS. A) Microsoft SQL Server B) Microsoft Access C) MySQL D) Oracle 3. The ability of a database to grow as the data tracking needs grow is its __________. A) scalability B) expandability C) maintainability D) platform-independence 4. The most open source DBMS. A) Microsoft SQL Server B) Microsoft Access C) MySQL D) Oracle 5. A DBMS that runs on many different operating systems is said to be __________. A) scalable B) robust C) platform independent D) distributed 6. Search engines use a(n) __________ to automatically index sites. A) crawler B) query

C) D)

enterprise sitebuilder

7. The __________ performs document tracking. A) distributed application B) enterprise software C) Oracle software D) EDM software 8. An enterprise solution with data storage, a client interface and a security system is a(n) __________ system. A) 2-tier B) 3-tier C) 4-tier D) n-tier 9. __________ will answer questions you did not think to ask of your data. A) data mining B) data extrapolation C) knowledge discovery D) data enlightenment 10. __________ is the clear leader for personal databases. A) Microsoft Access B) Microsoft FoxPro C) Borland dBase D) MySQL ANSWERS:

1 B

2 D

3 A

4 C

5 C

6 A

7 D

8 B

9 C

10 A

1. Computer uses the.number system to store data and perform calculations. (A) binary (B) octal (C) decimal (D) hexadecimal (E) None of these Ans : (A) 2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is (A) Memory-only (B) Write-only (C) Once-only (D) Run-only (E) Read-only Ans : (E) 3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document ? (A) CTRL+A (B) ALT+F5 (C) SHIFT+A (D) CTRL+K (E) CTRL+H Ans : (A) 4. .are 'attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity. (A) Phishing (B) Computer viruses (C) Spyware scams (D) Viruses (E) None of the above Ans : (A) 5. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of (A) control

(B) output (C) processing (D) feedback (E) input Ans : (E) 6. A Web site's main page is called its (A) Home Page (B) Browser Page (C) Search Page (D) Bookmark (E) None of these Ans : (A) 7. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is (A) multiprogramming (B) multitasking (C) time-sharing (D) multiprocessing (E) None of these Ans : (D) 8. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as (A) an ASCII code (B) a magnetic tape (C) an OCR scanner (D) a bar code (E) None of these Ans : (D) 9. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the button and then point to AutoFit Contents. (A) Fit to Form (B) Format (C) Autosize (D) Contents (E) AutoFit Ans : (E) 10. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends ? (A) It is not unethical, because it is legal. (B) It is unethical because the files are being given for free. (C) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws. (D) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free. (E) It is not unethical-anyone can access a computer Ans : (C) 11. Reusable optical storage will typica1ly have the acronym (A) CO (B) DVD (C) ROM (D) RW (E) ROS Ans : (D) 12. The most common type of storage devices are (A) persistent (B) optical (C) magnetic (D) flash (E) steel Ans : (D) 13. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be (A) distributed (B) free (C) centralized (D) open source (E) None of these Ans : (B)

14. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a (A) hacker (B) analyst (C) instant messenger (D) programmer (E) spammer Ans : (A) 15. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is (A) dragging (B) dropping (C) right-clicking (D) shift-clicking (E) None of these Ans : (C) 16. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click (A) UPPERCASE (B) UPPER ALL (C) CAPS LOCK (D) Lock Upper (E) Large Size Ans : (A) 17. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a (A) tab (B) cell (C) box (D) range (E) None of these Ans : (B) 18. You can keep your personal files / folders in (A) My folder (B) My Documents (C) My Files (D) My Text (E) None of these Ans : (B) 19. In Word you can force a page break (A) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key (B) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter (C) By using the Insert/Section Break (D) By changing the font size of your document (E) None of these Ans : (B) 20. A DVD is an example of a(n) (A) hard disk (B) optical disc (C) output device (D) solid-state storage device (E) None of these Ans : (B) 21. The default view in Excel is.view. (A) Work (B) Auto (C) Normal (D) Roman (E) None of these Ans : (C) 22. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called (A) downloading (B) uploading (C) FTP

(D) JPEC (E) downsizing Ans : (A) 23. .is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors. (A) Tracking (B) Formatting (C) Crashing (D) Allotting (E) None of these Ans : (B) 24. Help Menu is available at which button ? (A) End (B) Staft (C) Turnoff (D) Restart (E) Reboot Ans : (B) 25. The contents of.are lost when the computer turns off. (A) storage (B) input (C) output (D) memory (E) None of these Ans : (D) 26. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off (A) RAM (B) Motherboard (C) Secondary storage device (D) Primary storage device (E) None of these Ans : (C) 27. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other computers is a(n) (A) supercomputer (B) minicomputer (C) laptop (D) server (E) None of these Ans : (D) 28. The.folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send. (A) Drafts (B) Outbox (C) Address Book (D) Sent Items (E) Inbox Ans : (B) 29. Grouping and processing all of a firm's transactions at one time is called (A) a database management system (B) batch processing (C) a real-time system (D) an on-line system (E) None of these Ans : (B) 30. The.enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window. (A) tab box (B) pop-up helper (C) tab row (D) address bar (E) Esc key Ans : (C) 31. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards ?

(A) BUS (B) CPU (C) USB (D) MIDI (E) MINI Ans : (C) 32. You can.a search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results. (A) refine (B) expand (C) load (D) query (E) slowdown Ans : (A) 33. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ? (A) RAM (B) Floppy (C) CPU (D) CO-ROM (E) ROM Ans : (E) 34. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel ? (A) Name box (B) Row Headings (C) Formula bar (D) Task pane (E) None of these Ans : (A) 35. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel over telephone lines is called (A) red wire (B) blue cord (C) tower (D) modem (E) None of these Ans : (D) 36. Video processors consist of.and., which store and process images. (A) CPU and VGA (B) CPU and memory (C) VGA and memory (D) VGI and DVI (E) None of these Ans : (C) 37. If you want to connect to your own computer through the Internet from another location, you can use (A) e-mail (B) FTP (C) instant message (D) Telnet (E) None of these Ans : (D) 38. To reload a Web page, press the.button. (A) Redo (B) Reload (C) Restore (D) Ctrl (E) Refresh Ans : (E) 39. This first step in the transaction processing cycle captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website (A) Document and report generation (B) Database maintenance (C) Transaction processing startup (D) Data Entry

(E) None of these Ans : (D) 40. A(n) .is a special visual and audio effect applied in Power-point to text or content. (A) animation (B) flash (C) wipe (D) dissolve (E) None of these Ans : (A) 41. When the pointer is positioned on a.it is shaped like a hand. (A) grammar error (B) Formatting error (C) Screen Tip (D) Spelling error (E) hyperlink Ans : (E) 42. Personal computers can be connected together to form a (A) server (B) supercomputer (C) network (D) enterprise (E) None of these Ans : (C) 43. A.is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria. (A) blog (B) hit (C) link (D) view (E) success Ans : (E) 44. .are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use. (A) Control words (B) Control structures (C) Reserved words (D) Reserved keys (E) None of these Ans : (C) 45. Mobile Commerce is best described as (A) The use of Kiosks in marketing (B) Transporting products (C) Buying and selling goods/services through wireless handheld devices (D) Using notebook PC's in marketing (E) None of the above Ans : (C) 46. Which of, the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information (A) floppy diskette (B) hard disk (C) permanent disk (D) optical disk (E) None of these Ans : (B) 47. The computer abbreviation KB usually means (A) Key Block (B) Kernel Boot (C) Key Byte (D) Kit Bit (E) Kilo Byte Ans : (E) 48. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called? (A) Configuration

(B) Download (C) Storage (D) Upload (E) Installation Ans : (D) 49. In Excel.allows users to bring together copies of work-books that other users have worked on independently. (A) Copying (B) Merging (C) Pasting (D) Compiling (E) None of these Ans : (B) 50. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media? (A) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large, amount of data and information (B) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do (C) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media (D) An of the above (E) None of these Ans : (D) 1. In SQL, the command(s) is (are) used to create an index for a table or cluster A. CREATE INDEX B. MODIFY INDEX C. SET INDEX TO FILE D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: A 2. There are certain packages that allow people to define data items, place these items in particular records, combine the records into designated files and then manipulate and retrieve the stored data. What are they called? A. Data storage system B. Database management system (DBMS) C. Batch processing system D. Data communication package E. None of the above Answer: B 3. A _____ DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and a network server. A. Network B. Relational C. Client Server D. Hierarchical E. None of the above. Answer: C 4. Information can be transferred between the DBMS and a A. spreadsheet program B. word processor program C. graphics program D. AH of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 5. Data integrity control A. is used to set upper and lower limits on numeric data B. requires the use of passwords to prohibit unauthorized access to the file C. has the data dictionary keep the date and time of last access last back-up, and most recent modification for all files D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: C 6. In order to use a DBMS, it is important to understand A. the physical schema B. all sub-schemas that the system supports C. one subschema D. both (a) and (b) E. None of the above

Answer: C 7. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to recompile a stored function? A. SET FUNCTION B. SET STORED FUNCTION C. ALTER FUNCTION D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: C 8. Report generators are used to A. store data input by a user B. retrieve information from files C. answer queries D. both (b) and (c) E. None of the above Answer: D 9. Administrate supervision of database activities is the responsibility of the A. Database administrator B. DP Manager C. DB Manager D. DP administration E. None of the above Answer: A 10. Goals for the design of the logical schema include A. avoiding data inconsistency B. being able to construct queries easily C. being able to access data efficiently D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 11. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to change a table's storage characteristics? A. ALTER TABLE B. MODIFY TABLE C. CHANGE TABLE D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: A 12. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language commands? A. RENAME B. REVOKE C. GRANT D. UPDATE E. None of the above Answer: D 13. Subschema can be used to A. create very different, personalized views of the same data B. present information in different formats C. hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the subschema's description D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: D 14. Database management systems are intended to: A. eliminate data redundancy B. establish relationships among records in different files C. manage file access D. maintain data integrity E. All of the above Answer: E 15. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW, and GRANT statements in a single transaction? A. CREATE PACKAGE B. CREATE SCHEMA

C. CREATE CLUSTER D. All of the above E. None of the above ; Answer: B 16. Data encryption techniques are particularly useful for A. reducing storage space requirements B. improving data integrity C. protecting data in data communication systems D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: C 17. It is more accurate to define a _____ as a variety of different record types that are treated as a single unit A. Database B. Table C. Record D. Flat File E. None of the above Answer: A 18. A logical schema A. is the entire database B. is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts C. describes how data is actually stored on disk D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: B 19. Queries to a database A. are written in English B. can use aggregate functions like SUM and COUNT C. both (a) and (b) D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: B 20. In order to use a record management system A. You need to understand the low-level details of how information in stored B. You need to understand the model the record management system uses. C. Both (a) and (b) D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: B 21. In SQL, which command is used to select only one copy of each set of duplicable rows A. SELECT DISTINCT B. SELECT UNIQUE C. SELECT DIFFERENT D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: A 22. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key into a record location in A. a tree file B. an indexed file C. a hashed file D. a sequential file E. None of the above Answer: C 23. Which command is used to select distinct subject (SUB) from the table (BOOK)? A. SELECT ALL FROM BOOK B. SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK C. SELECT SUB FROM BOOK D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: B

44. The master list of an indexed file A. is sorted in ascending order B. contains only a list of keys and record numbers C. has a number assigned to each record D. both (b) and (c) E. None of the above Answer: C 25. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the utilities component of DBMS software? A. creating the physical and logical designs B. removing flagged records for deletion C. creating and maintaining the data dictionary D. monitoring performance E. None of the above Answer: A 26. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used A. to create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects, rollback segments, and naming the data files to comprise the tablespace B. to create a database trigger C. to add/rename data files, to change storage D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: A 27. In SQL, which command is used to remove a stored function from the database? . REMOVE FUNCTION B. DELETE FUNCTION C. DROP FUNCTION D. ERASE FUNCTION E. None of the above Answer: C 28. The database administration function includes A. application programming B. computer operations management C. database access planning D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: C 29. A relational database management (RDBM) package manages data in more than one file at once. How does it organize these file? As A. tables B. relations C. tuple D. both (a) and (b) E. None of the above Answer: D 30. A command that lets you change one or more fields in a record is A. Insert B. Modify C. Look-up D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: B 1. General Purpose Computers All those computers which are used for general purposes. E.g. A personal computer used for playing games, word processing, Accounting Information System, Management Information System etc These computers can store a huge amount of data. PCs are the example of General Purpose Computers. 2. Special Purpose Computers It is also known as dedicated computers, because these are designed to perform a particular jobs. Perform a single & specific task . E.g. Computer for Games, Computer for controlling traffic lights , ATM etc These systems have predefined set of instructions permanently stored into them, that are designed to perform only one task They are fast in processing.

B. Classification with respect to Function or Logic Used Computers are classified into three types with respect to Function or Internal hardware structure or Logic used 1. Digital Computers Digital Computers works on discrete data. Discrete data refers to discrete values such as 0, 1. Digital computers works on 0,1(Binary Numbers) These computers based on the presence or absence of an electrical charge or binary 0 & 1. The native language of this class is therefore called binary language (Machine Language) These Systems are more accurate and precise than others Examples: - Personal computer, digital watches etc 2. Analog Computer Analog Computers works on continues data. Continues data refers to those values that cannot be discrete. Temperature, air pressure, speed, current etc. Analog computer calculates the result by measuring the continuous change in these quantities Analog computers do not require any storage capability because they measure and compare quantities in a single operation These Systems are more speedy than digital Examples: Speed meter, air pressure measurement devices, rain gauge etc. Speedometer of a car measure speed in terms of km/h or m/h, the change in temperature is measured by a thermometer in degrees. 3. Hybrid Computer Combine the best feature of both digital and analog systems Works on both analog and digital data Speedy like analog Accuracy like digital They are used mainly in specialized applications where both analog and digital information needs processing Weather forecasting, Air Defense, Radar Controlling systems, digital petrol pumps etc. In petrol pumps, fuel flow converts into quantity and then quantity is converted into values. C. Classification Of Computers With Respect To Size With respect to size, speed, and cost, we can classify computers in the following four types: 1. Micro Computers These computers are small in size. A micro computer use to have Primary memory range from a few Kilobytes to Gigabytes. They are usually designed for personal use therefore they are also called as Personal Computers (i.e. PC). These computers can easily be accommodated on the top of a desk due to their small size and hence are also called as DESKTOP computers. There is another kind of Micro Computer which can easily be placed on the lap and such computer is called as Laptops. Micro Computers are highly flexible. These are also called CHIP Computers because its entire circuitry is fabricated on a single chip. Examples:-IBM, APPLE, COMPAC, RADIO SHACK, COMMODORE, ATARI, IBM compatibles:- 286,386,486,Pentium-I,Pentium-II,Pantium-III,Pentium-IV etc Handheld PCs (such as PDAs) lack the power of a desktop or notebook PC, but offer features for users who need limited functions and small size. A Multi-Core Processor is a processing system composed of two or more independent cores. The cores are typically integrated onto a single integrated circuit die(known as a chip multiprocessor or CMP). Core Basic processing area of a computer processor Die A die in the context of integrated circuits is a small block of semiconducting material, on which a given functional circuit is fabricated. A Dual-Core and Core 2 Duo Processor contains two cores, and a Quad-Core Processor contains four cores. A Multi-core processor implements multiprocessing in a single physical package. Cores in a multi-core device coupled together tightly. Cores may or may not share caches. Dual Core and Core 2 Duos are both dual core processor. Core2 duo only takes advantage because The Core 2 Duo has the same L2 cache but it has more cache size than a Dual core. However, There are architectural changes to the silicon that give the Core 2 Duo more sophisticated processing. The single- and dual-core models are single-die, whereas the quad-core models comprise two dies, each containing two cores, packaged in a multi-chip module. 2. MINI COMPUTERS These computers are smaller in size but larger as compared to Micro Computers. Less expensive Primary memory is usually in GIGA Bytes Designed for the computerization of scientific research data. Mini computer usually fills a small shelf because it includes many types of peripheral equipment attached to it.

Disks are used for secondary storage Support up to hundreds of users at a time. Examples: - PRIME-9755,VAX-8650,IBM SYSTEM-36 etc Application :- Departmental systems, Network Servers 3. MAINFRAME COMPUTERS These computers are very powerful. Large in size, large in memory and powerful. Mainframe computers are also capable of connecting terminals with it. These computers are used in networked environment and mainly as network servers. Mainframe computers are very expansive. They are usually designed for the computerization of huge business organizations, universities, banks, scientific laboratories, national and international markets. Multiple Input/Output devices are normally attached with a Mainframe computer. The secondary storage use to be in the form disks in a Mainframe computer. Mainframes are measured in integer operations per second or MIPS. Example of integer operation is moving data around in memory or I/O devices. These computers also allow different users to work on it at the same time like Mini computers but the number of users can be much more than that of the Mini computers (upto 4000 users can work at a time on a single Mainframe computer). Examples:- IBM-4381, IBM-360, ICL-2900,NEC-610 etc 4. SUPER COMPUTERS Supercomputer is a computer that is at the frontline of current processing, capacity, particularly speed of calculation. Supercomputers are the most powerful computers. They are used for problems requiring complex calculations. It is not possible to consider one computer system as the most powerful, because the power of a computer is not linear. Super Computers are very difficult to design, it requires lot of research and development and at the same time they are very much expansive to manufacture. Presently approximately 30-50 Super Computers are sold per annum. The speed of a super computer is enormous as it was calculated at a rate of 64 billions instruction per second, like Cray T90. The speed of a supercomputer is measured in "FLOPS" Such as "TFLOPS" (10 power 12 FLOPS)(1,000,000,000,000 ), or "PFLOPS" (10 power15 FLOPS,) (1,000,000,000,000,000 operation per second). Example of floating point operation is the calculation of mathematical equations in real numbers. In terms of computational ability, Supercomputers are more powerful. In February 2009, IBM designed supercomputer with 20 pflops. This will be equivalent to 2 million laptops (whereas Roadrunner is comparable to a mere 100,000 laptops). Application in web services and search engines, online banking (Transaction processing), weather forecasting, Climate Prediction (50 years in 30 days by 4.8 Tflops) , Cryptography, Nuclear weapons (test by simulations), Earthquake and structural modeling and petroleum exploration. 1. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on the same network. A) a connectionless B) a direct C) an indirect D) none of the above 2. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different networks. A) a connection-oriented B) a direct C) an indirect D) none of the above 3. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default 4. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default 5. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default 6. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information. A) next-hop

B) C) D)

network-specific host-specific default

7. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________. A) classful addressing B) classless addressing C) both a and b D) none of the above 8. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask. A) first mask matching B) shortest mask matching C) longest mask matching D) none of the above 9. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables. A) reduce B) increase C) both a and b D) none of the above 10. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables. A) Forwarding B) Routing C) Directing D) None of the above 11. A _______ routing table contains information entered manually. A) static B) dynamic C) hierarchical D) none of the above 12. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols. A) static B) dynamic C) hierarchical D) none of the above 13. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router. A) physical and data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above 14. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router. A) physical and data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above 15. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by _________. A) input and output ports B) routing processor C) switching fabrics D) none of the above 16. A static table is one _______. A) with manual entries B) which is updated automatically C) either a or b D) none of the above 17. A dynamic table is one _______. A) with manual entries B) which is updated automatically C) either a or b D) none of the above

18. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________. A) wide area networks B) autonomous networks C) autonomous systems D) none of the above 19. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a single administration. A) An autonomous system B) An area C) a and b D) none of the above 20. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) both a and b D) none of the above 21. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) both a and b D) none of the above 22. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) none of the above 23. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) none of the above 24. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change. A) every other node B) its immediate neighbors C) one neighbor D) none of the above 25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 26. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) none of the above 27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route. A) OSPF

B) C) D)

RIP BGP none of the above

30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above 31. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above 32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above 33. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a _________ link between them using a longer path that probably goes through several routers. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above 34. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system. A) distant vector B) path vector C) link state D) none of the above 35. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing. A) BGP B) RIP C) OSPF D) none of the above 36. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an ________ message. A) open B) update C) keepalive D) none of the above 37. An area is _______. A) part of an AS B) composed of at least two ASs C) another term for an AS D) none of the above 38. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 39. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 40. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast

D)

none of the above

41. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces. A) unicasting B) multicasting C) broadcasting D) none of the above 42. In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of its interfaces. A) unicasting B) multicasting C) broadcasting D) none of the above 43. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create long delays. A) unicasting; multiple unicasting B) multicasting; multiple unicasting C) broadcasting; multicasting D) none of the above 44. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ______ path tree to possible destinations. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) none of the above 45. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) none of the above 46. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path tree for each group. A) group-shared B) source-based C) a or b D) none of the above 47. In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting. A) only the core router is B) all routers are C) only some routers are D) none of the above 48. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach. A) source-based B) group-shared C) a or b D) none of the above 49. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 50. MOSPF is a _______ protocol. A) data-driven B) command-driven C) both a and b D) none of the above 51. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems. A) Forwarding B) Flooding C) Backwarding D) none of the above

52. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. A) shortest B) longest C) average D) none of the above 53. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. A) forwarding B) backwarding C) flooding D) none of the above 54. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast packet. A) one copy B) two copies C) a or b D) none of the above 55. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 56. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet. A) one copy B) no copies C) multiple copies D) none of the above 57. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) none of the above 58. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. A) RPM; RPB B) RPB; RPM C) RPF: RPM D) none of the above 59. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a source-based routing protocol, based on RIP. A) MOSPF B) DVMRP C) CBT D) none of the above 60. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP. A) source-based B) group-shared C) both a and b D) none of the above 61. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) none of the above 62. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) weed B) graft C) prune D) none of the above 63. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) weed B) graft

C) D)

prune none of the above

64. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree. A) source-based B) group-shared C) a or b D) none of the above 65. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN. A) dense B) sparse C) a or b D) none of the above 66. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN. A) dense B) sparse C) a or b D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 B 23 B 45 C C 24 B 46 B C 25 A 47 A

4 D 26 B 48 A

5 B 27 B 49 B

6 A 28 B 50 A

7 B 29 A 51 B

8 C 30 A 52 A

9 A 31 B 53 D

10 B 32 C 54 D

11 A 33 D 55 C

12 B 34 B 56 A

13 A 35 A 57 C

14 B 36 A 58 A

15 C 37 A 59 B

16 A 38 C 60 A

17 B 39 B 61 C

18 C 40 A 62 C

19 A 41 A 63 B

20 B 42 B 64 B

21 A 43 B 65 A

22 B 44 C 66 B

1. A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction. A) physical B) logical C) a and b D) none of the above 2. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses. A) port B) IP C) Email D) none of the above 3. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network. A) physical B) logical C) a and b D) none of the above 4. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) either a or b D) none of the above 5. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) either a or b D) none of the above 6. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header

B) C) D)

the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above

7. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) either a or b D) none of the above 8. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is updated manually. A) static mapping B) dynamic mapping C) physical mapping D) none of the above 9. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given logical address. A) ARP B) RARP C) both a and b D) none of the above 10. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request. A) 0x000000000000 B) 0.0.0.0 C) variable D) class dependent 11. An ARP reply is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) none of the above 12. An ARP request is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) none of the above 13. A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect. A) ARP B) RARP C) proxy ARP D) none of the above 14. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts. A) ARP B) RARP C) proxy ARP D) none of the above 15. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol. A) data link B) transport C) network D) none of the above 16. ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________. A) query and error reporting messages B) request and response messages C) request and reply messages D) none of the above 17. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section. A) a 16-byte B) a 32-byte C) an 8-byte

D)

none of the above

18. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. B) An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment. C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. D) none is true 19. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. B) An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment. C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. D) none is true 20. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol. A) UDP B) TCP C) ICM D) none of the above 21. IGMP is _______ protocol. A) an error reporting B) a group management C) a transmission D) none of the above 22. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members related to each router interface. A) broadcast B) unicast C) multicast D) none of the above 23. IGMP operates __________. A) locally B) globally C) both a and b D) none of the above 24. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______. A) host; host B) host; router C) router; host or router D) none of the above 25. The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report. A) general query message B) special query message C) membership report D) none of the above 26. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________. A) multicast router B) host C) multicast group D) none of the above 27. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message. A) version B) type C) group address D) none of the above 28. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______. A) one source; one destination B) one source; multiple destinations C) multiple sources; one destination D) none of the above 29. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing, multicasting can be accomplished through _______.

A) B) C) D)

mapping queries tunneling none of the above

30. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent in response to a general query message. A) one membership report is B) two membership reports are C) three membership reports are D) none of the above 31. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______. A) once B) twice C) three times D) none of the above 32. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group. A) does not define a particular B) explicitly defines a C) can define more than one D) none of the above 33. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet. A) UDP B) IP C) Ethernet frame D) none of the above 34. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its protocol field. A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 B 23 B 24 A 25 A 26 B 27 B 28 A 29 A 30 A 31 A 32 C 33 B A 34 B C C

15 C

16 A

17 C

18 D

19 B

20 D

21 B

22 C

A C B C C B C B B A 1. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______. A) error checking B) error correction C) datagram acknowledgment D) none of the above 2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) there are 10 bytes of options B) there are 40 bytes of options C) there are 10 bytes in the header D) there are 40 bytes in the header

3. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? A) 428 B) 407 C) 107 D) 427 4. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value of 40,000? A) 39,988 B) 40,012 C) 40,048 D) 39,952 5. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is true? A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams. B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams. C) The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.

D)

The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.

6. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______. A) the datagram has not been fragmented B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 100 D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 7. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? A) Identification number B) Offset number C) Total length D) (b) and (c) 8. The IPv4 header size _______. A) is 20 to 60 bytes long B) is always 20 bytes long C) is always 60 bytes long D) depends on the MTU 9. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram? A) Base header B) Extension header C) Data packet from the upper layer D) (a) and (c) 10. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram. A) version B) next-header C) hop limit D) neighbor-advertisement 11. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite. A) ARP B) IP C) RARP D) none of the above 12. IP is _________ datagram protocol. A) an unreliable B) a connectionless C) both a and b D) none of the above 13. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees. A) reliable delivery B) connection-oriented delivery C) best-effort delivery D) none of the above 14. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) there are 10 bytes of options B) there are 40 bytes of options C) there are 40 bytes in the header D) none of the above 15. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a fragment? A) Do not fragment bit ? 0 B) More Fragment bit ? 0 C) Fragment offset = 1000 D) none of the above 16. The IPv4 header size _______. A) is 20 to 60 bytes long B) is 20 bytes long C) is 60 bytes long D) none of the above

17. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______. A) MUT B) MAT C) MTU D) none of the above 18. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the _______ field. A) IETF B) checksum C) differentiated services D) none of the above 19. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data. A) base header; extension header B) base header; upper-layer data C) base header; frame header D) none of the above 20. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. A) more B) less C) the same level D) none of the above 21. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision is based on the _______ field in the base header. A) hop limit B) priority C) next header D) none of the above 22. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of data. A) flow label B) next header C) hop limit D) destination IP address ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 D D A D C D D A A C B C C C C A C C B A B A

1. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits. A) 4 B) 8 C) 32 D) 64 2. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block. A) A B) B C) C D) D 3. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7. A) A B) B C) C D) none of the above 4. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3. A) A B) B C) D D) none of the above 5. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3. A) A B) B C) C D) none of the above

6. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15? A) 255 B) 15 C) 0 D) none of the above 7. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15? A) 255 B) 15 C) 0 D) none of the above 8. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15? A) 254 B) 14 C) 0 D) none of the above 9. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65? A) 192 B) 65 C) 64 D) none of the above 10. Which one is not a contiguous mask? A) 255.255.255.254 B) 255.255.224.0 C) 255.148.0.0 D) all are 11. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______. A) 65,534 B) 16,777,216 C) 256 D) none of the above 12. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______. A) 65,536 B) 16,777,216 C) 256 D) none of the above 13. The number of addresses in a class A block is _______. A) 65,534 B) 16,777,216 C) 256 D) none of the above 14. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) can be any number B) must be a multiple of 256 C) must be a power of 2 D) none of the above 15. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) must be a power of 4 B) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes D) none of the above 16. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses? A) 2.4.6.5 B) 2.4.6.16 C) 2.4.6.64 D) none of the above 17. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses? A) 2.4.6.5

B) C) D)

2.4.6.15 2.4.6.62 none of the above

18. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses? A) 2.4.6.5 B) 2.4.6.15 C) 2.4.6.0 D) none of the above 19. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? A) 12.2.2.0 B) 12.2.2.32 C) 12.2.2.64 D) none of the above 20. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/10? A) 12.0.0.0 B) 12.2.0.0 C) 12.2.2.2 D) none of the above 21. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) 12.2.2.0 B) 12.2.2.96 C) 12.2.2.112 D) none of the above 22. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24. A) 32 B) 64 C) 256 D) none of the above 23. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30. A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) none of the above 24. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) 12.2.2.16 B) 12.2.2.112 C) 12.2.2.127 D) none of the above 25. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.6/30? A) 12.2.2.2 B) 12.2.2.6 C) 12.2.2.7 D) none of the above 26. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length? A) /20 B) /24 C) /25 D) none of the above 27. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) none of the above 28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) none of the above

29. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) none of the above 30. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) none of the above 31. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation? A) /9 B) /8 C) /16 D) none of the above 32. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation? A) /9 B) /8 C) /16 D) none of the above 33. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation? A) /24 B) /8 C) /16 D) none of the above 34. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the address range. A) suffix B) prefix C) netid D) none of the above 35. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid). A) suffix B) prefix C) hostid D) none of the above 36. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________. A) netid B) hostid C) mask D) none of the above 37. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.242.0 C) 255.255.0.0 D) none of the above 38. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask? A) 255.254.0.0 B) 255.255.255.0 C) 255.255.255.128 D) none of the above 39. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length? A) /20 B) /28 C) /18 D) none of the above 40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long. A) 32

B) C) D)

64 128 none of the above

41. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets); A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) none of the above 42. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation. A) dotted decimal B) hexadecimal colon C) both a and b D) none of the above 43. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length. A) 8: 2 B) 8: 3 C) 8: 4 D) none of the above 44. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons. A) 8 B) 7 C) 4 D) none of the above 45. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits. A) 16 B) 32 C) 8 D) none of the above 46. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer. A) a unicast B) a multicast C) an anycast D) none of the above 47. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same prefix. A) a unicast B) a multicast C) an anycast D) none of the above 48. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers. A) a unicast B) a multicast C) an anycast D) none of the above 49. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address. A) type B) purpose C) both a and b D) none of the above 50. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast address. A) provider-based unicast B) link local C) site local D) none of the above 51. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address. A) link local B) site local C) mapped D) none of the above

52. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address. A) link local B) site local C) mapped D) none of the above 53. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) link local B) site local C) mapped D) none of the above 54. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) link local B) site local C) mapped D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 C 22 C 43 C A 23 B 44 B A 24 C 45 B C 25 C 46 A B 26 B 47 C B 27 C 48 B C 28 B 49 A B 29 A 50 A C 30 C 51 C C 31 B 52 D C 32 C 53 A A 33 A 54 B B 34 B C 35 A B 36 C C 37 A D 38 A C 39 C C 40 C A 41 C C 42 B

1. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above 2. Frame Relay provides ________. A) PVCs B) SVCs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______. A) PVC B) SVC C) DLCIs D) none of the above 4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator A) PVC B) SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases A) a PVC B) an SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 6. Frame Relay has _______. A) only the physical layer B) only the data link C) the physical and data link layers D) the physical, data link, and network layers 7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control. A) flow B) error C) either (a) or (b)

D)

neither (a) nor (b)

8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes. A) only 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 2 to 4 D) none of the above 9. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 10. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above 11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above 12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above 13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information. A) frame B) packet C) cell D) none of the above 14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________. A) VPI B) VCI C) DLCI D) a combination of (a) and (b) 15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers. A) two B) three C) four D) five 16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24 17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24 18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes. A) 40 B) 50 C) 52 D) 53

19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) all of the above 20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) None of the above 21. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) none of the above 22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______. A) TPs B) VPs C) VCs D) all of the above 23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above 24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above 25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation. A) physical B) ATM layer C) AAL D) none of the above 26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above 27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 28. In ATM, _______is for short packets. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach). A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism. A) AAL1 B) AAL2

C) D)

AAL3/4 AAL5

31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN). A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above 32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above 33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above 34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 B 22 D C 23 C C 24 B A 25 A B 26 A C 27 A D 28 B C 29 C B 30 D B 31 C A 32 A C 33 B C 34 C D

15 B

16 A

17 B

18 D

19 C

20 A

21 B

1. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-opticnetworks. A) SONET B) SDH C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 2. _______ is a standard developed by ITU-T. A) SONET B) SDH C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 3. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) STSs B) STMs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 4. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) STSs B) STMs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 5. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal. A) OC-n B) TDM-n C) FDM-n D) none of the above 6. SONET defines _______ layers. A) two

B) C) D)

three four five

7. SONET is a _______ TDM system. A) asynchronous B) synchronous C) statistical D) none of the above 8. A SONET system can use _________. A) STS multiplexers B) regenerators C) add/drop multiplexers D) all of the above 9. SONET sends ________ frames per second A) 1000 B) 2000 C) 4000 D) 8000 10. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds. A) 20 B) 64 C) 128 D) none of the above 11. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows A) 1 B) 9 C) 90 D) none of the above 12. An STS-1 frame is made ______columns A) 1 B) 9 C) 90 D) none of the above 13. An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows. A) 1 B) 9 C) 27 D) none of the above 14. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns. A) 9 B) 90 C) 270 D) none of the above 15. SONET network topologies can be __________. A) linear B) ring C) mesh D) all of the above 16. A linear SONET network can be __________. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 17. A ring SONET network can be _________. A) unidirectional B) bidirectional. C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

18. To make SONET backward-compatible with the current hierarchy, its frame design includes a system of. A) OCs B) STMs C) STSs D) VTs 19. A ________ is a repeater. A) regenerator B) ADM C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexer D) none of the above 20. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals. A) regenerators B) ADMs C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers D) none of the above 21. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices. A) section B) line C) path D) none of the above 22. A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers. A) section B) line C) path D) none of the above 23. A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS multiplexers. A) section B) line C) path D) none of the above 24. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its optical source to its optical destination. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic 25. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical line. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic 26. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical section. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic 27. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic 28. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device. A) one-layer B) two-layer C) three-layer D) four-layer 29. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device. A) one-layer

B) C) D)

two-layer three-layer four-layer

30. A regenerator is a ________ device. A) one-layer B) two-layer C) three-layer D) four-layer 31. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________. A) from left to the right, top to bottom B) from right to the left, bottom to top C) from left to the right, bottom to top D) from right to the left, top to bottom 32. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________. A) from least significant to the most significant B) from most significant to the least significant C) two at a time D) three at a time 33. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel. A) bit B) byte C) frame D) none of the above 34. The section overhead consists of ______octets. A) 1 B) 6 C) 9 D) 18 35. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes. A) 1 B) 6 C) 9 D) 18 36. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes. A) 1 B) 6 C) 9 D) 18 37. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and one protection line. Both lines are active all the time. A) one-plus-one B) one-to-one C) one-to-many D) none of the above 38. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The data are normally sent on the working line until it fails. A) one-plus-one B) one-to-one C) one-to-many D) none of the above 39. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working lines. When a failure occurs in one of the working lines, the protection line takes control until the failed line is repaired. A) one-plus-one B) one-to-one C) one-to-many D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 A B A B A C B D D D B C B C D C C D A B A

22 B

23 C

24 C

25 B

26 A

27 D

28 D

29 C

30 B

31 A

32 B

33 B

34 C

35 D

36 C

37 A

38 B

39 C

1. Errors can be categorized as a single-bit error or a burst error. A single-bit error has one bit error per data unit. A burst error has two or more bit errors per data unit. 2. Redundancy is the concept of sending extra bits for use in error detection. 3. Three common redundancy methods are parity check, cyclic redundancy check (CRC), and checksum. 4. An extra bit (parity bit) is added to the data unit in the parity check. 5. The parity check can detect only an odd number of errors; it cannot detect an even number of errors. 6. In the two-dimensional parity check, a redundant data unit follows n data units. 7. CRC, a powerful redundancy checking technique, appends a sequence of redundant bits derived from binary division to the data unit. 8. The divisor in the CRC generator is often represented as an algebraic poly-nomial. 9. Errors are corrected through retransmission and by forward error correction. 10. The Hamming code is an error correction method using redundant bits. The number of bits is a function of the length of the data bits. 11. In the Hamming code, for a data unit of m bits, use the formula 2 r >= m +r +1 to determine r, the number of redundant bits needed. 12. By rearranging the order of bit transmission of the data units, the Hamming code can correct burst errors. 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________. periodic signals electromagnetic signals aperiodic signals low-frequency sine waves A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency? 1 Hz 100 Hz 1 KHz 1 MHz In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. peak amplitude frequency phase slope In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________. signal amplitude frequency phase time If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency? 5 KHz 10 KHz 47 KHz 57 KHz What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz? 4 MHz 1 KHz 3 MHz none of the above As frequency increases, the period ________. decreases increases remains the same doubles Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A. one-half twice the same as indeterminate from A sine wave is ________.

A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D)

periodic and continuous aperiodic and continuous periodic and discrete aperiodic and discrete If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is ________ V. 2 1 -2 between -2 and 2 A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________. P2 is zero P2 equals P1 P2 is much larger than P1 P2 is much smaller than P1 ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to theresistance of the transmission medium. Attenuation Distortion Noise Decibel

13. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal. Attenuation Distortion Noise Decibel When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________. throughput wavelength of the signal distortion factor distance a signal or bit has traveled Data can be ________. analog digital (a) or (b) none of the above _______ data are continuous and take continuous values. analog digital (a) or (b) none of the above

ANSWERS:

1 B 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B)

2 C

10

11 B

12 A

13 B

14 C

15 D

16 C

17 A

B D D C A B A C _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values. Analog Digital (a) or (b) None of the above Signals can be ________. analog digital

C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D)

either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range. Analog Digital (a) or (b) None of the above _______ signals can have only a limited number of values. Analog Digital (a) or (b) None of the above Frequency and period are ______. inverse of each other proportional to each other the same none of the above ________is the rate of change with respect to time. Amplitude Time Frequency Voltage _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. Frequency Phase Amplitude Voltage A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain. time; frequency frequency; time time; phase phase; time A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to send a _______ signal. composite; single-frequency single-frequency; composite single-frequency; double-frequency none of the above The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal. frequency period bandwidth amplitude A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth. digital analog either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel. low-pass bandpass low rate high rate If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel. low-pass bandpass low rate high rate

14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D)

For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate. noisy noiseless bandpass low-pass For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate. noisy noiseless bandpass low-pass _________ can impair a signal. Attenuation Distortion Noise All of the above The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link. bandwidth-period frequency-amplitude bandwidth-delay delay-amplitude

ANSWERS:

1 B 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D)

2 C

3 A

4 B

5 A

6 C

7 B

8 A

9 B

10 C

11 A

12 A

13 B

14 B

15 A

16 D

17 C

Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding. line block NRZ Manchester _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. RZ Manchester Differential Manchester All the above _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit. RZ Manchester Differential Manchester All the above PCM is an example of _______ conversion. digital-to-digital digital-to-analog analog-to-analog analog-to-digital

5. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem? A) 200 samples/s B) 500 samples/s C) 1000 samples/s D) 1200 samples/s 6. A) B) C) D) 7. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______. equal to the lowest frequency of a signal equal to the highest frequency of a signal twice the bandwidth of a signal twice the highest frequency of a signal Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization?

A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D) 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B) C)

NRZ-L RZ NRZ-I Manchester Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s? NRZ-I RZ Manchester AMI Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal? 2 8 16 32 Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver. Synchronization Error detection Attenuation (a) and (b) In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire. Asynchronous serial Synchronous serial Parallel (a) and (b) In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time. asynchronous serial synchronous serial parallel (a) and (b) In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte. asynchronous serial synchronous serial parallel (a) and (b) In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______. fixed variable a function of the data rate zero ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling. Analog-to-digital Digital-to-analog Analog-to-analog Digital-to-digital ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal. Block coding Line coding Scrambling None of the above _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection. Block coding Line coding Scrambling None of the above ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group. Block coding Line coding Scrambling

D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21. A) B) C) D) 22. A) B) C) D) 23. A) B) C) D) 24. A) B) C) D)

None of the above ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits. Scrambling Line coding Block coding None of the above Two common scrambling techniques are ________. NRZ and RZ AMI and NRZ B8ZS and HDB3 Manchester and differential Manchester The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________. PAL PCM sampling none of the above The first step in PCM is ________. quantization modulation sampling none of the above There are three sampling methods: __________. quantized, sampled, and ideal ideal, sampled, and flat-top ideal, natural, and flat-top none of the above ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. DM; PCM PCM; DM DM; CM none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4

10

11 C

12 D

13 A

14 B

15 D

16 B

17 A

18 A

19 A

20 C

21 B

22 C

23 C

24 B

A D C D D D A D D D 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A)

While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) three subclass(es) of serial transmission. one; two two; three one; three none of the above In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte. synchronous asynchronous isochronous none of the above In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of the receiver to group the bits. synchronous asynchronous isochronous none of the above The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits must. In other words, it guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate. synchronous asynchronous isochronous none of the above A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being transmitted. self-synchronizing

B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D)

self-modulated self-transmitted none of the above In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of the received signal power, called the _______. baseline base line none of the above The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in 1s. data; signal signal; data baud; bit none of the above The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate. baud bit signal none of the above The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate. baud bit signal none of the above In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or below. polar bipolar unipolar all of the above

11. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and the voltage level for 1 can be negative. A) polar B) bipolar C) unipolar D) all of the above 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D) 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. NRZ-I NRZ-L both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. NRZ-I NRZ-L both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ scheme. Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ scheme. Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

16. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The voltage remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other level in the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester

C) D)

both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

17. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the bit values are determined at the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 18. A) B) C) D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21 A) B) C) D) 22. A) B) C) D) 23. A) B) C) D) 24. A) B) C) D) In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________. bit transfer baud transfer synchronization none of the above The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____ that of NRZ. the same as twice thrice none of the above In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative. unipolar bipolar polar none of the above The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal. 4B5B 2B1Q MLT-3 none of the above The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules to move between the levels. 4B5B 2B1Q MLT-3 none of the above ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB. B4B8 HDB3 B8ZS none of the above ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V B4B8 HDB3 B8ZSf none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 C 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) B A C

10

11 A

12 B

13 A

14 A

15 B

16 C

17 B

18 C

19 B

20 B

21 B

22 C

23 C

24 B

A A A A B C

ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion. digital-to-digital digital-to-analog analog-to-analog analog-to-digital AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion. digital-to-digital digital-to-analog analog-to-analog analog-to-digital

3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D)

In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied. frequency and amplitude phase and frequency amplitude and phase none of the above If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps. 100 400 800 1600 If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. 300 400 600 1200 If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. 300 400 600 1200 If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate? 300 400 1000 1200 If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate? 300 400 1000 12000 Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal? 700 KHz 705 KHz 710 KHz Cannot be determined from given information _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an analog signal based on the information in the digital data. Digital-to-analog Analog-to-analog Analog-to-digital Digital-to-digital Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion? ASK PSK FSK AM In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant. ASK PSK FSK QAM In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant. ASK PSK FSK QAM

14. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant. A) ASK

B) C) D)

PSK FSK QAM

15. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature). A) amplitude and phase B) amplitude and frequency C) frequency and phase D) none of the above 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B) C) D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21. A) B) C) D) Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________. ASK and FSK ASK and PSK PSK and FSK none of the above ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature. ASK PSK FSK QAM _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog signal. Digital-to-analog Analog-to-analog Analog-to-digital Digital-to-digital Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______. low-pass band-pass either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion? AM PM FM QAM In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal. AM PM FM none of the above

22. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes correspondingly. A) AM B) PM C) FM D) none of the above 23. A) B) C) D) 24. A) B) C) D) 25. A) In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. AM PM FM none of the above In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency. PSK OOK FSK none of the above How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK? 2

B) C) D) 26. A) B) C) D) 27. A) B) C) D) 28. A) B) C) D) 29. A) B) C) D) 30. A) B) C) D) 31. A) B) C) D) 32. A) B) C) D) 33. A) B) C) D)

1 0 none of the above How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK? 2 1 0 none of the above How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK? 2 1 0 none of the above How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK? 2 1 0 none of the above The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots. 2 1 0 none of the above The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots. 2 1 0 none of the above The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots. 2 1 4 none of the above The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots. 4 16 8 none of the above The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station. 5 10 20 none of the above

34. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each FM station. A) 20 B) 100 C) 200 D) none of the above ANSWERS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 B C C C D D C D A A D A C B A B D B B D A C B B B A B A A A C B B 1. A) B) C) D) The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______. modulation encoding line discipline multiplexing

2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A)

Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? FDM TDM WDM (a) and (c) Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? FDM TDM WDM None of the above Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency? FDM TDM Both (a) and (b) None of the above In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots. n n+1 n-1 0 to n In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources. greater than less than equal to not related to Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams? FDM TDM WDM none of the above _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals. Frequency Bandwidth Amplitude None of the above ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading. Efficiency; privacy and antijamming Privacy and antijamming; efficiency Privacy and efficiency; antijamming Efficiency and antijamming; privacy ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a single data link. Demodulating Multiplexing Compressing None of the above In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link. 1; n 1; 1 n; 1 n; n The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission. channel; link link; channel line; channel line; link ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted. TDM

B) C) D) 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B) C) D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21. A) B) C) D) 22 . A) B) C) D)

FDM Both (a) or (b) Neither (a) or (b) FSM is an _________technique. analog digital either (a) or (b) none of the above ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable. FDM TDM WDM None of the above ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals. FDM TDM WDM None of the above _____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link. FDM TDM WDM None of the above _____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate one. FDM TDM WDM None of the above We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical. FDM TDM WDM none of the above In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not sending data. synchronous statistical isochronous none of the above In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency. synchronous statistical isochronous none of the above In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth. spread spectrum line coding block coding none of the above

23. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder. A) Spread spectrum B) Multiplexing C) Modulation D) None of the above. 24. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency. A) FDM B) DSSS

C) D) 25. A) B) C) D)

FHSS TDM The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits. FDM DSSS FHSS TDM

ANSWERS:

1 D 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D)

2 D

3 B

4 A

5 A

6 A

7 C

8 B

9 A

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 B C A B A C C B B B A B A A C B

Transmission media are usually categorized as _______. fixed or unfixed guided or unguided determinate or indeterminate metallic or nonmetallic Transmission media lie below the _______ layer. physical network transport application _______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer sheath. Twisted-pair Coaxial Fiber-optic Shielded twisted-pair In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves. light radio infrared very low-frequency Which of the following primarily uses guided media? cellular telephone system local telephone system satellite communications radio broadcasting Which of the following is not a guided medium? twisted-pair cable coaxial cable fiber-optic cable atmosphere What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted-pair cable? inner conductor diameter of cable outer conductor insulating material In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding. denser than less dense than the same density as another name for The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition. glass or plastic copper bimetallic liquid

10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D) 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B) C) D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21. A)

When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs. reflection refraction incidence criticism When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface. more than less than equal to none of the above Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation. ground sky line-of-sight none of the above Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______ propagation. ground sky line-of-sight none of the above Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation. ground sky line-of-sight none of the above A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna. omnidirectional bidirectional unidirectional horn A(n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another. guided unguided either (a) or (b) none of the above ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above _______ cable is used for voice and data communications. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____ cable. Twisted-pair; fiber-optic Coaxial; fiber-optic Coaxial; twisted-pair none of the above ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased in an outside jacket. Coaxial

B) C) D) 22. A) B) C) D) 23. A) B) C) D) 24. A) B) C) D) 25. A) B) C) D) 26. A) B) C) D) 27. A) B) C) D) 28. A) B) C) D)

Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above ______ cables carry data signals in the form of light. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______. reflection refraction modulation none of the above _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical conductor. Guided Unguided Either (a) or (b) None of the above Radio waves are _________. omnidirectional unidirectional bidirectional none of the above Microwaves are _________. omnidirectional unidirectional bidirectional none of the above _______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications. Radio waves Microwaves Infrared waves none of the above ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC and a peripheral device. Radio waves Microwaves Infrared waves none of the above

ANSWERS:

1 B

2 A

3 B

4 A

5 B

6 D

7 C

8 A

9 A

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 A C A B C C A C C A C B B A B A B B C

1. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important. A) B) C) D) four three five six

2. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories. A) four B) three C) five D) two 3. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories: virtual-circuit networks and datagram networks A) four B) three

C) D)

two five

4. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is divided into n channels. A) line-switched B) frame-switched C) circuit-switched D) none of the above 5. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer. A) data line B) physical C) network D) transport 6. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources remain dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above 7. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above 8. In _________, resources are allocated on demand. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above 9. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above 10. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above 11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a datagram network. It has some characteristics of both. A) virtual-circuit B) packet-switched C) frame-switched D) none of the above 12. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above 13. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch. A) crosspoint B) crossbar C) TSI D) STS 14. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route the packets based on the output port represented as a binary string. A) crossbar B) TSI C) banyan D) none of the above

15. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages. A) 8 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ microswitches at each stage. A) 8 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 17. A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies to take advantage of the bestof both. A) TST B) SSS C) TTT D) none of the above 18. The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________. A) STI B) ITS C) TSI D) none of the above 19. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 20. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater than ____. A) 21 B) 19 C) 31 D) 41 21. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______. A) 15,200 B) 18,000 C) 42,000 D) 20,000 22. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______. A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 40,000 D) 30,000 23. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______. A) 40,000 B) greater than 40,000 C) less than 40,000 D) greater than 100,000 24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three) stages. A) multistage B) multiple crossbar C) multiple path D) none of the above 25. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially. A) time-division B) space-division C) two-dimensional D) three-dimensional 26. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network. A) virtual-circuit

B) C) D)

datagram circuit-switched none of the above

27. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and local. A) virtual-circuit B) datagram C) circuit-switched D) none of the above 28. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network. A) virtual-circuit B) datagram C) circuit-switched D) none of the above 29. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ______ address. A) source B) destination C) local D) none of the above 30. The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet. A) source B) destination C) local D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 B 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) B C

4 C

5 B

6 B

7 A

8 A

9 A

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A C B C C B A C A B A C C A B A A B B

A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network. packet-switched circuit-switched message-switched none of the above The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office. twisted-pair coaxial fiber-optic none of the above Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals. analog; analog analog; digital digital; digital digital; analog _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates. VDSL ADSL SDSL (a) and (b) DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and _______. FDM; TDM QDM; QAM FDM; QAM PSK; FSK The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______. voice communication upstream data downstream data control data

7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D) 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B)

_______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line. VDSL ADSL SDSL HDSL HDSL encodes data using _______. 4B/5B 2B1Q 1B2Q 6B/8T Another name for the cable TV office is the _______. splitter fiber node combiner head end A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______. upstream downstream upstream and downstream none of the above In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. PSK QAM PCM ASK In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. QAM QPSK PCM ASK The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______. MCNS DOCSIS CMTS ADSL The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was an ________ system. digital analog digital as well as analog none of the above The modern telephone network is now ________. digital analog digital as well as analog none of the above The telephone network is made of ______ major components. 2 3 4 none of the above The United States is divided into many _______. LECs LATAs IXCs none of the above The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ . POP IXC

C) D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21. A) B) C) D) 22. A) B) C) D) 23. A) B) C) D) 24. A) B) C) D) 25. A) B) C) D) 26. A) B) C) D) 27. A) B) C) D) 28. A) B) C) D) 29. A) B) C) D)

LEC none of the above The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______. POP IXC LEC none of the above In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data. in-band out-of-band mixed none of the above In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another portion for data. in-band out-of-band mixed none of the above The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called ______. POP SSS SS7 none of the above Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______ services and analog _____services. switched; in-band out-of-band; in-band switched; leased leased; out-of-band The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______. switched/56; switched/64 switched/56; DDS DDS; swiched 64 leased; out-of-band The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional entities that make up the device: a signal _______ and a signal _______. modulator; demodulator demodulator; modulator modern; demo none of the above Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards. V-series X-series VX-series none of the above ______technology is a set of technologies develpoed by the telephone companies to provide high data rate transmission. ASL DSL LDS none of the above The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end. twisted-pair coaxial fiber-optic none of the above The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network. HFC HCF CFH none of the above

30. A) B) C) D) 31. A) B) C) D)

The HFC network uses _______ cable. twisted-pair coaxial fiber-optic a combination of (b) and (c) To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a _________ CM; CMS CT; CMTS CM; CMTS none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 B A D C

5 C

6 C

7 D

8 B

9 D

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 B B B B B C B B C B A B C C B A A B B A

1. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? A) B) C) D) Simple parity check Two-dimensional parity check CRC Checksum

2. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit? A) Simple parity check B) Two-dimensional parity check C) CRC D) Checksum 3. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? A) The divisor B) The quotient C) The dividend D) The remainder 4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC. A) The same size as B) one bit less than C) one bit more than D) none of the above 5. A burst error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed. A) double-bit B) burst C) single-bit D) none of the above 6. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting retransmission. A) backward B) onward C) forward D) none of the above 7. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again. A) backward B) retransmission C) forward D) none of the above 8. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding. A) block; linear B) linear; nonlinear C) block; convolution D) none of the above

9. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results. A) addition and multiplication B) addition and division C) addition and subtraction D) none of the above 10. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and subtraction. A) XOR B) OR C) AND D) none of the above 11. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___. A) block; blockwords B) linear; datawords C) block; datawords D) none of the above 12. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called _________. A) datawords B) blockwords C) codewords D) none of the above 13. The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding bits. A) Hamming code B) Hamming distance C) Hamming rule D) none of the above 14. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be _______. A) 5 B) 6 C) 11 D) none of the above 15. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be ________. A) 5 B) 6 C) 11 D) none of the above 16. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates another valid codeword. A) XORing B) ORing C) ANDing D) none of the above 17. A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors. A) an even-number of B) two C) no errors D) an odd-number of 18. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a codeword is rotated, the result is another codeword. A) Non-linear B) Convolution C) Cyclic D) none of the above 19. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______. A) correction; detection B) detection; correction C) creation; correction D) creation; detection 20. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive. A) 1 to 10 B) 1 to 11

C) D)

0 to 10 none of the above

21. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______. A) 1 and 2 B) 0 and 2 C) 0 and 1 D) none of the above 22. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________. A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 D) none of the above 23. In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______ invalid codewords. A) 8 B) 4 C) 2 D) none of the above 24. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________. A) 1 B) n C) 0 D) none of the above 25. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________. A) 2 B) 0 C) 1 D) none of the above 26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two codewords is ________. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) none of the above 27. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) none of the above 28. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial. A) range B) degree C) power D) none of the above 29. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________. A) degree B) generator C) redundancy D) none of the above 30. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors. A) x B) x+1 C) 1 D) none of the above 31. Checksums use _________ arithmetic. A) two's complement arithmetic B) one's complement arithmetic C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above

32. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is ________. A) 1111 B) 1101 C) 1000 D) none of the above 33. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. A) 1111 B) 0000 C) 1110 D) 0111 34. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________. A) 1111 B) 0000 C) 1110 D) 0111 Answers: 1 2 3 4

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34

D A D C B C B C C A C C B B C A D C A C C C B C A C A B B 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63,what is the range of sequence numbers? 0 to 63 0 to 64 1 to 63 1 to 64 In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______ to the sender. 5 6 7 any of the above ARQ stands for _______. Automatic repeat quantization Automatic repeat request Automatic retransmission request Acknowledge repeat request For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed. exactly 10 less than 10 more than 10 none of the above HDLC is an acronym for _______. High-duplex line communication High-level data link control Half-duplex digital link combination Host double-level circuit Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ communication. node-to-node host-to-host process-to-process none of the above

7. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other destinations. A) Digitizing B) Controlling C) Framing D) none of the above 8. A) B) In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames. fixed-size variable-size

C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D) 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B) C) D) 19. A) B) C) D)

standard none of the above In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two frames. fixed-size variable-size standard none of the above _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bit-oriented. Fixed-size Variable-size Standard None of the above In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters. bit-oriented character-oriented either (a) or (b) none of the above In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits. byte-oriented bit-oriented either (a) or (b) none of the above In _________ protocols, we use ________. character-oriented; byte stuffing character-oriented; bit stuffing bit-oriented; character stuffing none of the above Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there is a character with the same pattern as the ______. header trailer flag none of the above In ________ protocols, we use ________. byte-oriented; bit stuffing character-oriented; bit stuffing bit-oriented; bit stuffing none of the above Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________. header trailer flag none of the above _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. Flow Error Transmission none of the above ______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction. Flow Error Transmission none of the above The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels. noisy noiseless either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

20. A) B) C) D) 21. A) B) C) D) 22. A) B) C) D) 23. A) B) C) D)

The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels. noisy noiseless either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control. Stop-and-Wait Simplest Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control. Stop-and-Wait Simplest Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control. Stop-and-Wait Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ both (b) and (c)

Answers: 1 A 1. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to the receiver. A) Stop-and-Wait B) Simplest C) Go-Back-N ARQ D) Selective-Repeat ARQ 2. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next frame. A) Stop-and-Wait B) Simplest C) Go-Back-N ARQ D) Selective-Repeat ARQ 3. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the _______Protocol. A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait C) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ D) none of the above 4. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding frames. A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ B) Go-Back-N ARQ C) Selective-Repeat ARQ D) none of the above 5. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames that are corrupted. A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ B) Go-Back-N ARQ C) Selective-Repeat ARQ D) none of the above 6. A) B) Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________. sliding frame sliding window

234567 891 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 CBABACABB B B A C C C A B B A B A D

C) D)

sliding packet none of the above

7. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1 8. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1 9. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1 10. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1 11. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for communication over point-to-point and multipoint links. A) bit-oriented B) byte-oriented C) character-oriented D) none of the above 12. The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol. A) bit-oriented B) byte-oriented C) character-oriented D) none of the above 13. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. A) Flow B) Error C) Transmission D) none of the above 14. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat request, which is the retransmission of data. A) Flow B) Error C) Transmission D) none of the above 15. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic. A) modulo-2 B) modulo-4 C) modulo-m D) none of the above 16. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected.

A) B) C) D)

modulo-2 modulo-4 modulo-m none of the above

17. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic, A) modulo-2 B) modulo- 8 C) modulo-256 D) none of the above 18. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the send window is 1. A) 2 B) 1 C) 8 D) none of the above 19. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station and multiple secondary stations. A) ABM B) NRM C) ARM D) NBM 20. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each station can function as a primary and a secondary. A) ABM B) NRM C) ARM D) NBM 21. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and terminating links. A) NCP B) LCP C) CHAP D) PAP 22. A) B) C) D) In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process: NCP LCP CHAP PAP

23. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which the password is kept secret; it is never sent online. A) NCP B) LCP C) CHAP D) PAP ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 B A A B C B C D B B A B A A

16 A

17 C

18 B

19 B

20 A

21 B

22 D

23 C

1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C)

A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the Internet model. physical data link network all of the above A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering capability. repeater bridge router

D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) 8. A) B) C) D) 9. A) B) C) D) 10. A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D) 14.

none of the above A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link layers of the Internet model. repeater bridge router none of the above A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its forwarding table. simple dual transparent none of the above A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology. binary tree spanning tree multiway tree none of the above A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected. backbone wireless wired none of the above A backbone is usually a ______. bus star either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________. software physical wiring hardware none of the above Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________. port numbers MAC addresses IP addresses all of the above VLANs can_________. reduce network traffic provide an extra measure of security either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) _________ is just a connector. An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the signals coming from different stations collide; it is the collision point. An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) ________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is below the physical layer. An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer.

A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D) 16. A) B) C) D) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B) C) D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21. A) B) C) D) 22. A) B) C) D) 23. A) B) C) D) 24. A) B) C) D) 25. A) B) C)

passive hub repeater bridge router A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted, regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal. passive hub repeater bridge router A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability. passive hub repeater bridge router ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create connections between stations in a physical star topology. An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer. passive hub repeater bridge router A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame. passive hub repeater bridge router A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions. passive hub repeater bridge none of the above A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its existence. passive hub repeater simple bridge transparent bridge IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent bridges. two three four none of the above A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____. node branch loop arc In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path only. spanning tree binary tree unary tree none of the above A three-layer switch is a kind of ________. repeater bridge router

D) 26. A) B) C) D)

none of the above A two-layer switch is a ______. repeater bridge router none of the above

27. Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been designed to forward the frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in the header of the frame. A) cut-through B) go-through C) come-through D) none of the above 28. A) B) C) D) 29. A) B) C) D) 30. A) B) C) D) 31. A) B) C) D) 32. A) B) C) D) 33. A) B) C) D) 34. A) B) C) D) 35. A) B) C) D) 36. A) B) C) D) A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their logical addresses. repeater bridge router none of the above A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table that is used for making decisions about the route. repeater bridge router none of the above A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router. two-layer three-layer four-layer none of the above A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model. repeater bridge router gateway A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models. repeater bridge router gateway In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch. bus ring star none of the above A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by remote bridges. point-to-point multipoint multidrop none of the above VLANs create _________ domains. unicast multicast broadcast none of the above In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port numbers, the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using the VLAN software. manual automatic semiautomatic none of the above

37. A) B) C) D)

In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined by the administrator. manual automatic semiautomatic none of the above

38. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with migrations done automatically. A) manual B) automatic C) semiautomatic D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 A 22 B A 23 C B 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 C 28 A 29 D 30 D 31 B 32 B 33 B 34 B 35 B 36 B 37 A 38

18 C

19 C

20 C

21 D

1. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system. A) AMPS B) D-AMPS C) GSM D) none of the above 2. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system. A) AMPS B) D-AMPS C) GSM D) none of the above 3. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS. A) GSM B) D-AMPS C) IS-95 D) none of the above 4. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe. A) GSM B) D-AMPS C) IS-95 D) none of the above 5. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS. A) GSM B) D-AMPS C) IS-95 D) none of the above 6. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication. A) first-generation B) second-generation C) third-generation D) none of the above 7. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station. A) hard B) soft C) medium D) none of the above 8. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at the same time. A) hard B) soft C) medium D) none of the above 9. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA. A) AMPS

B) C) D)

D-AMPS GSM none of the above

10. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band. A) 800-MHz B) 900-MHz C) 1800-MHz D) none of the above 11. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels. A) 800 B) 900 C) 1000 D) none of the above 12. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 13. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above 14. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) both (a) and (b) 15. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 16. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) both (a) and (b) 17. IS-95 is based on ____________. A) FDMA B) CDMA C) DSSS D) all of the above 18. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band. A) 800-MHz B) 900-MHz C) 1900-MHz D) either (a) or (c) 19. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization. A) GPS B) Teledesic C) Iridium D) none of the above 20. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7

21. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC 22. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC 23. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of W-CDMA and TDMA. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC 24. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC 25. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around the Earth, is determined by _________ law. A) Kepler's B) Newton's C) Ohm's D) none of the above 26. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________. A) path B) effect C) footprint D) none of the above 27. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite. A) one B) two C) many D) none of the above 28. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km. A) 3000 and 5000 B) 5000 and 10,000 C) 5000 and 15,000 D) none of the above 29. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km. A) 1000 B) 2000 C) 3000 D) none of the above 30. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration. A) GPS B) Teledesic C) Iridium D) none of the above 31. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits. A) equatorial B) polar C) inclined D) none of the above 32. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth. A) equatorial

B) C) D)

polar inclined none of the above

33. GPS satellites are ________ satellites. A) GEO B) MEO C) LEO D) none of the above 34.________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and ships. A) GPS B) Iridium C) Teledesic D) none of the above 35. Iridium satellites are ________satellites. A) GEO B) MEO C) LEO D) none of the above 36. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld terminals. A) GPS B) 1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111? A) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F 2. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) any of the above 3. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) any of the above 4. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination? A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34 5. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination? A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34 6. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol. A) Token Ring B) Token Bus C) Ethernet D) none of the above 7. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method for first-generation 10-Mbps Ethernet. A) 1-persistent B) p-persistent C) non-persistent D) none of the above

8. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer. A) data link B) physical C) network D) none of the above 9. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing. A) LLC B) MII C) MAC D) none of the above 10. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC). A) 5-byte B) 32-bit C) 48-bit D) none of the above 11. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes. A) 32 B) 80 C) 128 D) none of the above 12. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes. A) 1518 B) 1500 C) 1200 D) none of the above 13. _________ uses thick coaxial cable. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F 14. __________ uses thin coaxial cable. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F 15. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F 16. ________ uses fiber-optic cable. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F 17. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000 18. In _________, auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation. A) Standard B) Fast Ethernet C) Gigabit Ethernet D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet 19. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable. A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX

C) D)

100Base-T4 none of the above

20. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables. A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above 21. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable. A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above 22. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000 23. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode. A) half-duplex B) full-duplex C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 24. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source, A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above 25. __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source. A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above 26. __________ uses four twisted pairs. A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above 27. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber. A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above 28. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber. A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above 29. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber. A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above 30. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 32. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 33. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of HDLC. A) MAC B) LLC C) LLU D) none of the above 34. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually demand these services A) MAC B) LLC C) LLU D) none of the above 35. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame. A) CRC B) preamble C) address D) none of the above 36. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information. A) CRC B) preamble C) address D) none of the above 37. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding A) NRZ B) AMI C) Manchester D) differential Manchester 38. 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) 4B/5B; NRZ B) 8B/10B; NRZ C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 D) 8B/10B; NRZ 39. 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) 4B/5B; NRZ-I B) 8B/10B; NRZ C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 D) 8B/10B; NRZ 40. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding. A) NRZ B) 8B6T C) MLT-3 D) Manchester 41. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) 4B/5B; NRZ B) 8B/10B; NRZ C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 D) 8B/10B; NRZ 42. 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding. A) 4D-PAM5 B) 8B6T

C) D)

MLT-3 Manchester

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 D 22 C 1. A) B) C) D) 2. A) B) C) D) 3. A) B) C) D) 4. A) B) C) D) 5. A) B) C) D) 6. A) B) C) D) 7. A) B) C) D) B 23 C A 24 A

4 A 25 B

5 C 26 C

6 C 27 A

7 A 28 B

8 A 29 C

9 C 30 A

10 C 31 B

11 D 32 C

12 A 33 B

13 A 34 B

14 B 35 B

15 C 36 A

16 D 37 C

17 B 38 C

18 B 39 A

19 A 40 B

20 B 41 B

21 C 42 A

In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send. pure ALOHA slotted ALOHA both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. the same as two times three times none of the above The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. 12.2 18.4 36.8 none of the above In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the time slot. pure ALOHA slotted ALOHA both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. the same as two times three times none of the above The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. 12.2 18.4 36.8 none of the above The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time. the same as two times three times none of the above

8. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle. A) nonpersistent B) 1-persistent C) p-persistent D) none of the above 9. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line. If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then senses the line again. A) nonpersistent B) 1-persistent C) p-persistent D) none of the above 10 In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator. If the line is busy, it tries again.

A) B) C) D) 11. A) B) C) D) 12. A) B) C) D) 13. A) B) C) D) 14. A) B) C) D) 15. A) B) C) D)

nonpersistent 1-persistent p-persistent none of the above We have categorized access methods into _______ groups. two three four five In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none is assigned the control over another. random access controlled access channelization none of the above In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before trying to use it. MA CSMA FDMA CDMA ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before sending. MA CSMA FDMA CDMA __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision. CSMA/CA CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

16. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is a collision, the frame is sent again. A) CSMA/CA B) CSMA/CD C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b) 17. A) B) C) D) 18. A) B) C) D) 19. A) B) C) D) 20. A) B) C) D) 21. A) B) To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented. CSMA/CA CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the interframe space, the contention window, and acknowledgments. CSMA/CA CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station has the right to send. random access controlled access channelization none of the above In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by other stations. random access controlled access channelization none of the above We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods. two three

C) D) 22. A) B) C) D) 23. A) B) C) D) 24. A) B) C) D) 25. A) B) C) D) 26. A) B) C) D) 27. A) B) C) D) 28. A) B) C) D)

four none of the above In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data. Time is divided into intervals. reservation polling token passing none of the above In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in that interval. reservation polling token passing none of the above In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the primary device even when the ultimate destination is a secondary device. reservation polling token passing none of the above In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary devices follow its instructions. reservation polling token passing none of the above In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring. reservation polling token passing none of the above In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor. reservation polling token passing none of the above In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through the ring. reservation: control frame polling: poll request token passing: token none of the above

29. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations. A) Random access B) Controlled access C) Channelization D) none of the above 30. A) B) C) D) 31. A) B) C) D) We discussed ________ channelization protocols. two three four none of the above In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

32. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA

D) 33. A) B) C) D) 34. A) B) C) D) 35. A) B) C) D) 36. A) B) C) D) 37. A) B) C) D) 38. A) B) C) D)

none of the above In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data. Each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called chips. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

ANSWERS:

1 A 20 B

2 B 21 B

3 B 22 A

4 B 23 A

5 A 24 B

6 C 25 B

7 A 26 C

8 B 27 C

9 A 28 C

10 C 29 C

11 B 30 B

12 A 31 A

13 B 32 A

14 B 33 B

15 B 34 B

16 B 35 B

17 A 36 C

18 A 37 C

19 B 38 C

1. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data link layers. A) IEEE 802.3 B) IEEE 802.5 C) IEEE 802.11 D) IEEE 802.2 2. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP). A) ESS B) BSS C) CSS D) none of the above 3. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 4. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network

C) D)

either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

5. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________. A) BSSs B) ESSs C) APs D) none of the above 6. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) none of the above 7. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) none of the above 8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) none of the above 9. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network). A) DCF B) PCF C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____ A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 11. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag is _______. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 12. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 13. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____ A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11 14. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and _______. A) BSS; ASS B) ESS; SSS C) BSS; ESS D) BSS; DCF 15. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________. A) ALOHA B) CSMA/CA C) CSMA/CD D) none of the above

16. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______. A) contention B) controlled C) polling D) none of the above 17. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance. A) NAV B) BSS C) ESS D) none of the above 18. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields. A) four B) five C) six D) none of the above 19. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses. A) four B) five C) six D) none of the above 20. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either (a) or (b) 21. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either (a) or (b) 22. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either (a) or (b) 23. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either (a) or (b) 24. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 6 C) 11 D) 22 25. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) none of the above 26. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5.5 D) none of the above 27. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 2

C) D)

11 22

28. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames. A) four B) five C) six D) none of the above 29. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small area. A) wired LAN B) wireless LAN C) VLAN D) none of the above 30. A Bluetooth network is called a ________. A) piconet B) scatternet C) bluenet D) none of the above 31. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________. A) scatternet; piconets B) piconets: scatternet C) piconets: bluenet D) bluenet; scatternet 32. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices. A) one; five B) five; three C) two; six D) one; seven 33. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem. A) can; cannot B) cannot; can C) can; can D) cannot; cannot 34. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps A) 2 B) 5 C) 11 D) none of the above 35. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet model. A) radio B) baseband C) L2CAP D) none of the above 36. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs. A) radio B) baseband C) L2CAP D) none of the above 37. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs. A) radio B) baseband C) L2CAP D) none of the above 38. The access method in Bluetooth is ________. A) FDMA B) TDD-TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

39. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is more important than integrity (error-free delivery). A) SCO B) ACL C) ACO D) SCL 40. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency. A) SCO B) ACL C) ACO D) SCL 41. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or other networks. A) DSSS B) FHSS C) FDMA D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 2 3 C 22 B B 23 C A 24 A

4 B 25 C

5 C 26 C

6 A 27 D

7 B 28 D

8 C 29 B

9 B 30 A

10 A 31 B

11 B 32 D

12 C 33 A

13 D 34 D

14 C 35 A

15 B 36 B

16 C 37 C

17 A 38 B

18 D 39 A

19 A 40 B

20 D 41 B

21 C

1. What term is used to describe two or more computers that are linked to each other? A) Star connection B) Computer system C) Computer network D) Net 2. What interface card do you need to connect to a network? A) ISP card B) Wireless card C) Router D) NIC 3. Which of the following is not described as a typical network classification? A) Local area network B) Wide area network C) Metropolitan area network D) County area network 4. What type of network device allows you to share your connection to the Internet with other computers in your home? A) Ethernet card B) NIC C) Router D) Cat 5 5. What is another name for a shared network? A) WAP B) Switch C) Broadband router D) Hub 6. What type of network is commonly used in a college lab environment? A) WAN B) MAN C) LAN D) CAN 7. What type of network is commonly used in an international organization? A) WAN B) MAN C) LAN D) CAN

8. What is the term used to describe the amount of space you have to transmit to and from the Internet? A) Internet speed B) Network speed C) Router D) Bandwidth 9. Which of the following high-speed circuits is the fastest? A) T1 B) T2 C) T3 D) DS3 10. What type of communication media is the most widely used cabling for data transfer today? A) Cat 5 B) Twisted pair C) Coaxial D) Optical fiber ANSWERS: 1 2 C D

3 D

4 C

5 D

6 C

7 A

8 D

9 D

10 A

Question 1: In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of a. session layer b. network layer c. transport layer d. data link layer e. none of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

Question 2: In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by a. network layer b. data link layer c. transport layer d. session layer e. none of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 3: Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation? a. fiber optics b. satellite c. coaxial cable d. modem e. none of the above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 4: The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving computer is referred to as: a. modulation b. demodulation c. synchronizing d. digitising Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 5: How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard? a. Two b. Three c. Seven

d. Six e. None of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 6: Layer one of the OSI model is a. physical layer b. link layer c. transport layer d. network layer e. none of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 7: The x.25 standard specifies a a. technique for start-stop data b. technique for dial access c. DTE/DCE interface d. data bit rate e. none of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 8: Which of the following communication modes support two-way traffic but in only one direction at a time? a. simplex b. half duplex c. three-quarters duplex d. all of the above e. none of the above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 9: Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communications needs? a. front end processor b. multiplexer c. controller d. concentrator e. all of the above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Question 10: What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by the X.25 standard? a. 4 b. 2 c. 6 d. 3 3. none of the above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Correct Answers: 1. a 2. a 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. e 10. d MCQS SET-2

Question 1: The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to a. simplex lines b. half-duplex lines c. full duplex lines d. biflex-lines Question 2: Which of the following statement is incorrect? a. The difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission is the clocking derived from the data in synchronous transmission. b. Half duplex line is a communication line in which data can move in two directions, but not at the same time. c. Teleprocessing combines telecommunications and DP techniques in online activities d. Batch processing is the prefered processing mode for telecommunication operation. Question 3: Which of hte following is considered a broad band communication channel? a. coaxial cable b. fiber optics cable c. microwave circuits d. all of above Question 4: Which of the following is not a transmission medium? a. telephone lines b. coaxial cables c. modem d. microwave systems Question 5: Which of the following does not allow multiple uses or devices to share one communication line? a. doubleplexer b. multiplexer c. concentrator d. controller Question 6: Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal? a. VDR b. RTS c. CTS d. DSR Question 7: Which of the following statement is incorrect? a. Multiplexers are designed to accept data from several I/O devices and transmit a unified stream of data on one communication line b. HDLC is a standard synchronous communication protocol. c. RTS/CTS is the way the DTE indicates that it is ready to transmit data and the way the DCW indicates that it is ready to accept data d. RTS/CTS is the way the terminal indicates ringing Question 8: Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission? a. resistance to data theft b. fast data transmission rate c. low noise level d. all of above Question 9: Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers? a. communications software b. protocol c. communication hardware d. all of above including access to transmission medium Question 10: The transmission signal coding method of TI carrier is called a. Bipolar b. NRZ c. Manchester d. Binary

Answers: 1. b 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. d 10. a MCQS SET-3 Question 1: Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link? a. simplex b. half-duplex c. full-duplex d. b and c e. None of above Question 2: What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication link layer? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 e. none of above Question 3: Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly? a. wide band channel b. voice band challen c. narrow band channel Question 4: Most data communications involving telegraph lines use: a. simplex lines b. wideband channel c. narrowband channel d. dialed service Question 5: A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a a. concentrator b. modifier c. multiplexer d. full-duplex line Question 6: How much power (roughly) a light emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber? a. 100 microwatts b. 440 microwatts c. 100 picowatts d. 10 miliwatts Question 7: The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because a. they produce large volume of data b. they contain clock recovery circuits c. they transmit the data with stop and start bits d. they operate with a larger bandwidth e. none of above Question 8: Which of the following statement is correct? a. terminal section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

b. receiver section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler c. transmission section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler d. control section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler e. none of the above Question 9: In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the a. equilizer b. modulator c. demodulator d. terminal e. none of aobve Question 10: Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications? a. narrow band channel b. simplex lines c. full duplex lines d. mixed band channels Answers 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. c MCQS SET-4 Computer Networking MCQ Set - 4

Question:1 A remote batch-processing operation in which data is solely input to a central computer would require a. telegraphp line b. simplex lines c. mixed bad channel d. all of above Question 2: A band is always equivalent to a. a byte b. a bit c. 100 bits d. none of above Question 3: The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called a. attenuation b. progragation c. scattering d. interruption Question 4: Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect bits of transmitted data by receiving a. 100 photons b. 200 photons c. 2000 photons d. 300 photons

Question 5: Communiction circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time are operating in a. a simplex mode b. a half duplex mode c. a full duplex mode d. an asynchronous mode Question 6: An example of a medium speed, switched communications service is a. series 1000 b. data phone 50 c. DDD d. All of the above Question 7: In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as a. detector b. modulator c. stations d. transponders Question 8: While transmitting odd-parity coded symbols, the number of zeros in each symbol is a. odd b. even c. a and b both d. unknown Question 9: Data communications monitors available on the software marked include a. ENVIRON/1 b. TOTAL c. BPL d. Telnet Question 10: An example of an analog communication method is a. laser beam b. microwave c. voice grade telephone line d. all of the above

Answers: 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. d MCQS SET-5 Question:1 Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is a. 7 b. 5 c. 8

d. 9 Question 2: What is the main difference between DDCMP and SDLC? a. DDCMP does not need special hardware to final the beginning of a message b. DDCMP has a message header c. SDLC has a IP address d. SDLC does not use CRC Question 3: An example of digital, rather than analog, communication is a. DDD b. DDS c. WATS d. DDT Question 4: Terminals are required for a. real-time, batch processing & time-sharing b. real time, time-sharing & distributed message processing c. real time, distributed processing & manager inquiry d. real-time, time sharing & message switching Question 5: The receive equilizer reduces delay distortions using a a. tapped delay lines b. gearshift c. descrambler d. difference engine Question 6: Ina synchronous modem, the receive equilizer is known as a. adaptive equilizer b. impariment equilizer c. statistical equilizer d. compromise equilizer Question 7: The channel in the data communication model can be a. postal mail services b. telephone lines c. radio lines d. any of the above Question 8: A data terminal serves as an a. Effector b. sensor c. both a and b d. neither a nor b Question 9: Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate to in individual device? a. computer bus b. telephone lines c. voice and mode d. lease lines Question 10: A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place a. between peers b. between an interface c. between modems d. across an interface

Answers: 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. a ================MCQS SET 1================ 1. UNIVAC is a. Universal Automatic Computer b. Universal Array Computer c. Unique Automatic Computer d. Unvalued Automatic Computer Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 2. CD-ROM stands for a. Compactable Read Only Memory b. Compact Data Read Only Memory c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 3. ALU is a. Arithmetic Logic Unit b. Array Logic Unit c. Application Logic Unit d. None of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 4. VGA is a. Video Graphics Array b. Visual Graphics Array c. Volatile Graphics Array d. Video Graphics Adapter Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 5. IBM 1401 is a. First Generation Computer b. Second Generation Computer c. Third Generation Computer d. Fourth Generation Computer Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 6. MSI stands for a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits b. Medium System Integrated Circuits c. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit d. Medium System Intelligent Circuit Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 7. The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is a. 1.40 MB b. 1.44 GB c. 1.40 GB d. 1.44 MB

Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 8. The first computer introduced in Nepal was a. IBM 1400 b. IBM 1401 c. IBM 1402 d. IBM1402 Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

9. WAN stands for a. Wap Area Network b. Wide Area Network c. Wide Array Net d. Wireless Area Network Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 10. MICR stands for a. Magnetic Ink Character Reader b. Magnetic Ink Code Reader c. Magnetic Ink Cases Reader d. None Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answers 1. UNIVAC is Correct Answer: a. Universal Automatic Computer Explanation: There are no computers with the name as in other options. UNIVAC was the first general purpose electronic digital computer designed for commercial use, produced by Universal Accounting Company of John Mauchly and J.P.Eckert in 1951. 2. CD-ROM stands for Correct Answer: d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory Explanation: There are no objects with the name as in other options. CD-ROM is a non-volatile optical data storage medium using the same physical format as audio compact disk, readable by a computer with a CD-ROM drive. The standard 12 cm diameter CD-ROM store about 660 megabytes. 3. ALU is Correct Answer: a. Arithmetic Logic Unit Explanation: ALU is a unit in Central Processing Unit in a computer system that is responsible for arithmetic calculations and logical operations. Apart from ALU, the CPU contains MU (Memory Unit) and CU (Control Unit). 4. VGA is Correct Answer: a. Video Graphics Array Explanation: VGA is a type of Graphics Adapter. Graphic Adapter is an electronic board that controls the display of a monitor. This device helps the motherboard to work with the monitor and in VGA and SVGA the last letter A stands for Array whereas in MDA, CGA, MCGA the last letter A stands for Adapter. 5. IBM 1401 is Correct Answer: b. Second Generation Computer Explanation: IBM 1401 is a Second Generation Computer and is the first computer to enter Nepal in 2028 BS for census. Government of Nepal had brought this computer on rent and later purchased for data processing in Bureau of Statistics. After this computer, another ICL 2950/10, a British computer, was purchased by the fund of UNDP and UNFPA for the census of 2038 BS is second computer in Nepal. 6. MSI stands for Correct Answer: a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits Explanation: After the invention of IC chips the development of computers plunged into next phase. Small Scale Integration and Medium Scale Integration (SSI and MSI) were used in third generation of computers and Large Scale Integration and Very Large Scale Integration (LSI and VLSI) are being used in fourth generation of computers. People are now expecting ULSI (Ultra Large Scale Integration) Circuits to be used for fifth generation computers. 7. The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is

Correct Answer: d. 1.44 MB Explanation: Microfloppy disks (3.5 inch) if it is high density (MF2HD) can store 1.44 MB and if it is low density (MF2DD), it can store 720 KB. Mini Floppy disks (5.25 inch) if it is high density (MD2HD) can store 1.2 MB and low density (MD2DD) stores 360 KB of data. 8. The first computer introduced in Nepal was Correct Answer: b. IBM 1401 Explanation: IBM 1401, a second generation computer was brought in Nepal by the Government of Nepal paying One Lakh and twenty five thousands per month to use in the census in 2028 B.S. Before this computer, Nepal was using a calculating device called Facit for statistical tasks. 9. WAN stands for Correct Answer: b. Wide Area Network Explanation: There are three different classes of computer network namely, Local Area Network (LAN) that covers a small geographical area such as a room, a building or a compound; Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) that has a citywide coverage; and Wide Area Network (WAN) that covers the whole globe or beyond the globe. 10. MICR stands for Correct Answer: a. Magnetic Ink Character Reader Explanation: MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Reader) is kind of scanner that can scan and identify the writing of magnetic ink. This device is used in banks to verify signatures in Checks. SET - 2 1. EBCDIC stands for a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code b. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code c. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code d. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code 2. BCD is a. Binary Coded Decimal b. Bit Coded Decimal c. Binary Coded Digit d. Bit Coded Digit 3. ASCII stands for a. American Stable Code for International Interchange b. American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange d. American Standard Code for Interchange Information 4. Which of the following is first generation of computer a. EDSAC b. IBM-1401 c. CDC-1604 d. ICL-2900 5. Chief component of first generation computer was a. Transistors b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves c. Integrated Circuits d. None of above 6. FORTRAN is a. File Translation b. Format Translation c. Formula Translation d. Floppy Translation 7. EEPROM stand for a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory b. Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory c. Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory d. None of the above

8. Second Generation computers were developed during a. 1949 to 1955 b. 1956 to 1965 c. 1965 to 1970 d. 1970 to 1990 Correct Answer: 1956 to 1965 Explanation: Second generation computers used transistors as their main electronic component. Transistor was invented by Bell Lab Scientists John Burdeen, Walter Brattain and William Shockley in 1947 and won the Nobel Prize in 1956 but it was not used in computers till 1956. The second generation continued until the implementation of IC chips invented by Jack Kilby in Texas Instruments in 1958. 9. The computer size was very large in a. First Generation b. Second Generation c. Third Generation d. Fourth Generation 10. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers a. First Generation b. Second Generation c. Third Generation d. Fourth Generation

Answers: 1. EBCDIC stands for Correct Answer: a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code Explanation: EBCDIC is an 8-bit binary code for larger IBMs primarily mainframes in which each byte represent one alphanumeric character or two decimal digits. 256 characters can be coded using EBCDIC. 2. BCD is Correct Answer: a. Binary Coded Decimal Explanation: BCD is a binary coded notation in which each of the decimal digits is expressed as a 8-bit binary numeral. For example in binary coded decimal notation 12 is 0001 0010 as opposed to 1100 in pure binary. 3. ASCII stands for Correct Answer: c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange Explanation: ASCII is a code which converts characters letters, digits, punctuations and control characters such as Alt, Tab etc into numeral form. ASCII code is used to represent data internally in micro-computers. ASCII codes are 7 bits and can represent 0 to 127 and extended ASCII are 8 bits that represents 0 to 255. 4. Which of the following is first generation of computer Correct Answer: a. EDSAC Explanation: IBM-1401, CDC-1604 is second generation computer. ICL-2900 is a fourth generation computer. EDSAC is important in the development of computer since it was the first computer to use John von. Neumanns Stored Program Concept. It used 3000 vacuum tubes and com puters with vacuum tubes are of first generation computers. 5. Chief component of first generation computer was Correct Answer: b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves Explanation: Transistors were used for second generation computers and integrated circuits in third generation. First generation computers used vacuum tubes and valves as their main electronic component. Vacuum Tubes were invented by Lee DeForest in 1908. 6. FORTRAN is Correct Answer: c. Formula Translation Explanation: FORTRAN (Formula Translation) is one of the earlier High Level programming languages used to write scientific applications. It was developed by IBM in 1956.

7. EEPROM stand for Correct Answer: a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory Explanation: There are three types of ROM namely, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM. PROM cant be reprogrammed, EPROM can be erased by exposing it in high intensity ultraviolet light and EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed electrically. It is not needed to be removed from the computer to be modified. 8. Second Generation computers were developed during Correct Answer: 1956 to 1965 Explanation: Second generation computers used transistors as their main electronic component. Transistor was invented by Bell Lab Scientists John Burdeen, Walter Brattain and William Shockley in 1947 and won the Nobel Prize in 1956 but it was not used in computers till 1956. The second generation continued until the implementation of IC chips invented by Jack Kilby in Texas Instruments in 1958. 9. The computer size was very large in Correct Answer: a. First Generation Explanation: It is obvious that computers developed with more power, reliability, speed and smaller sizes due to the enhancement of technology. First generation computers used 1000s of vacuum tubes that required lot of space made them gigantic in size. Single transistor could replace 1000 vacuum tubes and a single IC chip replaced 1000s of transistors made computers smaller and more speedy. 10. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers Correct Answer: Fourth Generation Explanation: Microprocessors further revolutionized the development of computers. Personal microcomputers were possible due to the microprocessors. The first microprocessor called Intel 4004 was developed by American Intel Corporation in 1971. Microprocessors are used in the computers of fourth generation computers. SET - 3 1. Which generation of computer is still under development a. Fourth Generation b. Fifth Generation c. Sixth Generation d. Seventh Generation 2. Artificial Intelligence is associated with which generation? a. First Generation b. Second Generation c. Fifth Generation d. Sixth Generation 3. Which operation is not performed by computer a. Inputting b. Processing c. Controlling d. Understanding 4. Fifth generation computer is also known as a. Knowledge information processing system b. Very large scale integration (VLSI) c. Both of above d. None of above 5. Central Processing Unit is combination of a. Control and storage b. Control and output unit c. Arithmetic logic and input unit d. Arithmetic logic and control unit 6. The brain of any computer system is a. Control Unit b. Arithmetic Logic Unit c. Central Processing Unit d. Storage Unit 7. Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than equal to or greater than. a. Arithmetic and Logic Unit b. Control Unit

c. Both of above d. None of above 8. Analog computer works on the supply of a. Continuous electrical pulses b. Electrical pulses but not continuous c. Magnetic strength d. None of the above 9. Digital devices are a. Digital Clock b. Automobile speed meter c. Clock with a dial and two hands d. All of them 10. The computer that process both analog and digital is called a. Analog computer b. Digital computer c. Hybrid computer d. Mainframe computer Answers: 1. Which generation of computer is still under development Correct Answer: b. Fifth Generation Explanation: Todays computer fall under the fourth generation computers that uses the LSI and VLSI Integrated Circuits. For fifth generation computers it is expected for Ultra Large Scale Integrated Circuits (ULSI). The study for using Gallium Arsenide instead of silicon chips is underway. Electrons can travel 5 times faster in Gallium Arsenide compared to the silicon. Similarly, genetically engineered protein molecules are being tried for processors. Fifth generation computers are expected to have artificial intelligence, ability to use natural language. 2. Artificial Intelligence is associated with which generation? Correct Answer: c. Fifth Generation Explanation: A computer is a slave in a box. This is a saying due to the lack of intelligence in computer in spite of their speed, accuracy, diligence and reliability. A computer can only perform instructed task in the way already programmed. Thus, scientists are trying to develop artificial intelligence in computers so that they can think and make decisions themselves. This is expected for fifth generation computers.

3. Which operation is not performed by computer Correct Answer: d. Understanding Explanation: Computers cant understand since they dont have intelligence. Lets hope in fifth generation they will achieve artificial intelligence and be able to understand. 4. Fifth generation computer is also known as Correct Answer: a. Knowledge information processing system Explanation: Fifth Generation computers will have artificial intelligence and will be able to understand making knowledge information processing system possible, 5. Central Processing Unit is combination of Correct Answer: d. Arithmetic logic and control unit Explanation: Arithmetic logic and control unit along with memory unit forms a complete central processing unit and central processing unit along with input/output unit forms a computer system. 6. The brain of any computer system is Correct Answer: c. Central Processing Unit Explanation: Control unit or arithmetic logical unit alone can not represent the function of brain to compare with neither does storage unit only. Central Processing Unit is the combination of control, arithmetic logic and memory units thus can be compared with brain that controls the body, processes its functions and remembers.

7. Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than equal to or greater than. Correct Answer: a. Arithmetic and Logic Unit Explanation: Logical sub-unit of ALU performs all the comparisons such as less than equal to or greater than. Arithmetic sub-unit of ALU performs calculations such as addition, subtraction and so on. 8. Analog computer works on the supply of Correct Answer: a. Continuous electrical pulses Explanation: Analog computers works on the continuous electrical pulses and digital computers work on the discrete electrical pulses. Analog computers need to process physical quantities such as temperature, pressure, speed etc. 9. Digital devices are Correct Answer: a. Digital Clock. Explanation: Automobile speed meter and clock with a dial and two hands are analog devices. Speed meter works on speed of wheel and the later works on tension of dialed spring. 10. The computer that process both analog and digital is called Correct Answer c. Hybrid Computer Explanation: Analog, Digital and Hybrid are the three classes of computers based on the work or principle on which computer work. Hybrid computers can perform both the tasks of analog computers as well as hybrid computers. These computers are used in aircraft, hospitals where measuring physical quantities and converting them into digital data to analyze is required. SET - 4 1. Which statement is valid about magnetic tape? a. It is a plastic ribbon b. It is coated on both sides with iron oxide c. It can be erased and reused d. All of above 2. The data recording format in most of the modern magnetic tape is a. 7-bit ASCII b. 7-bit EBCDIC c. 8-bit ASCII d. 8-bit EBCDIC 3. Which of the following is associated with error detector? a. Odd parity bit b. Even parity bit c. Both of the above d. None of above 4. Tape speed is measured in a. Feet per second b. Inch per second c. Meter per second d. Centimeter per second 5. Magnetic disks are the most popular medium for a. Direct access b. Sequential access c. Both of above d. None of above 6. Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on a. tracks per inch of surface b. bits per inch of tracks c. disk pack in disk surface d. All of above 7. Reading data is performed in magnetic disk by a. Read/write leads b. Sectors c. Track d. Lower surface

8. Access time is a. seek time + latency time b. seek time c. seek time latency time d. latency time 9. Seek time is a. time to position the head over proper track b. time to position the head over proper sector c. time to position the head over proper cylinder d. none of above 10. Latency time is a. Time to spin the needed data under head b. Time to spin the needed data under track c. Time to spin data under sector d. All of above 11. Floppy disks are available in a. Single side single density b. Single side double density c. Both of above d. None of above 12. Floppy disks typically in diameter a. 3 b. 5.25 c. 8 d. All of above 13. Hard disk is coated in both side above a. Magnetic metallic oxide b. Optical metallic oxide c. Carbon layer d. All of the above 14. Binary circuit elements have a. One stable state b. Two stable state c. Three stable state d. None of above 15. Which statement is valid? a. 1KB = 1024 bytes b. 1 MB=2048 bytes c. 1 MB = 1000 kilobytes d. 1 KB = 1000 bytes 16. Which statement is valid about computer program? a. It is understood by a computer b. It is understood by programmer c. It is understood user d. Both of above 17. Software in computer a. Enhances the capabilities of the hardware machine b. Increase the speed of central processing unit c. Both of above d. None of above 18. Which of the following is not computer language? a. High level language b. Medium level language c. Low level language d. All of the above 19. Which language is directly understood by the computer without translation program? a. Machine language

b. Assembly language c. High level language d. None of above 20. Instruction in computer languages consists of a. OPCODE b. OPERAND c. Both of above d. None of above 21. Machine language is a. Machine dependent b. Difficult to program c. Error prone d. All of above

Answers: 1. Which statement is valid about magnetic tape? a. It is a plastic ribbon 2. The data recording format in most of the modern magnetic tape is d. 8-bit EBCDIC 3. Which of the following is associated with error detector? c. Both of the above 4. Tape speed is measured in b. Inch per second 5. Magnetic disks are the most popular medium for c. Both of above 6. Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on d. All of above 7. Reading data is performed in magnetic disk by a. Read/write leads 8. Access time is a. seek time + latency time 9. Seek time is a. time to position the head over proper track 10. Latency time is a. Time to spin the needed data under head 11. Floppy disks are available in c. Both of above 12. Floppy disks typically in diameter d. All of above 13. Hard disk is coated in both side above a. Magnetic metallic oxide 14. Binary circuit elements have b. Two stable state 15. Which statement is valid? a. 1KB = 1024 bytes

16. Which statement is valid about computer program? d. Both of above 17. Software in computer a. Enhances the capabilities of the hardware machine 18. Which of the following is not computer language? b. Medium level language 19. Which language is directly understood by the computer without translation program? a. Machine language 20. Instruction in computer languages consists of c. Both of above 21. Machine language is d. All of above SET - 5 1. Mnemonic a memory trick is used in which of the following language? a. Machine language b. Assembly language c. High level language d. None of above 2. The translator program used in assembly language is called a. Compiler b. Interpreter c. Assembler d. Translator 3. Easily reloctable language is a. Machine language b. Assembly language c. High level language d. Medium level language 4. Which of the following is called low level languages? a. Machine language b. Assembly language c. Both of the above d. None of above 5. which of the following is problem oriented language? a. High level language b. Machine language c. Assembly language d. Low level language 6. A compiler is a translating program which a. Translates instruction of a high level language into machine language b. Translates entire source program into machine language program c. It is not involved in programs execution d. All of above 7. Which of the following is machine independence program? a. High level language b. Low level language c. Assembly language d. Machine language 8. Which statement is valid about interpreter? a. It translates one instruction at a time b. Object code is saved for future use c. Repeated interpretation is not necessary d. All of above

9. Which is the limitation of high level language? a. Lower efficiency b. Machine dependence c. machine level coding d. None of above 10. High level language is also called a. Problem oriented language b. Business oriented language c. Mathematically oriented language d. All of the above 11. A computer programmer a. Does all the thinking for a computer b. Can enter input data quickly c. Can operate all types of computer equipments d. Can draw only flowchart 12. CD-ROM is a a. Semiconductor memory b. Memory register c. Magnetic memory d. None of above 13. Which of the following is not a primary storage device? a. Magnetic tape b. Magnetic disk c. Optical disk d. None of above 14. A name or number used to identify a storage location devices? a. A byte b. A record c. An address d. All of above 15. Which of the following is a secondary memory device? a. Keyboard b. Disk c. ALU d. All of the above 16. The difference between memory and storage is that memory is and storage is a. Temporary, permanent b. Permanent, temporary c. Slow, fast d. All of above 17. A floppy disk contains a. Circular tracks only b. Sectors only c. Both circular tracks and sectors d. All of the above 18. The octal equivalent of 111010 is a. 81 b. 72 c. 71 d. None of above 19. The first electronic computer in the world was a. UNIVAC b. EDVAC c. ENIAC d. All of above 20. The most commonly used standard data code to represent alphabetical, numerical and punctuation characters used in electronic data processing system is called a. ASCII

b. EBCDIC c. BCD d. All of above

Answers: Correct Answer: b Correct Answer: c Correct Answer: b Correct Answer: c Correct Answer: a Correct Answer: d Correct Answer: a Correct Answer: a Correct Answer: a Correct Answer: d Correct Answer: a Correct Answer: d Correct Answer: d Correct Answer: c Correct Answer: b Correct Answer: a Correct Answer: c Correct Answer: b Correct Answer: c Correct Answer: a SET - 6 1. Which was the computer conceived by Babbage? a. Analytical Engine b. Arithmetic Machine c. Donald Kunth d. All of above 2. Offline device is a. A device which is not connected to CPU b. A device which is connected to CPU c. A direct access storage device d. An I/O device 3. Which of the following registers is loaded with the contents of the memory location pointed by the PC? a. Memory address registers b. Memory data registers c. Instruction register d. Program counter 4. Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located? a. Memory address register b. Memory data register c. Instruction register d. Program counter 5. Microprocessors can be used to make a. Computers b. Digital systems c. Calculators d. All of above 6. how many address lines are needed to address each machine location in a 2048 x 4 memory chip? a. 10 b. 11 c. 8 d. 12 7. which American computer company is called Big Blue? a. Microsoft

b. Compaq Corp c. IBM d. Tandy Svenson 8. When did IBM introduce the 20286 based PC/AT? a. 1982 b. 1984 c. 1985 d. 1989 9. When was the X window system born? a. 1984 b. 1989 c. 1988 d. 1990 10. Todays computer giant IBM was earlier known by different name which was changes in 1924. What was that name? a. Tabulator Machine Co. b. Computer Tabulating Recording Co. c. The Tabulator Ltd. d. International Computer Ltd.

11. The first electronic general purpose digital computer built by Mauchly and Eckert called ENIA did not work on the stored program principle. How many numbers could it store in its internal memory? a. 100 b. 20 c. 40 d. 80 12. The digital computer was developed primarily in a. USSR b. Japan c. USA d. UK 13. The subject of cybernetics deals with the science of a. Genetics b. Control and communication c. Molecular biology d. Biochemistry 14. Who is credited with the idea of using punch cards to control patterns in a waving machine? a. Pascal b. Hollerith c. Babbage d. Jacquard 15. Most of the inexpensive personal computers do not have any disk or diskette drive. What is the name of such computes? a. Home computers b. Diskless computers c. Dedicated computers d. General purpose computers 16. Which of the following require large computers memory? a. Imaging b. Graphics c. Voice d. All of Above 17. A term associated with the comparison of processing speeds of different computer system is: a. EFTS b. MPG c. MIPS d. CPS

18. The process of starting a or restarting a computer system by loading instructions from a secondary storage device into the computer memory is called a. Duping b. Booting c. Padding d. CPS 19. who invented the microprocessor? a. Marcian E Huff b. Herman H Goldstein c. Joseph Jacquard d. All of above 20. One computer that is not considered a portable is a. Minicomputer b. Laptop computer c. Notebook computer d. All of above Answers:

1. Which was the computer conceived by Babbage? a. Analytical Engine 2. Offline device is a. A device which is not connected to CPU 3. Which of the following registers is loaded with the contents of the memory location pointed by the PC? c. Instruction register 4. Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located? d. Program counter 5. Microprocessors can be used to make d. All of above 6. how many address lines are needed to address each machine location in a 2048 x 4 memory chip? b. 11 7. which American computer company is called Big Blue? c. IBM 8. When did IBM introduce the 20286 based PC/AT? b. 1984 9. When was the X window system born? a. 1984 10. Todays computer giant IBM was earlier known by different name which was changes in 1924. What was that name? a. Tabulator Machine Co. 11. The first electronic general purpose digital computer built by Mauchly and Eckert called ENIA did not work on the stored program principle. How many numbers could it store in its internal memory? b. 20 12. The digital computer was developed primarily in c. USA 13. The subject of cybernetics deals with the science of b. Control and communication 14. Who is credited with the idea of using punch cards to control patterns in a waving machine? d. Jacquard

15. Most of the inexpensive personal computers do not have any disk or diskette drive. What is the name of such computes? a. Home computers 16. Which of the following require large computers memory? d. All of Above 17. A term associated with the comparison of processing speeds of different computer system is: c. MIPS 18. The process of starting a or restarting a computer system by loading instructions from a secondary storage device into the computer memory is called b. Booting 19. who invented the microprocessor? a. Marcian E Huff 20. One computer that is not considered a portable is a. Minicomputer SET - 7 1. the accuracy of the floating point numbers represent able in two 16bit words of a computer is approximately a. 16 digits b. 6 digits c. 4 digits d. All of above 2. a dumb terminal has a. an embedded microprocessor b. extensive memory c. independent processing capability d. a keyboard and screen 3. plotter accuracy is measured in terms of repeatability and a. buffer size b. resolution c. vertical dimension d. intelligence 4. bit map terminal a. support display containing multiple window b. require considerable amount of video RAM c. requires tremendous amount of copying and hence low performance d. all of above 5. how many symbols exist in Baudot code? a. 32 b. 116 c. 58 d. 76 6. Daisy wheel printer is a type of a. Matrix printer b. Impact printer c. Laser printer d. Manual printer 7. The number of records contained within a block of data on magnetic tape is defined by the a. Block definition b. Record contain clause c. Blocking factor d. Record per block 8. Serial access memories are useful in applications where a. Data consists of numbers b. Short access time is required c. Each stored word is processed differently d. Data naturally needs to flow in and out in serial form

9. how many types of storage loops exists in magnetic bubble memory a. 8 b. 4 c. 16 d. 2 10. which of the following memories must be refreshed many times per second? a. Static RAM b. Dynamic RAM c. EPROM d. ROM 11. The memory which is programmed at the time it is manufactured a. ROM b. RAM c. PROM d. EPROM 12. Which of the following memory medium is not used as main memory system? a. Magnetic core b. Semiconductor c. Magnetic tape d. Both semiconductor and magnetic tape 13. The control unit of a microprocessor a. Stores data in the memory b. Accepts input data from keyboard c. Performs arithmetic/logic function d. None of above 14. Registers which are partially visible to users and used to hold conditional codes (bits set by the CPU hardware as the result of operations), are known as a. PC b. Flags c. Memory Address Registers d. General Purpose Registers 15. One of the main feature that distinguish microprocessors from micro-computer is a. Words are usually large in microprocessors b. Words are shorter in microprocessors c. Microprocessor does not contain I/O device d. Exactly the same as the machine cycle time 16. Which was the worlds first microcomputer that used Intel 80386 microprocessor chip? a. IBM PS/2 b. HP-9830 c. DeskPro-386 d. IBM-360 17. When was the worlds first laptop computer introduced in the market and by whom? a. Hewlett-Packard, 1980 b. Epson, 1981 c. Laplink Traveling Software Inc, 1982 d. Tandy Model-200, 1985 18. The first microprocessor built by the Intel corporation was called a. 8008 b. 8080 c. 4004 d. 8800 19. who built the worlds first electronic calculator using telephone relays, light bulbs and batteries? a. Claude Shannon b. Konrard Zues c. George Stibits d. Howard H. Aiken 20. Who developed a mechanical device in the 17th century that could add, subtracts, multiply, divide and find square roots? a. Napier b. Babbage

c. Pascal d. Leibniz SET - 8

1. IBM 7000 digital computer a. Belongs to second generation b. Uses VLSI c. Employs semiconductor memory d. Has modular constructions 2. The proper definition of a modern digital computer is a. An electronic automated machine that can solve problems involving words and numbers b. A more sophistic and modified electronic pocket calculator c. Any machine that can perform mathematical operations d. A machine that works on binary code 3. A modern electronic computer is a machine that is meant for a. Doing quick mathematical calculations b. Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data c. Electronic data processing d. Performing repetitive tasks accurately 4. An integrated circuit is a. A complicated circuit b. An integrating device c. Much costlier than a single transistor d. Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip 5. Most important advantage of an IC is its a. Easy replacement in case of circuit failure b. Extremely high reliability c. Reduced cost d. Lower power consumption 6. In a punched card system, data is processed by a a. Keypunch machine, sorter and posting machine b. Accounting machine, posting machine, and billing machine c. Sorter, posting machine, and billing machine d. Accounting machine, keypunch machine and sorter 7. The first machine to successfully perform a long series of arithmetic and logical operations was; a. ENIAC b. Mark I c. Analytic engine d. UNIVAC-I 8. In the third generation of computers: a. Distributed data processing first became popular b. An operating system was first developed c. High-level prcedu7ral languages were firs used d. On-line, real time systems first became popular 9. A characteristic of card systems is: a. Slowness in processing data b. Using cards as records of transactions c. Needing a larger DP staff d. All of the above 10. An IBM system/38 represents the computer class of: a. Small-scale computer b. Medium-scale computer c. Large-scale computer d. Super computer

11. The first firm to mass- market a microcomputer as a personal computer was a. IBM b. Sperry Univac c. Data General corporation d. Radio Shack 12. A digital computer did not score over an analog computer in terms of a. Speed b. Accuracy c. Cost d. Memory 13. In 1830, Charles Babbage designed a machine called the Analytical Engine which he showed at the Paris Exhibition. In which year was it exhibition? a. 1820 b. 1860 c. 1855 d. 1870 14. Which was the worlds first minicomputer and when was it introduced? a. PDP-I, 1958 b. IBM System/36, 1960 c. PDP-II, 1961 d. VAX 11/780, 1962 15. Where was Indias first computer installed and when? a. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi, 1977 b. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, 1971 c. Indian Iron & Steel Co. Ltd., 1968 d. Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta, 1955 16. Which of the following are the two main components of the CPU? a. Control unit and registers b. Registers and main memory c. Control Unit and ALU d. ALU and bus 17. Which of the following is true? a. Fields are composed of bytes b. Records are composed of fields c. Fields are composed of characters d. All of above 18. Which of the following file organization is most efficient for a file with a high degree of file activity? a. Sequential b. ISAM c. VSAM d. B-Tree Index 19. The two basic types of record-access methods are a. Sequential and random b. Sequential and indexed c. Direct and immediate d. On-line and real time 20. The advantage of COM are its and a. Compact size; speed readability b. Compact size, speed c. Readability; speed d. Low cost; readability Answers:

1. IBM 7000 digital computer c. Employs semiconductor memory 2. The proper definition of a modern digital computer is d. A machine that works on binary code 3. A modern electronic computer is a machine that is meant for b. Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data 4. An integrated circuit is d. Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip 5. Most important advantage of an IC is its b. Extremely high reliability 6. In a punched card system, data is processed by a d. Accounting machine, keypunch machine and sorter 7. The first machine to successfully perform a long series of arithmetic and logical operations was; b. Mark I 8. In the third generation of computers: d. On-line, real time systems first became popular 9. A characteristic of card systems is: d. All of the above 10. An IBM system/38 represents the computer class of: a. Small-scale computer 11. The first firm to mass- market a microcomputer as a personal computer was c. Data General corporation 12. A digital computer did not score over an analog computer in terms of b. Accuracy 13. In 1830, Charles Babbage designed a machine called the Analytical Engine which he showed at the Paris Exhibition. In which year was it exhibition? c. 1855 14. Which was the worlds first minicomputer and when was it introduced? a. PDP-I, 1958 15. Where was Indias first computer installed and when? d. Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta, 1955 16. Which of the following are the two main components of the CPU? c. Control Unit and ALU 17. Which of the following is true? d. All of above 18. Which of the following file organization is most efficient for a file with a high degree of file activity? a. Sequential 19. The two basic types of record-access methods are a. Sequential and random 20. The advantage of COM are its and b. Compact size, speed SET - 9

1. A disadvantage of the laser printer is: a. It is quieter than an impact printer b. It is very slow c. The output is of a lower quality d. None of above 2. Which of the following is not true for a magnetic disk? a. It is expensive relative to magnetic tape b. It provides only sequential access to stored data c. Users can easily update records by writing over the old data d. All of above 3. The primary advantage of key-to-tape data entry system is a. A large percentage of editing can be performed at the time of data entry b. Key verification is easily performed c. The tape is reusable d. Keying errors can be detected as they occur. 4. The terminal device that functions as a cash register, computer terminal, and OCR reader is the: a. Data collection terminal b. OCR register terminal c. Video Display terminal d. POS terminal 5. Which of the following does not affect the resolution of a video display image? a. Bandwidth b. Raster scan rage c. Vertical and horizontal lines of resolution d. Screen size 6. While inserting a diskette into the diskette drive of a PC, the diskettes label side should face a. East b. North c. South d. Up 7. in which year was UKs premier computing event called The which computer started? a. 1980 b. 1985 c. 1986 d. 1987 8. The latest PC keyboards use a circuit that senses the movement by the change in its capacitance, a. Capacitance keyboard b. Mechanical keyboard c. Qwerty keyboard d. Dvorak keyboard 9. Different components on the motherboard of a PC processor unit are linked together by sets or parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called? a. Conductors b. Buses c. Connectors d. Connectively 10. Which of the following magazines covers only the IBM PC and its compatibles? a. Byte b. PC Magazine c. Personal Computing d. Interface Age 11. Which of the following professions has not been affected by personal computers? a. Medical b. Clerical and law c. Accounting d. None of the above 12. The arranging of data in a logical sequence is called

a. Sorting b. Classifying c. Reproducing d. Summarizing 13. When was Apple Macintosh II microcomputer introduced in the market? a. 1964 b. 1970 c. 1983 d. 1986 14. What is the name of the new color laptop computer which is powered by a 386 processor at 33 MHz and is built by Epson? a. AX3/33 b. NEC-20 c. Magnum 2000 d. HCL-3000 15. What does the disk drive of a computer do? a. Rotate the disk b. Read the disk c. Load a program from the disk into the memory d. Both b and c 16. The language that the computer can understand and execute is called a. Machine language b. Application software c. System program d. All of above 17. An application suitable for sequential processing is a. Processing of grades b. Payroll processing c. Both a and b d. All of above 18. The word processing task associated with changing the appearance of a document is a. Editing b. Writing c. Formatting d. All of above 19. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device? a. Magnetic drum b. Prom c. Floppy d. All of above 20. Which of the following memories needs refreshing? a. SRAM b. DRAM c. ROM d. All of above

Answers

1. A disadvantage of the laser printer is: d. None of above 2. Which of the following is not true for a magnetic disk? b. It provides only sequential access to stored data

3. The primary advantage of key-to-tape data entry system is c. The tape is reusable 4. The terminal device that functions as a cash register, computer terminal, and OCR reader is the: d. POS terminal 5. Which of the following does not affect the resolution of a video display image? d. Screen size 6. While inserting a diskette into the diskette drive of a PC, the diskettes label side should face d. Up 7. in which year was UKs premier computing event called The which computer started? a. 1980 8. The latest PC keyboards use a circuit that senses the movement by the change in its capacitance, a. Capacitance keyboard 9. Different components on the motherboard of a PC processor unit are linked together by sets or parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called? b. Buses 10. Which of the following magazines covers only the IBM PC and its compatibles? b. PC Magazine 11. Which of the following professions has not been affected by personal computers? d. None of the above 12. The arranging of data in a logical sequence is called a. Sorting 13. When was Apple Macintosh II microcomputer introduced in the market? c. 1983 14. What is the name of the new color laptop computer which is powered by a 386 processor at 33 MHz and is built by Epson? a. AX3/33 15. What does the disk drive of a computer do? d. Both b and c 16. The language that the computer can understand and execute is called a. Machine language 17. An application suitable for sequential processing is c. Both a and b 18. The word processing task associated with changing the appearance of a document is c. Formatting 19. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device? b. Prom 20. Which of the following memories needs refreshing? b. DRAM SET -10

1. Which of the following devices can be sued to directly image printed text? a. OCR b. OMR c. MICR d. All of above 2. The output quality of a printer is measured by

a. Dot per inch b. Dot per sq. inch c. Dots printed per unit time d. All of above 3. In analog computer a. Input is first converted to digital form b. Input is never converted to digital form c. Output is displayed in digital form d. All of above 4. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed a. Parallel only b. Sequentially only c. Both sequentially and parallel d. All of above 5. Who designed the first electronics computer ENIAC? a. Van-Neumann b. Joseph M. Jacquard c. J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly d. All of above 6. Who invented the high level language c? a. Dennis M. Ritchie b. Niklaus Writh c. Seymour Papert d. Donald Kunth 7. Personnel who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment refers to a. Console-operator b. Programmer c. Peopleware d. System Analyst 8. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands? a. 1978 b. 1984 c. 1990 d. 1991 9. Human beings are referred to as Homosapinens, which device is called Sillico Sapiens? a. Monitor b. Hardware c. Robot d. Computer 10. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative computer jargon for it? a. Leech b. Squid c. Slug d. Glitch 11. Modern Computer are very reliable but they are not a. Fast b. Powerful c. Infallible d. Cheap 12. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? a. Pixel b. Reverse video c. Touch screen d. Cursor 13. IMB launched its first personal computer called IBM-PC in 1981. It had chips from Intel, disk drives from Tandon, operating system from Microsoft, the printer from Epson and the application software from everywhere. Can you name the country which contributed the video display? a. India b. China

c. Germany d. Taiwan 14. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main circuit board. What is the common name for such boards? a. Daughter board b. Motherboard c. Father board d. Breadboard 15. In most IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drives, memory expansion slots and active components are mounted on a single board. What is the name of this board? a. Motherboard b. Breadboard c. Daughter board d. Grandmother board 16. What is meant by a dedicated computer? a. Which is used by one person only b. Which is assigned one and only one task c. Which uses one kind of software d. Which is meant for application software 17. The system unit of a personal computer typically contains all of the following except: a. Microprocessor b. Disk controller c. Serial interface d. Modem 18. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language is called a/an a. Interpreter b. Simulator c. Compiler d. Commander 19. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine language is called a/an a. Interpreter b. CPU c. Compiler d. Simulator 20. A small or intelligent device is so called because it contains within it a a. Computer b. Microcomputer c. Programmable d. Sensor

Answers: 1. Which of the following devices can be sued to directly image printed text? a. OCR 2. The output quality of a printer is measured by b. Dot per sq. inch 3. In analog computer b. Input is never converted to digital form 4. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed c. Both sequentially and parallel 5. Who designed the first electronics computer ENIAC? c. J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly 6. Who invented the high level language c? a. Dennis M. Ritchie 7. Personnel who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment refers to c. Peopleware

8. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands? d. 1991 9. Human beings are referred to as Homosapinens, which device is called Sillico Sapiens? d. Computer 10. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative computer jargon for it? d. Glitch 11. Modern Computer are very reliable but they are not c. Infallible 12. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? b. Reverse video 13. IMB launched its first personal computer called IBM-PC in 1981. It had chips from Intel, disk drives from Tandon, operating system from Microsoft, the printer from Epson and the application software from everywhere. Can you name the country which contributed the video display? d. Taiwan 14. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main circuit board. What is the common name for such boards? b. Motherboard 15. In most IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drives, memory expansion slots and active components are mounted on a single board. What is the name of this board? a. Motherboard 16. What is meant by a dedicated computer? b. Which is assigned one and only one task 17. The system unit of a personal computer typically contains all of the following except: d. Modem 18. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language is called a/an c. Compiler 19. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine language is called a/an a. Interpreter 20. A small or intelligent device is so called because it contains within it a d. Sensor SET - 11 1. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from a. Primary memory b. Control section c. External memory d. Cache memory 2. The act of retrieving existing data from memory is called a. Read-out b. Read from c. Read d. All of above 3. All modern computer operate on a. Information b. Floppies c. Data d. Word 4. Instructions and memory address are represented by a. Character code b. Binary codes c. Binary word d. Parity bit 5. Which of the following code used in present day computing was developed by IBM Corporation?

a. ASCII b. Hollerith Code c. Baudot Code d. EBCDIC Code 6. What is the latest write-once optical storage media? a. Digital paper b. Magneto-optical disk c. WORM disk d. CD-ROM disk 7. The most important advantage of a video disk is a. Compactness b. Potential capacity c. Durability d. Cost effectiveness 8. What is the number of read-write heads in the drive for a 9-trac magnetic tape? a. 9 b. 16 c. 18 d. 27 9. Before a disk drive can access any sector record, a computer program has to provide the records disk address. What information does this address specify? a. Track number b. Sector number c. Surface number d. All of above 10. As compared to diskettes, the hard disks are a. More expensive b. More portable c. Less rigid d. Slowly accessed 11. Floppy disks which are made from flexible plastic material are also called? a. Hard disks b. High-density disks c. Diskettes d. Templates 12. Regarding a VDU, Which statement is more correct? a. It is an output device b. It is an input device c. It is a peripheral device d. It is hardware item 13. What is the name of the computer terminal which gives paper printout? a. Display screen b. Soft copy terminal c. Hard copy terminal d. Plotter 14. Dot-matrix is a type of a. Tape e. Printer f. Disk g. Bus 15. The two kinds of main memory are: a. Primary and secondary b. Random and sequential c. ROM and RAM d. All of above 16. A kind of serial dot-matrix printer that forms characters with magnetically-charged ink sprayed dots is called a. Laser printer b. Ink-jet printer

c. Drum printer d. Chan printer 17. Which printer is very commonly used for desktop publishing? a. Laser printer b. Inkjet printer c. Daisywheel printer d. Dot matrix printer 18. An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio response is b. Magnetic tape c. Voice response unit d. Voice recognition unit e. Voice band 19. Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location? a. It will add to the content of the location b. It will change the address of the memory location c. It will erase the previous content d. It will not be fruitful if there is already some data at the location 20. A storage area used to store data to a compensate for the difference in speed at which the different units can handle data is a. Memory b. Buffer c. Accumulator d. Address ANSWERS:

1. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from b. Control section 2. The act of retrieving existing data from memory is called d. All of above 3. All modern computer operate on c. Data 4. Instructions and memory address are represented by b. Binary codes 5. Which of the following code used in present day computing was developed by IBM Corporation? d. EBCDIC Code 6. What is the latest write-once optical storage media? d. CD-ROM disk 7. The most important advantage of a video disk is b. Potential capacity 8. What is the number of read-write heads in the drive for a 9-trac magnetic tape? a. 9 9. Before a disk drive can access any sector record, a computer program has to provide the records disk address. What information does this address specify? d. All of above 10. As compared to diskettes, the hard disks are a. More expensive

11. Floppy disks which are made from flexible plastic material are also called? c. Diskettes 12. Regarding a VDU, Which statement is more correct? c. It is a peripheral device 13. What is the name of the computer terminal which gives paper printout? c. Hard copy terminal 14. Dot-matrix is a type of b. Printer 15. The two kinds of main memory are: c. ROM and RAM 16. A kind of serial dot-matrix printer that forms characters with magnetically-charged ink sprayed dots is called b. Ink-jet printer 17. Which printer is very commonly used for desktop publishing? a. Laser printer 18. An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio response is b. Voice response unit 19. Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location? c. It will erase the previous content 20. A storage area used to store data to a compensate for the difference in speed at which the different units can handle data is b. Buffer SET - 12

1. To locate a data item for storage is a. Field b. Feed c. Database d. Fetch 2. programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as a. system software b. application software c. utility programs d. operating system 3. perforated paper used as input of output media is known as a. paper tapes b. magnetic tape c. punched papers tape d. card punch 4. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is a. Delay times b. Real time c. Execution time d. Down time 5. a computer which CPU speed around 100 million instruction per second and with the word length of around 64 bits is known as a. Super computer b. Mini computer c. Micro computer d. Macro computer 6. An approach that permits the computer to work on several programs instead of one is

a. On-line thesaurus b. Multiprogramming c. Over lapped processing d. Outline processor 7. A directly accessible appointment calendar is feature of a resident package a. CPU b. Memory c. Buffer d. ALU 8. The term gigabyte refers to a. 1024 bytes b. 1024 kilobytes c. 1024 megabytes d. 1024 gigabyte 9. Which of the following processors use RISC technology? a. 486dx b. Power PC c. 486sx d. 6340 10. A/n . Device is any device that provides information, which is sent to the CPU a. Input b. Output c. CPU d. Memory 11. Current SIMMs have either or connectors (pins) a. 9 or 32 b. 30 or 70 c. 28 or 72 d. 30 or 72 12. The storage subsystem in a microcomputer consists mainly of or media with varying capacities a. Memory or video b. Magnetic or optical c. Optical or memory d. Video or magnetic 13. Which of the following is not an input device? a. OCR b. Optical scanners c. Voice recognition device d. COM (Computer Output to Microfilm) 14. The central processing unit (CPU) consists of a. Input, output and processing b. Control unit, primary storage, and secondary storage c. Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit and primary storage d. Control unit, processing, and primary storage 15. EBCDIC can code up to how many different characters? a. 256 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64 16. Which is considered a direct entry input device? a. Optical scanner b. Mouse and digitizer c. Light pen d. All of the above 17. Which is used for manufacturing chips? a. Bus b. Control unit

c. Semiconductors d. A and b only 18. The computer code for the interchange of information between terminals is a. ASCII b. BCD c. EBCDIC d. All of above 19. A byte consists of a. One bit b. Four bits c. Eight bits d. Sixteen bits 20. A hybrid computer a. Resembles digital computer b. Resembles analog computer c. Resembles both a digital and analog computer d. None of the above Answers:

1. To locate a data item for storage is d. Fetch 2. programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as b. application software 3. perforated paper used as input of output media is known as a. paper tapes 4. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is c. Execution time 5. a computer which CPU speed around 100 million instruction per second and with the word length of around 64 bits is known as a. Super computer 6. An approach that permits the computer to work on several programs instead of one is c. Over lapped processing 7. A directly accessible appointment calendar is feature of a resident package b. Memory 8. The term gigabyte refers to c. 1024 megabytes 9. Which of the following processors use RISC technology? b. Power PC 10. A/n . Device is any device that provides information, which is sent to the CPU a. Input 11. Current SIMMs have either or connectors (pins) d. 30 or 72 12. The storage subsystem in a microcomputer consists mainly of or media with varying capacities b. Magnetic or optical

13. Which of the following is not an input device? d. COM (Computer Output to Microfilm) 14. The central processing unit (CPU) consists of c. Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit and primary storage 15. EBCDIC can code up to how many different characters? a. 256 16. Which is considered a direct entry input device? d. All of the above 17. Which is used for manufacturing chips? c. Semiconductors 18. The computer code for the interchange of information between terminals is a. ASCII 19. A byte consists of c. Eight bits 20. A hybrid computer c. Resembles both a digital and analog computer SET - 12

1. To locate a data item for storage is a. Field b. Feed c. Database d. Fetch 2. programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as a. system software b. application software c. utility programs d. operating system 3. perforated paper used as input of output media is known as a. paper tapes b. magnetic tape c. punched papers tape d. card punch 4. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is a. Delay times b. Real time c. Execution time d. Down time 5. a computer which CPU speed around 100 million instruction per second and with the word length of around 64 bits is known as a. Super computer b. Mini computer c. Micro computer d. Macro computer 6. An approach that permits the computer to work on several programs instead of one is a. On-line thesaurus b. Multiprogramming c. Over lapped processing d. Outline processor 7. A directly accessible appointment calendar is feature of a resident package

a. CPU b. Memory c. Buffer d. ALU 8. The term gigabyte refers to a. 1024 bytes b. 1024 kilobytes c. 1024 megabytes d. 1024 gigabyte 9. Which of the following processors use RISC technology? a. 486dx b. Power PC c. 486sx d. 6340 10. A/n . Device is any device that provides information, which is sent to the CPU a. Input b. Output c. CPU d. Memory 11. Current SIMMs have either or connectors (pins) a. 9 or 32 b. 30 or 70 c. 28 or 72 d. 30 or 72 12. The storage subsystem in a microcomputer consists mainly of or media with varying capacities a. Memory or video b. Magnetic or optical c. Optical or memory d. Video or magnetic 13. Which of the following is not an input device? a. OCR b. Optical scanners c. Voice recognition device d. COM (Computer Output to Microfilm) 14. The central processing unit (CPU) consists of a. Input, output and processing b. Control unit, primary storage, and secondary storage c. Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit and primary storage d. Control unit, processing, and primary storage 15. EBCDIC can code up to how many different characters? a. 256 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64 16. Which is considered a direct entry input device? a. Optical scanner b. Mouse and digitizer c. Light pen d. All of the above 17. Which is used for manufacturing chips? a. Bus b. Control unit c. Semiconductors d. A and b only 18. The computer code for the interchange of information between terminals is a. ASCII b. BCD

c. EBCDIC d. All of above 19. A byte consists of a. One bit b. Four bits c. Eight bits d. Sixteen bits 20. A hybrid computer a. Resembles digital computer b. Resembles analog computer c. Resembles both a digital and analog computer d. None of the above Answers:

1. To locate a data item for storage is d. Fetch 2. programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as b. application software 3. perforated paper used as input of output media is known as a. paper tapes 4. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is c. Execution time 5. a computer which CPU speed around 100 million instruction per second and with the word length of around 64 bits is known as a. Super computer 6. An approach that permits the computer to work on several programs instead of one is c. Over lapped processing 7. A directly accessible appointment calendar is feature of a resident package b. Memory 8. The term gigabyte refers to c. 1024 megabytes 9. Which of the following processors use RISC technology? b. Power PC 10. A/n . Device is any device that provides information, which is sent to the CPU a. Input 11. Current SIMMs have either or connectors (pins) d. 30 or 72 12. The storage subsystem in a microcomputer consists mainly of or media with varying capacities b. Magnetic or optical 13. Which of the following is not an input device? d. COM (Computer Output to Microfilm) 14. The central processing unit (CPU) consists of c. Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit and primary storage

15. EBCDIC can code up to how many different characters? a. 256 16. Which is considered a direct entry input device? d. All of the above 17. Which is used for manufacturing chips? c. Semiconductors 18. The computer code for the interchange of information between terminals is a. ASCII 19. A byte consists of c. Eight bits 20. A hybrid computer c. Resembles both a digital and analog computer Answers

1. The silicon chips used for data processing are called d. PROM chips 2. The metal disks, which are permanently housed in, sealed and contamination free containers are called c. Winchester disk 3. A computer consists of d. All of the above 4. An application program that helps the user to change any number and immediately see the result of that change is c. Spreadsheet 5. The instructions for starting the computer are house on c. Read only memory chip 6. The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of high speed storage element called b. Registers 7. a factor which would strongly influence a business person to adopt a computer is its d. All of above 8. The magnetic storage chip used to provide non-volatile direct access storage of data and that have no moving parts are known as d. Magnetic bubble memory 9. CAD stands for a. Computer aided design 10. RATS stand for a. Regression Analysis Time Series 11. In which year was chip used inside the computer for the first time? b. 1975 12. What was the name of the first commercially available microprocessor chip? c. Intel 4004 13. When were the first minicomputer built? a. 1965

14. The first digital computer built with IC chips was known as c. IBM System / 360 15. In which language is source program written? c. High level 16. Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory? d. Temporary 17. Which of the following is used for manufacturing chips? d. Semiconductor 18. Which of the following is required when more than one person uses a central computer at the same time? a. Terminal 19. Which of the following is used only for data entry and storage, and never for processing? b. Dumb terminal 20. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would want to use a/n b. Plotter SET - 14

1. Which of the following printers are you sure will not to use if your objective is to print on multi carbon forms? a. Daisy wheel b. Dot matrix c. Laser d. Thimble 2. Which of the following printing devices an output composed of a series of data? a. Wire matrix printer b. Band printer c. Wang image printer d. Both a and c 3. The personal computer industry was started by a. IBM b. Apple c. Compaq d. HCL 4. In the IBM PC-At, what do the words AT stand for a. Additional Terminals b. Advance technology c. Applied technology d. Advanced terminology 5. Magnetic tape can serve as a. Secondary storage media b. Output media c. Input media d. All of the above 6. If in a computer, 16 bits are used to specify address in a RAM, the number of addresses will be a. 216 b. 65,536 c. 64K d. Any of the above 7. The two major types of computer chips are a. External memory chip b. Primary memory chip c. Microprocessor chip d. Both b and c

8. As compared to the secondary memory, the primary memory of a computer is a. Large b. Cheap c. Fast d. Slow 9. Which of the following is a way to access secondary memory? a. Random access memory b. Action method c. Transfer method d. Density method 10. Which was the most popular first generation computer? a. IBM 1650 b. IBM 360 c. IBM 1130 d. IBM 2700 11. What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the CPU of a computer? a. To produce result b. To compare numbers c. To control flow of information d. To do maths works 12. The secondary storage devices can only store data but they cannot perform a. Arithmetic Operation b. Logic operation c. Fetch operations d. Either of the above 13. Which of the printers used in conjunction with computers uses dry ink power? a. Daisy wheel printer b. Line printer c. Laser printer d. Thermal printer 14. Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction? a. Laser printer b. Ink jet printer c. Plotter d. Dot matrix printer 15. Which of the following memories allows simultaneous read and write operations? a. ROM b. RAM c. EPROM d. None of above 16. Which of the following memories has the shortest access times? a. Cache memory b. Magnetic bubble memory c. Magnetic core memory d. RAM 17. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to a. 2 byte b. 32 byte c. 4 byte d. 8 byte 18. An error in computer data is called a. Chip b. Bug c. CPU d. Storage device 19. A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is

a. Process control b. ALU c. Register Unit d. Process description 20. Any method for controlling access to or use of memory is known a. Memory map b. Memory protection c. Memory management d. Memory instruction Answers:

1. Which of the following printers are you sure will not to use if your objective is to print on multi carbon forms? c. Laser 2. Which of the following printing devices an output composed of a series of data? d. Both a and c 3. The personal computer industry was started by a. IBM 4. In the IBM PC-At, what do the words AT stand for b. Advance technology 5. Magnetic tape can serve as d. All of the above 6. If in a computer, 16 bits are used to specify address in a RAM, the number of addresses will be b. 65,536 7. The two major types of computer chips are d. Both b and c 8. As compared to the secondary memory, the primary memory of a computer is c. Fast 9. Which of the following is a way to access secondary memory? a. Random access memory 10. Which was the most popular first generation computer? a. IBM 1650 11. What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the CPU of a computer? b. To compare numbers 12. The secondary storage devices can only store data but they cannot perform d. Either of the above 13. Which of the printers used in conjunction with computers uses dry ink power? c. Laser printer 14. Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction? c. Plotter 15. Which of the following memories allows simultaneous read and write operations? b. RAM 16. Which of the following memories has the shortest access times?

a. Cache memory 17. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to c. 4 byte 18. An error in computer data is called b. Bug 19. A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is d. Process description 20. Any method for controlling access to or use of memory is known b. Memory protection SET - 15

1. A type of core store that has a lower access time than the devices used for working store in the same processor is known as a. Core memory b. Buffer c. Fast core d. Address register 2. Which of the following is an acronym for electronic delay storage automatic calculator? a. UNIVAC b. EDSAC c. EDVAC d. Abacus 3. Which of the following is form of semi conductor memory in which it is possible to change the contents of selected memory locations by applying suitable electrical signals? a. CAM b. ROM c. EPROM d. Abacus 4. A disk storage medium in the form of an assembly containing a single rigid magnetic disk permanently is a. Fixed disk b. Disk cartridge c. Card punch d. Card reader 5. A memory that is capable of determining whether a given datum is contained in one of its address is a. ROM b. PROM c. CAM d. RAM 6. A method of implementing a memory management system is a. Buddy system b. Bridgeware c. Broadband coaxial system d. All of the above 7. A plastic card similar to a credit card but having some memory and a microprocessor embedded within it is a. Punched paper tape b. Chip card c. Card punch d. Magnetic tape 8. A device that operates under the control of another device is called a. Stem b. Slave c. Simulator d. Emulator

9. Actual data processing operations are performed in the arithmetic logic section, but not in the . Storage section of a processor unit a. Primary b. Accumulator c. Buffer d. Secondary 10. The use of spooler programs and/or . Hardware allows personal computer operators to do the processing work at the same time a printing operation is in progress a. Registered mails b. Memory c. CPU d. Buffer 11. Which most popular input device is used today for interactive processing and for the one line entry of data for batch processing? a. Mouse b. Magnetic disk c. Visual display terminal d. Card punch 12. User programmable terminals that combine VDT hardware with built-in microprocessor is a. Kips b. PC c. Mainframe d. Intelligent terminals 13. The number of characters that can be stored in given physical space is a. Word length b. Byte c. Data density d. Field 14. the storage capacity of a disk system depends on the bits per inch of track and the tracks per inch of a. Cylinder b. Hum c. Cluster d. Surface 15. The disk drive component used to position read/write heads over a specific track I known as a. Acoustic couples b. Access arm c. Cluster d. All of the above 16. condensing output data to exhibit specific information is a. calculating b. recording c. merging d. summarizing 17. which chips using special external equipment can reprogram a. ROM b. PROM c. SAM d. RAM 18. A storage device whe3re the access time is depended upon the location of the data is a. Random access b. Serial access c. Sequential access d. Transaction access 19. Which number system is commonly used as a shortcut notation for groups of four binary digits? a. Binary b. Decimal c. Octal d. Hexadecimal 20. Interface electronic circuit is used to interconnect I/O devices to a computers CPU or

a. ALU b. Memory c. Buffer d. Register

Answers:

1. A type of core store that has a lower access time than the devices used for working store in the same processor is known as d. Address register 2. Which of the following is an acronym for electronic delay storage automatic calculator? b. EDSAC 3. Which of the following is form of semi conductor memory in which it is possible to change the contents of selected memory locations by applying suitable electrical signals? c. EPROM 4. A disk storage medium in the form of an assembly containing a single rigid magnetic disk permanently is b. Disk cartridge 5. A memory that is capable of determining whether a given datum is contained in one of its address is c. CAM 6. A method of implementing a memory management system is a. Buddy system 7. A plastic card similar to a credit card but having some memory and a microprocessor embedded within it is a. Punched paper tape 8. A device that operates under the control of another device is called b. Slave 9. Actual data processing operations are performed in the arithmetic logic section, but not in the . Storage section of a processor unit a. Primary 10. The use of spooler programs and/or . Hardware allows personal computer operators to do the processing work at the same time a printing operation is in progress d. Buffer 11. Which most popular input device is used today for interactive processing and for the one line entry of data for batch processing? a. Mouse 12. User programmable terminals that combine VDT hardware with built-in microprocessor is d. Intelligent terminals 13. The number of characters that can be stored in given physical space is c. Data density 14. the storage capacity of a disk system depends on the bits per inch of track and the tracks per inch of d. Surface 15. The disk drive component used to position read/write heads over a specific track I known as b. Access arm 16. condensing output data to exhibit specific information is d. summarizing 17. which chips using special external equipment can reprogram

b. PROM 18. A storage device whe3re the access time is depended upon the location of the data is b. Serial access 19. Which number system is commonly used as a shortcut notation for groups of four binary digits? d. Hexadecimal 20. Interface electronic circuit is used to interconnect I/O devices to a computers CPU or b. Memory Question 1# - Which of the following are ways to provide login access to a router? (choose all that apply) A. HTTP B. Aux Port C. Console D. LLC E. Telnet F. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 2# - Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode? A. They both require the enable password B. User exec is a subset of the privileged exec C. The '?' only works in Privileged exec D. They are identical MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 3# - This modem standard has a speed of 28.8k and has error-correction features. A. V.42 B. V.32bis C. V.90 D. V.34 MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Questions 4# - What would be the proper command to set a DCE clock rate of 56k for a serial interface? A. Router (config) # clockrate 56000 B. Router# clockrate 56000. C. Router (config-if) #clock rate 56000 D. Router (config-if) # clockrate 56k MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 5# - What is an example of a MAC address? A. Az32:6362:2434 B. BA:281x:8288 C. 101:354:665:8734:ffd6:8023 D. A625:cbdf:6525 MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 6# - Which command does not show that two devices are failing to route packets between them successfully? A. show interface B. trace C. telnet D. ping

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 7# - You are designing a network which needs to support 200 users. You don't plan to extend the segment beyond the current number of users. Which subnet mask would best meet your needs? Select the best answer. A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.255.255.0 C. 255.0.0.0 D. 255.224.0.0 E. 255.255.255.200 MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 8# - MAC is to Ethernet what ________ is to Frame Relay. A. DLCI B. LCI C. PVC D. None of the above MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 9# - The 802.2 frame specifies a type whereas 802.3 frame specifies a length: A. True B. False MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 10# - What is used to see if a client is still connected to a NetWare server? A. Spoofing TCP/SAP B. Watchdog packet C. GNS Round Robin D. DNS Round Robin MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ ANSWERS Question 1 - Correct Answers: B,C,E Question 2 - Correct Answers: B Question 3 - Correct Answers: A Question 4 - Correct Answers: C Question 5 - Correct Answers: D Question 6 - Correct Answers: A Question 7 - Correct Answers: B Question 8 - Correct Answers: A Question 9 - Correct Answers: A Question 10 - Correct Answers: B MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 1. Which protocol working at the Transport layer provides a connectionless service between hosts? A. IP B. ARP C. TCP D. UDP Answer: D User Datagram Protocol is used at the Transport layer to provide a connectionless service. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

2. Which protocol works at the Transport layer and provides virtual circuits between hosts? A. IP B. ARP C. TCP D. UDP Answer: C Transmission Control Protocol sets up a virtual circuit before transmitting any data. This creates a reliable session and is known as a connection-oriented session. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 3. Which protocol works at the Internet layer and provides a connection service between hosts? A. IP B. ARP C. TCP D. UDP Answer: A Internet Protocol is used to address hosts and route packets through the internetwork. The question does not refer to a connection-oriented service, which is different from a plain connection service. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 4. If a host broadcasts a frame that includes a source and destination hardware address, and its purpose is to assign IP addresses to itself, which protocol at the Network layer does the host use? A. RARP B. ARPA C. ICMP D. TCP E. IPX Answer: A Reverse ARP is used to find an IP address from a known hardware address. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 5. If a router interface is congested, which protocol in the IP suite is used to tell neighbor routers? A. RARP B. ARP C. ICMP D. IP E. TCP Answer: C Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used to send redirects back to an originating router. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 6. What is the valid host range the IP address 172.16.10.22 255.255.255.240 is a part of? A. 172.16.10.20 through 172.16.10.22 B. 172.16.10.1 through 172.16.10.255 C. 172.16.10.16 through 172.16.10.23 D. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.31 E. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.30 Answer: E First start by using the 256 mask, which in this case is 256240=16. The first subnet is 16; the second subnet is 32. This host must be in the 16 subnet; the broadcast address is 31 and the valid host range is 1730. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 7. What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a Class B network address? A. 1126 B. 1127 C. 128190 D. 128191 E. 129192

F. 192220 Answer: D A Class B network is defined in the first octet with the numbers 128191. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 8. What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a Class C address? A. 1-127 B. 129-192 C. 203-234 D. 192-223 Answer: D A Class C network is defined in the first octet with the numbers 192-223. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 9. How many bytes is an Ethernet address? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7 F. 8 G. 16 Answer: D An Ethernet (MAC) address is 6 bytes long (48 bits). MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 10. What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device? A. RARP B. ARP C. IP D. ICMP E. BootP Answer: B Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 11. Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B network ID using the default subnet mask? A. 172.16.10.255 B. 172.16.255.255 C. 172.255.255.255 D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: B A Class B network address is two bytes long, which means the host bits are two bytes long. The network address must be 172.16.0.0, which is all host bits off. The broadcast address is all bits on, or 172.16.255.255. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 12. Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Answer: C A Class C network address only has 8 bits for defining hosts. 2^82=254. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 13. What is the broadcast address of the subnet address 10.254.255.19 255.255.255.248?

A. 10.254.255.23 B. 10.254.255.24 C. 10.254.255.255 D. 10.255.255.255 Answer: A First start with 256 mask or in this case, 256248=8. The first subnet is 8. The second subnet is 16, then 24. This host is in the 16 subnet, the broadcast address is 23, and the valid host range is 1722. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 14. What is the broadcast address of the subnet address 172.16.99.99 255.255.192.0? A. 172.16.99.255 B. 172.16.127.255 C. 172.16.255.255 D. 172.16.64.127 Answer: B First start with 256 mask or in this case, 256-192=64. 64 is the first subnet; 128 is the second subnet. This host is in the 64-subnet range, the broadcast address is 127, and the valid host range is 65-126. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 15. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would you use? A. 255.255.255.252 B. 255.255.255.248 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: C Take a look at the answers and see which subnet mask will give you what you need for subnetting. 252 gives you 62 subnets, 248 gives you 30 subnets, 240 gives you 14 subnets, and 255 is invalid. Only answer C (240) gives you what you need. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 16. What is the port number range that a transmitting host can use to set up a session with another host? A. 11023 B. 1024 and above C. 1256 D. 165534 Answer: B Source hosts can use any port number starting at 1024. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 17. Which of the following ranges are considered well-known port numbers? A. 11023 B. 1024 and above C. 1256 D. 165534 Answer: A The port numbers 11023 are defined as and considered well-known port numbers. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 18. What is the broadcast address of the host subnet address 10.10.10.10 255.255.254.0? A. 10.10.10.255 B. 10.10.11.255 C. 10.10.255.255 D. 10.255.255.255 Answer: B First start with 256-254=2. The first subnet is 2, the second subnet is 4, then 6, 8, 10, and 12. Remember that the fourth octet is host addresses. This host is a part of the subnet 10.0, the broadcast address is 11.255, and the valid host range is 10.1 through 11.254. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

19. What broadcast address will the host 192.168.210.5 255.255.255.252 use? A. 192.168.210.255 B. 192.168.210.254 C. 192.168.210.7 D. 192.168.210.15 Answer: C Start with the 256 mask or in this case, 256-252=4. This first subnet is 4. The second subnet is 8. This falls in the 4-subnet range. The broadcast address is 7, and the valid hosts are 5 and 6. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 20. If you need to have a Class B network address subnetted into exactly 510 subnets, what subnet mask would you assign? A. 255.255.255.252 B. 255.255.255.128 C. 255.255.0.0 D. 255.255.255.192 Answer: B If you use the mask 255.255.255.0, that only gives you eight subnet bits, or 254 subnets. You are going to have to use one subnet bit from the fourth octet, or 255.255.255.128. This is 9 subnet bits (2^92=510). MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 1. Which protocol is used to look up an IP address from a known Ethernet address? A. IP B. ARP C. RARP D. TCP Answer: C The protocol at the Network layer that finds an IP address from a known Ethernet address is Reverse ARP (RARP). See Chapter 3 for more information on IP protocols. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 2. What is the subnet address of the IP address 192.168.100.30 255.255.255.248? A. 192.168.100.32 B. 192.168.100.24 C. 192.168.100.0 D. 192.168.100.16 Answer: B Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 256-248=8. The first subnet is 8. The next subnet would be 16, then 24, and then 32. This host is in the 24 subnet, the broadcast address is 31, and the valid host range is 25 through 31. See Chapter 3 for more information on IP addressing. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 3. Which of the following is the valid host range for the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192? A. 192.168.168.129-190 B. 192.168.168.129-191 C. 192.168.168.128-190 D. 192.168.168.128-192 Answer: A Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 256-192=64. The first subnet is 64. The next subnet would be 128. This host is in the 128 subnet, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is 129 through 190. See Chapter 3 for more information on IP addressing. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 4. What is the broadcast address of the subnet address 192.168.99.20 255.255.255.252? A. 192.168.99.127 B. 192.168.99.63 C. 192.168.99.23 D. 192.168.99.31 Answer: C Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 256-25=4. The first subnet is 4. The next subnet would be 8, then 12, 16, 20, and 24. The broadcast address is 23, and the valid host range is 21 and 22. See Chapter 3 for more IP addressing information.

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 5. What is the valid host range that the host ID 192.168.10.33 255.255.255.224 is a part of? A. 192.168.10.32-63 B. 192.168.10.33-63 C. 192.168.10.33-62 D. 192.168.10.33-61 Answer: C Start by using 256, the subnet mask, which is 256-224=32. The first subnet is 10.32. The next subnet would be 10.64. This host is in the 10.32 subnet, the broadcast address is 10.63, and the valid host range is 10.33 through 10.62. See Chapter 3 for more IP addressing information. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 1. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer? A. IP B. TCP C. UDP D. ARP Answer: C User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this connectionless service. See Chapter 3 for more information. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 2. Which of the following is the valid host range for the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192? A. 192.168.168.129-190 B. 192.168.168.129-191 C. 192.168.168.128-190 D. 192.168.168.128-192 Answer: A 256-192=64. 64+64=128. 128+64=192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190. See Chapter 3 for more information. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 3. Which protocol is used to find an Ethernet address from a known IP address? A. IP B. ARP C. RARP D. BootP Answer: B If a device knows the IP address of where it wants to send a packet, but doesn't know the hardware address, it will send an ARP broadcast looking for the hardware or, in this case, Ethernet address. See Chapter 3 for more information. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 4. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default? A. A B. B C. C D. A and B Answer: A Class A addressing provides 24 bits for hosts addressing. See Chapter 3 for more information. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 5. Which protocol does Ping use? A. TCP B. ARP C. ICMP D. BootP Answer: C ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies. See Chapter 3 for more information.

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 6. Which protocol is used to send a Destination Network Unknown message back to originating hosts? A. TCP B. ARP C. ICMP D. BootP Answer: C ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router. See Chapter 3 for more information. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 1. What is the subnet broadcast address the host 192.168.10.17 with four bits of subnetting will use? A. 192.168.10.16 B. 192.168.10.19 C. 192.168.10.23 D. 192.168.10.31 Answer: D When referring to only subnet bits, add the bits to the default mask. In this case, it is a Class C address, and the default mask is 255.255.255.0. Four bits would make the mask 255.255.255.240. 256-240=16. 16+16=32. Therefore, the subnet broadcast must be 192.168.10.31. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 2. What is the subnet broadcast address the host 172.16.10.12 with nine bits of subnetting will use? A. 172.16.10.127 B. 172.16.10.255 C. 172.16.255.255 D. 172.16.10.128 Answer: A The default mask for Class B network IDs is 255.255.0.0. By adding nine subnet bits, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.128. The subnet is 172.16.10.0, and the broadcast address is 172.16.10.127. This is determined by looking at the host ID, which is 12 in this case. Since it is less than 128, the subnet must be zero in the fourth octet. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 3. What is the valid host range of the IP subnet address 172.16.10.61 255.255.255.224? A. 172.16.10.48-63 B. 172.16.10.33-62 C. 172.16.10.0-254 D. 172.16.10.60-94 Answer: B 256-224=32. 32+32=64. The subnet is 172.16.10.32, and the broadcast address is the number right before the next subnet (63 in this question). The valid hosts are the numbers in between the network ID and the broadcast address: 33-62. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 4. What protocol is used to resolve an Ethernet address to an IP address? A. IP B. ARP C. RARP D. BootP Answer: C The RARP protocol is used to find an IP address from a known hardware address. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 5. What protocol is used to resolve an IP address to an Ethernet address? A. IP B. ARP C. RARP D. BootP Answer: B The ARP protocol is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address.

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com CCNA MCQS WITH ANSWERS SET-2 Here are 10 Multiple Choice exams questions for you to practice on: ______________________________ Question 1# - Which of the following are valid parameters for an extended IPX access list (Choose all that apply)? A. source-network B. permit or deny C. source-socket D. protocol E. list-number MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 2# - Which of the following is not valid? A. router#show RAM B. router>show version C. router#show running-config D. router#show startup-config MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 3# - Which of the following is a congestion management scheme that identifies conversations, separates packets that belong to each conversation, and shares bandwidth fairly between the various streams? A. Weighted Priority queuing B. Prioritizing queuing C. FIFO fair queuing D. Weighted fair queuing MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 4# - Which of the following describes a full-duplex transmission? A. Data transmission in only one direction B. Data transmission in both directions, but only one way at a time C. Uses a single cable D. Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting station to the receiver of the receiving station MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 5# - What would be the proper command to set a bandwidth of 56K for a serial interface? A. Router# bandwidth 56000 B. Router (config-if) #bandwidth 56,000 C. Router (config) #bandwidth 56000 D. Router (config-if) #bandwidth 56 MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 6# - Which of the following is not part of the data link layer? A. Determines network topology

B. Performs flow control C. Performs physical addressing D. Terminates a session E. Transports data across the physical link MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 7# - You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address? A. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255 B. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127 C. Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255 D. Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 8# - Coaxial cable was used for which types of ethernet networks? (Select 2) A. 10Base-T B. 100Base-T4 C. 10Base2 D. 100Base-FX E. 10Base5 F. 100Base-T MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 9# - As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will accomplish this? A. interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c B. interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap C. interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c D. interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx network 6c

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ Question 10# - Using a switch we divide the network into multiple _________ domains A. collision B. broadcast C. bridged D. virtual MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com _____________________ ANSWERS Question 1 - Correct Answers: A, B,C,D,E Question 2 - Correct Answers: A Question 3 - Correct Answers: D Question 4 - Correct Answers: D Question 5 - Correct Answers: D Question 6 - Correct Answers: D Question 7 - Correct Answers: B Question 8 - Correct Answers: C,E Question 9 - Correct Answers: A Question 10 - Correct Answers: A CCNA MCQS WITH ANSWERS SET-3 Question 1: What command will show you the routed protocols running on your Cisco router? Answer: show protocols

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

Question 2: What type of cable should you use to connect to the console port of a Cisco router? Answer: Rollover cable

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Question 3: What type of ethernet cable should you use to connect a Hub and a Switch or two Switches? Answer: Crossover cable

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Question4: RIP uses bandwidth and delay to the determine the best path to a destination network (True/False) Answer: False. RIP uses only hop count

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

Question 5: Which statement about MAC addresses is correct? A. The MAC address can never be changed. B. A MAC address is represented by binary digits that are organized in pairs. C. A MAC address is a number in hexadecimal format that is physically located on the NIC. D. It is not necessary for a device to have a unique MAC address to participate in the network. Answer: C

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

Question 6: Which of the following is an IOS command that can be used to increase the security of unused switch ports? A. Port security B. Mac-secure C. Firewall D. Shutdown Answer: D

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Question 7: IP addresses are represented by: A. 16-bit decimal numbers B. 32-bit binary numbers C. 8 sets of 4-bit decimal numbers D. 8-bit binary numbers Answer: B

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

Question 8: What does the command ip route 192.168.50.0 255.255.255.0 10.2.1.3 specify? A. The router should use network 192.168.50.0 to get to address 10.2.1.3. B. Both 192.168.50.0 and 10.2.1.3 use a mask of 255.255.255.0. C. You want the router to trace a route to network 192.168.50.0 via 10.2.1.3. D. The router should use address 10.2.1.3 to get to devices on network 192.168.50.0. Answer: D

MCQS From: http://cs-mcqs.blogspot.com

Question 9: Which of the following protocols is an example of an exterior gateway protocol?

A. BGP B. RIP C. EIGRP D. OSPF Answer: A

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Question 10: What does the configuration register 0x2102 do? Answer: Instructs the router to look in NVRAM for the boot sequence. 1) Full form of "OS" is? Order of significance Operating system Open software Optical Sensor Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B 2) The ribbon is used in ? Laser Printer Plotter Ink-jet printer Dot Matrix printer Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D 3) Address book contains? Email address Phone numbers People Names All of the above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D 4) Full form of "DOCOMO" ? Do Connect over Mobile Do Communications Over the Mobile network Dongle Communication Over Mobile Do Communication Or More Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =B 5) Joystick is used to ? Move cursor on the screen Computer games Both a and b None of these Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C 6) A DNS translates a domain name into what ? Binary Hex IP URL Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C 7) When was the first e-mail sent ? 1963 1969 1971 1974 Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: It was sent by Ray Tomlinson 8) What type of memory is volatile ?

Cache RAM ROM Hard Drive Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =B 9) Which of the below is not an iPhone 4 feature ? 4G Front facing camera HD recording Multitasking Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A 10) Main memory is also known as ? Auxiliary memory Primery memory Secondry memory None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B SET-2 1) A presentation means ? Display of products Explaining the utility of products A gift Display of communication or skills Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B 2) The term CRM means ? Customer Relationship Management Customer Retention Manager Customer's Relative Meet Channel Root Market Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A 3) Why would a switch be used in a network in preference to a HUB ? To reduce the network traffic To prevent the spread of all viruses To connect a computer directly to the internet To manage password security at the work station Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A 4) What should be done to successfully convert the format of an image from BMP to JPEG ? Compress the file Rename the image Use the save as command Change the image file extension Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =C 5) A company regularly updates a user reference guide. Some staff are confused about which of the printed document is the most current. What feature should be included in the reference guide to eliminate this confusion ? Data printed Version number Authors name Copyright information Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B 6) The term associated with the processing of comparison speed is ? FFTS MPG MIPS CPS Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =C 7) The data from a spreadsheet needs to be imported into a database package. Which file format would be the most appropriate when saving the spreadsheet file ?

CSV HTML PDF RTF Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =A 8) For reproducing sound the CD audio player uses a ? Quartz Cristal Titanium Needle Laser Beam Barium Titanium Ceramic Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =C 9) Which of the following would indicate that the motherboard battery has failed ? Operating system passwords are lost Files on the hard disk are lost and corrupted Hardware settings, including virtual memory reverts to default values Hardware settings, including the current date and time reverts to default values Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D 10) Which of the following is essential component of communication cycle ? A message An interpreter An email account An internet connection Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =A SET-3 1) Which country created the most used networking software in 1980's ? Sun IBM Novell Microsoft Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =C 2) In what year was the @ chosen for its use in email address ? 1972 1976 1980 1984 Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =A 3) Which American computer company is called Big Blue ? IBM Compaq Corp Microsoft Tandy Svenson Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A 4) Who is credited with the idea of using punch cards to control patterns in a waving machine ? Pascal Hollerith Babbage Jacquard Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =D 5) What does SSL stands for ? System socket layer Secure system login Secure socket layer Secure system login Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =C 6) What is MAC ? A computer made by Apple Memory address corruption

Mediocre Apple Computer Media Access Control Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =D 7) What does PPTP stand for ? Point to Point Transmission Protocol Point to Point Transfer Protocol Point to Point Tunneling Protocol Point to Point Traffic Protocol Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C 8) The IBM PC-XT was the first to include a hard drive. What was the capacity of this disk ? 750 KB 10 KB 20 KB 1.44 KB Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =B 9) In 1983, which person was the first to offer a definition of the term 'computer virus' ? Smith Cohen Norton Mcafee Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B 10) DTP computer abbreviation usually means ? DeskTop Publishing Data Type Programming Digital Transmission Protocol None Of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B SET-4 1) Which country created the most used networking software in 1980's ? Sun IBM Novell Microsoft Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =C 2) In what year was the @ chosen for its use in email address ? 1972 1976 1980 1984 Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =A 3) Which American computer company is called Big Blue ? IBM Compaq Corp Microsoft Tandy Svenson Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A 4) Who is credited with the idea of using punch cards to control patterns in a waving machine ? Pascal Hollerith Babbage Jacquard Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =D 5) What does SSL stands for ? System socket layer Secure system login Secure socket layer

Secure system login Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =C 6) What is MAC ? A computer made by Apple Memory address corruption Mediocre Apple Computer Media Access Control Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =D 7) What does PPTP stand for ? Point to Point Transmission Protocol Point to Point Transfer Protocol Point to Point Tunneling Protocol Point to Point Traffic Protocol Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C 8) The IBM PC-XT was the first to include a hard drive. What was the capacity of this disk ? 750 KB 10 KB 20 KB 1.44 KB Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =B 9) In 1983, which person was the first to offer a definition of the term 'computer virus' ? Smith Cohen Norton Mcafee Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B 10) DTP computer abbreviation usually means ? DeskTop Publishing Data Type Programming Digital Transmission Protocol None Of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B SOFTWARE ENGINEERING SOLVED MCQS SET-1 1) What is Software ? Set of computer programs, procedures and possibly associated document concerned with the operation of data processing. A set of compiler instructions A mathematical formula None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: Computer software or just software, is a collection of computer programs and related data that provides the instructions for telling a computer what to do and how to do it. 2) Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ? Software does not wear out Software is flexible Software is not manufactured Software is always correct Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation:A Software is not correct until it meets all the user requirements. 3) Which of the following is not a product matrix ? Size Reliability Productivity Functionality Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: Software metric are used to quantitatively characterize the different aspects of software process or software product. Product metrics are the measures for the software product.

4)Which of the following is not a process metric ? Productivity Functionality Quality Efficiency Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation: Software metric are used to quantitatively characterize the different aspects of software process or software product.Process metrics qualify the attributes of software development and environment. 5) Efforts is measured in terms of ? Person - Months Persons Rupees Months Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation:Most appropriate unit of Effort is Person-Months , meaning thereby number of persons involved for specified months 6) Infrastructure software are covered under ? Generic Products Customised Products Generic and Customised Products None of the above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation:Generic products are developed for anonymous customers. The target is generally the entire world and many copies are expected to be sold. Infrastructure software like operating systems, compilers, word processors etc are covered under this category. 7) Management of software development is dependent upon ? People Product Process All of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation:The management of software development is dependent upon four factors : People, Product, Process and Project. 8) During software development which factor is most crucial ? People Process Product Project Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation:Software development requires good managers. The manager who can understand the requirements of people. Hence , people are the crucial and criticle during software development. 9) Milestones are used to ? Know the cost of the project Know the status of the project Know the user expectations None of the above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =A Explanation:Milestones are used to measure the process or status of the project 10) The term module in the design phase refers to ? Functions Procedures Sub programs All of the above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =D Explanation: All the terms have the same meaning. SET-2 1) Spiral Model was developed by? Bev Littlewood Berry Bohem Roger Pressman Victor Bisili

Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation: Spiral model was developed by Berry Bohem in 1986 in his article "A Spiral Model of Software Development and Enhancement" 2) Which model is popular for students small projects ? Waterfall Model Spiral Model Quick and Fix model Prototyping Model Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 3) Which is not a software life cycle model? Spiral Model Waterfall Model Prototyping Model Capability maturity Model Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation:Capability maturity model is not a software life cycle model 4) Project risk factor is considered in ? Spiral Model Waterfall Model Prototyping Model Iterative enhancement Model Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation:Aim of Risk analysis phase in the spiral model is to eliminate the high risk problems before they threaten the project operation or cost. 5) SDLC stands for ? Software design life cycle Software development life cycle System design life cycle System development life cycle Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation:Full form of SDLC is software development life cycle. 6) Build and Fix model has? 3 Phases 1 Phases 2 Phases 4 Phases Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation:Build and fix model has 2 phases one is " build " and other is " fix " . 7) SRS stands for ? Software requirement specification Software requirement solution System requirement specification None of Above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: SRS acts as a contract between the developer and the user. 8) Waterfall model is not suitable for ? Small Projects Complex Projects Accommodating change None of Above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation:Waterfall model does not accommodate any change that's why this model is used in those situations where requirements are well understood. 9) RAD stands for ? Rapid Application Development Relative Application Development Ready Application Development Repeated Application Development Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =A Explanation:No Explanation for this question.

10) RAD Model was purposed by ? IBM Motorola Microsoft Lucent Technologies Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer =A Explanation:RAD Model was purposed by IBM in 1980s through the book of James Martin entitles "Rapid Application Development" SET-3 1) Software engineering aims at developing ? Reliable Software Cost Effective Software Reliable and cost effective Software None Of Above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation:Software engineering is the process that aims at developing the software's that are Reliable and cost effective as well. 2) A good specification should be ? Unambiguous Distinctly Specific Functional All of Above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation:A good specification should have all the qualities such as unambiguos, distinctly specific and functional. 3) Which of the following is a tool in design phase ? Abstraction Refinement Information Hiding All of Above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D 4) Information hiding is to hide from user, details ? that are relevant to him that are not relevant to him that may be maliciously handled by him that are confidential Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation:Information hiding is just the process of making inaccessible certain details that have no effect on the other parts of the program. 5) Which of the following comments about object oriented design of software, is not true ? Objects inherit the properties of class Classes are defined based on the attributes of objects an object can belong to two classes classes are always different Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation:An object can not belong to two classes. 6) Design phase includes? data, architectural and procedural design only architectural, procedural and interface design only data, architectural and interface design only data, architectural, interface and procedural design Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation:Design phase included the design of whole software including data, architectural, interface and procedural design. 7) To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ? 13 programmers 10 programmers 8 programmers 100/13 programmers Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: Writing the whole program in FORTRAN takes 100 man-day, remaining 1% code requires 4 man-day. If it is completed in 13 days then 104/13 = 8 programmers it required.

8) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 10 5 13 8 Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation:The first case takes 99+10=109 man-day. The second case require 100+4=104 man-day. Percentage = (109-104)*100/100 = 5 9) If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 0.9 0.8 8 9 Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation:Let the first case takes 100 units of time to execute. Second case will take 99 +(1/5) units of time. As the 1% coding in assembly language will take 1/5 units of time. Hence the required percentage = 0.8*100/100 = 0.8. 10) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the 1% in assembly language is ? 0.9 0.1 1 0 Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation:In both cases the final program will have the same 99% of code in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language. Hence the execution time will remain same. SET-4 1) White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called ? Basic path Graph Testing Dataflow Glass box testing Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: White box testing also named as clear box testing, transparent testing, glass box testing and structural testing. It is a method in which the internal structure of application is tested. 2) Black box testing sometimes called ? Data Flow testing Loop Testing Behavioral Testing Graph Based Testing Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: Black box testing is a method that tests for the functionality of an application. 3) Which of the following is a type of testing ? Recovery Testing Security Testing Stress Testing All of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: Recovery testing is a method for testing how well a software can recover from crashes. Security testing ensures that the software protects the data and performs its all functions. Stress testing determines the robustness of software. 4) The objective of testing is ? Debugging To uncover errors To gain modularity To analyze system Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation: The main objecting of testing is to make the software error free. 5) ...... is a black box testing method ? Boundary value analysis

Basic path testing Code path analysis None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation:In boundary value analysis, we choose an input from test cases from an equivalence class such that the input lies on the edge of equivalence class. 6) Structured programming codes includes ? sequencing alteration iteration multiple exit from loops only A, B and C Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = E Explanation:These three constructs are sufficient to program any algorithm. Moreover, as far as possible single entry single exit control constructs are used. 7) An important aspect of coding is ? Readability Productivity To use as small memory space as possible brevity Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation:Readability and understandability as a clear objective of coding activity can itself help in producing software that is more maintainable. 8) Data structure suitable for the application is discussed in ? data design architectural design procedural design interface design Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: Data design is the first and most important design activity, where the main issue is to select the appropriate data structure. 9) In object oriented design of software , objects have ? attributes and names only operations and names only attributes, name and operations None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: The objects contains attributes, names and operations as well. 10) Function oriented metrics were first proposed by ? John Gaffney Albrecht Basili Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation:Albrecht suggests a measure called Function point, which are derives using a empirical relationship based on the countable measures of software information domain. SET-5 1) Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6 operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ? 48 120 720 insufficient data Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 2) In the system conceps, term organization ? implies structure and order refers to the manner in which each component fuctions with other components of the system refers to the holism of system means that part of the computer system depend on one another Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation

3) In the system concepts, the term integration ? implies structure and order refers to the manner in which each component functions with other components of the system means that parts of computer system depends on one another refers to the holism of systems Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 4) Project indicator enables a software project manager to ? assess the status of an ongoing project track potential risks uncover problem araes before they " go critical " All of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 5) Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is applied for each class. Class tests includes ? Fault based testing Random testing Partition teting All of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 6) ............ Developed a set of software quality factors that has been given the acronym FURPS - Functinality, Usability, Reliability, performance, Supportability ? Hewlett - Packard Rambaugh Booch Jacobson Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 7) In system design, we do following ? Hardware design after software Software design after hardware Parallel hardware and software design No hardware design needed Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation 8) The document listing all procedures and regulations that generally govern an organization is the ? Personal poling bank Organizing manual Administration policy manual Procedure log Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation: No Explanation 9) A turnkey package includes ? Software Hardware Traning All of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 10) Detailed design is expressed by ? CSPEC PSPEC MINI SPEC Code SPEC Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation SET-6 1) In functional decomposition, the data flow diagram ? is ignored

is partitioned according to the closeness of the datagram and storage items is partitioned according to the logical closeness of the actigram Both A and C None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: N/A 2) Which of the following is done in order a data in phase 1 of the system development life cycle ? Reviewing policies and procedures Using questionnaires to contact surveys Conducting Interviews All of above None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: N/A 3) A graphic representation of an information system is called ? Flow chart Pictogram Data flow diagram Histogram None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation:N/A 4) To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system analyst should ? Provide for a check digit Provide for a hash totals Provide batch totals All of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: N/A 5) In the system concepts, the term integration ? implies structure and order refers to the manner in which each component functions with other component of the system means that part of the computer system depend on one another refers to the holism of system None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = D Explanation: system integration is the bringing together of the component subsystems into one system and ensuring that the subsystems function together as a system. In information technology, systems integration is the process of linking together different computing systems and software applications physically or functionally, to act as a coordinated whole 6) RAD is a linear sequential software development process model. RAD is an acronym for ? Rapid Application Development Rapid Action Development Rough Application Development Rough Action Development Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = A Explanation: Rapid application development (RAD) is a software development methodology that uses minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping. The "planning" of software developed using RAD is interleaved with writing the software itself 7) In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ? Technical Management Both A and B None of these Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: N/A 8) The model remains operative until the software is retired ?

Waterfall Incremental Spiral None of these Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: The spiral model is based on continuous refinement of key products for requirements definition and analysis, system and software design, and implementation (the code). At each iteration around the cycle, the products are extensions of an earlier product. This model uses many of the same phases as the waterfall model, in essentially the same order, separated by planning, risk assessment, and the building of prototypes and simulations 9) A quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process posses a given attribute ? Measure Measurement Metric None of these Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = C Explanation: N/A 10) RAD is not appropriate when ? Fast finding already done Technical risks are high Testing is not needed None of above Collection From: www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answer = B Explanation: RAD model may not be useful for large, unique or highly complex projects.This method cannot be a success if the team is not sufficiently motivated and nor is unable to work cohesively togethe MICROSOFT WORD PRACTICE QUIZ SET 01 1. Which of the following is not valid version of MS Office? A) Office XP B) Office Vista C) Office 2007 D) None of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 2. You cannot close MS Word application by A) Choosing File menu then Exit submenu B) Press Alt+F4 C) Click X button on title bar D) From File menu choose Close submenu Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 3. The key F12 opens a A) Save As dialog box B) Open dialog box C) Save dialog box D) Close dialog box Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 4. What is the short cut key to open the Open dialog box? A) F12 B) Shift F12 C) Alt + F12 D) Ctrl + F12 Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 5. A feature of MS Word that saves the document automatically after certain interval is available on A) Save tab on Options dialog box B) Save As dialog box C) Both of above D) None of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 6. Where can you find the horizontal split bar on MS Word screen?

A) On the left of horizontal scroll bar B) On the right of horizontal scroll bar C) On the top of vertical scroll bar D) On the bottom of vertical scroll bar Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 7. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen? A) Tab stop box B) Left Indent C) Right Indent D) Center Indent E) All of them are available on ruler Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 8. What is place to the left of horizontal scroll bar? A) Tab stop buttons B) View buttons C) Split buttons D) Indicators E) None of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 9. Which file starts MS Word? A) Winword.exe B) Word.exe C) Msword.exe D) Word2003.exe Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 10. How many ways you can save a document? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 11. If you want to keep track of different editions of a document which features will you use? A) Editions B) Versions C) Track Change D) All of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 12. Background color or effects applied on a document is not visible in A) Web layout view B) Print Layout view C) Reading View D) Print Preview Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 13. What is a portion of a document in which you set certain page formatting options? A) Page B) Document C) Section D) Page Setup Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 14. Borders can be applied to A) Cells B) Paragraph C) Text D) All of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 15. Which of the following is not a type of page margin? A) Left B) Right C) Center

D) Top Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 16. What is the default left margin in Word 2003 document? A) 1" B) 1.25" C) 1.5" D) 2" Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 17. What is gutter margin? A) Margin that is added to the left margin when printing B) Margin that is added to right margin when printing C) Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing D) Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 18. Portrait and Landscape are A) Page Orientation B) Paper Size C) Page Layout D) All of above Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 19. If you need to change the typeface of a document, which menu will you choose? A) Edit B) View C) Format D) Tools Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com 20. Which of the following is not a font style? A) Bold B) Italics C) Regular D) Superscript Collection on http://www.cs-mcqs.blogspot.com Answers 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-A, 11-B, 12-D, 13-C, 14-D, 15-C, 16-B, 17-C, 18-A, 19-C, 20-D, MICROSOFT WORD PRACTICE QUIZ SET 02 1. Pressing F8 key for three times selects A) A word B) A sentence C) A paragraph D) Entire document 2. What happens if you press Ctrl + Shift + F8? A) It activates extended selection B) It activates the rectangular selection C) It selects the paragraph on which the insertion line is. D) None of above 3. How can you disable extended selection mode? A) Press F8 again to disable B) Press Del to disable C) Press Esc to disable D) Press Enter to disable 4. What does EXT indicator on status bar of MS Word indicate? A) It indicates whether the external text is pasted on document or not B) It indicates whether extended add-ons are installed on MS Word or not C) It indicates whether Extended Selection mode is turned on or off D) None of above 5. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for a drop cap? A) 3 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 6. What is the default number of lines to drop for drop cap?

A) 3 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 7. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol? A) Alt+Ctrl+C B) Alt + C C) Ctrl + C D) Ctrl + Shift + C 8. How many columns can you insert in a word document in maximum? A) 35 B) 45 C) 55 D) 65 9. What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting toolbar? A) 8 and 72 B) 8 and 64 C) 12 and 72 D) None of above 10. What is the maximum font size you can apply for any character? A) 163 B) 1638 C) 16038 D) None of above 11. Which of the following is graphics solution for Word Processors? A) Clipart B) WordArt C) Drop Cap D) All of above 12. The keystrokes Ctrl + I is used to A) Increase font size B) Inserts a line break C) Indicate the text should be bold D) Applies italic format to selected text 13. A character that is raised and smaller above the baseline is known as A) Outlined B) Raised C) Superscript D) Subscript 14. What is the purpose of inserting header and footer in document? A) To enhance the overall appearance of the document B) To mark the starting and ending of page C) To make large document more readable D) To allow page headers and footers appear on document when printed 15. Which of the following function key activates the speller? A) F5 B) F7 C) F9 D) Shift + F7 16. The minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is A) 1 and 1 B) 2 and 1 C) 2 and 2 D) None of above 17. Thesaurus tool in MS Word is used for A) Spelling suggestions B) Grammar options C) Synonyms and Antonyms words D) All of above 18. Why Drop Caps are used in document? A) To drop all the capital letters B) To automatically begin each paragraph with capital letter C) To begin a paragraph with a large dropped initial capital letter D) None of above 19. A bookmark is an item or location in document that you identify as a name for future reference. Which of the following task is accomplished by using bookmarks? A) To add anchors in web page B) To mark the ending of a paragraph of document C) To quickly jump to specific location in document

D) To add hyperlinks in webpage 20. A word processor would most likely be used to do A) Keep an account of money spent B) Do a computer search in media center C) Maintain an inventory D) Type a biography Answers 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-C, 5-B, 6-A, 7-A, 8-B, 9-A, 10-B, 11-A, 12-D, 13-C, 14-D, 15-B, 16-A, 17-C, 18-C, 19-C, 20-D, MICROSOFT WORD PRACTICE QUIZ SET 03 1. What happens when you click on Insert >> Picture >> Clip Art A) It inserts a clipart picture into document B) It lets you choose clipart to insert into document C) It opens Clip Art taskbar D) None of above 2. Which option is not available in Insert Table Autofit behavior? A) Fixed Column Width B) AutoFit to Contents C) Autofit to Window D) Autofit to Column 3. To autofit the width of column A) Double click the right border of column B) Double click the left border of column C) Double click the column header D) All of above 4. From which menu you can insert Header and Footer? A) Insert Menu B) View Menu C) Format menu D) Tools Menu 5. After typing header text, how can you quickly enter footer text? A) Press PageDown key and type the text for footer B) Click on Switch between Heder & Footer then type the text C) Both of above D) None of above 6. When inserting Page number in footer it appeared 1 but you wish to show a. How can you do that? A) From format menu choose bullets and Numbering and configure necessary setting B) From Insert menu choose Page Number and specify necessary setting C) Click on Page Number Format tool and specify required setting D) All of above 7. Which of the following statement is false? A) You can set different header footer for even and odd pages B) You can set different page number formats for different sections C) You can set different header footer for first page of a section D) You can set different header and footer for last page of a section 8. Where can you change the vertical alignment? A) Formatting toolbar B) Paragraph dialog box C) Page Setup dialog box D) Standard toolbar 9. To get to the Symbol dialog box, click on the ______ menu and choose Symbol. A) Insert B) Format C) Tools D) Table 10. Which of the following symbol sets would be most likely to contain a mathematical symbol such as a degree sign, greater than or equal to, or a Greek letter? A) Wingdings B) Wingdings 3 C) Webdings D) Symbol 11. When assigning a shortcut key to a symbol, you should always try to select a key or key combination that is: A) unassigned B) Located on the ten-key pad section of your keyboard. C) Assigned to another task. D) From the same font family as the symbol. 12. Suppose you wanted to create an AutoCorrect entry that would type the words We regret to inform you that your submission has been declined Of the following choices, which would be the best name you could assign to this entry?

A) Regret B) Subdual C) We regret to inform you that your submission has been declined D) 11 13. If you want to convert a symbol or several lines of text into an AutoCorrect entry, you should: A) Insert the symbol or type the text in a Word document first. Then, select the text or symbol and go to the AutoCorrect dialog box. B) Click the Tools menu and choose AutoCorrect Options. Then, click the Insert menu and choose Symbol (or click the Format menu and choose Paragraph) to add the symbol or paragraph to AutoCorrect. C) AutoCorrect can only accommodate one line of text. It is not possible to convert a symbol or multiple lines of text into an AutoCorrect entry. D) Insert the symbol or type the text in a Word document first. Then, select the text or symbol and click the Edit menu followed by Paste Special. Select New AutoCorrect Entry and then click OK. 14. AutoCorrect was originally designed to replace _________ words as you type. A) Short, repetitive B) Grammatically incorrect C) Misspelled D) None of the above 15. Which of the following is the second step in creating a macro? A) Start recording B) Using your mouse or keyboard, perform the task you want to automate C) Assign a keyboard shortcut to the macro D) Give the macro a name 16. If you will be displaying or printing your document on another computer, youll want to make sure and select the _____________ option under the Save tab. A) Embed Fonts B) Embed True Type Fonts C) Save True Type Fonts D) Save Fonts 17. In Word, the mailing list is known as the ____________. A) Data sheet B) Source C) Data source D) Sheet 18. Which of the following is not one of the three Mail Merge Helper steps? A) Merge the two files B) Create the main document C) Set the mailing list parameters D) Create the data source 19. Which of the following button will allow you to add, delete, or change records in your Data Source? A) Data Source button B) Edit button C) Edit Data Source button D) Data editing button 20. It is possible to _______ a data source before performing a merge. A) Create B) Modify C) Sort D) all of the above Answers 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-B, 6-C, 7-D, 8-C, 9-A, 10-D, 11-A, 12-B, 13-A, 14-C, 15-C, 16-B, 17-C, 18-C, 19-C, 20-D, MICROSOFT WORD PRACTICE QUIZ SET 04 1. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template? A) 10 pt B) 12 pt C) 14 pt D) None of above 2. What is the default font used in MS Word document? A) Times New Roman B) Arial C) Algerian D) Preeti 3. Which tab in Font dialog box contains options to apply font effects? A) Font tab B) Character Spacing C) Text Effects D) Standard Toolbar

4. If you need to double underline a word, how will you do that? A) Go to Format menu and then Font option. Open Underline Style and choose Double Underline B) From Format menu choose Font option and then from Font tab open Underline Style and select Double Underline C) Select the text then choose Format >> Font and on Font tab open Underline Style and choose Double Underline D) Click double underline tool on formatting toolbar 5. DropCap means A) All Caps B) Small Caps C) Title case D) None of above 6. What is the short cut key to open Font dialog box? A) Ctrl + F B) Alt + Ctrl + F C) Ctrl + D D) Ctrl + Shift + D 7. How can you access the font size tool on formatting toolbar? A) Ctrl + S B) Ctrl + Shift + S C) Ctrl + P D) Ctrl + Shift + P 8. How can you make the selected character superscripted? A) Ctrl + = B) Ctrl + Shift + = C) Alt + Ctrl + Shift + = D) None of above 9. What does Ctrl + = key effect? A) Superscript B) Subscript C) All Caps D) Shadow 10. What happens if you mark on Hidden check box of Font dialog box after you select some text? A) The text is deleted from document and you need to bring from Recycle Bin if required again. B) The text is hidden and you need to bring it by removing the check box if needed again C) The text is deleted and cannot be returned back D) The text is hidden and cannot be returned back 11. How can you increase the font size of selected text by one point every time? A) By pressing Ctrl + ] B) By pressing Ctrl + [ C) By pressing Ctrl + } D) By pressing Ctrl + { 12. Which of the following line spacing is invalid? A) Single B) Double C) Triple D) Multiple 13. How can you apply exactly the same formatting you did to another text? A) Copy the text and paste in new location. Then type the new text again. B) Copy the text and click on Paste Special tool on new place C) Select the text then click on Format Painter and select the new text D) All of above 14. What should you do if you require pasting the same format in many places? A) Click the Format painter and go on pasting in many places holding Alt Key B) Double click the format painter then go on pasting in many places C) Click the format painter then go on pasting to many places holding Ctrl Key D) All of above 15. On which toolbar can you find Format Painter tool? A) Standard toolbar B) Formatting toolbar C) Drawing Toolbar D) Picture Toolbar 16. Which indent marker controls all the lines except first line? A) First Line Indent Marker B) Left Indent Marker C) Hanging Indent Marker D) Right Indent Marker 17. How can you remove tab stop markers from ruler? A) Double click the tab marker and choose Clear All B) Drag the tab stop marker out of the ruler C) Right click the tab stop marker and choose remove

D) All of above 18. Which operation you will perform if you need to move a block of text? A) Copy and Paste B) Cut and Paste C) Paste and Delete D) Paste and Cut 19. What is the extension of Word files? A) FIL B) DOT C) DOC D) TXT 20. Which of the following option is not available in Insert >> Picture? A) Chart B) Word Art C) Clip Art D) Graph Answers 1-B, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-B, 10-B, 11-A, 12-C, 13-C, 14-B, 15-A, 16-B, 17-B, 18-B, 19-C, 20-D, MICROSOFT WORD PRACTICE QUIZ SET 05 1. To insert a drop cap in one of the paragraph you should access A) Insert Menu B) Format C) Tools D) None of above 2. How many different positions can you set for drop cap? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 3. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for lines to drop box? A) 3 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15 4. Which of the following can NOT be used to create parallel style column? A) Format Tabs B) Table Insert Table C) Insert Textbox D) Format Columns 5. Which of the following is used to create newspaper style columns? A) Format Tabs B) Table Insert Table C) Insert Textbox D) Format Columns 6. Columns dialog box can be opened from A) Format menu Columns submenu B) Double click on column space in ruler C) Press Alt + O + C D) All of above 7. You can jump to the next column by A) Clicking with your mouse on the next column B) Press Alt + Down-arrow C) Both of above D) None of Above 8. How can you break the current column and start a new column immediately? A) Press Ctrl + Shift + Enter B) Press Alt + Enter C) Press Ctrl + Enter D) Press Alt + Shift + Enter 9. What is the smallest width of a column? A) 0" B) 0.5" C) 1" D) 1.5" 10. If the number of columns is selected 1 and the line between check box is marked, where is the line drawn? A) in the left margin B) in the right margin

C) both in left and right margin D) None of Above 11. The other Col# are inactive when youve select 3 columns. How will you activate those boxes? A) double click on spacing box B) double click on inactive Col# C) Remove mark from Line between checkbox D) Remove mark from Equal Column Width check box 12. How much space in minimum must be provided between columns? A) 0" B) 0.5" C) 1" D) 1.5" 13. To open Columns dialog box quickly A) double click on the left margin area of ruler B) double click the space between area on ruler C) double click the right margin in ruler D) All of above 14. Which of the following command is not available in Tools menu? A) Auto text B) Autocorrect C) Auto summarize D) Macro 15. To move the cursor page to page of document A) Ctrl+PgDn B) Ctrl+PgUp C) Both of above D) None of above 16. Text boundary can be displayed or hidden from A) Auto text option from Insert menu B) Options from Tools menu C) Customize from Tools menu D) All of above 17. Which of the following are word processing software? A) WordPerfect B) Easy Word C) MS Word D) All of above 18. MS Office provides help in many ways, which of these is one of them? A) What is this? B) Office Assistant C) Help menu D) All of the above 19. You wished to justify text over the height of paper, which option will you choose A) Page Setup from File menu B) Paragraph from Format menu C) From formatting toolbar D) Font from Format menu 20. Which of the following is not of the merge process? A) Sort the data source records B) Format a main document C) Edit a data source D) Merge the two files to print or create a new document Answers 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-D, 6-D, 7-C, 8-A, 9-B, 10-D, 11-D, 12-A, 13-B, 14-A, 15-C, 16-B, 17-D, 18-D, 19-A, 20-A, MICROSOFT WORD PRACTICE QUIZ SET 06 1. There can be many ways to insert page number in a document. Which of the following lets you insert page number A) Page number from Insert menu B) Page Setup from file menu C) Footnote from Insert menu D) Both a & c 2. Which is not a data source component? A) mail merge toolbar B) header row C) data fields D) data records 3. Which of the following is not the part of standard office suite? A) Word Processor

B) Database C) Image Editor D) File manager 4. Where can you find the Draw Table tool button? A) Standard toolbar B) Formatting toolbar C) Drawing toolbar D) Tables and Formatting toolbar 5. Which of the following option in File pull down menu is used to close a MS Word document? A) Quit B) Close C) Exit D) New 6. You need to jump to the next column breaking current column right at the cursor position. How can you break column? A) Pressing Ctrl+Enter B) Pressing Alt+Shift+Enter C) Break command from Insert menu D) Both b and c 7. Superscript, subscript, outline, emboss, engrave are known as A) font styles B) font effects C) word art D) text effects 8. Shimmer, Sparkle text, Blinking Background etc. are known as A) font styles B) font effects C) word art D) text effects 9. The feature of Word that automatically adjusts the amount of space between certain combination of characters so that an entire word looks more evenly spaced. What is that feature called? A) Spacing B) Scaling C) Kerning D) Positioning 10. Which of the following is not available in Font Spacing? A) Normal B) Loosely C) Condensed D) Expanded 11. Which of the following position is not available for fonts on MS Word? A) Normal B) Raised C) Lowered D) Centered 12. What is the maximum scale percentage available in Scale drop down box? A) 500 B) 200 C) 100 D) 90 13. Bold, Italic, Regular are known as A) font styles B) font effects C) word art D) text effects 14. Uppercase on Change Case dialog box and All Caps on Fonts dialog box both converts selected text into Capital Letters. Whats the difference between the two? A) Both are same. They are only two different ways of capitalize text. B) It is faster to convert from Change Case than from Font dialog box C) Change Case makes conversion permanent but All Caps on Font can always be reverted D) All Caps on Font dialog box makes the change permanent where Change Case can be always reverted 15. If you need to hide some paragraphs, how can you do it? A) From Paragraph dialog box B) From Font dialog box C) From Options Dialog box D) None of above 16. Which of the following is the latest version of MS Word? A) Word 2000 B) Word 2007 C) Word 2010

D) Word 2011 17. Changing the appearance of a document is called A) Proofing B) Editing C) Formatting D) All of above 18. In a document what is the maximum number of columns that can be inserted in MS Word Table? A) 35 B) 15 C) 63 D) 65 19. You can detect spelling and grammar errors by A) Press Shift + F7 B) Press Ctrl + F7 C) Press Alt+ F7 D) Press F7 20. A screen element of MS Word that is usually located below the title bar that provides categorized options is A) Menu mar B) Tool Bar C) Status Bar D) All of the above Answers 1-A, 2-A, 3-D, 4-D, 5-B, 6-C, 7-B, 8-D, 9-C, 10-B, 11-D, 12-B, 13-A, 14-C, 15-B, 16-C, 17-C, 18-C, 19-D, 20-A,